Question 1.
Countries with per capita income of Rs. 37,000 or less are called:
(а) Rich countries
(b) Poor countries
(c) Low income countries
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Low income countries
Such countries are called low-income countries.

Question 2.
The average income is also called:
(a) Per capita profit
(b) Per capita income
(c) Limited income
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) Per capita income
It is called per capita income.

Question 3.
If per capita income were to be used as the measure of development, Punjab will be considered the most developed and which of the states the least developed:
(a) West-Bengal
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Haryana
(d) Bihar

Answer
Answer: (d) Bihar
Bihar is the least developed state.

Question 4.
Money cannot buy a:
(a) Pollution-free environment
(b) Unadulterated medicines
(c) Life without worries
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (d) All the above
Money cannot buy all the above factors.

Question 5.
Kerala has a low Infant Mortality Rate because it has:
(a) Surplus money
(b) Pollution free environment
(c) Basic health and educational facilities
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Basic health and educational facilities
Kerala has low Infant Mortality Rate because of basic health and educational facilities.

Question 6.
Literary rate for rural women population in UP is:
(a) 18%
(b) 19%
(c) 20%
(d) 21%

Answer
Answer: (b) 19%
It is 19%.

Question 7.
The percentage of rural children aged 10-14 years attending school in UP is:
(a) 21%
(b) 23%
(c) 27%
(d) 31%

Answer
Answer: (d) 31%
It is 31%.

Question 8.
The Human Development Report compares countries on the basis of:
(a) The educational levels of the people
(b) Health status of the people
(c) Per capita income of the people
(d) All the above factors

Answer
Answer: (d) All the above factors
The Human Development Report compares countries based on all the above factors.

Question 9.
The per capita income of Sri Lanka in US $ is:
(a) 102.7
(b) 222.5
(c) 149.0
(d) 439.0

Answer
Answer: (d) 439.0
It is 439.0$.

Question 10.
The per capita income of India in US $ is:
(a) 313.9
(b) 222.5
(c) 149.0
(d) 439.0

Answer
Answer: (a) 313.9
It is 313.9$.

Question 11.
Gross Enrolment Ratio for three levels means:
(a) Enrolment ratio for primary school, middle school and higher education
(b) Middle school, secondary school and colleges
(c) Primary school, secondary school and higher education
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Primary school, secondary school and higher education
Gross Enrolment Ratio for three levels means primary school, secondary school and higher education.

Question 12.
The per capita income for all countries is calculated in:
(a) Pounds
(b) Shillings
(c) Rupee
(d) Dollars

Answer
Answer: (d) Dollars
It is calculated in dollars.

Question 13.
Life expectancy at birth denotes:
(а) Average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth
(b) Average expected length of life of a person at the time of death
(c) Average expected length of life of a child at the time of birth
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (а) Average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth
It denotes average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth.

Question 14.
HDI stands for :
(а) Heavy Developed Industry
(b) Human Development Index
(c) Heavy Developed Infrastructure
(d) Heavy Industries Development

Answer
Answer: (b) Human Development Index
HDI stands for Human Development Index.

Question 15.
Nepal has half the per capita income of India, yet it is not far behind India in:
(а) Literacy rate
(b) Gross enrolment-ratio
(c) Life expectancy and literacy levels
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Life expectancy and literacy levels
Nepal is not for behind India in life expectancy and literacy levels.

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Question 1.
Narrow Gauge has a width of:
(а) 0.662 and 0.610
(b) 0.552 and 0.510
(c) 0.762 and 0.610
(d) 0.452 and 0.510

Answer
Answer: (c) 0.762 and 0.610
It is from 0.762 and 0.610.

Question 2.
The Indian Railway is now reorganised into:
(a) 14 zones
(b) 15 zones
(c) 16 zones
(d) 17 zones

Answer
Answer: (c) 16 zones
The Indian Railways is now reorganised into 16 zones.

Question 3.
Which of the following is a factor in influencing the distribution pattern of the Railway network in the country.
(а) Physiography
(b) Economic
(c) Administrative
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (d) All the above
It has been influenced by all the above factors.

Question 4.
Solids can also be transported through a pipeline when converted into:
(а) Liquid
(b) Gas
(c) Slurry
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Administrative
In slurry form solids can also be transported through a pipeline.

Question 5.
The Gas pipeline from Hazira in Gujarat connects Jagdishpur in Uttar Pradesh, via Vijaipur in:
(a) Bihar
(b) Orissa
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Answer
Answer: (d) Madhya Pradesh
Via Vijaipur in Madhya Pradesh.

Question 6.
India has inland navigation waterways of …………………………… km in length.
(a) 14,500
(b) 15,500
(c) 16,500
(d) 17,500

Answer
Answer: (a) 14,500
It has 14,500 km in length navigable waterways.

