NCERT Sample Paper Questions MCQ Based Class 10th Science

EduGrown Classes Sample Paper

Class 10th Science

Time: 2 Hr.     MM: 75

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Q1. When Ag is exposed to air it gets a black coating of
(a) AgNO₃       (b) Ag₂S          (c) Ag₂O            (d) Ag₂CO₃

Answer: b

Q2.What type of chemical reactions take place when electricity is passed through water?
(a) Displacement       (b) Combination      (c) Decomposition       (d) Double displacement

Answer: c
Explaination:

Q3. Pb + CuCl₂ → PbCl₂ + Cu
The above reaction is an example of:
(a) combination      (b) double displacement      (c) decomposition      (d) displacement

Answer: d

Q4. A dilute ferrous sulphate solution was gradually added to the beaker containing acidified permanganate solution. The light purple colour of the solution fades and finally disappears. Which of the following is the correct explanation for the observation?
(a) KMnO₄ is an oxidising agent, it oxidises FeSO₄.
(b) FeSO₄ acts as an oxidising agent and oxidises KMNO₄.
(c) The colour disappears due to dilution; no reaction is involved.
(d) KMnO₄ is an unstable compound and de-composes in presence of FeSO₄. to a colourless compound.

Answer: a

Q5.  Which one of the following salts does not con-tain water of crystallisation?
(a) Blue vitriol     (b) Baking soda       (c) Washing soda        (d) Gypsum

Answer: b

Q6. Na₂CO₃ . 10H₂O is
(a) washing soda        (b) baking soda        (c) bleaching powder        (d) tartaric acid

Answer: a

Q7. When copper oxide and dilute hydrochloric acid react, colour changes to
(a) white     (b) bluish-green    (c) blue-black       (d) black

Answer: b
Explaination: Reason: Blue-green colour of solution is due to the formation of copper (II) chloride.

Q8. Which of the following statements is correct about an aqueous solution of an acid and of a base?
(i) Higher the pH, stronger the acid                (ii) Higher the pH, weaker the acid
(iii) Lower the pH, stronger the base             (iv) Lower the pH, weaker the base

(a) (i) and (iii)     (b) (ii) and (iii)      (c) (i) and (iv)      (d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer: d
Explaination: Reason: Stronger the acid, lesser is the pH. Stronger the base, higher is the pH.

Q9. Which of the following is the correct arrange-ment of the given metals in ascending order of their reactivity?
Zinc, Iron, Magnesium, Sodium
(a) Zinc > Iron > Magnesium > Sodium         (b) Sodium > Magnesium > Iron > Zinc
(c) Sodium > Zinc > Magnesium > Iron         (d) Sodium > Magnesium > Zinc > Iron

Answer: d

Q10. Which of the following pairs will give dis-placement reactions?
(a) FeSO₄ solution and Copper metal              (b) AgNO₃ solution and Copper metal
(c) CuSO₄ solution and Silver metal                 (d) NaCl solution and Copper metal

Answer: b

Q11. Which of the following oxide(s) of iron would be obtained on prolonged reaction of iron with steam?
(a) FeO       (b) Fe₂O₃         (c) Fe₃O₄         (d) Fe₂O₃ and Fe₂O₄

Answer: c
Explaination: Reason: 3Fe (s) + 4H₂O (g) → Fe₃O₄ (s) + 4H₂ (g)

Q12. Example of an amphoteric oxide is:
(a) Na₂O         (b) K₂O             (C) Al₂O₃            (d) MgO

Answer: c

Q13. Which one among the following is an acidic oxide?
(a) Na₂O     (b) CO     (c) CO₂        (d) Al₂O₃

Answer: c

Q14. The process in which a carbonate ore is heated strongly in the absence of air to convert it into metal oxide is called
(a) Roasting          (b) Reduction              (c) Calcination             (d) Smelting

Answer: c

Q15. In thermite welding a mixture of …… and …… is ignited with a burning magnesium ribbon which produces molten iron metal as large amount of heat is evolved.
(a) iron (III) oxide and aluminium powder            (b) iron (II) oxide and aluminium powder
(c) iron (III) chloride and aluminium powder       (d) iron (III) sulphate and aluminium powder

Answer: a

Q16. Amalgam is an alloy of
(a) Copper and Tin         (b) Mercury                (c) Lead and Tin                 (d) Copper and Zinc

Answer: b

Q17.  C₃H₈ belongs to the homologous series of
(a) Alkynes            (b) Alkenes             (c) Alkanes             (d) Cyclo alkanes

Answer: c

Q18.

