MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography: Ch 14 Movements of Ocean Water

1. Wave amplitude is:

(a) The height of the wave

(b) The breadth of the wave

(c) Half of the wave height

(d) It is the time interval between two successive waves

► (c) Half of the wave height

2. Wave speed is the rate at which the wave moves through the water, and is measured in

(a) Knots.

(b) Miles.

(c) Kilometer.

(d) Kilogram.

► (a) Knots.

3. The most common tidal pattern, featuring two high tides and two low tides each day is called

(a) Neap tide

(b) Mixed tide

(c) Semi-diurnal tide

(d) Diurnal tide

► (c) Semi-diurnal tide

4. The factor that affects the origin and movement of currents is

(a) river flow.

(b) salinity and density of water.

(c) tides.

(d) prevailing winds.

► (b) salinity and density of water.

5. The current of Indian Ocean is

(a) The west wind drift.

(b) Labrador.

(c) California.

(d) Kuroshio.

► (a) The west wind drift.

6. Wave crest and trough refers to:

(a) Wave size

(b) Wave length

(c) The highest and lowest points of a wave

(d) Wave speed

► (c) The highest and lowest points of a wave

7. Great barrier reef is in

(a) Antarctic ocean.

(b) Australia.

(c) Austria.

(d) China.

► (b) Australia.

8. The current of Atlantic ocean is

(a) west wind drift.

(b) Gulf stream.

(c) Equatorial counter current.

(d) Alaska current.

► (b) Gulf stream.

9. The time between the high tide and low tide, when the water level is falling, is called:

(a) drift

(b) nab

(c) ebb

(d) current.

► (c) ebb

10. The Thermodynamics of the ocean are:

(a) Currents

(b) Waves 

(c) Tides

(d) Salinity

► (d) Salinity

11. ______causes waves to travel in the ocean and the energy is released on shorelines.

(a) Wind

(b) Land

(c) Water

(d) Soil

► (a) Wind

12. The time between the low tide and high tide, when the tide is rising, is called:

(a) drift

(b) flood

(c) ebb

(d) current.

► (b) flood

13. Seaward movement of water is known as:

(a) Undertow

(b) Ebb

(c) Current

(d) Flood

► (a) Undertow

14. Huge masses of floating ice are known as:

(a) Current

(b) Ebb

(c) Icebergs

(d) Flood

► (c) Icebergs

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography: Ch 13 Water (Oceans)

1. Salinity refers to the total amount of

(a) sediments in the water.

(b) impurities present in the water.

(c) salt present in the water.

(d) heat present in the water.

► (c) salt present in the water.

2. Which one of the following is not a minor relief feature in the oceans:

(a) Seamount

(b) Atoll

(c) Oceanic Deep

(d) Guyot

► (c) Oceanic Deep

3. A major portion of sea level is found at:

(a) 10-12 kms below sea  level

(b) 6-9 kms below sea level

(c) 3-6 kms below sea level

(d) 1-2 kms below sea level

► (c) 3-6 kms below sea level

4. The Coral reefs are a major characteristic of:

(a) Indian Ocean

(b) Pacific Ocean

(c) Atlantic Ocean

(d) Mediterranean Sea

► (b) Pacific Ocean

5. A mid-ocean ridge is an underwater mountain system formed by

(a) plate tectonics.

(b) earthquake.

(c) ocean currents.

(d) submarine landslides.

► (a) plate tectonics.

6. Along the coasts, salinity is:

(a) Lowered

(b) Increased

(c) Stable

(d) Unaffected

► (a) Lowered

7. Which one of the following is the smallest ocean:

(a) Indian Ocean

(b) Arctic Ocean

(c) Atlantic Ocean

(d) Pacific Ocean

► (b) Arctic Ocean

8. The factor affecting the distribution of temperature of ocean water is

(a) evaporation.

(b) precipitation.

(c) hydration.

(d) ocean currents.

► (d) ocean currents.

9. The salinity increases with depth and there is a distinct zone called

(a) isohaline.

(b) halocline.

(c) salocline.

(d) thermocline.

► (b) halocline.

10. ________ is the extended margin of each continent occupied by relatively shallow seas and gulfs.

(a) Oceanic Shelf

(b) Continental shelf 

(c) Salocline.

