NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-2 | ENGLISH NCERT MCQ | LOST SPRING | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-2 Lost Spring  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON LOST SPRING

Question 1 : Why did Saheb leave Dhaka?

(a) Because of lack of resources
(b) Because of lack of enough food
(c) Because of friends
(d) Because of parents

Answer  : B

Question 2 : Who are responsible for the poor condition of bangle makers in Firozabad?

(a) Parents
(b) Society
(c) Bureaucrats
(d) All

Answer  : D

Question 3 : What efforts can help Mukesh materialise his dream of becoming a car driver?

(a) Hard work
(b) going to garage
(c) guidance of his owner
(d) all these

Answer  : D

Question 4 : What are the hazards of working in the glass bangles industry?

(a) Poor health 
(b) impaired vision
(c) miserable life
(d) All of these

Answer  : D

Question 5 : Who employs the local families of Firozabad?

(a) Bureaucrats
(b) Merchants
(c) Politicians
(d) The glass blowing industry

Answer  : D

Question 6 : What is the function of glass blowing industry?

(a) to make windows
(b) to make doors
(c) to mould glass
(d) to mould glass and make colorful bangles

Answer  : D

Question 7 : What makes the working condition of the children worst in the glass industry?

(a) Dark dingy cells without light and air
(b) dazzling and sparking of welding light
(c) high temprature
(d) All these

Answer  : D

Question 8: What excuse do the rag pickers give for not wearing chappals?

(a) mothers don’t give
(b) no interest
(c) a tradition
(d) All these

Answer  : D

Question 9 : Who is Mukesh?

(a) student
(b) worker
(c) ragpicker
(d) ragpicker

Answer  : D

Question 10 : What are the reasons for the migration of people from villages to city in the lesson?

(a) Sweeping of houses and fields by storms
(b) poverty
(c) education and unemployment
(d) safety

Answer  : A

Question 11 : What compels the workers in bangle industry of Firozabad to poverty?

(a) cast and ancestral profession
(b) Karam theory and society
(c) Bureaucrats and politicians
(d) All these

Answer  : D

Question 12 : The city of Firozabad is famous for what?

(a) For casteism
(b) For ragpickers
(c) for poverty
(d) for bangles

Answer  : D

Question 13 : Firozabad is the centre of which industry?

(a) cotton industry
(b) furniture industry
(c) textile industry
(d) glassblowing industry

Answer  : D

Question 14 : How is Mukesh’s attitude different from that of his family?

(a) being daring, firm and clear
(b) being a fighter
(c) being a coward
(d) not clear

Answer  : A

Question 15 : What is the means of survival in Seemapuri?

(a) work
(b) merchandising
(c) education
(d) ragpicking

Answer  : D

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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-1 | ENGLISH NCERT MCQ | THE LAST LESSON | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-1 The Last Lesson  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ THE LAST LESSON

MCQ Questions for Class 12 English Flamingo Chapter 1 The Last Lesson with Answers

Question 1.
Franz looked for opportunities to skip school to do what?

(a) work on mills
(b) go fishing
(c) water the plants
(d) collect birds eggs

Answer: (d) collect birds eggs

Question 2.
What was Franz banking on to enter the class as he was late?

(a) M.Hamel’s teaching on the blackboard
(b) commotion in the class
(c) Hauser helping him sneak in
(d) to quietly walk in when everyone was preoccupied with participles

Answer: (b) commotion in the class

Question 3.
M. Hamel is introduced as a ruler-wielding teacher. This demonstrates that:

(a) he is concerned.
(b) he is adamant.
(c) he is unfeeling.
(d) he is a hard taskmaster.

Answer: (d) he is a hard taskmaster.

Question 4.
Franz thinks- will they make them sing in German- even the pigeons?
What could this mean?
(a) German would use brutal force over everyone
(b) harsh orders will be passed
(c) when people are deprived of their essence even the surroundings are affected.
(d) the Germans will rob France of its language.

Answer: (c) when people are deprived of their essence even the surroundings are affected.

Question 5.
What does M. Hamel’s motionless posture reflect?

(a) the school is dismissed
(b) sense of finality
(c) changing order of life
(d) feeling of nostalgia

Answer: (b) sense of finality

Question 6.
What is the moral that the Alphonse Daudet wants to bring out?

(a) not to put off things that one can do that day
(b) old order changed to new
(c) one should accept everything that happens
(d) teachers should be respected

Answer: (a) not to put off things that one can do that day

Question 7.
Why did Hamel blame himself?

(a) not having taught them enough French
(b) not being strict
(c) giving students a holiday at times
(d) not being responsible

Answer: (c) giving students a holiday at times

Question 8.
Who sat on the back bench on the last lesson?

(a) Franz
(b) Prussians
(c) the village people
(d) The new teacher

Answer: (c) the village people

Question 9.
What was M. Hamel going to question Franz about?

(a) participles
(b) adjectives
(c) old primer
(d) tense

Answer: (a) participles

Question 10.
For the last two years, where did all the bad news come from?

(a) the Bulletin Board
(b) Town Hall
(c) school
(d) M. Hamel’s House

Answer: (a) the Bulletin Board

Question 11.
Don’t go so fast, you will get to your school in plenty of time means ___

(a) getting late
(b) very early
(c) not early
(d) early enough

Answer: (d) early enough

Question 12.
What did Mr. Hamel bring for his class on his last day in the school?

(a) new pens
(b) new notebooks
(c) sweets
(d) story books

Answer: (b) new notebooks

Question 13.
What was Franz expected to be prepared for at school that day?

(a) song
(b) dance
(c) essay writing
(d) Participles

Answer: (d) Participles

Question 14.
Why did the villagers come to meet M. Hamel in the school?

(a) to complain
(b) to say goodbye
(c) to gossip
(d) to show gratitude

Answer: (d) to show gratitude

Question 15.
Why was Franz surprised?

(a) Because of village elders
(b) Because of police patrolling
(c) because of students’ behavior
(d) because of M.Hamel’s kind and polite behavior

Answer: (d) because of M.Hamel’s kind and polite behavior


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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-16 | BIOLOGY NCERT MCQ | ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-16 Environmental Issues Reproduction in Organism  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES

1. Ultraviolet rays of the sunlight results in formation of

(a) Carbon monoxide

(b) Sulphur Dioxide

(c) Ozone

(d) Fluorides

Answer: (c) Ozone

2. Which of the following will not cause any atmospheric pollution?

(a) Hydrogen

(b) Sulphur Dioxide

(c) Carbon dioxide

(d) Carbon monoxide

Answer: (a) Hydrogen

 3. Sewage water can be purified for recycling with the action of

(a) aquatic plants

(b) penicillin

(c) microorganisms

(d) fishes

Answer: (c) microorganisms

 4. Today, concentration of greenhouse gases is high because of

(a) use of refrigerator

(b) increased combustion of oil and coal

(c) deforestation

(d) all of the above

Answer: (d) all of the above

 5. Photochemical smog is related to the pollution of

(a) soil

(b) water

(c) noise

(d) air

Answer: (d) air

 6. Most important causative pollutant of soil maybe

(a) plastics

(b) iron junks

(c) detergents

(d) glass junks

Answer: (a) plastics

 7. Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect of

(a) chlorine

(b) sulphur dioxide

(c) oxygen

(d) hydrogen

Answer: (a) chlorine

 8. When huge amount of sewage is dumped into a river the BOD will

(a) increase

(b) remain unchanged

(c) slightly decrease

(d) decrease

Answer: (c) slightly decrease

 9. Which is a fungicide?

(a) 2,4-D

(b) DDT

(c) Bordeaux mixture

(d) BHC

Answer: (c) Bordeaux mixture

10. Rotenone is

(a) a bioherbicide

(b) an insect hormone

(c) a natural herbicide

(d) a natural insecticide

Answer: (b) an insect hormone

11. Which of the following is not produced as exhaust of vehicles?

(a) sulphur dioxide

(b) carbon dioxide

(c) carbon monoxide

(d) fly ash

Answer: (c) carbon monoxide

 12. Smog is

(a) smoke

(b) other name for dust storm

(c) moistened air gases

(d) smoke and fog

Answer: (c) moistened air gases

 13. The most dangerous metal pollutant of automobile exhaust is

(a) cadmium

(b) silver

(c) lead

(d) manganese

Answer: (c) lead

14. Which one of the following is a greenhouse gas?

(a) carbon dioxide

(b) carbon monoxide

(c) ozone

(d) oxygen

Answer: (a) carbon dioxide

 15. Smog produces

(a) O3

(b) NO2

(c) CH4

(d) Aluminum Ion

Answer: (d) Aluminum Ion

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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-15 | BIOLOGY NCERT MCQ | BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-15 Biodiversity and Conservation  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION

Question 1 :  Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during

  • a) 1980 s
  • b) 1990 s
  • c) 1970 s
  • d) 1960 s

Answer :  1980 s

Question 2 :  Which is an example of an ex-situ conservation

  • a) Seed bank
  • b) National park
  • c) Wildlife sanctuary
  • d) Sacred groves

Answer :  Seed bank

Question 3 :  Which is not generally seen in biodiversity hotspots.