Question 7.
95 percent of the country’s trade volume is moved by:
(a) Air
(b) Planes
(c) Ships
(d) Sea

Answer
Answer: (d) Sea
It is moved by sea.

Question 8.
The first port developed to ease the volume of trade on the Mumbai port:
(а) Jawaharlal Nehru Port
(b) Haldia port
(c) Mumbai port
(d) Kandla

Answer
Answer: (d) Kandla
It was Kandla port.

Question 9.
New Mangalore port in Karnataka eaters to the export of iron ore concentrates from which of following mines:
(a) Balaghat
(b) Kudremukh
(c) Kolapur
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) Kudremukh
From Kudremukh mines.

Question 10.
Chennai is one of the oldest …………………. ports of the country.
(a) Natural
(b) Artificial
(c) Smallest
(d) Biggest

Answer
Answer: (b) Artificial
Chennai is one of the oldest artificial ports of the country.

Question 11.
Paradwip port located in Orissa, specialises in the export of:
(a) Copper
(b) Bauxite
(c) Iron ore
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Iron ore
It specialises in the export of iron ore.

Question 12.
Haldia port was developed as a subsidiary port, to relieve growing pressure on which of the following ports:
(a) Kolkata
(b) Kandla
(c) Mumbai
(d) Tuticorin

Answer
Answer: (a) Kolkata
On the Kolkata port.

Question 13.
In which of the given years was air transport nationalised:
(a) 1943
(b) 1953
(c) 1963
(d) 1973

Answer
Answer: (b) 1953
Air Transport was nationalised in 1953.

Question 14.
The total number of telephone exchanges in India are:
(a) 37,565
(b) 36,565
(c) 35,565
(d) 34,565

Answer
Answer: (a) 37,565
There are 37,565 telephone exchanges spread all over the country.

Question 15.
When the value of imports exceeds the value of exports, it is termed as:
(a) Favourable balance of trade
(b) Unfavourable balance of trade
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) Unfavourable balance of trade
It is termed as unfavourable balance of trade because imports are more than the exports

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Question 1.
India occupies the first place in the production of:
(a) Sugar
(b) Jute
(c) Gur and khandsari
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Gur and khandsari
India stands second as a world producer of sugar but occupies the first place in the production of gur and khandsari.

Question 2.
The number of sugar mills in the country are:
(a) 400
(b) 420
(c) 440
(d) 460

Answer
Answer: (d) 460
There are 460.

Question 3.
Industries that use minerals and metals as raw materials are called:
(a) Agro based industries
(b) Metal based industries
(c) Mineral based industries
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Mineral based industries
They are called mineral based industries.

Question 4.
Which of the following is basic industry:
(а) Sugar
(b) Cotton
(c) Jute
(d) Iron and steel

Answer
Answer: (d) Iron and steel
The basic industry is iron and steel industry.

Question 5.
Iron ore, coking coal and limestone are required to make steel in the ratio of approximately:
(a) 1 : 2 : 4
(b) 2 : 1 : 4
(c) 4 : 2 : 1
(d) 4:1:2

Answer
Answer: (c) 4 : 2 : 1
They are required in the ratio of 4 : 2 : 1.

Question 6.
India ranks ……………………………. among the world crude steel producers.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Ninth
(d) Tenth

Answer
Answer: (c) Ninth
India ranks ninth among the world crude steel producers.

Question 7.
Inspite of large quantity of production of steel, per capita consumption per annum is only:
(a) 20 kg
(b) 32 kg
(c) 40 kg
(d) 52 kg

Answer
Answer: (b) 32 kg
It is only 32 kg per annum.

Question 8.
In the 1950s China and India produced almost the same quantity of:
(a) Iron
(b) Manganese
(c) Copper
(d) Steel

Answer
Answer: (d) Steel
Both these countries produced the same amount of steel.

Question 9.
The number of aluminium smelting plants in India are:
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 14

Answer
Answer: (a) 8
There are eight aluminium smelting plants in India.

Question 10.
In 2004, India produced over 600 million tonnes of:
(a) Steel
(b) Aluminium
(c) Copper
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (b) Aluminium
In 2004, India produced over 600 million tonnes of aluminium.

Question 11.
The chemical industry in India contributes approximately:
(а) 3 percent of the GDP
(b) 4 percent of the GDP
(c) 5 percent of the GDP
(d) 6 percent of the GDP

Answer
Answer: (а) 3 percent of the GDP
It contributes about 3 per cent of the GDP.

Question 12.
The fertilizer industry is centred around the production of:
(а) organic fertilizers
(b) inorganic fertilizers
(c) nitrogenous fertilizers
(d) phosphate fertilizers

Answer
Answer: (c) Nitrogenous fertilizers
The fertilizer industry produces mostly nitrogenous fertilizer.

Question 13.
The industry which requires bulky and heavy raw materials like limestone, silica, alumina and gypsum is:
(а) Iron and steel industry
(b) Aluminium industry
(c) Cement industry
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Cement industry
The cement industry requires all the above raw materials.

