CLASS 11th CHAPTER – 2 Biological Classification |Biology | NCERT SOLUTION| EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter -2 Biological Classification includes all the important topics with detailed explanation that aims to help students to understand the concepts better. Students who are preparing for their Class 11 Biology exams must go through NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chapter -2 Biological Classification. NCERT Solutions will make you understand the topics in most simple manner and grasp it easily to perform better.

Class 11th Chapter -2 Biological Classification | NCERT BIOLOGY SOLUTION |

Page No: 28
Exercises

1. Discuss how classification systems have undergone several changes over a period of time?
Answer
The classification systems have undergone several changes with time. The first attempt of classification was made by Aristotle. He classified plants as herbs, shrubs, and trees. Animals, on the other hand, were classified on the basis of presence or absence of red blood cells. This system of classification failed to classify all the known organisms.

Therefore, Linnaeus gave a two kingdom system of classification. It consists of kingdom Plantae and kingdom Animalia. However, this system did not differentiate between unicellular and multicellular organisms and between eukaryotes and prokaryotes. Therefore, there were large numbers of organisms that could not be classified under the two kingdoms.
To solve these problems, a five kingdom system of classification was proposed by R.H Whittaker in 1969. On the basis of characteristics, such as cell structure, mode of nutrition, presence of cell wall, etc., five kingdoms, Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia were formed.

2. State two economically important uses of:
(a) Heterotrophic bacteria
(b) Archaebacteria
Answer
Two economically important uses of Heterotrophic bacteria are:
→ They help in the production of curd from milk.
→ Many antibiotics are obtained from some species of bacteria.

Two economically important uses of Archaebacteria are:
→ Methane gas is produced from the dung of ruminants by the methanogens.
→ Methanogens are also involved in the formation of biogas and sewage treatment.

3. What is the nature of cell-walls in diatoms?
Answer
The cell walls in diatoms are embedded with silica, which makes them indestructible. They form two thin overlapping shells which fit together as in a soap box. Thus diatoms have left behind large amounts of cell wall deposits in their habitat.

4. Find out what do the terms ‘algal bloom’ and ‘red-tides’ signify.
Answer
Algal bloom refers to an increase in the population of algae or blue-green algae in water, resulting in discoloration of the water body.

Red tides are caused by red dinoflagellates that multiply rapidly. Due to their large numbers, the sea appears red in colour. Toxins released by them can kill other marine species.

5. How are viroids different from viruses?
Answer
Viroids are free RNAs without the protein coat, while virus have a protein coat encapsulating the RNA.

6. Describe briefly the four major groups of Protozoa.
Answer
The four major groups of Protozoa are:

• Amoeboid protozoans: These organisms live in fresh water, sea water or moist soil. They move and capture their prey by putting out pseudopodia (false feet) as in Amoeba. Marine forms have silica shells on their surface. Some of them such as Entamoeba are parasites.

• Flagellated protozoans: The members of this group are either free-living or parasitic. They have flagella. The parasitic forms cause diaseases such as sleeping sickness. Example: Trypanosoma

• Ciliated protozoa or ciliates: They are aquatic individuals that form a large group of protozoa. Their characteristic features are the presence of numerous cilia on the entire body surface and the presence of two types of nuclei. All the cilia beat in the same direction to move the water laden food inside a cavity called gullet. Example: Paramoecium, Vorticella,etc.

• Sporozoans: They include disease causing endoparasites and other pathogens. They are uninucleate and their body is covered by a pellicle. They do not possess cilia or flagella. They include the malaria causing parasite Plasmodium.

7. Plants are autotrophic. Can you think of some plants that are partially heterotrophic?
Answer
Some insectivorous plants, like bladderwort and venus fly trap are partially heterotrophic.
 
8. What do the terms phycobiont and mycobiont signify?
Answer
Lichens are good examples of symbiotic life of algae and fungi. Phycobiont is the name of the part composed of algae and Mycobiont is the name of the part composed of fungi. Fungi provide minerals and support to the alage, while algae provide nutrition to the fungi.

9. Give a comparative account of the classes of Kingdom Fungi under the following:
(i) Mode of nutrition
(ii) Mode of reproduction
Answer
→ Phycomycetes- This group of fungi includes members such as Rhizopus, Albugo, etc.
• Mode of nutrition: They are obligate parasites on plants or are found on decaying matter such as wood.

• Mode of reproduction: Asexual reproduction takes place through motile zoospores or non-motile aplanospores that are produced endogenously in sporangium.
Sexual reproduction may be of isogamous, anisogamous, or oogamous type. It results in the formation of thick-walled zygospore.