  • a) Lesser interspecific competition
  • b) Loss of diversity
  • c) Species richness
  • d) Species richness

Answer :  Lesser interspecific competition 

Question 4 : Which vertebrate group is more vulnerable to extinction?

a) Birds       b) Amphibians
c) Mammals d) Fishes

Answer : B

Question 5: From origin of life to its diversification on earth, there have occurred following number of episodes of mass extinction.

a) Two  b) Three
c) Four d) Five

Answer : D

 Question 6 : The ‘Evil Quartet’ of biodiversity loss, does not include

a) habitat loss
b) introduction of alien species
c) o-exploitation
d) hunting

Answer : D

Question 7 : Amazon rain forest, called the ‘Lungs of the Planet’, contribute following percentage of oxygen by photosynthesis, to earth atmosphere

a) 20% b) 35%
c) 42% d) 50%

Answer : A

Question 8: The taxa believed likely to join the endangered category in near future is called

a) Rare          b) Extinct
c) Vulnerable d) Living fossil

Answer : C

Question 9 : The Cichlid species of Lake Victoria were driven to, or nearly to, extinction by the introduction of _________. 

a) North American sturgeon
b) Nile perch
c) Eels
d) Bass

Answer : B

Question 10 : Which of the following is not currently a major cause of the global reduction in biodiversity?

a) Overexploitation
b) Global warming
c) Habitat destruction
d) Introduction of foreign predators and disease

Answer : B

Question 11: Which of the following is the most serious threat to biodiversity?

a) Competition from exotic species
b) Commercial harvesting
c) Habitat loss
d) Overexploitation

Answer : C

Question 12: Which of the following characteristics would cause a country to be considered a high-priority region for conservation efforts?

a) A high degree of endemism
b) Having low species richness
c) Having little natural habitat remaining
d) All of the above

Answer : A

Question 13: Which of the following is not the approach for in-situ conservation ?

a) Biosphere reserve  b) Sanctuary
c) Wild life safari park d) Sacred groove

Answer : C 

Question 14:  Among the ecosystem mentioned below, where can one find maximum biodiversity?

  • a) Coral reefs
  • b) Alpine meadows
  • c) Desert
  • d) Mangroves

Answer :  Coral reefs

Question 15 :  Which of the following forests is known as the ‘lungs of the planet Earth’?

  • a) Amazon rain forest
  • b) Tundra forest
  • c) Tiaga forest
  • d) Rain forests of North East India

Answer :  Amazon rain forest

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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-14 | BIOLOGY NCERT MCQ | ECOSYSTEM | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-14 Ecosystem  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON ECOSYSTEM

Q1. Ecosystem may be defined as

  1. A species along with environment
  2. Plants found in water
  3. Plants found on land
  4. Call plants and animals species along with environment

Answer:4

Q2. A pond / lake is

  1. A biome
  2. Unnatural ecosystem
  3. An artificial ecosystem
  4. Community of plants and animals only

Answer:2

Q3. Biome is

  1. The fauna of an ocean
  2. The Flora of land
  3. Communities of organisms interacting with one another
  4. The part of the earth and its atmosphere which is inhabited by living organisms

Answer:3

Q4. Grassland biome for its maintenance requires

  1. Periodic fire
  2. Intensive grazing
  3. Mowing
  4. All the above

Answer:4

Q6. Primary consumers in the detritus food chain are

  1. Herbivorous
  2. Bacteria and fungi
  3. Insect Larva, nematodes
  4. All the above

Answer:2

Q7. Total organic matter present in an ecosystem is called

  1. Biomass
  2. Biome
  3. Litter
  4. Food

Answer:1

Q8. Detritus food chain in comparison to grazing food chain is

  1. Generally longer
  2. Generally equal
  3. Generally shorter
  4. None of these

Answer:3

Q9. Putrefying organisms are

  1. Producer organisms
  2. Reducer organisms
  3. Consumer organisms
  4. Parasitic organisms

Answer:2

Q10. The most important organisms for an ecosystem are

  1. Herbivorous
  2. Carnivorous
  3. Green plants
  4. Protozoa

Answer:3

Q11. A peacock eats snakes which eat frog these eat hoppers which in turn thrive on leaves of the plants, the peacock is

  1. Primary consumer
  2. Secondary consumer
  3. Decomposer
  4. Apex of the food pyramid

Answer:4

Q12. A food chain is

  1. Group of organisms which eat the same type of food
  2. Animals eating animals eating
  3. Series of plants / animals which are interrelated in the form of organisms being eaten as food by the other
  4. None of these

Answer:3

Q13. A food chain consists of

  1. Producers
  2. Consumers
  3. Decomposers
  4. Producers and Consumers

Answer:4

Q14. Trophic leaves in a food chain are formed by

  1. Producers
  2. Consumers
  3. Decomposers
  4. All the above

Answer:4

Q15. Food chain always starts with

  1. Photosynthesis
  2. Respiration
  3. Nitrogen fixation
  4. Decay

Answer:1

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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-13 | BIOLOGY NCERT MCQ | ORGANISMS AND POPULATION | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-13 Organisms and Population  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON ORGANISMS AND POPULATION

Question 1.
The shifting of an organism temporarily from the stressful habitat to a more hospitable area and return when stressful period is over is called

(a) Suspend
(b) Migrate
(c) Hibernation
(d) Aestivation

Answer: (b) Migrate

Question 2.
Winter sleep is also called as

(a) Hibernation
(b) Suspend
(c) Migrate
(d) Aestivation

Answer: (a) Hibernation

Question 3.
To avoid summer-related problems –
heat and desiccation by organism is called
(a) Hibernation
(b) Suspend
(c) Migrate
(d) Aestivation

Answer: (d) Aestivation

Question 4.
A stage of suspended development is called

(a) Diapause
(b) Suspend
(c) Migrate
(d) Aestivation

Answer: (a) Diapause

Question 5.
Both the species benefit in

(a) Parasitism
(b) Mutualism
(c) Competition
(d) Predation

Answer: (b) Mutualism

Question 6.
Both species lose in

(a) Mutualism
(b) Competition
(c) Parasitism
(d) Predation

Answer: (b) Competition

Question 7.
One species benefit in

(a) Parasitism
(b) Predation
(c) Mutualism
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 8.
The interaction where one species is benefitted and
the other is neither benefitted nor harmed is called
(a) Commensalism
(b) Amensalism
(c) Mutualism
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Commensalism

Question 9.
If one species is harmed whereas the other is unaffected is called

(a) Commensalism
(b) Amensalism
(c) Mutualism
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Commensalism

Question 10.
Parasites that feed on the external surface of the host organism are called

(a) Ecto parasites
(b) Endo parasites
(c) Brood parasitism
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Ecto parasites

Question 11.
Parasites that live inside the host body at different sites are called

(a) Ecto parasites
(b) Endo parasites
(c) Brood parasitism
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Endo parasites

Question 12.
The number of birth during a given period in the population that are added to the initial density is referred to

(a) Natality
(b) Mortality
(c) Sex-ratio
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Natality

Question 13.
The number of deaths in the population during a given period is referred to

(a) Natality
(b) Mortality
(c) Sex-ratio
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Mortality

Question 14.
The size of the population tells us a lot about its status in the
(a) Environment
(b) Sex-ratio
(c) Age pyramid
(d) Habitat

Answer: (d) Habitat

Question 15.
For human population, the age pyramids generally show age distribution of

(a) Only males
(b) Only females
(c) Of males and females
(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) Of males and females




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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-12 | BIOLOGY NCERT MCQ | BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATION | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-12 Biotechnology and its Application  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON BIOTECHNOGY AND ITS APPLICATION

1. Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?

(a) X phage

(b) Retrovirus

(c) Ti plasmid

(d) PBR 322

Answer: B

2. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four year old girl with Adenosine Deaminase deficiency (ADA)?