Question 14.
The first cement plant was set up in Chennai in:
(a) 1804
(b) 1904
(c) 1814
(d) 1914

Answer
Answer: (b) 1904
It was set up in 1904.

Question 15.
At present the number of manufactures of passenger cars and multi-utility vehicles are:
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 20

Answer
Answer: (c) 15
There are 15.

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Question 1.
The mineral used in the manufacture of steel is:
(a) Copper
(b) Lead
(c) Magnesium
(d) Manganese

Answer
Answer: (d) Manganese
Manganese is used in the manufacturing of steel.

Question 2.
The state which is the largest producer of manganese is:
(a) Gujarat
(b) West Bengal
(c) Bihar
(d) Orissa

Answer
Answer: (d) Orissa
Orissa is the largest producer of manganese.

Question 3.
The ……………………. mines of Madhya Pradesh produce 52 percent of India’s copper.
(a) Kolaghat
(b) Khetri
(c) Balaghat
(d) Singbhum

Answer
Answer: (c) Balaghat
The Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh produce 52 percent of India’s copper.

Question 4.
The most important bauxite deposits in the state of Orissa are in ……………………… district.
(a) Singbhum
(b) Khetri
(c) Balaghat
(d) Koraput

Answer
Answer: (d) Koraput
The most important bauxite deposits in the states of Orissa are in Koraput district.

Question 5.
The mineral made up of a series of plates or leaves in:
(a) Bauxite
(b) Lead
(c) Copper
(d) Mica

Answer
Answer: (d) Mica
The mineral made up of a series of plates or leaves is mica.

Question 6.
Nellore mica belt is in the state of:
(a) Orrisa
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer
Answer: (d) Andhra Pradesh
Nellore mica belt is in the state of Andhra Pradesh.

Question 7.
The basic raw material for the cement industry and essential for smelting iron ore in the blast furnace is:
(a) Iron
(b) Mica
(c) Limestone
(d) Sodium chloride

Answer
Answer: (c) Limestone
Limestone is the basic raw material for the cement industry and essential for smelting iron ore in the blast furnace.

Question 8.
Low grade brown coal is known as:
(а) Bituminous
(b) Anthracite
(c) Lignite
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Lignite
Low grade brown coal is known as lignite.

Question 9.
The highest quality hard coal is:
(a) Bituminous
(b) Anthracite
(c) Lignite
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) Anthracite
Anthracite is the hardest quality of hard coal.

Question 10.
Tertiary coals occur in which of the following:
(a) Orissa, West Bengal and Bihar
(b) Punjab, Haryana, Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Meghalaya, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland
(d) Gujarat, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka

Answer
Answer: (c) Meghalaya, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland
Tertiary coals occur in the states of Meghalaya, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland.

Question 11.
About ………………… percent of India’s petroleum production is from Mumbai High.
(a) 63
(b) 73
(c) 83
(d) 93

Answer
Answer: (a) 63
About 63 percent of India’s petroleum production is from “Mumbai High.

Question 12.
Large reserves of natural gas have been discovered in the:
(a) Ganga – Godavari Basin
(b) Ganga – Yamuna Basi
(c) Ganga – Brahmaputra Basin
(d) Krishna – Godavari Basin

Answer
Answer: (d) Krishna – Godavari Basin
Large reserves of Natural gas have been discovered in the Krishna-Godavari Basin.

Question 13.
The number of thermal power plants in India is:
(a) 110
(b) 210
(c) 310
(d) 410

Answer
Answer: (c) 310
The number of Thermal Power Plants in India are 310.

Question 14.
Nuclear energy is obtained by altering the:
(a) Structure of atoms
(b) Structure of electrons
(c) Structure of protons
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (a) Structure of atoms
Nuclear energy is obtained by altering the structure of atoms.

Question 15.
The largest solar plant of India is located at:
(a) Madhapur
(b) Khetri
(c) Kolhapur
(d) Jaisalmer

Answer
Answer: (a) Madhapur
The largest solar plant of India is located at Madhapur.

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Question 1.
Three crops of paddy grown in a year in the states of Assam, West Bengal and Orissa are:
(a) Aus, Aman and Boro
(b) Aus, Aman and Poro
(c) Bus, Bman and Boro
(d) Aman, Poro, and Boro

Answer
Answer: (a) Aus, Aman and Boro
Aus, Aman and Boro are the three crops of paddy grown in a year in the states of Assam, West Bengal and Orissa.

Question 2.
A short season during the summer months between the rabi and the kharif season is called the:
(a) Jaid season
(b) Zaid season
(c) Short season
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) Zaid season
It is called Zaid season.