→ Ascomycetes- This group of fungi includes members such as Penicillium, Aspergillus,Claviceps, and Neurospora.
• Mode of nutrition: They are sporophytic, decomposers, parasitic or coprophilous.

• Mode of reproduction: Asexual reproduction occurs through asexual spores produced exogenously, such as conidia produced on conidiophores.
Sexual reproduction takes place through ascospores produced endogenously in sac – like asci and arranged inside ascocarps.

→ Basidiomycetes- This group of fungi includes members such as Ustilago,Agaricus and Puccinia.
• Mode of nutrition: They grow as decomposers in soil or on logs and tree stumps. They also occur as parasites in plants causing diseases such as rusts and smuts.
• Mode of reproduction: Asexual reproduction takes place commonly through fragmentation. Asexual spores are absent.

Sex organs are absent but sexual reproduction takes place through plasmogamy. It involves fusion of two different strains of hyphae. The resulting dikaryon gives rise to a basidium. Four basidiospores are produced inside a basidium.

→ Deuteromycetes – This group of fungi includes members such as Alternaria, Trichoderma, and Colletotrichum.
• Mode of nutritionSome members are saprophytes while others are parasites. However, a large number act as decomposers of leaf litter.

• Mode of reproduction: Asexual reproduction is the only way of reproduction in deuteromycetes. It occurs through asexual spores called conidia.
Sexual reproduction is absent in deuteromycetes.

10. What are the characteristic features of Euglenoids?
Answer
Characterisitic Features of Euglenoids:
→ Fresh water organisms found in stagnant water.
→ Instead of cell wall they have a protein rich layer called pellicle whick makes their body flexible.
→ They are autotrophs in the presence of sunlight and heterotrophs in the absence of sunlight.
→ A small light sensitive eye spot is present.

11. Give a brief account of viruses with respect to their structure and nature of genetic material. Also name four common viral diseases.
Answer
Viruses have a protein capsule and genetic materials inside the capsule. These genetic material become active once they are inside the nucleus of a host cell. They start replicating themselves and in turn spreading the disease.
Generally viruses that infect plants have single stranded RNA. Viruses infecting animals have double stranded RNA or DNA. Viruses which infect bacteria have double stranded DNA.
A.I.D.S, small pox, mumps, and influenza are some common examples of viral diseases.

12. Organise a discussion in your class on the topic- Are viruses living or non-living?
Answer
Viruses are microscopic organisms that have characteristics of both living and non-living. A virus consists of a strand of DNA or RNA covered by a protein coat. This presence of nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) suggests that viruses are alive. In addition, they can also respond to their environment (inside the host cell) in a limited manner.
However, some other characters, such as their inability to reproduce without using the host cell machinery and their a cellular nature, indicate that viruses are non-living. Therefore, classifying viruses has remained a mystery for modern systematics.
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CLASS 11th CHAPTER -1 The Living World |Biology | NCERT SOLUTION| EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter -1 The Living World includes all the important topics with detailed explanation that aims to help students to understand the concepts better. Students who are preparing for their Class 11 Biology exams must go through NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chapter -1 The Living World. NCERT Solutions will make you understand the topics in most simple manner and grasp it easily to perform better.

Class 11th Chapter -1 The Living World | NCERT BIOLOGY SOLUTION |

Exercises
Page No: 15

1. Why are living organisms classified?
Answer
The diversity of living beings makes it a challenge to systematically study them. Classification is a helpful tool to categorize them based on certain common characteristics. This enables scientists to study them in a more systematic way. The study of living beings is essential for the benefit of humankind. Discovery of new medicines, and better yielding crop varieties can be made possible only by systematic study of living beings. Moreover, environmental protection also makes it necessary for us to study the living beings in a systematic way.
 
2. Why are the classification systems changing every now and then?
Answer
Millions of plants, animals, and microorganisms found on earth, have been identified by the scientists while many new species are still being discovered around the world. Therefore, to classify these newly discovered species, with new characters, new systems of classification have to be devised every now and then. This creates the requirement to change the existing systems of classification.

3. What different criteria would you choose to classify people that you meet often?
Answer
In our day to day life we categorize people based on the basis of level of education, profession, hobbies, native place, sex etc.

4. What do we learn from identification of individuals and populations?
Answer
In a diverse country like India we can learn from identification of individuals and populations about the native place, mother tongue, costumes, food habit, religion, caste, etc.

5. Given below is the scientific name of Mango. Identify the correctly written name.
Mangifera Indica
Mangifera indica

Answer

In binomial system of nomenclature, the generic name of a species always starts with a capital letter whereas the specific name starts with a small letter. Therefore, the correct scientific name of Mango is Mangifera indica.