(a) Gene therapy

(b) Chemo therapy

(c) Immunotherapy

(d) Radiation therapy

Answer: A

3. The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by________

(a) Phosphodiester bond

(b) Covalent bond

(c) Disulphide bridges

(d) Hydrogen bonds

Answer: C

4. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected bycMeloidogyne incognitia?

(a) Leaf

(b) Root

(c) Stem

(d) Flower

Answer: B

5. In Bt Cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue as protoxin is converted into active toxin due to__________

(a) Alkaline PH of the insect gut

(b) Acidic pH of the insect gut

(c) Action of gut microorganism

(d) Presence of conversion factors in insect gut

Answer: A

6. The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology is______

(a) Insulin

(b) Thyroxin

(c) Estrogen

(d) Progesterone

Answer:A

7. Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India by the farmers?

(a) Brinjal

(b) Maize

(c) Soyabean

(d) Cotton

Answer: D

8. Tobacco plant resistant to a nematode have beencdeveloped by the introduction of DNA that produced in the host cells__________

(a) Both sense and anti-sense RNA

(b) A particular hormone

(c) An antifeedant

(d) A toxic protein

Answer: A

9. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating__________

(a) Diabetes mellitus

(b) Chicken pox

(c) Rheumatoid arthritis 

(d) Adenosine Deaminase deficiency 

Answer: D

10. Which body of the Government of India regulates GM research and safety of introducing GM organisms for public services________

(a) Bio-safety committee

(b) Indian council for Agriculture Research

(c) Genetic engineering Approval Committee

(d) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation.

Answer: C

11. Maximum number of existing transgenic animalsis of_________

(a) Fish

(b) Cow

(c) Pig

(d) Mice

Answer: D

12. Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing:

(a) Transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in humans________

(b) Transgenic models for studying new treatments for certain cardiac diseases

(c) Transgenic cow – Rosie which produces high fat milk for making ghee

(d) Animals like bulls for farm work as they have super power

Answer: A

13. Transgenic animals are those which have________

(a) Foreign DNA in some of its cells

(b) Foreign DNA in all its cells

(c) Foreign RNA in all its cells 

(d) DNA and RNA both in the cells

Answer: B

14. Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called_______

(a) Biodegradation

(b) Bio-infringement

(c) Biopiracy

(d) Bioexploitation

Answer: C

15. The silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to:

(a) Boll worms

(b) White rusts

(c) Nematodes

(d) Bacterial blights

Answer: C

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CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -2 Solutions |NCERT CHEMISTRY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry : The NCERT solutions provided here will enhance the concepts of the students, as well as suggest alternative methods to solve particular problems to the teachers. The target is to direct individuals towards problem solving strategies, rather than solving problems in one prescribed format. The links below provide the detailed solutions for all the Class 12 Chemistry problems.

Chemistry is much more than the language of Science. We have made sure that our solutions reflect the same. We aim to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using logical approach and methodology. The NCERT Solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the subject.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter : 2 Solutions

NCERT TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

2.1. Calculate the mass percentage of benzene (C6H6) and carbon tetrachloride (CCl4) if 22 g of benzene is dissolved in 122 g of carbon tetrachloride.
Ans: Mass of solution = Mass of C6H6 + Mass of CCl4
= 22 g+122 g= 144 g
Mass % of benzene = 22/144 x 100 =15.28 %
Mass % of CCl4 = 122/144 x 100 = 84.72 %

2.2. Calculate the mole fraction of benzene in solution containing 30% by mass in carbon tetrachloride.
Ans: 30% by mass of C6H6 in CCl4 => 30 g C6H6 in 100 g solution
.’. no. of moles of C6H6,(nC6h6) = 30/78 = 0.385
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Textbook Questions Q2

2.3. Calculate the molarity of each of the following solutions
(a) 30 g of Co(NO3)26H2O in 4·3 L of solution
(b) 30 mL of 0-5 M H2SO4 diluted to 500 mL.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Textbook Questions Q3

2.4. Calculate the mass of urea (NH2CONH2) required in making 2.5 kg of 0.25 molal aqueous solution.
Ans: 0.25 Molal aqueous solution to urea means that
moles of urea = 0.25 mole
mass of solvent (NH2CONH2) = 60 g mol-1
.’. 0.25 mole of urea = 0.25 x 60=15g
Mass of solution = 1000+15 = 1015g = 1.015 kg
1.015 kg of urea solution contains 15g of urea
.’. 2.5 kg of solution contains urea =15/1.015 x 2.5 = 37 g

2.5. Calculate
(a) molality
(b) molarity and
(c) mole fraction of KI if the density of 20% (mass/mass) aqueous KI solution is 1·202 g mL-1.
Ans:
Step I. Calculation of molality of solution
Weight of KI in 100 g of the solution = 20 g
Weight of water in the solution = 100 – 20 = 80 g = 0-08 kg
Molar mass of KI = 39 + 127 = 166 g mol-1.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Textbook Questions Q5
Step II. Calculation of molarity of solution
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Textbook Questions Q5.1
Step III. Calculation of mole fraction of Kl
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Textbook Questions Q5.2

2.6. HS, a toxic gas with rotten egg like smell, is used for the qualitative analysis. If the solubility of H2S in water at STP is 0.195 m, calculate Henry’s law constant.
Ans: Solubility of H2S gas = 0.195 m
= 0.195 mole in 1 kg of solvent
1 kg of solvent = 1000g
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Textbook Questions Q6

2.7. Henry’s law constant for CO2 in water is 1.67 x 10Pa at 298 K. Calculate the quantity of CO2 in 500 mL of soda water when packed under 2.5 atm CO2 pressure at 298 K.
Ans.:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Textbook Questions Q7

2.8 The vapour pressures of pure liquids A and B are 450 mm and 700 mm of Hg respectively at 350 K. Calculate the composition of the liquid mixture if total vapour pressure is 600 mm of Hg. Also find the composition in the vapour phase.
Ans:
Vapour pressure of pure liquid A (PA) = 450 mm
Vapour pressure of pure liquid B (PB) = 700 mm
Total vapour pressure of the solution (P) = 600 mm
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Textbook Questions Q8

2.9. Vapour pressure of pure water at 298 K is 23.8 m m Hg. 50 g of urea (NH2CONH2) is dissolved in 850 g of water. Calculate the vapour pressure of water for this solution and its relative lowering.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Textbook Questions Q9

2.10. Boiling point of water at 750 mm Hg is 99.63°C. How much sucrose is to be added to 500 g of water such that it boils at 100°C.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Textbook Questions Q10

2.11 Calculate the mass of ascorbic acid (vitamin C, C6H8O6) to be dissolved in 75 g of acetic acid to lower its melting point by 1·5°C. (Kf for CH3COOH) = 3·9 K kg mol-1)
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Textbook Questions Q11

2.12. Calculate the osmotic pressure in pascals exerted by a solution prepared by dissolving 1.0 g of polymer of molar mass 185,000 in 450 mL of water at 37°C.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Textbook Questions Q12

NCERT EXERCISES

2.1. Define the terra solution. How many types of solutions are formed? Write briefly about each type with an example.
Sol: A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more chemically non-reacting substances. Types of solutions: There are nine types of solutions.
Types of Solution Examples
Gaseous solutions
(a) Gas in gas Air, mixture of 02 and N2, etc.
(b) Liquid in gas Water vapour
(c) Solid in gas Camphor vapours in N2 gas, smoke etc.
Liquid solutions
(a) Gas in liquid C02 dissolved in water (aerated water), and 02 dissolved in water, etc.
(b) Liquid in liquid Ethanol dissolved in water, etc.
(c) Solid in liquid Sugar dissolved in water, saline water, etc.
Solid solutions
(a) Gas in solid Solution of hydrogen in palladium
(b) Liquid in solid Amalgams, e.g., Na-Hg
(c) Solid in solid Gold ornaments (Cu/Ag with Au)

2.2. Suppose a solid solution is formed between two substances, one whose particles are very large and the other whose particles are very small. What type of solid solution is this likely to be ?
Sol: The solution likely to be formed is interstitial solid solution.