Question 3.
The major crops grown in India are:
(a) Water-melon, musk-melon, cucumber etc.
(b) Mango, jute, cotton, barley etc.
(c) Rice, wheat, pulses, tea, coffee, sugarcane etc.
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Rice, wheat, pulses, tea, coffee, sugarcane etc.
Rice wheat, pulses, tea, coffee, sugarcane, etc. are the main crops grown in India.

Question 4.
The annual rainfall needed for the cultivation of rice is :
(a) 400 cm
(b) 300 cm
(c) 200 cm
(d) 100 cm

Answer
Answer: (d) 100 cm
It is 100 cm.

Question 5.
Bajra grows well on:
(а) Alluvial and loamy soils
(b) Alluvial and sandy soils
(c) Sandy soils and shallow black soil
(d) Alluvial and clayey soils

Answer
Answer: (c) Sandy soils and shallow black soil
Bajra grows well in sandy soils and shallow black soil.

Question 6.
India is the largest producer as well as the consumer of in the world.
(a) Rice
(6) Wheat
(c) Pulses
(d) Sugarcane

Answer
Answer: (c) Pulses

Question 7.
The state which is the largest producer of groundnut is:
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Gujarat

Answer
Answer: (c) Andhra Pradesh
It is Andhra Pradesh. Tamil Nadu is the second.

Question 8.
The major tea producing states are:
(a) Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala
(b) Punjab, Haryana Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Maharashtra, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu
(d) Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh and Gujarat

Answer
Answer: (a) Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala
Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

Question 9.
India produces about ……………….. percent of the world’s coffee production:
(a) Five
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Two

Answer
Answer: (b) Four

Question 10.
India produces about …………………….. percent of the world’s vegetables:
(a) 13
(b) 14
(c) 15
(d) 16

Answer
Answer: (a) 13

Question 11.
The rainfall and temperature required for the cultivation of rubber is:
(a) 100 cm-25°C
(6) 150cm-30°C
(c) 200 cm-25°C
(d) 300cm-40°C

Answer
Answer: (c) 200 cm – 25°C
200 cm of rainfall and 25°C temperature.

Question 12.
Rearing of silk worms for the production of silk fibre is known as:
(a) Pesciculture
(b) Monoculture
(c) Silk culture
(d) Sericulture

Answer
Answer: (d) Sericulture
It is called sericulture; pisiculture is rearing of fishes.

Question 13.
Cotton is a kharif crop and requires ……………………… to ……………………… months to nature:
(a) 5-6
(b) 7-8
(c) 6-8
(d) 4-6

Answer
Answer: (c) 6-8
Cotton requires 6 to 8 months to mature.

Question 14.
Jute is also known as:
(a) White fibre
(b) Silver fibre
(c) Golden fibre
(d) Diamond fibre

Answer
Answer: (c) Golden fibre
Jute is also known as golden fibre.

Question 15.
Genetic engineering is recognized as a powerful supplement in inventing new:
(a) Agricultural tools
(b) Modern machines
(c) Hybrid variety of plants
(d) Hybrid variety of seeds

Answer
Answer: (d) Hybrid variety of seeds
Genetic engineering is powerful supplement in inventing new hybrid variety of seeds.

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Question 1.
Between 1951 and 1980, according to the Forest Survey of India, over ………………. sq. km of forest area was converted into agricultural land all over India.
(a) 25,200
(b) 26,200
(c) 27,200
(d) 28,200

Answer
Answer: (b) 26,200
About 26,200 sq. km of forest area was converted into agricultural land all over India.

Question 2.
The Bua Tiger Reserve is in the state of:
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Bihar
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) West Bengal

Answer
Answer: (d) West Bengal
It is in West Bengal.

Question 3.
The two greatest degrading factors behind the depletion of forest resources are:
(a) Mining and grazing
(b) Floods and grazing
(c) Mining and fuel-wood collection
(d) Grazing and fuel-wood collection

Answer
Answer: (d) Grazing and fuel-wood
collection
Grazing and fuel-wood collection are the two main factors which has led to forest depletion.

Question 4.
The Himalayan yew is a medicinal plant found in various parts of:
(а) Punjab and Haryana
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Punjab and Himachal Pradesh
(d) Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh

Answer
Answer: (d) Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh
It is found in Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 5.
An average American consumes ……………. times more resources than an average Somhlian.
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 40

Answer
Answer: (d) 40
About 40 times because America is a developed country while Somalia is a poor country.

Question 6.
Conservation preserves the ecological diversity and which of our life support systems:
(a) Water, air and food
(b) Water, air and clothes
(c) Water, air and temperature
(d) Water, air and soil

Answer
Answer: (d) Water, air and soil
Water, air and soil and the three life support systems.

Question 7.
The Indian Wildlife Act was implemented in:
(a) 1961
(b) 1971
(c) 1962
(d) 1972

Answer: (d) 1972

Answer
Question 8.
One of the key wildlife species in the faunal web is:
(a) Elephant
(b) Lion
(c) Tiger
(d) Fox

Answer
Answer: (c) Tiger
Tiger is one of the key wildlife species in the faunal web.

