NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-7 | ENGLISH FLAMINGO NCERT MCQ | THE INTERVIEW | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-7 The Interview  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English Flamingo which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE INTERVIEW

Question 1.
What do Rudyard Kipling and his wife express about interviews?

(a) immoral
(b) not good
(c) very bad
(d) immoral and offensive crime against a person

Answer: (d) immoral and offensive crime against a person

Question 2.
Why were the journalists and publishers puzzled by the success of The Name of the Rose?

(a) because readers like trash and it was a serious novel
(b) because it was becoming popular
(c) because of its high rated success
(d) none

Answer: (a) because readers like trash and it was a serious novel

Question 3.
What was Lewis Carroll’s
opinion of interviews and autographs?
(a) wonder
(b) terror
(c) horror
(d) none

Answer: (c) horror

Question 4.
Which period of history do Umberto’s novels deal with?

(a) Renaissance
(b) dark age
(c) modern era
(d) Medieval period

Answer: (d) Medieval period

Question 5.
Why did Umberto start writing novels?

(a) to avail an opportunity
(b) to be in limelight
(c) to share his views
(d) to make best use of empty spaces means free time

Answer: (d) to make best use of empty spaces means free time

Question 6.
What facts are being showcased in the interview held between Eco and Padmanabhan?

(a) he takes pride in being an academician, a university Professor first
(b) Being a novelist is a secondary thing for him
(c) uses his free time for writing novels
(d) All these

Answer: (d) All these

Question 7.
How many novels has Umberto written?

(a) 10
(b) 8
(c) 15
(d) 5

Answer: (d) 5

Question 8.
What do his works for children speak about ?

(a) his passion for children
(b) children are nuisance
(c) children love to be happy
(d) non-violence and peace

Answer: (d) non-violence and peace

Question 9.
Explain ‘Denis Brain’s statement “Almost everything of moment reaches us through one man
asking questions of others.’

(a) The interviewer has the power
(b) The interviewer has status
(c) The interviewer can elicit the truth and has the power to influence
(d) All these

Answer: (d) All these

Question 10.
Enumerate ‘An Interview is a supremely serviceable medium of communication?

(a) a medium to gossip
(b) a medium to be the talk of the town
(c) a medium to prosper
(d) a noble medium of interaction and introspection

Answer: (d) a noble medium of interaction and introspection

Question 11.
What satisfied Umberto’s taste for narration?

(a) stories
(b) children’s works
(c) interviews
(d) Novels

Answer: (d) Novels

Question 12.
What do you understand by the expression ‘Thumbprints on his windpipes”?
(a) creating excessive pressure on throat
(b) creating excessive pressure on vocal chords
(c) creating excessive pressure and tension for someone
(d) none

Answer: (c) creating excessive pressure and tension for someone

Question 13.
Why do the celebrities feel embarrassed most often?

(a) because of question attacks during interviews
(b) because of interviewer’s gestures
(c) because of interviewer’s appearance
(d) none

Answer: (a) because of question attacks during interviews

Question 14.
At what age did he start writing novels?

(a) at the age of 55
(b) at the age of 52
(c) at the age of 57
(d) at the age of 50

Answer: (d) at the age of 50

Question 15.
Why do most celebrity writers despise being interviewed?
(a) they don’t like journalists
(b) unwarranted intrusion in their life
(c) their privacy is hurt
(d) none

Answer: (b) unwarranted intrusion in their life


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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-6 | ENGLISH FLAMINGO NCERT MCQ | POETS AND PANCAKES | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-6 Poets and Pancakes  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English Flamingo which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON POETS AND PANCAKES

Question 1.
Who was heading the make-up department?

(a) a Madrasa
(b) A Tamilian
(c) A Bengali
(d) A Bengali and later was succeeded by a Maharashtrian

Answer: (d) A Bengali and later was succeeded by a Maharashtrian

Question 2.
Why was Subbu a trouble shooter?

(a) because of his gossip style
(b) because of his flattery
(c) ability to mix up with everyone
(d) because of his problem resolving quality

Answer: (d) because of his problem resolving quality

Question 3.
When did MRA visit Madras?