2.3 Define the following terms:
(i) Mole fraction
(ii) Molality
(iii) Molarity
(iv) Mass percentage
Sol: (i) Mole fraction: It is defined as the ratio of the number of moles of the solute to the total number of moles in the solution. If A is the number of moles of solute dissolved in B moles of solvent, then Mole fraction of solute
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q3
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q3.1
(ii) Molality: It is defined as die number of moles of a solute present in 1000g (1kg) of a solvent.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q3.2
NOTE: Molality is considered better way of expressing concentration of solutions, as compared to molarity because molality does not change with change in temperature since the mass of solvent does not vary with temperature,
(iii) Molarity: It is defined as the number of moles of solute present in one litre of solution.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q3.3
NOTE: Molarity is the most common way of expressing concentration of a solution in laboratory. However, it has one disadvantage. It changes with temperature because volume of a solution alters due to expansion and contraction of the liquid with temperature.
(iv) Mass percentage: It is the amount of solute in grams present in 100g of solution.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q3.4

2.4. Concentrated nitric acid used in the laboratory work is 68% nitric acid by mass in aqueous solution. What should be the molarity of such a sample of acid if the density of the solution is 1·504 g mL-1 ?
Sol: Mass of HNO3 in solution = 68 g
Molar mass of HNO3 = 63 g mol-1
Mass of solution = 100 g
Density of solution = 1·504 g mL-1
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q4

2.5. A solution of glucose in water is labelled as 10% w/w, what would be the molality and mole fraction of each component in the solution? If the density of solution is 1 .2 g m L-1, then what shall be the molarity of the solution?
Sol: 10 percent w/w solution of glucose in water means 10g glucose and 90g of water.
Molar mass of glucose = 180g mol-1 and molar mass of water = 18g mol-1
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q5

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q5.1

2.6. How many mL of 0.1 M HCl are required to react completely with 1 g mixture of Na2C0and NaHCOcontaining equimolar amounts of both?
Sol: Calculation of no. of moles of components in the mixture.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q6

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q6.1

2.7. Calculate the percentage composition in terms of mass of a solution obtained by mixing 300 g of a 25% and 400 g of a 40% solution by mass.
Sol:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q7

2.8. An antifreeze solution is prepared from 222.6 g of ethylene glycol, (CH6O) and200 g of water. Calculate the molality of the solution. If the density of the solution is 1.072 g mL-1, then what shall be the molarity of the solution?
Sol:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q8

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q8.1

2.9. A sample of drinking water was found to be severely contaminated with chloroform (CHCl3), supposed to be a carcinogen. The level of contamination was 15 ppm (by mass).
(i) express this in percent by mass.
(ii) determine the molality of chloroform in the water sample.
Sol: 15 ppm means 15 parts in million (106) by mass in the solution.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q9

2.10. What role does the molecular interaction play in solution of alcohol in water?
Sol: In case of alcohol as well as water, the molecules are interlinked by intermolecular hydrogen bonding. However, the hydrogen bonding is also present in the molecules of alcohol and water in the solution but it is comparatively less than both alcohol and water. As a result, the magnitude of attractive forces tends to decrease and the solution shows positive deviation from Raoult’s Law. This will lead to increase in vapour pressure of the solution and also decrease in its boiling point.

2.11. Why do gases always tend to be less soluble in liquids as the temperature is raised?
Sol: When gases are dissolved in water, it is accompanied by a release of heat energy, i.e., process is exothermic. When the temperature is increased, according to Lechatlier’s Principle, the equilibrium shifts in backward direction, and thus gases becomes less soluble in liquids.

2.12. State Henry’s law and mention some of its important applications.
Sol:
Henry’s law: The solubility of a gas in a liquid at a particular temperature is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas in equilibrium with the liquid at that temperature.
or
The partial pressure of a gas in vapour phase is proportional to the mole fraction of the gas (x) in the solution. p = KHX
where KH is Henry’s law constant.
Applications of Henry’s law :
(i) In order to increase the solubility of CO2 gas in soft drinks and soda water, the bottles are normally sealed under high pressure. Increase in pressure increases the solubility of a gas in a solvent according to Henry’s Law. If the bottle is opened by removing the stopper or seal, the pressure on the surface of the gas will suddenly decrease. This will cause a decrease in the solubility of the gas in the liquid i.e. water. As a result, it will rush out of the bottle producing a hissing noise or with a fiz.
(ii) As pointed above, oxygen to be used by deep sea divers is generally diluted with helium inorder to reduce or minimise the painfril effects during decompression.
(iii) As the partial pressure of oxygen in air is high, in lungs it combines with haemoglobin to form oxyhaemoglobin. In tissues, the partial pressure of oxygen is comparatively low. Therefore, oxyhaemoglobin releases oxygen in order to carry out cellular activities.

2.13. The partial pressure of ethane over a solution containing 6.56 × 10-3 g of ethane is 1 bar. If the solution contains 5.00 × 10-2 g of ethane, then what shall be the partial pressure of the gas?
Sol:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q13

2.14. According to Raoult’s law, what is meant by positive and negative deviaitions and how is the sign of ∆solH related to positive and negative deviations from Raoult’s law?
Sol: Solutions having vapour pressures more than that expected from Raoult’s law are said to exhibit positive deviation. In these solutions solvent – solute interactions are weaker and ∆solH is positive because stronger A – A or B – B interactions are replaced by weaker A – B interactions. Breaking of the stronger interactions requires more energy & less energy is released on formation of weaker interactions. So overall ∆sol H is positive. Similarly ∆solV is positive i.e. the volume of solution is some what more than sum of volumes of solvent and solute.
So there is expansion in volume on solution formation.
Similarly in case of solutions exhibiting negative deviations, A – B interactions are stronger than A-A&B-B. So weaker interactions are replaced by stronger interactions so , there is release of energy i.e. ∆sol H is negative.

2.15. An aqueous solution of 2 percent non-volatile solute exerts a pressure of 1·004 bar at the boiling point of the solvent. What is the molecular mass of the solute ?
Sol:
According to Raoult’s Law,
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q15

2.16  Heptane and octane form an ideal solution. At 373 K, the vapour pressures of the two liquid components are 105.2 kPa and 46.8 kPa respectively. What will be the vapour pressure of a mixture of 26.0 g of heptane and 35.0 g of octane?
Sol.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q16

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q16.1

2.17.  The vapour pressure of water is 12.3 kPa at 300 K. Calculate vapour pressure of 1 molal solution of a non-volatile solute in it
Sol: 1 molal solution of solute means 1 mole of solute in 1000g of the solvent.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q17

2.18. Calculate the mass of a non-volatile solute (molecular mass 40 g mol-1) that should be dissolved in 114 g of octane to reduce its pressure to 80%. (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2008)
Sol: According to Raoult’s Law,
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q18

2.19. A solution containing 30g of non-volatile solute exactly in 90 g of water has a vapour pressure of 2.8 kPa at 298 K. Further, 18g of water is then added to the solution and the new of vapour pressure becomes 2.9 kPa at 298 K. Calculate
(i) molar mass of the solute.
(ii) vapour pressure of water at 298 K.
Sol: Let the molar mass of solute = Mg mol-1
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q19

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q19.1

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q19.2

2.20. A 5% solution (by mass) of cane sugar in water has freezing point of 271 K. Calculate the freezing point of 5% glucose in water if freezing point of pure water is 273.15 K.
Sol: Mass of sugar in 5% (by mass) solution means 5gin 100g of solvent (water)
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q20

2.21. Two elements A and B form compounds having formula AB2 and AB4. When dissolved in 20g of benzene (C6H6), 1 g of AB2 lowers the freezing point by 2.3 K whereas 1.0 g of AB4 lowers it by 1.3 K. The molar depression constant for benzene is 5.1 K kg mol-1. Calculate atomic masses of A and B.
Sol:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q21

2.22. At 300 K, 36 g glucose present per litre in its solution has osmotic pressure of 4·98 bar. If the osmotic pressure of the solution is 1·52 bar at the same temperature, what would be its concentration?
Sol:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q22

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q22.1

2.23. Suggest the most important type of intermolecular attractive interaction in the following pairs:
(i) n-hexane and n-octane
(ii) I2 and CCl4.
(iii) NaCl04 and water
(iv) methanol and acetone
(v) acetonitrile (CH3CN) and acetone (C3H60)
Sol: (i) Both w-hexane and n-octane are non-polar. Thus, the intermolecular interactions will be London dispersion forces.
(ii) Both I2 and CCl4 are non-polar. Thus, the intermolecular interactions will be London dispersion forces.
(iii) NaCl04 is an ionic compound and gives Na+ and Cl04 ions in the Solution. Water is a polar molecule. Thus, the intermolecular interactions will be ion-dipole interactions.
(iv) Both methanol and acetone are polar molecules. Thus, intermolecular interactions will be dipole-dipole interactions.
(v) Both CH3CN and C3H6O are polar molecules. Thus, intermolecular interactions will be dipole-dipole interactions.