6. Define a taxon. Give some examples of taxa at different hierarchical levels.
Answer
A particular level of hierarchy in the classification of living beings is called a taxon. For example, the basic level of classification is species, followed by genus, family, order, class, phylum or division, in ascending order.

7. Can you identify the correct sequence of taxonomical categories?
(a) Species → Order → Phylum → Kingdom
(b) Genus → Species → Order → Kingdom
(c) Species → Genus → Order → Phylum
Answer
Both (a) and (c) represent correct sequences of taxonomic categories as the correct hierarchical arrangement of taxonomic categories in ascending order is
Species → Genus → Family → Order → Class → Phylum → Kingdom

In sequence (b), species should have been followed by genus. Therefore, it does not represent the correct sequence.

8. Try to collect all the currently accepted meanings for the word species. Discuss with your teacher the meaning of species in case of higher plants and animals on one hand and bacteria on the other hand.
Answer
In biological terms, species is the basic unit of taxonomy. It can be defined as a group of similar organisms capable of interbreeding freely among themselves under natural conditions to produce fertile off springs.
Therefore, a group of similar individuals that are reproductively isolated from other group of individuals form a species.

Species can also be defined as group of individuals that share the same gene pool.

9. Define and understand the following terms:
Answer
(i) Phylum: A group of closely related classes is called phylum. For example: pisces, amphibia, reptilia, aves and mammalia belong to the Phylum Chordata.
 
(ii) Class: The group of closely related orders is called class. For example: orders Primata and Carnivora belong to the class Mammalia.

(iii) Family: A group of closely related genera is called a family. For example: family hominidae contains Apes, Monkeys and Man. In plants, families are categorized on the basis of vegetative and reproductive features.
 
(iv) Order: A group of closely related families is called order. For example: order carnivora, includes many families.
 
(v) Genus: A group of closely related species is called genus. For example: genus Solanum, includes many species such as nigrum, melongena, tuberosum, etc.

10. How is a key helpful in the identification and classification of an organism?
Answer
Key is taxonomical aid used for identification of plants and animals based on the similarities and dissimilarities. Selection of one character leads to rejection of another character while identifying a particular species or genera or family and so on. For example presence or absence of hair on body can give a clue if an animal belongs to mammalian or not.

11. Illustrate the taxonomical hierarchy with suitable examples of a plant and an animal.
Answer
Classification of a plant
As an example, let us classify Mango
Phylum: Angiosperm
Class: Dicotyledons
Order: Sapindales
Family: Anacardiaceae
Genus: Mangifera
Species: Mangifera indica

Classification of a animal
As an example, let us classify Humans
Phylum: Chordata
Class: Mammalia
Order: Primata
Family: Hominidae
Genus: Homo
Species: Homo sapiens
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NCERT MCQ CLASS-9 CHAPTER-5 | SOCIAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT MCQ | | POLITICAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | | DEMOCRATIC RIGHTS | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON DEMOCRATIC RIGHTS

Question 1.
Civil Rights are given to the individual by:

(a) Nature
(b) God
(c) The State
(d) The people

Answer: (c) The State

Question 2.
Which one of the following fundamental rights is called the heart and
soul of Indian constitution?
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right to constitutional remedies
(c) Right to freedom
(d) Right to freedom of religion

Answer: (b) Right to constitutional remedies

Question 3.
Which of the following rights is not available under the fundamental rights?

(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(b) Right to protect one’s culture
(d) Right to property.

Answer: (d) Right to property.

Question 4.
Which among the following cannot be challenged in a court?

(a) Directive principles of state policy
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Freedom to choose any profession or business
(d) Right to move freely to any part of the country.

Answer: (b) Fundamental Rights

Question 5.
Laws have been made to
prohibit children’s from working in which of these industries?
(a) Beedi making
(b) Fire crackers and matches
(c) Printing and dyeing
(d) All the above

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 6.
One of the forms of exploitation as mentioned in the constitution is ‘traffic’. What does it mean?

(a) Transport system
(b) Buying and selling of human beings
(c) Buying and selling of goods
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Buying and selling of human beings

Question 7.
How many Fundamental Rights does the Indian constitution provide?

(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 8

Answer: (b) 6

Question 8.
When was the NHRC set up?

(a) 1998
(b) 1996
(c) 1993
(d) 2001

Answer: (c) 1993

Question 9.
Which of these is not seen as a
standard of human rights by the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights?
(a) Right to social security and insurance
(b) Right to health
(c) Right to accumulate wealth
(d) Right to adequate standard of living

Answer: (c) Right to accumulate wealth

Question 10.
What did Dr. Ambedkar refer to
the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies as?
(a) The brain of our Constitution
(b) The heart and soul of our Constitution
(c) The heart of our Constitution
(d) The soul of our Constitution

Answer: (b) The heart and soul of our Constitution

Question 11.
Which of these is/are the new rights guaranteed by the constitution of South Africa for its citizens?
(a) Right to privacy
(b) Right to an environment that is not harmful to the people’s health
(c) Right to have access to adequate housing
(d) All the above

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 12.
Which of these statements about the relationship between democracy and rights is more valid?