Question 9.
‘Project Tiger’ was launched in:
(a) 1971
(b) 1972
(c) 1973
(d) 1974

Answer
Answer: (c) 1973
In 1973, to preserve and protect tigers.

Question 10.
The total number of tiger reserves in India are:
(a) 23
(b) 24
(c) 26
(d) 27

Answer: (d) 27

Question 11.
Periyar Tiger Reserve is in the state of:
(a) Assam
(b) West Bengal
(c) Kerala
(d) Haryana

Answer
Answer: (c) Kerala
It is in Kerala.

Question 12.
The forests which are regarded as the most valuable as far as the conservation of forest and wildlife resources are concerned are called:
(a) Protected forests
(b) Reserved forests
(c) Unclassed forests
(d) Private forests

Answer
Answer: (b) Reserved forests
Such forests are called reserved forests.

Question 13.
Forests and wastelands belonging to both government and private individuals and communities are called:
(a) Protected forests
(b) Reserved forests
(c) Unclassed forests
(d) Private forests

Answer
Answer: (c) Unclassed forests
Such forests are called unclassed forests.

Question 14.
Several virgin forests preserved in pristine form are called:
(a) Sacred forests
(b) Sacred groves
(c) Sacred trees
(d) Sacred plants.

Answer
Answer: (b) Sacred groves
Such forests are called sacred groves.

Question 15.
The Beej Bachao Andolan was started in:
(a) Tehri
(b) Bhakra
(c) Punj
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (a) Tehri
It was started in Tehri.

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Q.1 The availability of resources is a necessary condition for the development of:
(а) any country
(b) any state
(c) any region
(d) none of the above

Answer: (c) any region
For any region the availability of resources is a necessary condition for development.

Q.2 Some countries colonised other countries because of their:
(a) natural beauty
(b) money
(c) rich resources
(d) none of the above

Answer: (c) rich resources
For rioh resources colonised powers invaded other countries.

Q 3.
How many million hectares of Indian Land is degraded land:
(a) 110 million hectares
(b) 120 million hectares
(c) 130 million hectares
(d) 140 million hectares

Answer
Answer: (c) 130 million hectares
India at present has 130 million degraded land.

Q 4.
Which of the following is the main reasons for land degradation in the states of Gujarat, Rajasthan, M.P. and Maharashtra:
(a) deforestation
(b) floods
(c) over-grazing
(d) all the above

Answer
Q 5.
Which is the most widely spread and important soil:
(a) black
(b) red
(c) alluvial
(d) desert

Answer
Answer: (c) alluvial
Alluvial soil is the most widely spread and important soil.

Q 6.
The soil which ha? higher concentration of Ranker nodules is called:
(a) hangar
(b) khadar
(c) alluvial soil
(d) red soil

Answer
Answer: (a) hangar
The bangar soil has higher concentration of kanker nodules than the khadar.

Q 7.
Black soil is also known as:
(a) hangar
(b) khadar
(c) regur
(d) all the above

Answer
Answer: (c) regur
Black soil is black in colour and also known as regur soil.

Q 8.
The soil which develops in areas with high temperature and heavy rainfall is called:
(a) regur
(b) alluvial
(c) laterite
(d) arid

Answer
Answer: (c) laterite
The laterite soil develops in areas with high temperature and heavy rainfall.

Q 9.
Red laterite soil is suitable for
growing which of the following crops:
(a) coffee
(b) tea
(c) wheat
(d) cashew nut

Answer
Answer: (d) cashew nut
Red laterite soil is more suitable for crops like cashew nuts.

Q 10.
When the top soil is washed away when water flows as a sheet over large areas down a slope is known as:
(a) land erosion
(b) water erosion
(c) sheet erosion
(d) all the above

Answer
Answer: (c) sheet erosion
This is known as sheet erosion.

Q 11.
Resources are a function of:
(a) national activities
(b) human activities
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) human activities
Resources are a function of human activities.

Q 12.
Biotic resources are obtained from:
(a) biosphere and include living organisms
(b) biosphere and include non-living components
(c) the earth
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (a) biosphere and include living organisms
Biotic resources are obtained from the biosphere and include living organisms.

Q 13.
Rocks and metals are examples of:
(а) biotic resources
(b) abiotic resources
(c) natural resources
(d) all the above

Answer
Answer: (b) abiotic resources
Rocks and metals are examples of abiotic resources.

Q 14.
Many farmers own land which is allotted to them by government:
(а) against the payment by cash
(b) against property in towns
(c) against the payment of revenue
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) against the payment of revenue
Against the payment of revenue, many farmers are alloted land by the government.

Q 15.
Plantation, pasture lands, ponds, water in wells etc. are some examples of:
(a) resources owned by government
(b) resources owned by private
(c) resources owned by individual
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) resources owned by individual
Plantation, pasture lands, ponds, water in wells, etc. are some of the examples of resources ownered by individuals.