2.24. Based on solute solvent interactions, arrange the following in order of increasing solubility in n-octane and explain. Cyclohexane, KCl, CH3OH, CH3CN.
Sol: n-octane (C8H18) is a non-polar liquid and solubility is governed by the principle that like dissolve like. Keeping this in view, the increasing order of solubility of different solutes is:
KCl < CH3OH < CH3C=N < C6H12 (cyclohexane).

2.25. Amongst the following compounds, identify which are insoluble, partially soluble and highly soluble in water?
(i) phenol
(ii) toluene
(iii) formic acid
(iv) ethylene glycol
(v) chloroform
(vi) pentanol
Sol: (i) Phenol (having polar – OH group) – Partially soluble.
(ii) Toluene (non-polar) – Insoluble.
(iii) Formic acid (form hydrogen bonds with water molecules) – Highly soluble.
(iv) Ethylene glycol (form hydrogen bonds with water molecules) Highly soluble.
(v) Chloroform (non-polar)- Insoluble.
(vi) Pentanol (having polar -OH) – Partially soluble.

2.26. If the density of lake water is 1·25 g mL-1, and it contains 92 g of Na+ ions per kg of water, calculate the molality of Na+ ions in the lake. (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2008)
Sol:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q26

2.27. If the solubility product of CuS is 6 x 10-16, calculate the maximum molarity of CuS in aqueous solution.
Sol:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q27

2.28. Calculate the mass percentage of aspirin (C9H8O4 in acetonitrile (CH3CN) when 6.5g of CHO is dissolved in 450 g of CH3CN.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions-28

2.29. Nalorphene (C19H21NO3), similar to morphine, is used to combat withdrawal symptoms in narcotic users. Dose of nalorphene generally given is 1.5 mg. Calculate the mass of 1.5 x 10-3 m aqueous solution required for the above dose.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q29

2.30. Calculate the amount of benzoic acid (C5H5COOH) required for preparing 250 mL of 0· 15 M solution in methanol.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q30

2.31. The depression in freezing point of water observed for the same amount of acetic acid, trichloroacetic acid and trifluoroacetic acid increases in the order given above. Explain briefly.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions-31
Fluorine being more electronegative than chlorine has the highest electron withdrawing inductive effect. Thus, triflouroacetic acid is the strongest trichloroacetic acid is second most and acetic acid is the weakest acid due to absence of any electron withdrawing group. Thus, F3CCOOH ionizes to the largest extent while CH3COOH ionizes to minimum extent in water. Greater the extent of ionization greater is the depression in freezing point. Hence, the order of depression in freezing point will be CH3COOH < Cl3CCOOH < F3CCOOH.

2.32. Calculate the depression in the freezing point of water when 10g of CH3CH2CHClCOOH is added to 250g of water. Ka = 1.4 x 1o-3 Kg = 1.86 K kg mol-1.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions-32
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions-32.1

2.33. 19.5g of CH2FCOOH is dissolved in 500g of water. The depression in the freezing point of water observed is 1.0°C. Calculate the van’s Hoff factor and dissociation constant of fluoroacetic acid.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions-33

2.34. Vapour pressure of water at 293 K is 17·535 mm Hg. Calculate the vapour pressure of water at 293 K when 25 g of glucose is dissolved in 450 g of water.
Solution:
According to Raoult’s Law,
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q34

2.35. Henry’s law constant for the molality of methane in benzene at 298 K is 4.27 x 105 mm Hg. Calculate the solubility of methane in benzene at 298 K under 760 mm Hg.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions-35

2.36. 100g of liquid A (molar mass 140 g mol-1) was dissolved in 1000g of liquid B (molar mass 180g mol-1). The vapour pressure of pure liquid B was found to be 500 torr. Calculate the vapour pressure of pure liquid A and its vapour pressure in the solution if the total vapour pressure of the solution is 475 torr.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions-36

2.37. Vapour pressures of pure acetone and chloroform at 328 K are 741.8 mm Hg and 632.8 mm Hg respectively. Assuming that they form ideal solution over the entire range of composition, plot Ptotal, Pchlroform and Pacetone as a function of χacetone. The experimental data observed for different compositions of mixtures is:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions-37q
Plot this data also on the same graph paper. Indicate whether it has positive deviation or negative deviation from the ideal solution.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions-37

2.38. Benzene and toluene form ideal solution over the entire range of composition. The vapour pressure of pure benzene and toluene at 300 K are 50.71 mm Hg and 32.06 mm Hg respectively. Calculate the mole fraction of benzene in vapour phase if 80g of benzene is mixed with 100g of toluene.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions-38

2.39. The air is a mixture of a number of gases. The major components are oxygen and nitrogen with an approximate proportion of 20% is to 79% by volume at 298 K. The water is in equilibrium with air at a pressure of 10 atm. At 298 K if Henry’s law constants for oxygen and nitrogen are 3.30 x 107 mm and 6.51 x 107 mm respectively, calculate the composition of these gases in water.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q39
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions-39.1

2.40. Determine the amount of CaCl2 (i = 2.47) dissolved in 2.5 litre of water such that its osmotic pressure is 0.75 atm at 27°C.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions-40
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions-40.1

2.41. Determine the osmotic pressure of a solution prepared by dissolving 25 mg of K2SO4 in 2 litre of water at 25°C, assuming that it is completely dissociated. (C.B.S.E. 2013)
Solution:
Step I. Calculation of Van’t Hoff factor (i)
K2SO4 dissociates in water as :
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions Exercises Q41

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CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -1 The Solid State |NCERT CHEMISTRY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry : The NCERT solutions provided here will enhance the concepts of the students, as well as suggest alternative methods to solve particular problems to the teachers. The target is to direct individuals towards problem solving strategies, rather than solving problems in one prescribed format. The links below provide the detailed solutions for all the Class 12 Chemistry problems.

Chemistry is much more than the language of Science. We have made sure that our solutions reflect the same. We aim to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using logical approach and methodology. The NCERT Solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the subject.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter : 1 Solid State

NCERT TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

1.1. Why are solids rigid?
Ans: The constituent particles in solids have fixed positions and can oscillate about their mean positions. Hence, they are rigid.

1.2. Why do solids have definite volume?
Ans: Solids keep their volume because of rigidity in their structure. The interparticle forces are very strong. Moreover, the interparticle spaces are very few and small as well. As a result, their volumes cannot change by applying pressure.

1.3. Classify the following as amorphous or crystalline solids: Polyurethane, naphthalene, benzoic acid, Teflon, potassium nitrate, cellophane, polyvinyl chloride, fibreglass, copper
Ans: Crystalline solids: Benzoic acid, potassium nitrate, copper Amorphous solids: Polyurethane, Teflon, cellophane, polyvinyl chloride, fibreglass

1.4. Why is glass considered as super cooled liquid ? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2013)
Ans: Glass is considered to be super cooled liquid because it shows some of the characteristics of liquids, though it is an amorphous solid. For example, it is slightly thicker at the bottom. This can be possible only if it has flown like liquid, though very slowly.

1.5. Refractive index of a solid is observed to have the same value along all directions. Comment on the nature of this solid. Would it show cleavage property?
Ans: As the solid has same value of refractive index along all directions, it is isotropic in nature and hence amorphous. Being amorphous solid, it will not show a clean cleavage and when cut, it will break into pieces with irregular surfaces.

1.6. Classify the following solids in different categories based on the nature of the intermolecular forces: sodium sulphate, copper, benzene, urea, ammonia, water, zinc sulphide, diamond, rubedium, argon, silicon carbide.
Ans: Ionic, metallic, molecular, molecular, molecular (hydrogen-bonded), molecular (hydrogen-bonded), ionic, covalent, metallic, molecular, covalent (network).

1.7. Solid A is a very hard electrical insulator in. solid as well as in molten state and melts at extremely high temperature. What type of solid is it?
Ans: It is a covalent or network solid.

1.8. Why are ionic solids conducting in the molten state and not in the solid-state?
Ans: In the ionic solids, the electrical conductivity is due to the movement of the ions. Since the ionic mobility is negligible in the solid state, these are non-conducting in this state. Upon melting, the ions present acquire some mobility. Therefore, the ionic solids become conducting

1.9. What type of solids are electrical conductors, malleable and ductile?
Ans: Metallic solids

 1.10. Give the significance of a lattice point.
Ans: The lattice point denotes the position of a particular constituent in the crystal lattice. It may be atom, ion or a molecule. The arrangement of the lattice points in space is responsible for the shape of a particular crystalline solid.