(a) 1942
(b) 1922
(c) 1932
(d) 1952

Answer: (d) 1952

Question 4.
In this lesson, what is the purpose of humor and satire used by the author?

(a) to highlight human abilities
(b) to show capabilities
(c) to show varied capacities
(d) to show and highlight human infancies and flaws

Answer: (d) to show and highlight human infancies and flaws

Question 5.
How was Kothamangalam Subbu treated in the Gemini studio?

(a) with hatred
(b) rudely
(c) disrespectfully
(d) with high respect

Answer: (d) with high respect

Question 6.
How does the author come to know that English author was Stephen Spender?

(a) From a painting
(b) From the newspaper
(c) from a television show
(d) from a book- The God that failed

Answer: (d) from a book- The God that failed

Question 7.
What is the example of National Integration in Poets and Pancakes?

(a) Make up department of Gemini
(b) rehearsal room
(c) office of Gemini studio
(d) none

Answer: (a) Make up department of Gemini

Question 8.
Who imitated the scenes of Sunset and Sunrise of Jotham Valley?

(a) Police
(b) Scouts of Madras
(c) Social Workers
(d) All Tamil Plays

Answer: (d) All Tamil Plays

Question 9.
Why was Subbu considered number 2 at Gemini studio?

(a) because of his flattery
(b) because of his abilities
(c) because of creative skills
(d) none

Answer: (c) because of creative skills

Question 10.
The boy in the make up room was jealous of whom?

(a) actors
(b) author
(c) the visitor
(d) Subbu’s success and his closeness to the boss

Answer: (d) Subbu’s success and his closeness to the boss

Question 11.
Why was the author praying for crowd shooting at all times?

(a) to attract the crowd
(b) to avoid people
(c) to avoid epical narrations
(d) none

Answer: (c) to avoid epical narrations

Question 12.
Why did everybody in the studio think of giving some work to the author?

(a) because of the idle appearance of his work
(b) because he was an office boy
(c) because he was a helper
(d) none

Answer: (a) because of the idle appearance of his work

Question 13.
What was MRA?

(a) British Army
(b) The Moral Rearmament Army- a counter movement to International Communism
(c) a wing of Indian Army
(d) A drama company

Answer: (b) The Moral Rearmament Army- a counter movement to International Communism

Question 14.
Who was the Englishman?

(a) Salman Rushdie
(b) D.H Lawrence
(c) George Orwell
(d) Stephen Spender- Editor of a British Periodical The Encounter

Answer: (d) Stephen Spender- Editor of a British Periodical The Encounter

Question 15.
For whom was Gemini studio making films?

(a) for English people
(b) for illiterate
(c) for elderly people
(d) for simple Tamilians who have no interest in English poetry

Answer: (d) for simple Tamilians who have no interest in English poetry


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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-5 | ENGLISH FLAMINGO NCERT MCQ | INDIGO | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-5 Indigo  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English Flamingo which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON INDIGO

Question 1.
Health conditions in Champaran

(a) miserable
(b) tolerable
(c) under control
(d) fairly good

Answer: (a) miserable

Question 2.
Who volunteered to work in Champaran?

(a) two disciples of Gandhi and their wives
(b) Kasturba and the eldest son of Gandhi
(c) Mahadev Desai and his wife
(d) Narhari Prasad and his wife

Answer: (a) two disciples of Gandhi and their wives

Question 3.
The representative of the planters offered to refund—– percent to the peasants

(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) 25

Answer: (d) 25

Question 4.
For how long did Gandhi remain in Champaran?

(a) seven weeks
(b) three months
(c) one and a half year
(d) seven months

Answer: (d) seven months

Question 5.
What amount of repayment did the big planters think Gandhi would demand?

(a) repayment in full
(b) double the amount
(c) fifty percent of the amount
(d) no payment, just an apology

Answer: (a) repayment in full

Question 6.
Gandhi was summoned by ___ the Lt. Governor

(a) Sir Edward Gait
(b) Sir Henry Gait
(c) Sir Richard Andrews
(d) Sir Freer Andrews

Answer: (a) Sir Edward Gait

Question 7.
Who were ready to follow Gandhi into jail?