(a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens
(b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy
(c) Giving rights is good, but it is not necessary for a democracy
(d) All the above

Answer: (b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy

Question 13.
What can be done in case of infr
ingement of the rights in a democracy?
(a) Citizens are helpless; they cannot do anything
(b) They can approach courts to protect their rights
(c) They can ask their representatives to do the needful
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) They can approach courts to protect their rights

Question 14.
What is the position of women in Saudi Arabia?

(a) Women are given all the rights
(b) Women are given equal status with men
(c) Women are subjected to many public restrictions
(d) They are offered high positions

Answer: (c) Women are subjected to many public restrictions

Question 15.
Of which country was Kosovo a province before its split?

(a) USSR
(b) Yugoslavia
(c) South Africa
(d) Germany

Answer: (b) Yugoslavia











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NCERT MCQ CLASS-9 CHAPTER-4 | SOCIAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT MCQ | | POLITICAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | | WORKING OF INSTITUTIONS | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON WORKING OF INSTITUTIONS

Question 1.
Who exercises all governmental powers?

(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(d) Chief Election Commission

Answer: (b) Prime Minister

Question 2.
The Second Backward Classes Commission was appointed by the government of India in

(a) 1979
(b) 1981
(c) 1985
(d) 1999Answer

Answer: (a) 1979

Question 3.
Which one of the following statement about the President is wrong?
(a) He is the head of the state.
(b) He is the highest formal authority in the country.
(c) He exercises only nominal powers.
(d) He is elected directly by the people.

Answer: (d) He is elected directly by the people.

Question 4.
The strength of the Council of Ministers ranges from

(a) 60 to 80
(b) 60 to 100
(c) 70 to 85
(d) 80 to 100

Answer: (a) 60 to 80

Question 5.
Once the Lok Sabha passes the budget of the government or any other money related law, the Rajya Sabha cannot rejected it. The Rajya Sabha can only delay it by

(a) 14 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 16 days
(d) 17 days

Answer: (a) 14 days

Question 6.
When was the Second Backward Class Commission appointed?

(a) 1989
(b) 1979
(c) 1999
(d) 2001

Answer: (b) 1979

Question 7.
What do the Civil Servants do?

(a) They take important policy decisions
(b) They implement the ministers’ decisions
(c) They settle the disputes
(d) none of the above

Answer: (b) They implement the ministers’ decisions

Question 8.
What is ‘Parliament’?

(a) Assembly of elected representatives at the national level
(b) A body consisting of appointed ministers
(c) Body comprising judges
(d) Assembly of only appointed members

Answer: (a) Assembly of elected representatives at the national level

Question 9.
Apart from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, who else constitutes the Parliament?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Governor
(d) President

Answer: (d) President

Question 10.
For how long can the Rajya Sabha delay a Money Bill?

(a) 15 days
(b) 1 month
(c) 3 months
(d) 14 days

Answer: (d) 14 days

Question 11.
Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts?

(a) President, according to his own wishes
(b) President, on the advice of the PM
(c) President on the advice of the PM in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) President on the advice of the PM in consultation with the Chief Justice of India

Question 12.
Two features of Indian judicial system are:

(a) Independent Judiciary
(b) Integrated Judiciary
(c) Dependent Judiciary
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 13.
Which of the following institutions can make changes to the existing law of the country?

(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The President
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Parliament

Answer: (d) The Parliament

Question 14.
Which body acts as the guardian of Fundamental Rights?

(a) District Courts
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Election Commission
(d) Legislature

Answer: (b) Supreme Court

Question 15.
Why does the political executive have more powers than the permanent executive?

(a) Because hardly any expertise is required in taking policy decisions
(b) Because political executive consists of the direct representatives of the people
(c) Political leaders are more educated
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Because political executive consists of the direct representatives of the people


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NCERT MCQ CLASS-9 CHAPTER-3 | SOCIAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT MCQ | | POLITICAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | | ELECTORAL POLITICS | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON ELECTORAL POLITICS

Question 1: During election the voters make many choices. Select the correct options.

  • a) Who will make laws for them?
  • b) Who will form the government and take major decisions?
  • c) Who will grant Fundamental Rights?
  • d) Who will check the functioning of courts?

Answer: Who will make laws for them?