1.11. Name the parameters that characterise a unit cell.
Ans: A unit cell is characterised by the following parameters:
(i)the dimensions of unit cell along three edges: a, b and c.
(ii)the angles between the edges: α (between b and c); β (between a and c) and γ (between a and b)

1.12. Distinguish between :
(i) Hexagonal and monoclinic unit cells
(ii) Face-centred and end-centred unit cells.
Ans:
(i) In a hexagonal unit cell :
a = b # c; α = β = 90° and γ = 120°
In a monoclinic unit cell :
a # b # c and α = γ = 90° and β # 90°
(ii) In a face-centered unit cell, constituent particles are located at all the corners as well as at the centres of all the faces.
In end-centered unit cell, constituent particles are located at all the corners as well as at the centres of two opposite faces. (C.B.S.E Foreign 2015)
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State Textbook Questions Q12

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State Textbook Questions Q12.1

1.13. Explain how many portions of an atom located at
(i)corner and (ii)body centre of a cubic unit cell is part of its neighbouring unit cell.
Ans: (i) An atom at the comer is shared by eight adjacent unit cells. Hence, portion of the atom at the comer that belongs to one unit cell=1/8.
(ii)An atom at the body centre is not shared by any other unit cell. Hence, it belongs fully to unit cell.

1.14. What is the two-dimensional coordination number of a molecule in a square close-packed layer?
Ans: In the two-dimensional square close-packed layer, a particular molecule is in contact with four molecules. Hence, the coordination number of the molecule is four.

1.15. A compound forms hexagonal close-packed. structure. What is the total number of voids in 0. 5 mol of it? How many of these are tetrahedral voids?
Ans:
No. of atoms in close packings 0.5 mol =0.5 x 6.022 x 1023 =3.011 x 1023
No. of octahedral voids = No. of atoms in packing =3.011 x 1023
No. of tetrahedral voids = 2 x No. of atoms in packing
= 2 x 3.011 x 1023 = 6.022 x 1023
Total no. of voids = 3.011 x 1023 + 6.022 x 1023
= 9.033 x 1023

1.16. A compound is formed by two elements M and N. The element N forms ccp and atoms of the element M occupy 1/3 of the tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound? (C.B.S.E. Foreign 2015)
Ans: Let us suppose that,
the no. of atoms of N present in ccp = x
Since 1/3rd of the tetrahedral voids are occupied by the atoms of M, therefore,
the no. of tetrahedral voids occupied = 2x/3
The ratio of atoms of N and M in the compound = x : 2x/3 or 3 : 2
∴ The formula of the compound = N3M2 or M2N3

1.17. Wh ich of the following lattices has the highest packing efficiency (i) simple cubic (ii) body-centered cubic and (iii) hexagonal close-packed lattice?
Ans: Packing efficiency of:
Simple cubic = 52.4% bcc = 68% hcp = 74%
hcp lattice has the highest packing efficiency.

1.18. An element with molar mass 2:7 x 10-2 kg mol-1 forms a cubic unit cell with edge length 405 pm. If its density is 2:7 x 103 kg m-3, what is the nature of the cubic unit cell ? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2015)
Ans: 
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State Textbook Questions Q18
Since there are four atoms per unit cell, the cubic unit cell must be face centred (fcc) or cubic close packed (ccp).

1.19. What type of defect can arise when a solid is heated? Which physical property is affected by it and in what way?
Ans: When a solid is heated, vacancy defect is produced in the crystal. On heating, some atoms or ions leave the lattice site completely, i.e., lattice sites become vacant. As a result-of this defect, density of the substances decreases.

1.20. What types of stoichiometric defects are shown by (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2013)
(i) ZnS
(ii) AgBr?
Ans:
(i) ZnS crystals may show Frenkel defects since the cationic size is smaller as compared to anionic size.
(ii) AgBr crystals may show both Frenkel and Schottky defects.

1.21. Explain how vacancies are introduced in an ionic solid when a cation of higher valence is added as an impurity in it.
Ans: Let us take an example NaCl doped with SrCl, impurity when SrCl2 is added to NaCl solid as an impurity, two Na+ ions will be replaced and one of their sites will be occupied by Sr21- while the other will remain vacant. Thus, we can say that when a cation of higher valence is added as an impurity to an ionic solid, two or more cations of lower valency are replaced by a cation of higher valency to maintain electrical neutrality. Hence, some cationic vacancies are created.

1.22. Ionic solids, which have anionic vacancies due to metal excess defect, develop colour. Explain with the help of a suitable example.
Ans: Let us take an example of NaCl. When NaCl crystal is heated in presence of Na vapour, some Clions leave their lattice sites to combine with Na to form NaCl. The e-1 s lost by Na to form Na+ (Na+ + Cl—> NaCl) then diffuse into the crystal to occupy the anion vacancies. These sites are called F-centres. These e-s absorb energy from visible light, get excited to higher energy level and when they fall back to ground state, they impart yellow colour to NaCl crystal.

1.23. A group 14 element is to be converted into n-type semiconductor by doping it with a suitable impurity. To which group should this impurity belong?
Ans: Impurity from group 15 should be added to get n-type semiconductor.

1.24. What type of substances would make better permanent magnets, ferromagnetic or ferrimagnetic. Justify your answer.
Ans: Ferromagnetic substances make better permanent magnets. This is because when placed in magnetic field, their domains get oriented in the directions of magnetic field and a strong magnetic field is produced. This ordering of domains persists even when external magnetic field is removed. Hence, the ferromagnetic substance becomes a permanent magnet.

NCERT EXERCISES

1.1. Define the term ‘amorphous’. Give a few examples of amorphous solids.
Sol. Amorphous solids are those substances, in which there is no regular arrangement of its constituent particles, (i.e., ions, atoms or molecules). The arrangement of the constituting particles has only short-range order, i.e., a regular and periodically repeating pattern is observed over short distances only, e.g., glass, rubber, and plastics.

1.2. What makes glass different from a solid such as quartz? Under what conditions could quartz be converted into glass?
Sol. Glass is a supercooled liquid and an amorphous substance. Quartz is the crystalline form of silica (SiO2) in which tetrahedral units SiO4 are linked with each other in such a way that the oxygen atom of one tetrahedron is shared with another Si atom. Quartz can be converted into glass by melting it and cooling the melt very rapidly. In the glass, SiO4 tetrahedra are joined in a random manner.

1.3 Classify each of the following solids as ionic, metallic, modular, network (covalent), or amorphous:
(i) Tetra phosphorus decoxide (P4O10) (ii) Ammonium phosphate, (NH4)3PO4 (iii) SiC (iv) I2 (v) P(vii) Graphite (viii), Brass (ix) Rb (x) LiBr (xi) Si
Sol.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State Exercises Q3

1.4 (i) What is meant by the term ‘coordination number’?
(ii) What is the coordination number of atom
(a) in a cubic close-packed structure?
(b) in a body centred cubic structure?
Sol. (i) The number of nearest neighbours of a particle are called its coordination number.
(ii) (a) 12 (b) 8

1.5. How can you determine the atomic mass of an unknown metal if you know its density and dimensions of its unit cell ? Explain your answer. (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2011)
Sol.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State Exercises Q5

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State Exercises Q5.1

1.6 ‘Stability of a crystal is reflected in the magnitude of its melting points’. Comment. Collect melting points of solid water, ethyl alcohol, diethyl ether and methane from a data book. What can you say about the intermolecular forces between these molecules?
Sol. Higher the melting point, greater are the forces holding the constituent particles together and thus greater is the stability of a crystal. Melting points of given substances are following. Water = 273 K, Ethyl alcohol = 155.7 K, Diethylether = 156.8 K, Methane = 90.5 K.
The intermoleoilar forces present in case of water and ethyl alcohol are mainly due to the hydrogen bonding which is responsible for their high melting points. Hydrogen bonding is stronger in case of water than ethyl alcohol and hence water has higher melting point then ethyl alcohol. Dipole-dipole interactions are present in case of diethylether. The only forces present in case of methane is the weak van der Waal’s forces (or London dispersion forces).