(a) peasants
(b) lawyers
(c) Shukla
(d) J.B. Kriplani

Answer: (b) lawyers

Question 8.
The magistrate asked Gandhi to furnish bail for __ minutes

(a) 30
(b) 60
(c) 90
(d) 120

Answer: (d) 120

Question 9.
How did Gandhi behave with the officials outside the court?

(a) demonstrated his power
(b) was firm and resolute
(c) he said that he would disobey the order
(d) cooperated with them

Answer: (d) cooperated with them

Question 10.
Why did Gandhi start out on the back of an elephant?

(a) a peasant had been maltreated in a village nearby
(b) he set out to meet the secretary of British Landlords Association
(c) he set out to meet British official commissioner
(d) he was summoned by Sir Edward Gait, the Lt. Governor

Answer: (a) a peasant had been maltreated in a village nearby

Question 11.
After Tirhut, where did Gandhi go?

(a) Lucknow
(b) Motihari
(c) Cawnpore
(d) Ahmedabad

Answer: (b) Motihari

Question 12.
What happened when Gandhi visited the secretary of British landlord’s association?

(a) the secretary proceeded to bully him
(b) the secretary advised him forthwith to leave Tirhut
(c) the secretary said that they could not give any information to an outsider
(d) the secretary was very helpful

Answer: (c) the secretary said that they could not give any information to an outsider

Question 13.
Why was Gandhi not permitted to draw water from Rajendra Prasad’s well?

(a) the servant thought Gandhi was another peasant
(b) as Rajendra Prasad was not at home
(c) Gandhi looked like a vagabond
(d) Gandhi was a Harijan

Answer: (a) the servant thought Gandhi was another peasant

Question 14.
Where is Champaran district situated?

(a) in the south-west of Orissa
(b) in the foothills of the Himalayas in Bihar
(c) in the northeast of Orissa
(d) in the south of Bihar

Answer: (b) in the foothills of the Himalayas in Bihar

Question 15.
What did the British landlords and from the peasants after synthetic indigo was developed?

(a) indigo as rent
(b) 15% of produce
(c) money as compensation
(d) a new settlement

Answer: (c) money as compensation



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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-4 | ENGLISH NCERT MCQ | THE RATTRAP | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-4 The Rattrap  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE RATTRAP

Question 1 : Why did the Peddler leave the stolen money in a Rattrap?

a) Because of his plan
b) to deceive them
c) because of fear of Iron master
d) none

Answer : C

Question 2 : How is the Peddler influenced by meeting the Crofter and Edla?

a) he was encouraged to steal money
b) he became a rattrap seller
c) his heart was changed
d) none

Answer : C

Question 3 : What doubts did Edla have about Peddler?

a) his behavior
b) his words
c) his fear and appearance
d) none

Answer : C

Question 4 : Why did Peddler not reveal his true identity?

a) because of fear
b) he didn’t want to hurt them
c) in the greed of getting money
d) none

Answer : C

Question 5 : Why did the Peddler feel that he had fallen into the Rattrap?

a) because he fell into a pit
b) because he fell in love with Edla
c) because his heart is changed
d) because of his greedy action and pitiable circumstances

Answer : D

Question 6: Why did Crofter show 30 Kronor to the Peddler?

a) to boast
b) to flaunt
c) because he considers him a friend
d) to share his feelings of pride

Answer : D

Question 7: Why did the Peddler have to resort to begging and thievery?

a) poverty
b) miserable life
c) because of non-profitability of his business
d) none

Answer : C

Question 8 : Who used to make rattraps?

a) Crofter
b) Edla
c) Crofter and Edla
d) Peddler

Answer : D

Question 9: From where did the Peddler get the material to make rattraps?

a) shops
b) roads
c) streets
d) stores

Answer : D

Question 10 : How did Crofter treat the Peddler?