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Q1.Which is not a source of fresh water?

(a) Glaciers and ice sheets
(b) Groundwater
(c) Surface run off
(d) Oceans
Answer: (d) Oceans
EXPLANATION: -The water in the oceans is saline and not fresh. The water in theocean collects all thesalt and minerals from all the rivers
that flow into it.

Q2.According to Falkan Mark, water stress occurs when:

(a) water availability is less than 1000
cubic metre per person per day.
(b) there is no water scarcity.
(c) there is flood.
(d) water availability is more than 1000
cubic metre per person per day.
Answer:(a) water availability is less than 1000 cubic metre per person
per day.

EXPLANATION: -According to Falken Mark, a Swedish expert, water stress occurs whenwater
availability is less than1,000 cubic metre per person per day.

Q3.Nangal River Valley Project is made on the river:

(a) Sutlej-Beas
(b) Ravi-Chenab
(c) Ganga
(d) Son
Answer: (a) Sutlej-Beas
EXPLANATION: -Bhakra Dam is a oncrete gravity dam on the Sutlej River in Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh in northern

Q4.Hirakud Dam is constructed on
the river:
(a) Ganga
(b) Manjira
(c) Manas
(d) Mahanadi
Answer:(d) Mahanadi
EXPLANATION: -Only 15 kms. northo f Sambalpur, the longest earthen
dam of the world stands in its lone majesty across the great river
Mahanadi, which drains an area of 1,33,090 Sq.

Q5.Water of Bhakra Nangal Project is being used mainly for:

(a) hydel power and irrigation
(b) fish breeding and navigation
(c) industrial use
(d) flood control
Answer:(a) hydel power and
irrigation
EXPLANATION: -Its main function is to turn the turbines of power Dam but it also supplies water to the
Bhakra irrigation canals. Power houses have been built to generate hydroelectricity from water of the
Satluj River

Q6. Why is water scarcity mainly caused?

A. Water pollution
B. excessive use and unequal
access to water
C. Water management
D. Using to utility

Q7.The diversion channels seen in the Western Himalayas are called:

(a) Guls or Kuls
(b) Khadins
(c) Johads
(d) Recharge pits
Answer: (a) Guls or Kuls
EXPLANATION: -In hills and mountainous regions,specially in western Himalayas, people build
diversion channels called guls and kuls for irrigational purposes .

Q8.Agricultural fields which are used as rainfed storage structures are called:

(a) Kuls
(b) Khadins/Johads
(c) Recharge pits
(d) None of the above
Answer:(b) Khadins/Johads
EXPLANATION: -In the arid and semi-arid regions, agricultural fields were converted into rain fed storage
structures that allowed the water to sand and moisten the soil, these water storage structures are known
as Khadins in Jaisalmer (Rajasthan) and Johads in other parts of Rajasthan.

Q9.Underground tanks seen in Rajasthan to store rainwater for drinking is called:

(a) Tankas
(b) Khadin
(c) Ponds
(d) Kuls
Answer:(a) Tankas
EXPLANATION: -Taanka, also known as kund or kundi, is the simplest and most common water

Q10.Bamboo drip irrigation system is prevalent in:

(a) Manipur
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Mizoram
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:(b) Meghalaya
EXPLANATION: -Bamboo Drip Irrigation of the Noartheastern Hills

Q11.The only State which has made rooftop rainwater harvesting structure compulsory to all the houses is:

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) West Bengal

Answer: (c) Tamil Nadu
EXPLANATION: -Therefore, Tamil Nadu is the correct answer, since Tamil Nadu is the first and the only
state in India, which has made rooftop rainwater harvesting structures and is compulsory to all
the houses across the state.

Q12.The remote village that has earned the rare distinction of being
rich in rainwater?

(a) Gari
(b) Kaza
(c) Gendathur
(d) none of the above
Answer:(c) Gendathur

EXPLANATION: -In Gendathur, a remote backward village in Mysore,
Karnataka,villagers have installed rainwater harvesting system to meettheir water needs

Q13.The major source of fresh water in India is

(a) rainfall
(b) ground water
(c) atmospheric water
(d) ocean water
Answer: (b) ground water

EXPLANATION: -Ground water and surface waters are the major sources of Fresh water in India.
Ground water is the water present beneath the earth’s surface which
can be extracted through various ways.

Q14.Rana Pratap Sagar Dam is located in

(a) Odisha
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: (c) Rajasthan
EXPLANATION: -The Ranapratap
Sagar Dam is a gravity masonry dam
of 53.8 metres (177 ft) height built on
the Chambal River at Rawatbhata in
Rajasthan in India.

Q15.Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is built on which river?