1.7. How will you distinguish between the following pairs of terms :
(a) Hexagonal close packing and cubic close packing
(b) Crystal lattice and unit cell
(c) Tetrahedral void and octahedral void.
Sol.
(a) In hexagonal close packing (hcp), the spheres of the third layer are vertically above the spheres of the first layer
(ABABAB……. type). On the other hand, in cubic close packing (ccp), the spheres of the fourth layer are present above the spheres of the first layer (ABCABC…..type).
(b) Crystal lattice: It deplicts the actual shape as well as size of the constituent particles in the crystal. It is therefore, called space lattice or crystal lattice.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State Exercises Q7Unit cell: Each bricks represents the unit cell while the block is similar to the space or crystal lattice. Thus, a unit cell is the fundamental building block of the space lattice.
(c) Tetrahedral void: A tetrahedral void is formed when triangular void made by three spheres of a particular layer and touching each other.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State Exercises Q7.1
Octahedral void: An octahedral void or site is formed when three spheres arranged at the corners of an equilateral triangle are placed over anothet set of spheres.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State Exercises Q7.2

1.8 How many lattice points are there is one unit cell of each of the following lattices?
(i) Face centred cubic (if) Face centred tetragonal (iii) Body centred cubic
Sol.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State Exercises Q8

1.9 Explain:
(i) The basis of similarities and differences between metallic and ionic crystals.
(ii) Ionic solids are hard and brittle.
Sol. (i) Metallic and ionic crystals
Similarities:
(a) There is electrostatic force of attraction in both metallic and ionic crystals.
(b) Both have high melting points.
(c) Bonds are non-directional in both the cases.
Differences:
(a) Ionic crystals are bad conductors of electricity in solids state as ions are not free to move. They can conduct electricity only in die molten state or in aqueous solution. Metallic crystals are good conductors of electricity in solid state as electrons are free to move.
(b) Ionic bond is strong due to strong electrostatic forces of attraction.
Metallic bond may be strong or weak depending upon the number of valence electrons and the size of the kernels.
(ii) Ionic solids are hard and brittle.Ionic solids are hard due to the presence of strong electrostatic forces of attraction. The brittleness in ionic crystals is due to the non- directional bonds in them.

1.10 Calculate the efficiency of packing in case of a metal crystal for (i) simple cubic, (ii) body centred cubic, and (iii) face centred cubic (with the assumptions that atoms are touching each other).
Sol. Packing efficiency: It is the percentage of total space filled by the particles.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State Exercises Q10

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State Exercises Q10.1

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State Exercises Q10.2

1.11 Silver crystallises in fcc lattice. If edge length of the cell is 4.07 x 10-8 cm and density is 10.5 g cm-3, calculate the atomic mass of silver.
Sol.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State Exercises Q11

1.12. A cubic solid is made of two elements P and Q. Atoms Q are at the corners of the cube and P at the body centre. What is the formula of the compound ? What is the co-ordination number of P and Q?
Sol. Contribution by atoms Q present at the eight corners of the cube = 18= x 8 = 1
Contribution by atom P present at the body centre = 1
Thus, P and Q are present in the ratio 1:1.
∴ Formula of the compound is PQ.
Co-ordination number of atoms P and Q = 8.

1.13 Niobium crystallises in a body centred cubic structure. If density is 8.55 g cm-3, calculate atomic radius of niobium, using its atomic mass 93u.
Sol.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State Exercises Q13

1.14 If the radius of the octahedral void is r and radius of the atoms in close-packing is R, derive relation between rand R.
Sol. A sphere is fitted into the octahedral void as shown in the diagram.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State Exercises Q14

1.15 Copper crystallises into a fee lattice with edge length 3.61 x 10-8 cm. Show that the calculated density is in agreement with its measured value of 8.92 gcm-3.
Sol.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State Exercises Q15
This calculated value of density is closely in agreement with its measured value of 8.92 g cm3.

Question 16.
Analysis shows that nickel oxide has the formula Ni0.98 O1.00. What fractions of nickel exist as Ni2+ and Ni3+ ions?
Solution:
98 Ni-atoms are associated with 100 O – atoms. Out of 98 Ni-atoms, suppose Ni present as Ni2+ = x
Then Ni present as Ni3+ = 98 – x
Total charge on x Ni2+ and (98 – x) Ni3+ should
be equal to charge on 100 O2- ions.
Hence, x × 2 + (98 – x) × 3 = 100 × 2 or 2x + 294 – 3x = 200 or x = 94
∴ Fraction of Ni present as Ni2+ = 9498 × 100 = 96%
Fraction of Ni present as Ni3+ = 498 × 100 = 4%

Question 17.
What are semi-conductors? Describe the two main types of semiconductors and contrast their conduction mechanisms.
Solution:
Semi-conductors are the substances whose conductivity lies in between those of conductors and insulators. The two
main types of semiconductors are n-type and p-type.
(i) n-type semiconductor: When a silicon or germanium crystal is doped with group 15 element like P or As, the dopant atom forms four covalent bonds like Si or Ge atom but the fifth electron, not used in bonding, becomes delocalised and continues its share towards electrical conduction. Thus silicon or germanium doped with P or As is called H-type semiconductor, a-indicative of negative since it is the electron that conducts electricity.

(ii) p-type semiconductor: When a silicon or germanium is doped with group 13 element like B or Al, the dopant is present only with three valence electrons. An electron vacancy or a hole is created at the place of missing fourth electron. Here, this hole moves throughout the crystal like a positive charge giving rise to electrical conductivity. Thus Si or Ge doped with B or Al is called p-type semiconductor, p stands for positive hole, since it is the positive hole that is responsible for conduction.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State Exercises Q17

Question 18.
Non-stoichiometric cuprous oxide, Cu2O can be prepared in laboratory. In this oxide, copper to oxygen ratio is slightly less than 2:1. Can you account for the fact that this substance is a p-type semiconductor?
Solution:
The ratio less than 2 : 1 in Cu20 shows cuprous (Cu+) ions have been replaced by cupric (Cu2+) ions. For maintaining electrical neutrality, every two Cu+ ions will be replaced by one Cu2+ ion thereby creating a hole. As conduction will be due to the presence of these positive holes, hence it is a p-type semiconductor.

Question 19.
Ferric oxide crystallises in a hexagonal dose- packed array of oxide ions with two out of every three octahedral holes occupied by ferric ions. Derive the formula of the ferric oxide.
Solution:
Suppose the number of oxide ions (O2-) in the packing = 90
∴ Number of octahedral voids = 90
As 2/3rd of the octahedral voids are occupied by ferric ions, therefore, number of ferric ions 2 present = 23 × 90 = 60
∴ Ratio of Fe3+ : O2- = 60 : 90 = 2 : 3
Hence, the formula of ferric oxide is Fe2O3.

Question 20.
Classify each of the following as being either a p-type or n-type semiconductor :

  1. Ge doped with In
  2. B doped with Si.

Solution:

  1. Ge is group 14 element and In is group 13 element. Hence, an electron deficient hole is created and therefore, it is a p – type semiconductor.
  2. B is group 13 element and Si is group 14 element, there will be a free electron, So, it is an n-type semiconductor.

Question 21.
Gold (atomic radius = 0.144 nm) crystallises in a face centred unit cell. What is the length of the side of the unit cell ?
Solution:
For a face centred cubic unit cell (fcc)
Edge length (a) = 22–√r = 2 x 1.4142 x 0.144 mm = 0.407 nm

Question 22.
In terms of band theory, what is the difference

  1. between a conductor and an insulator
  2. between a conductor and a semiconductor?

Solution:
In most of the solids and in many insulating solids conduction takes place due to migration of electrons under the influence of electric field. However, in ionic solids, it is the ions that are responsible for the conducting behaviour due to their movement.

(i) In metals, conductivity strongly depends upon the number of valence electrons available in an atom. The atomic orbitals of metal atoms form molecular orbitals which are so close in energy to each other, as to form a band. If this band is partially filled or it overlaps with the higher energy unoccupied conduction band, then electrons can flow easily under an applied electric field and the metal behaves as a conductor.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 20

If the gap between valence band and next higher unoccupied conduction band is large, electrons cannot jump into it and such a substance behaves as insulator.

(ii) If the gap between the valence band and conduction band is small, some electrons may jump from valence band to the conduction band. Such a substance shows some conductivity and it behaves as a semiconductor. Electrical conductivity of semiconductors increases with increase in temperature, since more electrons can jump to the conduction band. Silicon and germanium show this type of behaviour and are called intrinsic semiconductors. Conductors have no forbidden band.

Question 23.
Explain the following terms with suitable examples :

  1. Schottky defect
  2. Frenkel defect
  3. Interstitial defect
  4. F-centres.

Solution:
(i) Schottky defect : In Schottky defect a pair of vacancies or holes exist in the crystal lattice due to the absence of equal number of cations and anions from their lattice points. It is a common defect in ionic compounds of high coordination number where both cations and anions are of the same size, e.g., KCl, NaCl, KBr, etc. Due to this defect density of crystal decreases and it begins to conduct electricity to a smaller extent.