a) very rudely
b) in a strange manner
c) friendly manner
d) none

Answer : C

Question 11 : Why did Peddler sign himself as Captain Von Stahle?

a) he didn’t want to hurt them
b) because of love and care
c) because of mistaken identity
d) none

Answer : C

Question 12: Why did ironmaster realize his mistake?

a) because of Edla
b) because of pedlar’s words
c) because of his friend
d) because of uncertain reflections and Edla

Answer : D

Question 13 : What made the Peddler finally change his heart?

a) Edla’s words
b) Edla’s appearance
c) Edla’s father
d) Edla’s goodness and care

Answer : D

Question 14 : What was the Peddler’s profession and who he was?

a) selling, traveler
b) begging, traveler
c) stealing, thief
d) none

Answer : C

Question 15 : Why did the Peddler feel like stealing?

a) greed
b) poverty
c) miserable life
d) others’ indifference to his needs

Answer : D

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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-3 | ENGLISH NCERT MCQ | DEEP WATER | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-3 Deep Water  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON DEEP WATER

Question 1.
At the end of the experience, Douglas felt

(a) happy
(b) released
(c) sad
(d) victorious

Answer: (b) released

Question 2.
‘All we have to fear is fear itself. Who said these words?

(a) Douglas
(b) his instructor
(c) his father
(d) President Roosevelt

Answer: (d) President Roosevelt

Question 3.
‘What do you think you can do to me’? These words were spoken by Douglas to
(a) a shark
(b) to his enemy
(c) to the boy who pushed him
(d) to terror

Answer: (d) to terror

Question 4.
Whenever terror struck again, Douglas would start

(a) shouting
(b) laughing
(c) crying
(d) talking to terror

Answer: (d) talking to terror

Question 5.
Douglas had to repeat exhaling and inhaling exercises

(a) hundred times
(b) forty times
(c) fifty times
(d) ten times

Answer: (a) hundred times

Question 6.
He practiced in the pool

(a) ten times a week
(b) five days a week
(c) twice a week
(d) thrice a week

Answer: (b) five days a week

Question 7.
After being haunted by fear for many years Douglas
decided to learn to swim. He took the help of
(a) his mother
(b) his father
(c) a friend
(d) an instructor

Answer: (d) an instructor

Question 8.
When he regained consciousness, he

(a) laughed at his experience
(b) had 104° F fever
(c) shook and cried and didn’t eat anything
(d) told his mother about his misadventure

Answer: (c) shook and cried and didn’t eat anything

Question 9.
Douglas went down towards the bottom

(a) only once
(b) twice
(c) thrice
(d) five times

Answer: (c) thrice

Question 10.
The water in the pool had a

(a) dirty yellow tinge
(b) a blue reflection
(c) green colour
(d) no colour

Answer: (a) dirty yellow tinge

Question 11.
When Douglas tried to yell

(a) everyone came to his rescue
(b) no sound came out
(c) his father arrived
(d) the lifeguard dived to save him up, they hung as

Answer: (b) no sound came out

Question 12.
The nine feet seemed to Douglas like

(a) hundred feet
(b) ninety feet
(c) fifty feet
(d) twenty-five feet

Answer: (b) ninety feet

Question 13.
Though Douglas was frightened, he was not

(a) afraid to die
(b) going to survive
(c) out of his wits
(d) able to shout for help

Answer: (c) out of his wits

Question 14.
Douglas calls him a

(a) nasty human being
(b) a brute
(c) a beautiful physical specimen
(d) a big bully

Answer: (c) a beautiful physical specimen

Question 15.
The misadventure at the Y.M.C.A pool happened when

(a) Douglas was accompanied by friends
(b) he was with his father
(c) he was alone
(d) he was with his mother

Answer: (c) he was alone


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CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -7 The p-Block Elements |NCERT CHEMISTRY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry : The NCERT solutions provided here will enhance the concepts of the students, as well as suggest alternative methods to solve particular problems to the teachers. The target is to direct individuals towards problem solving strategies, rather than solving problems in one prescribed format. The links below provide the detailed solutions for all the Class 12 Chemistry problems.