Question 2: What are the main challenges to free and fair elections in India? Select the correct options.

  • a) Model of Code of Conduct
  • b) Lack of Internal Democracy among Political Parties
  • c) Influence of Money and Muscle Power
  • d) Dynastic Rule

Answer: Model of Code of Conduct

Question 3: Is it good to have Political Competition? Which of the following statements justify this?

  • a) Political Competition helps to force political parties and leaders to serve people
  • b) It creates a sense of disunity and factionalism
  • c) It gives fair chance to people for the responsible government
  • d) Political competition causes divisions and some ugliness

Answer: Political Competition helps to force political parties and leaders to serve people

Question 4: Which of the following is not allowed while carrying out an election campaign?

  • a) Giving money to voters to cast vote for particular candidate
  • b) Using television channels.
  • c) Door-to-door canvassing.
  • d) Contacting voters on phone.

Answer: Giving money to voters to cast vote for particular candidate

Question 5: Which of the following does not include election procedure?

  • a) Booth capturing
  • b) Voting
  • c) Nomination of Candidate
  • d) Canvassing

Answer: Booth capturing

Question 6: What makes an election democratic? Select the correct option.

  • a) Free and fair Election.
  • b) Universal Adult Franchise
  • c) Fundamental Rights
  • d) Directive Principles of State Policy

Answer: Free and fair Election.

Question 7: Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false?

  • a) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government
  • b) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary
  • c) People select the representative of their choice in an election
  • d) People can indicate which policies they prefer

Answer: Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government

Question 8: Which one of the following provisions fails to ensure fair and equal chance to compete to candidates and political parties?

  • a) No party or candidate is bound by the model code of conduct
  • b) No party or candidate can bribe or threaten voters
  • c) No party or candidate can use government resources for election campaign
  • d) Nobody can appeal to the voters in the name of caste or religion

Answer: No party or candidate is bound by the model code of conduct

Question 9: The number of seats reserved for scheduled caste in Lok Sabha is:

  • a) 79
  • b) 59
  • c) 89
  • d) 99

Answer: 79

Question 10: Which of the following statements is against the democratic process of elections?

  • a) The Right to Vote should be given to selected people only
  • b) Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections
  • c) Elections must be held regularly immediately after the term is over
  • d) Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner

Answer: The Right to Vote should be given to selected people only

Question 11: The voters list is also known as:

  • a) Electoral Roll
  • b) Election
  • c) Voter Identity Card
  • d) None of these

Answer: Electoral Roll

Question 12: The number of Lok Sabha Constituencies in India at present is:

  • a) 543
  • b) 541
  • c) 546
  • d) 540

Answer: 543

Question 13: What is the age of a person who can contest election for Lok Sabha in India?

  • a) 25 Years
  • b) 30 Years
  • c) 35 Years
  • d) 40 Years

Answer: 25 Years

Question 14: Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner (CCE) of India?

  • a) The President of India
  • b) The Chief Justice of India
  • c) The Prime Minister of India
  • d) The People of India

Answer: The President of India

Question 15: Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?

  • a) India has the largest number of voters
  • b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful
  • c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote
  • d) In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict

Answer: India has the largest number of voters

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NCERT MCQ CLASS-9 CHAPTER-2 | SOCIAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT MCQ | | POLITICAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | | CONSTITUTIONAL DESIGN | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON CONSTITUTIONAL DESIGN

Question 1: Who amongst the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly of India?

  • a) Mahatma Gandhi
  • b) Dr Rajendra Prasad
  • c) Dr B. R. Ambedkar
  • d) H. C. Mukherjee

Answer: Mahatma Gandhi

Question 2: Which of these is a provision that a democratic constitution does not have ?

  • a) Name of the head of the state.
  • b) Powers of the head of the state.
  • c) Powers of the legislature.
  • d) Name of the country.

Answer: Name of the head of the state.

Question 3: Which of these was the most salient underlying conflict in the making of a democratic constitution in South Africa?

  • a) Between the white minority and the black majority.
  • b) Between South Africa and its neighbors.
  • c) Between men and women.
  • d) Between the colored minority and the black majority.

Answer: Between the white minority and the black majority.

Question 4: Which among the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution?

  • a) Double citizenship
  • b) Parliamentary form of government
  • c) Federal form of government
  • d) A written constitution

Answer: Double citizenship

Question 5: India is a secular state because

  • a) all of the above
  • b) there is no state religion
  • c) every citizen has the right to adopt and practice any religion
  • d) no discrimination can be made among citizens on the basis of religion

Answer: all of the above

Question 6: The Constitution of India is

  • a) partly flexible and partly rigid
  • b) flexible
  • c) rigid
  • d) none of these

Answer: partly flexible and partly rigid

Question 7: The Preamble to the Constitution of India declares India to be a

  • a) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
  • b) Sovereign, Democratic Republic
  • c) Sovereign, Socialist, Democratic, Republic
  • d) None of the above

Answer: Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic

Question 8: Mahatma Gandhi’s vision about the Indian Constitution was published in which magazine?