(ii) Frenkel defect : This defect arises when some of the ions in the lattice occupy interstitial sites leaving lattice sites vacant. This defect is generally found in ionic crystals where anion is much larger in size than the cation, e.g., AgBr, ZnS, etc. Due to this defect density does not change, electrical conductivity increases to a small extent and there is no change in overall chemical composition of the crystal.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 21

(iii) Interstitial defect : When some constituent particles (atoms or molecules) occupy an interstitial site of the crystal, it is said to have interstitial defect. Due to this defect the density of the substance increases.

(iv) F-Centres : These are the anionic sites occupied by unpaired electrons. F-centres impart colour to crystals. The colour results by the excitation of electrons when they absorb energy from the visible light falling on the crystal.

Question 24.
Aluminium crystallises in a cubic close packed structure. Its metallic radius is 125 pm.

  1. What is the length of the side of the unit cell?
  2. How many unit cells are there in 1.00 cm3 of aluminium?

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 22

Question 25.
If NaCI is doped with 10-3 mol % SrCl2, what is the concentration of cation vacancies?
Solution:
Let moles of NaCI = 100
∴ Moles of SrCl2 doped = 10-3
Each Sr2+ will replace two Na+ ions. To maintain electrical neutrality it occupies one position and thus creates one cation vacancy.
∴ Moles of cation vacancy in 100 moles NaCI = 10-3
Moles of cation vacancy in one mole
NaCI = 10-3 × 10-2 = 10-5
∴ Number of cation vacancies
= 10-5 × 6.022 × 1023 = 6.022 × 1018 mol-1

Question 26.
Explain the following with suitable example:

  1. Ferromagnetism
  2. Paramagnetism
  3. Ferrimagnetism
  4. Antiferromagnetism
  5. 12-16 and 13-15 group compounds.

Solution:
(i) Ferromagnetic substances : Substances which are attracted very strongly by a magnetic field are called ferromagnetic substances, e.g., Fe, Ni, Co and CrO2 show ferromagnetism. Such substances remain permanently magnetised, once they have been magnetised. This type of magnetic moments are due to unpaired electrons in the same direction.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 23
The ferromagnetic material, CrO2, is used to make magnetic tapes used for audio recording.

(ii) Paramagnetic substances : Substances which are weakly attracted by the external magnetic field are called paramagnetic substances. The property thus exhibited is called paramagnetism. They are magnetised in the same direction as that of the applied field. This property is shown by those substances whose atoms, ions or molecules contain unpaired electrons, e.g., O2, Cu2+, Fe3+, etc. These substances, however, lose their magnetism in the absence of the magnetic field.

(iii) Ferrimagnetic substances : Substances which are expected to possess large magnetism on the basis of the unpaired electrons but actually have small net magnetic moment are called ferrimagnetic substances, e.g., Fe3O4, ferrites of the formula M2+Fe2O4 where M = Mg, Cu, Zn, etc. Ferrimagnetism arises due to the unequal number of magnetic moments in opposite direction resulting in some net magnetic moment.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 24

(iv) Antiferromagnetic substances : Substances which are expected to possess paramagnetism or ferromagnetism on the basis of unpaired electrons but actually they possess zero net magnetic moment are called antiferromagnetic substances, e.g., MnO. Antiferromagnetism is due to the presence of equal number of magnetic moments in the opposite directions
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 25

(v) 13-15 group compounds : When the solid state materials are produced by combination of elements of groups 13 and 15, the compounds thus obtained are called 13-15 compounds. For example, InSb, AlP, GaAs, etc.

12-16 group compounds : Combination of elements of groups 12 and 16 yield some solid compounds which are referred to as 12-16 compounds. For example, ZnS, CdS, CdSe, HgTe, etc. In these compounds, the bonds have ionic character.

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Class 12th Chapter -15 Communication Systems |NCERT Physics Solutions | Edugrown

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter – 15 Communications Systems includes all the important topics with detailed explanation that aims to help students to understand the concepts better. Students who are preparing for their Class 12 exams must go through NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 15 Communications Systems. Going through the solutions provided on this page will help you to know how to approach and solve the problems.

Students can also find NCERT intext, exercises and back of chapter questions. Also working on Class 12 Physics Chapter 15 NCERT Solutions will be most helpful to the students to solve their Home works and Assignments on time.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter : 15 Communications Systems

NCERT Exercises

Question 1.
Which of the following frequencies will be suit-able for beyond-the-horizon communication using sky waves?
(a) 10 kHz
(b) 10 MHz
(c) 1 GHz
(d) 1000 GHz
Solution:
(b) : 10 MHz will be suitable frequency for sky waves as lower frequency of 10 kHz will require large radiating antenna and higher frequencies 1 GHz and 1000 GHz will pass through the ionosphere and will not be reflected by it.

Question 2.
Frequencies in the UHF range normally propagate by means of:
(a) Ground waves
(b) Sky waves
(c) Surface waves
(d) Space waves
Solution:
(d) : Frequencies in the UHF range normally propagates by means of space waves. The high frequency space waves are ideal for frequency modulation but do not bend with ground.

Question 3.
Digital signals
(i) do not provide a continuous set of values,
(ii) represent values as discrete steps,
(iii) can utilize binary system, and
(iv) can utilize decimal as well as binary systems.

Which of the above statements are true?

(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) but not (iv)
(d) All of (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
Solution:
(c) : Decimal system represents a continuous set of values which cannot be utilized by digital signals.

Question 4.
Is it necessary for a transmitting antenna to be at the same height as that of the receiving antenna for the line of sight communication? A TV transmitting antenna is 81 m tall. How much service area can it cover if the receiving antenna is at the ground level?
Solution:
No, for line of sight communication, the two antenna may not be at the same height. Surface area
A=\pi { d }^{ 2 }=\pi \left( 2hR \right) =\cfrac { 22 }{ 7 } \times 2\times 81\times 6.4\times { 10 }^{ 6 }
=3258.5\times { 10 }^{ 6 }sq.metre=3258.5sq.km

Question 5.
A carrier wave of peak voltage 12 V is used to transmit a message signal. What should be the peak voltage of the modulating signal in order to have a modulation index of 75%?
Solution:
Modulation index, \mu =\cfrac { { A }_{ m } }{ { A }_{ c } } so, peak voltage
{ A }_{ m }={ \mu A }_{ c }=0.75\times 12=9V

Question 6.
A modulating signal is a square wave, as shown in Figure
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 15 Communication Systems 1
The carrier wave is given by c(t) = 2sin (8πt) volts
(i) Sketch the amplitude modulated wave form
(ii) What is the modulation index?
Solution:
(i) The amplitude modulated wave is shown here’:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 15 Communication Systems 2
(ii) Modulation index, \mu \cfrac { { A }_{ m } }{ { A }_{ c } } =\cfrac { 1V }{ 2V } =0.5

Question 7.
For an amplitude modulated wave, the maximum amplitude is found to be 10 V while the minimum amplitude is found to be 2 V. Determine the modulation index, p. What would be the value of p if the minimum amplitude is zero volt?
Solution:
We know
Modulation index, \mu =\cfrac { { A }_{ m } }{ { A }_{ c } }
Also, minimum amplitude, { A }_{ min }={ A }_{ c }\left( 1-\mu \right)
Maximum amplitude, { A }_{ max }={ A }_{ c }\left( 1+\mu \right)
So, modulation index, \mu =\cfrac { { A }_{ max }{ -A }_{ min } }{ { A }_{ max }{ +A }_{ min } }
or \mu =\cfrac { 10-2 }{ 10+2 } =\cfrac { 8 }{ 12 } =2/3=0.67
if Amin = O, then modulation index, \cfrac { { A }_{ mix }-{ A }_{ min } }{ { A }_{ mix }+{ A }_{ min } } =\cfrac { 10-0 }{ 10+0 } =\cfrac { 10 }{ 10 } =1

Question 8.
Due to economic reasons, only the upper side band of an AM wave is transmitted, but at the receiving station, there is a facility for generating the carrier. Show that if a device is available which can multiply two signals, then it is possible to recover the modulating signal at the receiver station.
Solution:
Let, the received signal be cos(ωc + ωm)t The carrier signal available at the receiving station is Ac cos ωct Multiplying the two signals, we get A1Ac cos  (ωc + ωm)t cos ωc\cfrac { { A }_{ 1 }{ A }_{ c } }{ 2 } \left[ cos\left( 2{ \omega }_{ c }+{ \omega }_{ m } \right) t+cos{ \omega }_{ m }t \right] If this signal is passed through a low pass filter, we can recover the modulating signal \cfrac { { A }_{ 1 }{ A }_{ c } }{ 2 } cos{ \omega }_{ m }t

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