Chemistry is much more than the language of Science. We have made sure that our solutions reflect the same. We aim to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using logical approach and methodology. The NCERT Solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the subject.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter :7 The p-Block Elements

INTEXT Questions

Question 1.
Which of the ores mentioned in Table 6.1 (NCERT Textbook) can be concentrated by magnetic separation method?
Solution:
Ores in which one of the components (either the impurity or the actual ore) is magnetic can be concentrated by magnetic separation, e.g., ores containing iron (haematite, magnetite, siderite and iron pyrites).

Question 2.
What is the significance of leaching in the extraction of aluminium?
Solution:
Leaching is significant as it helps in removing the impurities like SiO2, Fe2O3, etc. from the bauxite ore.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 1
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 2

Question 3.
The reaction, Cr2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2cr (∆G° = – 421 kJ) is thermodynamically feasible as is apparent from the Gibbs energy value. Why does it not take place at room temperature?
Solution:
Certain amount of activation energy is essential even for such reactions which are thermodynamically feasible, therefore heating is required.

Question 4.
Is it true that under certain conditions. Mg can reduce Al2O3 and Al can reduce MgO? What are those conditions?
Solution:
Yes, below 1350°C, Mg can reduce Al2O3 and above 1350°C, Al can reduce MgO. This can be inferred from ∆G° vs T plots.

NCERT Exercises

Question 1.
Copper can be extracted by hydrometallurgy but not zinc. Explain.
Solution:
The E° of zinc (Zn2+/Zn = – 0.76 V) is lower luau that of copper (Cu2+/Cu = +0.34 V). Hence, zinc can displace Cu from solutions of Cu2+ ions.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 3
But all these metals react with water forming their corresponding ions with the evolution of H2 gas. Hence, Al, Mg, etc. cannot be used to displace zinc from the solution of Zn2+ ions. Thus, copper can be extracted by hydrometal-lurgy but not zinc.

Question 2.
What is the role of depressant in froth-floatation process?
Solution:
In froth -floatation process, the role of the depressant is to prevent one type of sulphide ore particles from forming the froth with air bubbles. For example, NaCN is used as a depressant to separate lead sulphide (PbS) ore from zinc sulphide (ZnS) ore. The reason is that NaCN forms a zinc complex, Na2[Zn(CN)4] on the surface of ZnS preventing it from the formation of the froth. Under these conditions, only PbS forms froth and therefore, it can be separated from ZnS ore.

Question 3.
Why is the extraction of copper from pyrites more difficult than that from its oxide ore through reduction?
Solution:
In the Ellingham diagram, the Cu2O line is almost at the top. So it is quite easy to reduce oxide ores of copper directly to the metal by heating with coke (as can be seen in graph that the lines of C, CO and C, CO2 are at much lower positions). But most of the ores are sulphide and some may also contain iron. So, the sulphide ores are roasted/smelted to give oxides :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 4

Question 4.
Explain : (i) Zone refining (ii) Column chroma-tography.
Solution:
(i) This method is based on the principle that the impurities are more soluble in the melt than in the solid state of the metal. A circular mobile heater is fixed at one end of a rod of the impure metal. The molten zone moves along with the heater which is moved forward. As the heater moves forward, the pure metal crystallises out of the melt and the impurities pass on into the adjacent molten zone. The process is repeated several times and the heater is moved in the same direction. At one end, impurities get concentrated. This end is cut off. This method is very useful for producing semiconductor and other metals of very high purity, c.g., germanium, silicon, boron, gallium and indium.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 25

(ii) Chromatographic method is based on the principle that different components of a mixture are differently adsorbed on an adsorbent. The adsorbed components are removed (eluted) by using suitable (eluant). There are several chromatogrpahic techniques such as paper chromatography, column chromatography, gas chromatography etc.