(d) Hydra Shelf

► (b) Continental shelf 

11. The continental slope connects the continental shelf and _______

(a) the conteinental shelf

(b) the halcoline

(c) the ocean basins

(d) none of the above

► (c) the ocean basins

12. ______ a mountain with pointed summits, rising from the seafloor that does not reach the surface of the ocean

(a) Halcoline

(b) Seamount

(c) Oceanic Shelf

(d) None of the above

► (b) Seamount

13. The shelf typically ends at a very steep slope, called ________.

(a) Halcoline

(b) Seamount

(c) Oceanic Shelf

(d) Shelf Break

► (d) Shelf Break

14. The geographers have divided the oceanic part of the earth into ______ oceans.

(a) Two

(b) Three

(c) Four

(d) Five

► (d) Five

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography: Ch 12 World Climate and Climate Change

1. Which one of the following cause global warming?

(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Oxygen

(c) Nitrogen

(d) Hydrogen

► (a) Carbon dioxide

2. Polar climates are denoted by

(a) P.

(b) E.

(c) F.

(d) G.

► (b) E.

3. The type of climate found in the Amazon basin in South America is tropical

(a) monsoon climate.

(b) dry climate.

(c) wet climate.

(d) wet and dry climate.

► (c) wet climate.

4. Warm temperate climates extend from:

(a) 300-500 latitude

(b) 40-50 latitude

(c) 35-40 latitude

(d) 450-50 latitude

► (a) 300-500 latitude

5. The group of four climates that represent humid conditions is

(a) A-B-C-E.

(b) A-C-D-E.

(c) B-C-D-E.

(d) A-C-D-F.

► (b) A-C-D-E.

6. BWh denotes:

(a) Sub-tropical Steppe climate

(b) Sub-tropical desert climate

(c) Mid latitude Steppe climate

(d) Mid latitude desert climate

► (b) Sub-tropical desert climate

7. The type of climate portrayed by Plateau Station, Antarctica is

(a) Dw.

(b) ET.

(c) EF.

(d) Df.

► (c) EF.

8. In which of the following periods earth’s climate was not warm?

(a) Cambrian

(b) Ordovician

(c) Silurian

(d) Hercynian

► (d) Hercynian

9. The GHG that results from the intestinal gases of ruminants (cows) is

(a) Nitrous oxide

(b) Carbon dioxide

(c) Carbon monoxide

(d) Methane

► (d) Methane

10. ________ classification attempts to organise climates according to their causes.

(a) Empirical

(b) Hydrological

(c) Genetic

(d) None of the above

► (c) Genetic

11. Koeppen recognised _____ major climatic groups.

(a) Two

(b) Three

(c) Four

(d) Five

► (d) Five

12. The processes that warm the atmosphere are often collectively referred to as the ________.

(a) globalisation

(b) greenhouse effect

(c) Silurian

(d) none of the above

► (b) greenhouse effect

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography: Ch 11 Water in the Atmosphere

1. When the water containing air becomes saturated, then

(a) it will be calm.

(b) it will be windy above sea and rainy above land.

(c) it will start to rain.

(d) clouds will be formed.

► (d) clouds will be formed.

2. What is the energy required to change water’s state or phase, without changing its temperature called?

(a) Latent heat of the Earth

(b) Latent heat of the water

(c) Latent heat of the rock

(d) Latent heat of the atmosphere

► (b) Latent heat of the water

3. When air containing water reaches its saturation point, then

(a) No more water evaporates from the ground.

(b) It leads to evaporation above sea and precipitation above land.

(c) Water vapour forms droplets.

(d) The droplets fall out of the clouds.

► (c) Water vapour forms droplets.

4. The percentage of moisture present in the atmosphere as compared to its full capacity at a given temperature is known as the

(a) Relative humidity

(b) Specific humidity

(c) Absolute humidity

(d) Saturated air

► (a) Relative humidity

5. The air can only contain a certain amount of water vapour before it is saturated. This amount is dependent on

(a) the temperature of the air.

(b) whether the air is above sea or land.

(c) the wind speed.

(d) the amount of dust particles in the air.

► (a) the temperature of the air.

6. Orographic rainfall is more on

(a) windward slopes.

(b) leeward slopes.

(c) plains.

(d) valleys.

► (a) windward slopes.

7. Rain shadow zone means

(a) windward slopes of the mountains.

(b) leeward side of the mountain.

(c) mountainous area.

(d) coastal area.

► (b) leeward side of the mountain.

8. The alto clouds are found at

(a) high levels.