(a) 2-ethyl-2-methyl propane                                          (b) 2, 2-demethyl butane   

(c) 1,1,1-trimethyl propane                                              (d) 2, 2-methyl butane

Answer: b

Q19. Name the functional group present in CH₃COCH₃.
(a) Alcohol               (b) Carboxylic acid              (c) Ketone                (d) Aldehyde

Answer: c

Q20. Addition reactions are undergone by
(a) saturated hydrocarbons (alkanes)        (b) only alkenes
(c) only alkynes                                              (d) both alkenes and alkynes

Answer: d

Q21. Which of the following will give a pleasant smell of ester when heated with ethanol and a small quantity of sulphuric acid?
(a) CH₃COOH              (b) CH₃CH₂OH                (c) CH₃OH           (d) CH₃CHO

Answer: a

Q22. In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms to form
(a) a hexagonal array                                              (b) a rigid three-dimensional structure
(c) a structure in the shape of a football             (d) a structure of a ring

Answer: b

Q23. A 10 mm long awl pin is placed vertically in front of a concave mirror. A 5 mm long image of the awl pin is formed at 30 cm in front of the mirror. The focal length of this mirror is
(a) -30 cm         (b) -20 cm        (c) -40cm             (d) -60 cm

Answer: (b) -20 cm

Q24. Beams of light are incident through the holes A and B and emerge out of box through the holes C and D respectively as shown in the figure. Which of the following could be inside the box?

(a) A rectangular glass slab            (b) A convex lens      (c) A concave lens      (d) A prism

Answer: (a) A rectangular glass slab

Q25. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) A convex lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
(b) A convex lens has -4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
(c) A concave lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
(d) A concave lens has -4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m.

Answer: (a) A convex lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m

Q26. In torches, search lights and headlights of vehicles the bulb is placed
(a) between the pole and the focus of the reflector
(b) very near to the focus of the reflector
(c) between the focus and centre of curvature of the reflector
(d) at the centre of curvature of the reflector

Answer: (b) very near to the focus of the reflector

Q27. What type of image is formed by the eye lens on the retina?
(a) Real and erect
(b) Virtual and inverted
(c) Real and inverted
(d) Virtual and erect

Answer

(c) Real and inverted

Q28. Twinkling of stars is due to
(a) reflection of light by clouds
(b) scattering of light by dust particles
(c) dispersion of light by water drops
(d) atmospheric refraction of starlight

Answer

(d) atmospheric refraction of starlight

Q29. The clear sky appears blue because
(a) blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere.
(b) ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere.
(c) violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other colours by the atmosphere.
(d) light of all other colours is scattered more than the violet and blue colour lights by the atmosphere.

Answer

(c) violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other colours by the atmosphere.

Q30. Two devices are connected between two points say A and B in parallel. The physical quantity that will remain the same between the two points is
(a) current      (b) voltage        (c) resistance         (d) None of these

Answer

(b) voltage

Q31. 100 J of heat is produced each second in a 4Ω resistor. The potential difference across the resistor will be:
(a) 30 V            (b) 10 V             (c) 20 V              (d) 25 V

Solution

Given,

 R=4Ω,Heat=100j

 We know that,

 Heat=Rv2t​⇒100=4V2×1​⇒V2=400⇒V=20v

Q32. An electric bulb is connected to a 220V generator. The current is 0.50 A. What is the power of the bulb?
(a) 440 W           (b) 110 W              (c) 55 W                (d) 0.0023 W

Answer

(b) 110 W

Q33. The electrical resistance of insulators is
(a) high          (b) low              (c) zero             (d) infinitely high

Answer

(d) infinitely high

Q34. When electric current is passed, electrons move from:
(a) high potential to low potential.       (b) low potential to high potential.
(c) in the direction of the current.         (d) against the direction of the current.

Answer

(b) low potential to high potential.