Column chromatography : Column chroma-tography involves separation of a mixture over a column of adsorbent (stationary phase) packed in a glass tube. The column is fitted with a stopcock at its lower end (fig). The mixture adsorbed on adsorbent is placed on the top of the adsorbent column packed in a glass tube.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 5

An appropriate eluant which is a liquid or a mixture of liquids is allowed to flow the column slowly. Depending upon the degree to which the compounds are adsored, complete separation takes place. The most readily adsorbed substances are retained near the top and others come down to various distance in the column.

Question 5.
Out of C and CO, which is a better reducing agent at 673 K?
Solution:
When carbon acts as a reducing agent, it is either converted into CO or CO2 or both.
2C + O2 → 2CO
C + O2 → CO2
CO is oxidised to CO2 when it is used as a reducing agent.
2CO + O2 → 2CO2
From the Ellingham diagram (refer answer number 3), it is clear that at the temperature 673 K, the AG° of the formation of CO2 from CO is more negative than the formation of CO or CO2 from carbon. Hence, at temperature 673 K, CO is a better reducing agent than C.

Question 6.
Name the common elements present in the anode mud in electrolytic refining of copper. Why are they so present?
Solution:
Many of the metals such as copper, silver, gold, aluminium, lead, etc., are purified by this method. This is perhaps the most important method. The impure metal is made anode while a thin sheet of pure metal acts as a cathode. The electrolytic solution consists of generally an aqueous solution of a salt or a complex of the metal. On passing the current, the pure metal is deposited on the cathode and equivalent amount of the metal gets dissolved from the anode. Thus, the metal is transferred from anode to cathode through solution. The soluble impurities pass into the solution while the insoluble one, especially less electropositive impurities collect below the anode as anodic mud or anode sludge. Impurities from the blister copper deposit as anode mud which contains antimony, selenium, tellurium, silver, gold and platinum.

Question 7.
Write down the reactions taking place in different zones in the blast furnace during the extraction of iron.
Solution:
Near the bottom of the furnace (zone of combustion, 2170 K), coke first combines with air to form CO2 which then combines with more coke (zone of heat absorption, 1423 K) to form CO. The CO thus produced acts as the reducing agent and reduces iron oxide to spongy iron near the top of the furnace (zone of reduction, 823 K).
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 6
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 7

At the lower part of the furnace (zone of fusion, 1423-1673 K) the spongy iron melts and dissolves some carbon, S, P, SiO2, Mn, etc.

The molten slag being less dense floats over the surface of the molten iron. The molten iron is then tapped off from the furnace and is then solidified to give blocks of iron called cast iron or pig iron.

Question 8.
Write chemical reactions taking place in the extraction of zinc from zinc blende.
Solution:
Concentration : When zinc blende is used, the powdered ore is concentrated by froth-floatation process.

Roasting : The concentrated ore is heated in excess of oxygen at about 900°C. Zinc sulphide is oxidised to zinc oxide. If some of the ore is oxidised to zinc sulphate, it also decomposes at 900°C into ZnO.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 8
For roasting, a reverberatory furnace may be used.

Reduction : The principal reaction that takes place during reduction is the conversion of the oxide into the metal with the help of carbon.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 9

Electrolytic refining : Purification of zinc is done by electrolytic refining using pure Zn as cathode and impure Zn as anode. The electrolyte is ZnSO4.

Reaction at cathode : Zn2+(aq)+ 2e → Zn(s)
Reaction at anode : 2H2O(l) → O2(g)+ 4H+(aq)+ 4e
ZnSO4 electrolyte is added from time to time.

Question 9.
State the role of silica in the metallurgy of copper.
Solution:
Iron present in pyrites has greater affinity for oxygen than copper. The copper oxide formed reacts with unchanged iron sulphide to form iron oxide so, most of the iron sulphide is oxidised to ferrous oxide.
2FeS + 3O2 → 2FeO + 2sO2
Ferrous oxide combines with silica which acts as flux and forms ferrous silicate. By this reaction most of the iron is removed as slag.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 10

Question 10.
What is meant by the term “chromatography”?
Solution:
Chromatographic method is based on the principle that different components of a mixture are differently adsorbed on an adsorbent. The adsorbed components are removed (eluted) by using suitable (eluant). There are several chromatogrpahic techniques such as paper chromatography, column chromatography, gas chromatography, etc.