(b) mid levels.

(c) low levels.

(d) low, mid and high levels.

► (b) mid levels.

9. Transformation of water vapours into water is called

(a) evaporation.

(b) condensation.

(c) sublimation.

(d) saturation.

► (b) condensation.

10. What is the temperature at which saturation occurs in a given sample of air known?

(a) Saturation point

(b) Dew point

(c) Condensation point

(d) Absolute humidity

► (b) Dew point

11. The actual amount of the water vapour present in the atmosphere is known as _________

(a) Relative humidity

(b) Absolute humidity

(c) Condensation

(d) None of the above

► (b) Absolute humidity

12. If water vapour directly condenses into solid form, it is known as _________

(a) evaporation.

(b) condensation.

(c) sublimation.

(d) saturation.

► (c) sublimation.

13. ________ is a mass of minute water droplets or tiny crystals of ice formed by the condensation of the water vapour in free air at considerable elevations.

(a) Dew

(b) Frost

(c) Cloud

(d) Mist

► (c) Cloud

14. ______ is frozen raindrops and refrozen melted snow-water.

(a) Sleet

(b) Frost

(c) Cloud

(d) Mist

► (a) Sleet

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography: Ch 10 Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems

1. Monsoon is:

(a) Local winds

(b) Seasonal winds

(c) Planetary winds

(d) Periodic winds

► (b) Seasonal winds

2. Air pressure is measured with the help of a

(a) Thermometer.

(b) Hygrometer.

(c) Barometer.

(d) Isobars.

► (c) Barometer.

3. A wind circulation around a low pressure centre is called

(a) a cyclone.

(b) an anticyclone.

(c) chinook.

(d) trade winds.

► (a) a cyclone.

4. Subtropical highs are the areas between

(a) 30° N and 30° S.

(b) 40° N and 40° S.

(c) 45° N and 45° S.

(d) 50° N and 50° S.

► (a) 30° N and 30° S.

5. Horizontal distribution of pressure is studied by drawing

(a) isotherms.

(b) isobars.

(c) isoheights.

(d) isochrones.

► (b) isobars.

6. If an air mass is fully lifted above the land surface, it is called:

(a) Warm front

(b) Cold front

(c) Occluded front

(d) Anticyclones

► (c) Occluded front

7. Isobars are the lines of:

(a) Equal temperature

(b) Equal pressure

(c) Equal height

(d) Equal rainfall

► (b) Equal pressure

8. The vertical pressure gradient force is much —– than that of the horizontal pressure gradient.

(a) Lesser

(b) Larger

(c) Equal to

(d) Stronger

► (b) Larger

9. In the Western Australia, tropical cyclone is also known as

(a) Hurricane.

(b) Typhoons.

(c) Monsoon.

(d) Willy-Willies

► (d) Willy-Willies

10. The standard atmosphere is a unit of pressure defined as

(a) 101325 Pascal

(b) 1325 Pascal

(c) 10132 Pascal

(d) 11325 Pascal

► (a) 101325 Pascal

11. The weight of a column of air contained in a unit area from the mean sea level to the top of the atmosphere

(a) Atmospheric pressure

(b) Typhoons

(c) Isobars

(d) Coriolis force

► (a) Atmospheric pressure

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography: Ch 8 Composition and Structure of Atmosphere

1. Increase in the volume of carbon dioxide for the past few decades is mainly due to

(a) deforestation.

(b) climate change.

(c) atmospheric composition.

(d) burning of fossil fuels.

► (d) burning of fossil fuels.

2. What envelopes the earth all round?

(a) Hydrosphere

(b) Lithosphere

(c) Atmosphere

(d) Biosphere

► (c) Atmosphere

3. Which gas is opaque to the outgoing terrestrial radiation?

(a) Dust Particles

(b) Ozone

(c) Carbon dioxide

(d) Water Vapour

► (c) Carbon dioxide

4. The uppermost layer of the atmosphere is

(a) Mesosphere.

(b) Exosphere.

(c) Ionosphere.

(d) Stratosphere.

► (b) exosphere.

5. Excess carbon dioxide in the atmosphere due to pollution will cause

(a) Earth’s temperature to rise.

(b) Earth’s temperature to fall.

(c) Decrease in weather phenomenon.

(d) Ozone layer to become thicker.

► (a) Earth’s temperature to rise.

6. Which zone separate the tropsophere from stratosphere?

(a) Mesospause.