Q35. A coil in the heater consume power P on passing current. If it is cut into halves and joined in parallel, it will consume power
(a) P         (b) P/2           (c) 2P          (d) 4P

Q36. The nature of the graph between potential difference and the electric current flowing through a conductor is
(a)parabolic             (b) circle         (c) straight line           (d) hyperbolic

Answer

(c) straight line

Q37. We can induce the current in a coil by
(a) moving the coil in a magnetic field
(b) by changing the magnetic field around it
(c) by changing the orientation of the coil in the magnetic field
(d) All of above

Answer

(a) moving the coil in a magnetic field

Q38. A current through a horizontal power line flows from south to North direction. The direction of magnetic field line 0.5m above it is
(a) North        (b) South            (c) West            (d) East

Answer

(a) North

Q39. A soft iron bar is introduced inside the current carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid
(a) will decrease             (b) will remains same          (c) will increase
(d) will become zero

Answer

(c) will increase

Q40. Which of the following factors affect the strength of force experience by a current carrying conduct in a uniform magnetic field?
(a) magnetic field strength   (b) magnitude of current in a conductor
(c) length of the conductor within magnetic field   (d) All of above

Answer

(d) All of above

Q41. In which mode of nutrition an organism de-rives its food from the body of another living organism without killing it?
(a) Saprotrophic nutrition
(b) Parasitic nutrition
(c) Holozoic nutrition
(d) Autotrophic nutrition

Answer

Answer: b

Q42.Which of the following events in the mouth cavity will be affected if salivary amylase is lacking in the saliva?
(a) Starch breaking down into sugars.
(b) Proteins breaking down into amino acids.
(c) Absorption of vitamins.
(d) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol.

Answer

Answer: a

Q43.Which region of the alimentary canal absorbs the digested food?
(a) Stomach
(b) Small intestine
(c) Large intestine
(d) Liver

Answer

Answer: b

Q44.The contraction and expansion movement of the walls of the food pipe is called:
(a) translocation
(b) transpiration
(c) peristaltic movement
(d) digestion

Answer

Answer: c

Q45.What are the products obtained by anaerobic respiration in plants?
(a) Lactic acid + Energy
(b) Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy
(c) Ethanol + Carbon dioxide + Energy
(d) Pyruvate

Answer

Answer: c

Q46.The movement of food in phloem is called:
(a) transpiration
(b) translocation
(c) respiration
(d) evaporation

Answer

Answer: b

Q47. Which part of nephron allows the selective reabsorption of useful substances like glucose, amino acids, salts and water into the blood capillaries?
(a) Tubule
(b) Glomerulus
(c) Bowman’s capsule
(d) Ureter

Answer

Answer: a

Q48.Which plant hormone promotes cell division?
(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Abscisic acid

Answer

Answer: c

Q49.Any change in the environment to which an organism responds is called
(a) stimulus
(b) coordination
(c) response
(d) hormone

Answer

Answer: a

Q50.The longest fibre on the cell body of a neuron is called
(a) sheath
(b) cytoplasm
(c) axon
(d) dendrites

Answer

Answer: c

Q51.A microscopic gap between a pair of adjacent neurons over which nerve impulses pass is called
(a) neurotransmitter
(b) dendrites
(c) axon
(d) synapse

Answer

Answer: d

Q52.

Give the missing term.
(a) Spinal cord
(b) Brain
(c) Cranial nerves
(d) Relay nerves

Answer

Answer: a

Q53.Main function of cerebrum is
(a) thinking
(b) hearing
(c) memory
(d) balancing

Answer

Answer: a

Q54. Posture and balance of the body is controlled by
(a) Pons
(b) Medulla oblongata
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Cerebrum

Answer

Answer: c

Q55.Which of the following acts as both endocrine and exocrine gland?
(a) Pancreas
(b) Thyroid
(c) Adrenal
(d) Liver

Answer

Answer: a

Q56.The secretion of which hormone leads to physical changes in the body when you are 10-12 years of age?
(a) Oestrogen from testes and testosterone from ovar.
(b) Estrogen from adrenal gland and testosterone from pituitary gland.
(c) Testosterone from testes and estrogen from ovary.
(d) Testosterone from thyroid gland and estrogen from pituitary gland.