  • a) Young India
  • b) Discovery of India
  • c) New India
  • d) Indian Gazette

Answer: Young India

Question 9: The first captain of the National Hockey Team who was also the member of the Constituent Assembly was?

  • a) Jaipal Singh
  • b) Baldev Singh
  • c) Somnath Lahiri
  • d) K. M. Munshi

Answer: Jaipal Singh

Question 10: When did the Constituent Assembly adopt the Constitution of India?

  • a) 26th November, 1949
  • b) 15th August, 1947
  • c) 26th January, 1950
  • d) 26th January, 1930

Answer: 26th November, 1949

Question 11: How many members did the Constituent Assembly of India have?

  • a) 299
  • b) 199
  • c) 399
  • d) 279

Answer: 299

Question 12: Who prepared the Constitution for India in 1928?

  • a) Motilal Nehru
  • b) B. R. Ambedkar
  • c) Dr Rajendra Prasad
  • d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: Motilal Nehru

Question 13: When did the Indian Constitution come into force?

  • a) 26th January, 1950
  • b) 26th November, 1949
  • c) 15th August, 1947
  • d) 26th January, 1930

Answer: 26th January, 1950

Question 14: Which of the following days is celebrated to mark the enforcement of the Indian Constitution?

  • a) Republic Day
  • b) Independence Day
  • c) Gandhi Jayanti
  • d) Constitution Enforcement Day

Answer: Republic Day

Question15 : Who was the President of the Indian Constituent Assembly?

  • a) Dr Rajendra Prasad
  • b) Motilal Nehru
  • c) Sarojini Naidu
  • d) B. R. Ambedkar

Answer: Dr Rajendra Prasad

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NCERT MCQ CLASS-9 CHAPTER-1 | SOCIAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT MCQ | | POLITICAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | | WHAT IS DEMOCRACY? WHY DEMOCRACY? | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON WHAT IS DEMOCRACY? WHY DEMOCRACY?

Question 1. When did Mexico become independent?
(a) 1979
(b) 1981
(c) 1980
(d) 1982

Answer :  C

Question 2. In any society, people are bound to have difference of opinions and interests. Which is a better way of dealing with these conflicts?
(a) By brutal power exercised by the government
(b) By allowing one group to dictate terms to others
(c) By providing equal opportunities to all
(d) By opting for a strong leader who should have all the powers.

Answer :  C

Question 3. Zimbabwe attained independence from White minority rule in …….?
(a) 1980
(b) 1975
(c) 1981
(d) 1977

Answer :  A

Question 4. In which of these cases can democracy not provide a complete solution?
(a) Removing poverty completely
(b) Providing education to all
(c) Giving jobs to all
(d) All of the above

Answer :  D

Question 5. Which of these is permitted under the Rule of Law?
(a) Prime Minister can be punished for violating the Constitution.
(b) Police has a right to kill anybody.
(c) Women can be paid lesser salaries.
(d) President can rule for as long as he wants.

Answer :  A

Question 6. A democratic government has to respect some rules after winning the elections. Which of these points is not a part of those rules?
(a) Respecting guarantees given to the minorities.
(b) Every major decision has to go through a series of consultations.
(c) Office-bearers are not accountable.
(d) Office-bearers have some responsibilities.

Answer :  C

Question 7. Which party has ruled Zimbabwe since its independence and who is its ruler?
(a) ZANU-PF, Robert Mugabe
(b) ZANU-PF, Kenneth Kaunda
(c) Zimbabwe Freedom Party, Nelson Mandela
(d) Zimbabwe Party, P Johnson

Answer :  A

Question 8. Which of these is an example of perfect democracy?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) India
(d) None of the above

Answer :  D

Question 9. When was Mugabe forced out of office?
(a) 2018
(b) 2017
(c) 2016
(d) 2019

Answer :  B

Question 10. Democracy is based on….?
(a) Discussions and meetings are amongst few
(b) Discussions and meetings occur when a number of people put their heads together,
(c) No discussions
(d) Unruly crowded meetings with no formal decision

Answer :  B

Question 11. Which party has ruled Zimbabwe since its independence and who is its ruler?
(a) ZANU-PF, Robert Mugabe
(b) ZANU-PF, Kenneth Kaunda
(c) Zimbabwe Freedom Party, Nelson Mandela
(d) Zimbabwe Party, P Johnson