(b) Tropopause

(c) Ionospause.

(d) Stratopause.

► (b) Tropopause

7. Earth absorbs more

(a) Humidity.

(b) Heat.

(c) Gases.

(d) Water Vapour.

► (b) Heat.

8. Which sphere lies above the stratosphere?

(a) Mesosphere.

(b) Exosphere.

(c) Ionosphere.

(d) None of the abov.

► (a) Mesosphere.

9. Which of the following gases absorbs ultra violet rays?

(a) Carbon Dioxide

(b) Neon

(c) Ozone

(d) Nitrogen

► (c) Ozone

10. Which one of the following gases constitute the major portion of atmosphere?

(a) Oxygen

(b) Nitrogen

(c) Argon

(d) Carbon dioxide

► (b) Nitrogen

11. It is an element of atmosphere

(a) Tides.

(b) Pressure.

(c) Water currents.

(d) Waves.

► (b) Pressure.

12. The radiations that heat earth’s atmosphere, comes from the

(a) Sun

(b) Earth

(c) Ionosphere

(d) Sun and Earth

► (b) Earth

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography || Ch – 2 The Origin and Evolution of the Earth || With Answer || NCERT CBSE

 1. Firstly life on the earth was originated in

(a) Water

(b) Air

(c) Plain land

(d) Mountains

► (a) Water

2. Which one of the following is not related to the formation or modification of the present atmosphere?

(a) Solar winds 

(b) Differentiation

(c) Degassing

(d) Photosynthesis

► (b) Differentiation

3. Why are the terrestrial planets rocky?

(a) These planets are smaller

(b) They could not hold the escaping gases

(c) Both a and b

(d) None of these

► (c) Both a and b

4. Which one of the following has the longest duration?

(a) Eons

(b) Period

(c) Era

(d) Epoch

► (a) Eons

5. Water vapours and gases in the atmosphere were contributed by

(a) magnetism.

(b) seismic activities.

(c) volcanism.

(d) tectonic activity.

► (c) volcanism.

6. Why are the terrestrial planets rocky?

(a) These planets are smaller

(b) They could not hold the escaping gases

(c) Both a and b

(d) None of these

► (c) Both a and b

7. The inner planets mean

(a) Planets between the sun and the earth.

(b) Planets between the sun and the belt of asteroids.

(c) Planets in gaseous state.

(d) Planets without satellite(s).

► (b) Planets between the sun and the belt of asteroids.

8. What is the distance between the Earth and the Sun?

(a) 149.6 Millions kms

(b) 15.98 Millions kms

(c) 169.34 Millions kms

(d) 179.67 Millions kms

► (a) 149.6 Millions kms

9. Which one of the following experts gave the Collision Hypothesis?

(a) Immunal kant

(b) Lalpace

(c) Chamberlain

(d) Sir James and Harold Jeffrey

► (d) Sir James and Harold Jeffrey

10. Who suggested that the earth and the moon formed a single rapidly rotating body?

(a) Sir George

(b) Sir Chamberlain

(c) Sir Moulton

(d) None of these

► (a) Sir George

11. About how many years back did stars originated?

(a) About 3 to 4 billion years before

(b) About 5 to 6 billion years before

(c) About 6 to 7 billion years before

(d) About 4 to 5 billion years before

► (b) About 5 to 6 billion years before

12. Which of the following is not an inner planet?

(a) Jupiter

(b) Mercury

(c) Venus

(d) Earth

► (a) Jupiter

13. Big-Bang theory was postulated by

(a) Georges Lemaitre.   

(b) Edwin Hubble.

(c) Schmidt.

(d) Wegener.

► (a) Georges Lemaitre.   

14. What is the diameter of Galaxies?

(a) Between 80 thousands to 1, 50,000 light years

(b) Between 70 thousands to 1, 30,000 light years

(c) Between 50 thousands to 1, 10,000 light years

(d) Between 30 thousands to 1, 20,000 light years

► (a) Between 80 thousands to 1, 50,000 light years

15. Expansion of universe means

(a) increase in the number of stars.

(b) increase in space between the galaxies.

(c) discovery of new celestial bodies.

(d) increase in the speed of rotation of planets.

► (b) increase in space between the galaxies.

16. Which one of the following experts gave the nebular hypothesis?

(a) Immunal kant

(b) Lalpace

(c) Chamberlain

(d) Moulton

► (b) Lalpace

17. The terrestrial planets were formed in the close vicinity of the

(a) Parent star.