(a) Clenab
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Krishna
(d) Satluj
Answer: (c)Krishna
EXPLANATION: -Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is a masonry dam across the Krishna
River at Nagarjuna Sagar which straddles the border between Nalgonda
district in Telangana and Guntur district in Andhra Pradesh.

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1. Question 1. An object is placed at a distance of 0.25 m
   in front of a plane mirror. The distance between the object and image will be
   (a) 0.25 m
   (b) 1.0 m
   (c) 0.5 m
   (d) 0.125 m

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Distance between object and image = 0.25 + 0.25 = 0.5 m

 Question 2. The angle of incidence for a ray of light having zero reflection angle is
(a) 0
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 90°

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) For reflecting surface ∠i = ∠r

Question 3. For a real object, which of the following can produce a real image?
(a) Plane mirror
(b) Concave mirror
(c) Concave lens
(d) Convex mirror

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Only concave mirror can produces a real image for the any position of object between its focus and infinity.

Question 4. Which of the following mirror is used by a dentist to examine a small cavity?
(a) Convex mirror
(b) Plane mirror
(c) Concave mirror
(d) Combination of convex and concave mirror

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Concave mirror forms erect and enlarged image when held close to the cavity.

Question 5. An object at a distance of 30 cm from a
concave mirror gets its image at the same point. The focal length of the mirror is
(a) – 30 cm
(b) 30 cm
(c) – 15 cm
(d) +15 cm

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) When object is placed at 2F, the image formed by concave mirror is also at 2F.
So 2F = -30 or F = -15 cm.

 Question 6. An object at a distance of + 15 cm is slowly moved towards the pole of a convex mirror. The image will get
(a) shortened and real
(b) enlarged and real
(c) enlarge and virtual
(d) diminished and virtual

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) Convex mirror always formed virtual and diminished image.

Question 7. A concave mirror of radius 30 cm is placed in water. It’s focal length in air and water differ by
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 0

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) The focal length of spherical mirror does not depends on the surrounding medium.

Question 8. A concave mirror of focal length 20 cm forms an image having twice the size of object. For the virtual position of object, the position of object will be at
(a) 25 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) At infinity

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) For virtual image,

Question 9. The image formed by concave mirror is real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object. The position of object should be
(a) at the focus
(b) at the centre of curvature
(c) between focus and centre of curvature
(d) beyond centre of curvature

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) When object lies at C of a concave mirror, image is also formed at ‘C’ and having same size real and inverted.

Question 10. The nature of the image formed by concave mirror when the object is placed between the focus (F) and centre of curvature (C) of the mirror observed by us is
(a) real, inverted and diminished
(b) virtual, erect and smaller in size
(c) real, inverted and enlarged
(d) virtual, upright and enlarged

Answer:
Explanation:
(c) When object lies between C and F, the real, inverted and enlarged image is formed beyondC.

Question 11. The nature of image formed by a convex mirror when the object distance from the mirror is less than the distance between pole and focal point (F) of the mirror would be
(a) real, inverted and diminished in size
(b) real, inverted and enlarged in size
(c) virtual, upright and diminished in size
(d) virtual, upright and enlarged in size

Answer:
Explanation:
(c) Convex mirror always forms a virtual, erect diminished image irrespective of the position of object in front of it.

Question 12. If a man’s face is 25 cm in front of concave shaving mirror producing erect image 1.5 times the size of face, focal length of the mirror would be
(a) 75 cm
(b) 25 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 60 cm

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) In concave shaving mirror, virtual erect and large size image, behind the mirror is obtained, using

Hence, focal length of concave mirror is 75 cm.

 Question 13. As light travels from a rarer to a denser medium it will have
(a) increased velocity
(b) decreased velocity
(c) decreased wavelength
(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer:
Explanation:
(d) When light ray travel from rarer to denser medium, its velocity and wavelength both decrease as v = vλ.

Question 14. The angle of incidence i and refraction r are equal in a transparent slab when the value of i is
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) depend on the material of the slab

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) When the incident ray falls normally on the glass slab, it will refracted without deviation, i.e. along the normal in the glass slab. So, ∠i = ∠r = 0

 Question 15. The refractive index of transparent medium is greater than one because
(a) Speed of light in vacuum < speed of light in tansparent medium (b) Speed of light in vacuum > speed of light in tansparent medium
(c) Speed flight in vacuum = speed of light in tansparent medium
(d) Frequency of light wave changes when it moves from rarer to denser medium

Answer: b
Explanation:

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1. The sequence of gradual changes which takes place in the primitive organisms over millions of years in which new species are produced is known as

(a) Evolution

(b) Heredity

(c) Generation

(d) Inheritance

Answer. (a) Evolution

Explanation: Evolution is a series of gradual changes in an organism, wherein in the end, the organism is evolved and advanced.