Answer :  A

Question 12. How many members are elected to the National People’s Congress from all over China?
(a) 3050
(b) 3000
(c) 4000
(d) 2000

Answer :  B

Question 13. When did Zimbabwe attain independence and from whom?
(a) 1970, from Black minority rule
(b) 1880, from White minority rule
(c) 1980, from Americans
(d) 1980, from White minority rule

Answer :  D

Question 14. What is Constitutional Law?
(a) Provisions given in the Constitution
(b) Law to make Constitution
(c) Law to set up Constituent Assembly
(d) none of the above

Answer :  A

Question15 . In which period did China face one of the worst famines that have occurred in the world?
(a) 1932-36
(b) 1958-61
(c) 2001-2002
(d) 2004-2007

Answer :  B

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NCERT MCQ CLASS-9 CHAPTER-6 | SOCIAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT MCQ | | GEOGRAPHY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | | POPULATION | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON POPULATION

Question 1.
Which India state has lowest density of population:

(a) Punjab
(b) Chennai
(c) West Bengal
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (d) Arunachal Pradesh

Question 2.
……………. has the highest literacy rate:

(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Bangalore
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (a) Kerala

Question 3.
How much portion of population is engaged in secondary activities?

(a) 12%
(b) 10%
(c) 18%
(d) 16%

Answer: (a) 12%

Question 4.
What is the literacy rate in Gujarat according to Censes 2001?

(a) 68.24%
(b) 69.97%
(c) 63.25%
(d) 65.93%

Answer: (b) 69.97%

Question 5.
The greatest literacy rate, among the four given states is of:

(a) Jharkhand
(b) Orissa
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (c) Chhattisgarh

Question 6.
Country’s human resources are called?

(a) Density
(b) Man-power
(c) Census
(d) Age composition

Answer: (b) Man-power

Question 7.
India is the ……………. most populated country in the world
.
(a) Fifth
(b) First
(c) Second
(d) Third

Answer: (c) Second

Question 8.
……………. is the state where the density of the population is 100
to 200 persons per sq. km.
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) West Bengal
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (a) Madhya Pradesh

Question 9.
Name the union territory which has highest population density:

(a) Delhi
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Punjab
(d) Port Blair

Answer: (a) Delhi

Question 10.
Which Indian state has highest density of population:

(a) Rajasthan
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) West Bengal
(d) Haryana

Answer: (c) West Bengal

Question 11.
What was India’s population in 1951?

(a) 361 million
(b) 265 million
(c) 295 million
(d) 461 million

Answer: (a) 361 million

Question 12.
What is the literacy rate in India?

(a) 94%
(b) 40%
(c) Nearly 100%
(d) 64-84%

Answer: (d) 64-84%

Question 13.
A large proportion of children in a population is result of:

(a) High birth rate
(b) High life expectancy
(c) High death rate
(d) More married couple

Answer: (a) High birth rate

Question 14.
According to census 2001, a literate person is one who:

(a) Can read and write his/her name
(b) Can write his/her name
(c) is 7 years old and can read, and write any language with understanding
(d) Knows the 3 ‘Rs’.

Answer: (c) is 7 years old and can read, and write any language with understanding

Question 15.
The magnitude of population refers to:

(a) The total population of an area
(b) The number of person added each year
(c) The rate at which the population increases
(d) The number of females per thousand males

Answer: (b) The number of person added each year

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NCERT MCQ CLASS-9 CHAPTER-5 | SOCIAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT MCQ | | GEOGRAPHY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | | NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILDLIFE | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILDLIFE

1. To which one of the following types of vegetation does rubber belong to?
(a) Tundra
(b) Tidal
(c) Himalayan
(d) Tropical Evergreen

Ans. (d) Tropical Evergreen

2. Cinchona trees are found in the areas of rainfall more than
(a) 100 cm
(b) 50 cm
(c) 70 cm
(d) less than 50 cm

Ans. (a) 100 cm

3 In which of the following state is the Similipal bio-reserve located?
(a) Punjab
(b) Delhi
(c) Orissa
(d) West Bengal

Ans. (c) Orissa

4. Which one of the following bio-re serves of India is not included in the world network of bioreserve?
(a) Manas
(b) Dihang-Dibang
(c) Gulf of Mannar
(d) Nanda devi

Ans. (b) Dihang-Dibang.

5. Flora means
(a) plants
(b) animals
(c) both
(d) none of the above.

Ans. (a) plants

6. Fauna means
(a) plants
(b) animals
(c) both
(d) none of the above.

Ans. (b) animals.

7. A very large ecosystem on land having distinct types of vegetation and animal life is called
(a) plants
(b) precipitation
(c) biome
(d) none of the above

Ans. (c) biome.