(b) Asteroids. 

(c) Escaping gases.

(d) Outer planets.

► (a) Parent star.

18. The oceans were formed within __________ from the formation of the earth.

(a) 500 million years ago

(b) 300 million years ago

(c) 400 million years ago

(d) 200 million years ago

► (a) 500 million years ago

19. Fossils are

(a) remains of plants and animals in the rocks.

(b) the old rocks.

(c) the old books related to the origin of the earth.

(d) the dust particles.

► (a) remains of plants and animals in the rocks.

20. The wrong statement in relation to terrestrial planets is

(a) they are formed at quite a distant location.

(b) they have low gravitational pull.

(c) they could not hold the escaping gases.

(d) they are made up of rocks and metal, and have relatively high densities.

► (a) they are formed at quite a distant location.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science: Ch 8 Secularism

1. The religion which is a majority in India is

(a) Christianity.

(b) Hinduism.

(c) Islam.

(d) Buddhism.

► (b) Hinduism.

2. Secular State means :

(a) The State has a religion.

(b) The State is impartial in the matters of religion.

(c) The State is against religion.

(d) The State is irreligious.

► (b) The State is impartial in the matters of religion.

3. The Jews are in majority in

(a) Israel.

(b) Ireland.

(c) Egypt.

(d) USA.

► (a) Israel.

4. “Religious freedom as the freedom of individual conscience” is described in

(a) Article 19.

(b) Article 22.

(c) Article 23.

(d) Article 25.

► (d) Article 25.

5.  Which amendment of the Constitution added the word ‘Secular in the Preamble?

(a) 44th Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(c) 46th Amendment

(d) 50th Amendment.

► (b) 42nd Amendment

6. The ” Hindutva” is advocated by the

(a) Bhartiya Janata Party.

(b) Congress.

(c) CPI.

(d) Akali Dal.

► (a) Bhartiya Janata Party.

7. An example of a theocratic state is

(a) France.

(b) Iran.

(c) Germany.

(d) Rwanda.

► (b) Iran.

8. Judaism, Islam, and Christianity share a belief in

(a) The central authority of the Pope.

(b) A prohibition of the consumption of alcohol.

(c) Reincarnation and the Four Noble of Truths.

(d) Monotheism and ethical conduct.

► (d) Monotheism and ethical conduct.

9. Which amendment of the constitution added the word ‘Secular’ in the Preamble?

(a) 41st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(c) 43rd Amendment

(d) 44th Amendment

► (b) 42nd Amendment

10. The objective of a Uniform Civil Code in India is included in

(a) Fundamental rights.

(b) Indian Penal Code.

(c) Directive Principles of State Policy.

(d) Congress manifesto.

► (c) Directive Principles of State Policy.

11. The quote, “I swear by my religion, I will die for it. But it is my personal affair” is given by

(a) Mahatma Gandhi.

(b) Karl Marx.

(c) J.L Nehru.

(d) Ambedkar.
► (a) Mahatma Gandhi.

12. The holocaust was a genocide of European Jews by

(a) Americans.

(b) Israelis.

(c) Nazi Germany.

(d) Arabs.

► (c) Nazi Germany.

13. The inclusion of secularism in Indian constitution was not aimed

(a) To offer religious freedom.

(b) St gaining minority votes.

(c) To unify a heterogeneous nation.

(d) To set the nation on the path to progress.

► (b) at gaining minority votes.

14. Write one characteristic of Secularism.

(a) No official religion

(b) Economic Diversity

(c) Social Diversity

(d) None of the above

► (a) No official religion

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science: Ch 5 Rights

1. In a state, it is also the duty of the citizens to

(a) Ensure sustainable development.

(b) Protect the atmosphere.

(c) Pollute air and water.

(d) Live in peace.

► (a) Ensure sustainable development.

2. A Bill of Rights is enshrined in the

(a) Preamble of the UNO.

(b) Constitution of many countries.

(c) Human rights of UNESCO.

(d) Government documents of few countries.

► (b) Constitution of many countries.

3. Natural Rights are those which are given to us by:

(a) Constitution

(b) Parliament

(c) God or Nature

(d) King

► (c) God or Nature

4. Human rights, traditionally are divided into

(a) Political and economic rights.

(b) Political and social rights on one hand and cultural rights on the other.

(c) Civil and political rights.