Answer

Answer: c

Q57.A diabetic patient suffers from deficiency of which hormone?
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Testosterone
(c) Oestrogen
(d) Insulin

Answer

Answer: d

Q58.A feature of reproduction that is common to Amoeba, Yeast and Spirogyra is that
(a) they reproduce asexually
(b) they are all unicellular
(c) they reproduce only sexually
(d) they are all multicellular

Answer

Answer: a

Q59.Vegetative propagation refers to formation of new plants from
(a) stem, flowers and fruits
(b) stem, leaves and flowers
(c) stem, roots and flowers
(d) stem, roots and leaves

Answer

Answer: d

Q60.The seed that contains the future plant is called the
(a) cotyledons
(b) seed coat
(c) germ cells
(d) embryo

Answer

Answer: d

Q61.The process of release of eggs from the ovary is called
(a) menstruation
(b) reproduction
(c) insemination
(d) ovulation

Answer

Answer: d

Q62.Along the path of the vas-deferens the secretions of which gland provide nutrition to the sperms?
(a) Prostate glands
(b) Seminal vesicles
(c) Scrotum
(d) Urinary bladder

Answer

Answer: b

Q63.Which among the following diseases is not sexually transmitted?
(a) Syphyllis
(b) Hepatitis
(c) HIV-AIDS
(d) Gonorrhea

Answer

Answer: b

Q64.If a round, green seeded pea plant (RR yy) is crossed with wrinkled, yellow seeded pea plant (rr YY), the seeds produced in F1 generation are
(a) round and yellow
(b) round and green
(c) wrinkled and green
(d) wrinkled and yellow

Answer

Answer: (a) round and yellow

Q65.In human males all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one. This/these unpaired chromosome is/are
(i) large chromosome
(ii) small chromosome
(iii) Y-chromosome
(iv) X-chromosome
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) only
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (c) (iii) and (iv)

Q66.A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a
(a) boy
(b) girl
(c) X- chromosome does not determine the sex of a child
(d) either boy or girl

Answer

Answer: (b) girl

Q67.New species may be formed if
(i) DNA undergoes significant changes in germ cells
(ii) chromosome number changes in the gamete
(iii) there is no change in the genetic material
(iv) mating does not take place
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer

Answer: (a) (i) and (ii)

Q68.Two pea plants one with round green seeds (RRyy) and another with wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds produce F₁ progeny that have round, yellow (RrYy) seeds. When F₁ plants are selfed, the F₂ progeny will have new combination of characters. Choose the new combination from the following:
(i) Round, yellow
(ii) Round, green
(iii) Wrinkled, yellow
(iv) Wrinkled, green
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iii)

Answer

Answer: (b) (i) and (iv)

Q69. Which of the following is biodegradable?
(a) Plastic mugs
(b) Leather belts
(c) Silver foil
(d) Iron nails

Answer

Answer: b

Q70.An ecosystem is represented in the figure given above. This ecosystem will be self- sustaining if

(a) the type of organisms represented by B are eliminated.
(b) materials cycle between the organisms labelled A and the organisms labelled B.
(c) the organisms labelled A outnumber the organisms labelled B.
(d) the organisms labelled A are equal in number to the organisms labelled B.

Answer: b

Q71.Trophic level in an ecosystem represents
(a) oxygen level
(b) water level
(c) energy level
(d) salt level

Answer: c

Q72.First link in any food chain is usually green plants because
(a) they are widely distributed
(b) they are fixed at one place in the soil
(c) they alone have the capacity to synthesise food using sunlight
(d) there are more herbivores than carnivores

Answer: c

Q73.Which of the following is a logical sequence of food chain
(a) producer → consumer → decomposer
(b) producer → decomposer → consumer
(c) consumer → producer → decomposer
(d) decomposerproducer → consumer

Answer: a

Q74.Excessive exposure of humans to UV-ray s results in [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(i) damage to immune system
(ii) damage to lungs
(iii) skin cancer
(iv) peptic ulcer
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer: c

Q75.If a grasshopper is eaten by a frog, then the energy transfer will be from .
(a) producer to decomposer
(b) producer to primary consumer
(c) primary consumer to secondary consumer
(d) secondary consumer to primary consumer

Answer: c