2. If a normal cell of human body contains 46 pairs of chromosomes then the numbers of chromosomes in a sex cell of a human being is most likely to be:

(a) 60

(b) 23

(c) 22

(d) 40

Answer. (b) 23

Explanation: The sex gametes are always haploid. They have 23 chromosomes.

3. In the human blood grouping, the four basic blood types are type A, type B, type AB, and type O. They are:

(a) Simple dominant and recessive traits

(b) Co-dominant traits

(c) Recessive traits

(d) Inherited traits

Ans: (b) Co-dominant traits

Explanation: A co-dominant trait is the one in which neither allele is dominant or recessive and both are expressed equally.

4. A pregnant woman has an equal chance of her baby being blood group A or blood group AB. Which one of the following shows the possible genotypes of the woman and the father of her child?

(a) I^A I^A and I^B I^O

(b) I^A I^B and I^B I^O

(c) I^A I^O and I^B I^O

(d) I^O I^B and I^A I^O

Answer. (a) I^A I^A and I^B I^O

Explanation:

	IB	IO
IA	IA IB  means AB	IA IO means A
IA	IA IB means AB	IA IO means A

Ratio of AB: A= 1:1. Hence, first answer is correct.

5. What will be the number of chromosomes present in each gamete produced by the plants if the palisade cells of a species of plant contain 28 chromosomes in all?

(a) 56

(b) 28

(c) 14

(d) 4

Answer. (c) 14

Explanation: Gamete cells are always haploid.

6. The following results were obtained by a scientist who crossed the F₁ generation of pure-breeding parents for round and wrinkled seeds.

Dominants trait	Recessive trait	No. of F2 offspring
Round seeds	Wrinkled seeds	7524

From these results, it can be concluded that the actual number of round seeds he obtained was:

(a) 1881

(b) 22572

(c) 2508

(d) 5643

Answer. (d) 5643

Explanation: The actual number of seeds obtained were 5643.

7. A cross between a tall plant (TT) and short plant (tt) resulted in progeny that were all tall plants as:

(a) Tallness is the dominant trait

(b) Shortness is the dominant trait

(c) Tallness is the recessive trait

(d) Height of plant is not governed by gene t or t

Answer. (a) Tallness is the dominant trait

Explanation: The best traits are always superior. For instance, tallness and round seeds are dominant traits.

8. In peas, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a pure short plant (tt). The ratio of pure tall plants to pure short plants in F₂ generation will be:

(a) 1 : 3

(b) 3 : 1

(c) 1 : 1

(d) 2 : 1

Answer. (c) 1 : 1

Explanation: The ratio of TT and tt plants of F₂ generation will be the same.

9. In human males, all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one. These unpaired chromosomes are:

(i) Large chromosome

(ii) Small chromosome

(iii) Y chromosome

(iv) X chromosome

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (iii) and (ii)

(c) (iii) and (iv)

(d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer. (c) (iii) and (iv)

Explanation: X and Y are sex chromosomes.

10. Which of the following determines the sex of a child?

(a) The length of the mother’s pregnancy

(b) The length of time between ovulation and copulation

(c) The presence of an X chromosome in an ovum

(d) The presence of a Y chromosome in a sperm

Answer. (d) The presence of a Y chromosome in a sperm

Explanation: The male sex chromosome is the deciding factor for the gender of the child. If the X part fertilizes with the ovum, girl is born. If Y fertilizes, then a boy is born.

11. Which is the one characteristic of the parents that can be inherited by their children?

(a) Deep scar on chin

(b) Snub nose

(c) Technique of swimming

(d) Cut nose

Answer. (b) Snub nose

Explanation: A dominant inherent character can only be inherited by the children.

12. What could be the reason for the fossil of an organism to be found in the deeper layers of the earth?

(a) The extinction of organism has occurred few years back

(b) The extinction of organism has occurred thousands of years ago

(c) The position of fossil in the layers of earth is not related to its time of extinction

(d) Time of extinction cannot be determined.

Answer. (b) The extinction of organism has occurred thousands of years ago

Explanation: The deeper the fossil is embedded in the earth, the more likely it is to be very old.

13. What is the ancient name for all human beings?

(a) Monkey

(b) Chimpanzee

(c) Homo sapiens

(d) Invertebrates

Answer. (c) Homo sapiens

Explanation: The scientific name of human is Homo sapiens.

14. The organs present in two organisms indicate that they are derived from the same ancestor are:

(a) Analogous Organs

(b) Respiratory Organs

(c) Sense organs

(d) Homologous Organs

Answer. (d) Homologous Organs

Explanation: The structures which are similar in their morphology, anatomy, and embryology but dissimilar in their functions are homologous organs.

15. Which of the following pair of organ is not homologous?

(a) Forelimbs in humans and lizard

(b) Forelimbs in lizard and frog

(c) Wings in butterfly and bat

(d) None of these

Answer. (c) Wings in butterfly and bat

Explanation: Wings of a bat and a butterfly are considered as analogous organs.

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