(d) Civil and political rights on one hand and the right to development on the other.

► (c) Civil and political rights.

5. Who said “Rights are those conditions of social life without which no man can seek to be himself at his best ?”

(a) Austin

(b) Wilde

(c) Green

(d) Laski

► (d) Laski

6. The political right is the right to

(a) Shelter.

(b) Sustainable development.

(c) Livelihood.

(d) Form political parties.

► (d) Form political parties.

7. Civil liberties and political rights form the basis of a

(a) Democratic government.

(b) Monarchical rule.

(c) Totalitarian government.

(d) Dictator rule.

► (a) Democratic government.

8. Right to franchise is a

(a) Customary rights.

(b) Political right.

(c) Moral rights.

(d) Cultural right.

► (b) Political right.

9. The natural right that was not advocated by the political theorists of 17th and 18th centuries was right to

(a) Life.

(b) Liberty.

(c) Information.

(d) Property.

► (c) Information.

10. Civil Rights are given to the Individual by:

(a) Nature

(b) God

(c) The state

(d) The people

► (c) The state

11. Freedom of expression is important for

(a) A state.

(b) A democratic government.

(c) Communist society.

(d) An individual livelihood.

► (b) A democratic government.

12. According to the German philosopher Immanuel Kant, human beings unlike other objects are:

(a) Useful.

(b) Valuable.

(c) Selfish.

(d) Independent.

► (b) Valuable.

13. What is the force behind Legal Rights ?

(a) Force of public opinion

(b) Force of morality

(c) Force of law

(d) Force of nature

► (c) Force of law

14. The provision to abolish untouchability is reflected in the Indian constitution under

(a) Article 14.

(b) Article 15.

(c) Article 16.

(d) Article 17.

► (d) Article 17.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science: Ch 4 Social Justice

1. The famous quote “In a country well governed, poverty is something to be ashamed of. In a country badly governed, wealth is something to be ashamed of.” is given by

(a) J.S.Mill.

(b) Plato.

(c) Aristotle.

(d) Confucius.

► (d) Confucius.

2. Choose the type of stages of equality advocated by John Rawls.

(a) Two

(b) Three

(c) Four

(d) Five

► (b) Three

3. Identify stage of equality which rejects formal institutions of inequalities.

(a) Liberal Equality

(b) Natural Liberty

(c) Democratic Equality

(d) Economic Equality

► (b) Natural Liberty

4. Which one of the following in not the fundamental postulate of Justice?

(a) Truth

(b) Equality before law

(c) Freedom

(d) Property

► (d) Property

5. An international institution that work for justice is

(a) International Court of justice.

(b) Civil services.

(c) IMF.

(d) WTO.

► (a) International Court of justice.

6. Justice is administered by:

(a) Executive

(b) Judiciary

(c) Legislature

(d) Political parties

► (b) Judiciary

7. The essential principles of modern justice is that

(a) Judges should be part of executive.

(b) Judges should be under the control of the Head of the State.

(c) There should be independence of judiciary.

(d) Judges should be under the control of the electorate.

► (c) There should be independence of judiciary.

8. Free market is a product of

(a) Socialism.

(b) Feminism.

(c) Neo-liberalism.

(d) Patriarchy.

► (c) Neo-liberalism.

9. People get proper justice in:

(a) Dictatorship

(b) Totalitarian state

(c) Monarchy

(d) Democracy

► (d) Democracy

10. State’s failure to provide individuals with basic necessities of life such as; food and housing is an example of

(a) Political Injustice

(b) Economic Injustice

(c) Social discrimination

(d) Gender inequality

► (b) Economic Injustice

11. Choose the ministry that is entrusted with the welfare, social justice and empowerment of disadvantaged and marginalized sections of the society in India.

(a) Ministry of welfare

(b) Ministry of social justice and empowerment

(c) Ministry of social defense

(d) Ministry of Education

► (b) Ministry of social justice and empowerment

12. Our political rights and participation are insured only when our

(a) Social needs are being taken care of.

(b) Basic needs

(c) Cultural needs

(d) Security needs

► (b) Basic needs

13. The term “justice’ is derived from the word ‘Jus’ which is a word from:

(a) Latin language

(b) Greek language

(c) English language

(d) French language

► (a) Latin language

14. Justice is essentially a:

(a) Legal concept

(b) Moral concept

(c) Social concept

(d) All of the above

► (d) All of the above