8. Which of the following are tropical rainforest?
(a) ebony
(b) mahogany
(c) cinchona
(d) all of the above

Ans. (d) all of the above

9. Bamboos Sai system are all trees found in which type of forests?
(a) tropical rainforest
(b) tropical deciduous forest
(c) mangrove forests
(d) montane forests.

Ans. (b) tropical deciduous forest

10. In which year wildlife protection act was implemented in India?
(a) 1972
(b) 1986
(c) 1947
(d) 2015

Ans. (a) 1972.

11. Which type of trees found in mangrove forest?
(a) coconut
(b) sundari trees
(c) keora, agar
(d) all of the above.

Ans. (d) all of the above.

12. Royal Bengal tiger is the famous animal in which forest?
(a) tropical rainforest
(b) tropical deciduous forest
(c) mangrove forests
(d) montane forests.

Ans. (c) mangrove forests.

13. The thorn forests and scrubs are found in a region where annual rainfall is
(a) 10 to 100cm
(b) more than 100cm
(c) less than 10cm
(d) none of the above.

Ans. (c) less than 10cm.

14. Asiatic lions are found in
(a) Thar desert
(b) Himalayan forest
(c) Similipal
(d) Gir forest

Ans. (d) Gir forests

15. How many biosphere reserves are present in our country?
(a) 19
(b) 18
(c) 35
(d) 10

Ans. (b) 18


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NCERT MCQ CLASS-9 CHAPTER-4 | SOCIAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT MCQ | | GEOGRAPHY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | | CLIMATE | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON CLIMATE

Question 1.
Which is the coldest place in India?

(a) Dras
(b) Srinagar
(c) Shillong
(d) Bikaner

Answer: (a) Dras

Question 2.
The word monsoon is derived from a word which literally means which of the following?

(a) Seasons
(b) Wind pattern
(c) Change
(d) Mausumbi

Answer: (a) Seasons

Question 3.
Which of the following causes rainfall in West Bengal during the hot weather season?

(a) Mango showers
(b) Kal Baishakhi
(c) Southwest monsoon
(d) Retreating Monsoon

Answer: (b) Kal Baishakhi

Question 4.
Which of the following is a component of upper air circulation?

(a) North-easterlies
(b) Jet stream
(c) South-west monsoon
(d) Kal Baishakhi

Answer: (b) Jet stream

Question 5.
From which of the following pressure belts do the north-easterly trade winds originate?

(a) Equatorial low pressure belt
(b) Subtropical high pressure belt of the Northern Hemisphere
(c) Subtropical high pressure belt of the Southern Hemisphere
(d) Temperate low pressure belt of the Northern Hemisphere

Answer: (b) Subtropical high pressure belt of the Northern Hemisphere

Question 6.
Which of the following atmospheric conditions govern the climate and associated weather conditions in India?
(a) Pressure and surface winds
(b) Upper air circulation
(c) Western cyclonic disturbances and tropical cyclones
(d) All the above

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 7.
The Indian subcontinent experiences comparatively milder winters as compared to Central Asia due to which of the following factors?

(a) The Tropic of Cancer
(b) The surrounding seas
(c) The Himalayas
(d) Ocean currents

Answer: (c) The Himalayas

Question 8.
Which one of the following is not one of the six major controls of the climate of any place?

(a) Latitude
(b) Temperature
(c) Pressure and wind system
(d) Distance from the sea

Answer: (b) Temperature

Question 9.
Latitude and altitude of a place determine which of the following climatic elements of a place?

(a) Pressure and wind system
(b) Temperature
(c) Rainfall pattern
(d) All the above

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 10.
In which of the following places are houses built on stilts?

(a) Assam
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Goa
(d) Kerala

Answer: (a) Assam

Question 11.
Which one of the following is the driest station?

(a) Mumbai
(b) Leh
(c) Bengaluru
(d) Delhi

Answer: (b) Leh

Question 12.
Which of the following places of India experiences the highest summer temperature?

(a) Pahalgam
(b) Leh
(c) Thiruvananthapuram
(d) Jaisalmer

Answer: (d) Jaisalmer

Question 13.
Which one of the following terms is used for the state of atmosphere over an area at any point of time?

(a) Weather
(b) Winds
(c) Climate
(d) Pressure

Answer: (a) Weather

Question 14.
Which of the following is not an elements of weather and climate?

(a) Atmospheric pressure
(b) Temperature
(c) Humidity
(d) Altitude

Answer: (d) Altitude

Question 15.
The term monsoon is originated from?

(a) German
(b) Hindi
(c) Latin
(d) Arabic

Answer: (d) Arabic









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