Question 11.
What criterion is followed for the selection of the stationary phase in chromatography?
Solution:
The stationary phase is selected in such a way that the impurities are more strongly adsorbed or are more soluble in the stationary phase than element to be purified. Under these conditions, when the column is extracted, the impurities will be retained by the stationary phase whereas the pure component is easily removed.

Question 12.
Describe a method for refining nickel.
Solution:
Nickel is purified by Mond’s process. Impure nickel is treated with carbon monoxide at 60-80°C when volatile compound nickel carbonyl is formed. Nickel carbonyl decomposes at 180°C to form pure nickel and carbon monoxide.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 11

Question 13.
How can you separate alumina from silica in a bauxite ore associated with silica? Give equations, if any.
Solution:
Serpeck’s process is used when silica is present in considerable amounts in bauxite ore. The ore is mixed with coke and heated at 1800°C in presence of nitrogen, where AIN is formed.
Al2O3 + 3C + N2 → 2AlN + 3CO
Silica is reduced to silicon which volatilises off at this temperature.
SiO2 + 2C → Si + 2CO

Question 14.
Giving examples, differentiate between ‘roasting’ and ‘calcination’.
Solution:
Calcination : It is the process of converting an ore into its oxide by heating it strongly below its melting point either in absence or limited supply of air.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 12
Roasting : In roasting, the ore is heated in a regular supply of air in a furnace at a temperature below the melting point of the metal.
2 ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2
2 PbS + 3O2 → 2PbO + 2SO2

Question 15.
How is’cast iron’different from ‘pig iron’?
Solution:
The iron obtained from Blast furnace contains about 4% carbon and many impurities in smaller amount (e.g., S, P, Si, Mn). This is known as pig iron and cast into variety of shapes.

Cast iron is different from pig iron and is made by melting pig iron with scrap iron and coke using hot air blast. It has slightly lower carbon content (about 3%) and is extremely hard and brittle.

Question 16.
Differentiate between “minerals”and “ores’.
Solution:
The natural substances in which the metal or their compounds occur in the earth are called minerals. The mineral has a definite composition. It may be a single compound or complex mixture. The minerals from which the metals can be conveniently and economically extracted are known as ores. All the ores arc minerals but all minerals cannot be ores, e.g., both bauxite (Al2O3.xH2O) and clay (Al2O3.2SiO2.2H2O) are minerals of aluminium. It is bauxite which is used for extraction of aluminium and not clay. Thus bauxite is an ore of aluminium.

Question 17.
Why copper matte is put in silica lined converter ?
Solution:
Copper matte consists of Cu2S and FeS. Wheia a blast of hot air is passed through molten matte taken in a silica lined converter, FeS present in matte is oxidised to FeO which combines with silica (SiO2) to form FeSiO3 (slag).
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 13
When complete iron has been removed as slag, some of the Cu2S undergoes oxidation to form Cu2O which then reacts with more Cu2S to form copper metal.
2CU2S + 3O2 → 2CU2O + 2SO2
2CU2O + Cu2S → 6Cu + SO2
Thus, copper matte is heated in silica lined converter to remove FeS present in matte as FeSiO3 (slag).

Question 18.
What is the role of cryolite in the metallurgy of aluminium?
Solution:
The role of cryolite is as follows :

  1. It makes alumina a good conductor of electricity.
  2. It lowers the fusion temperature of the bath from 2323 K to about 1140 K.

Question 19.
How is leaching carried out in case of low grade copper ores?
Solution:
The leaching of the low grade copper ores is carried out with acids in the presence of air when copper goes into solution as Cu2+ ions. Therefore,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 14

Question 20.
Why is zinc not extracted from zinc oxide through reduction using CO?
Solution:
The standard free energy of formation (∆fG°) of CO2 from CO is higher than that of the formation of ZnO from Zn. Hence, CO cannot be used to reduce ZnO to Zn.

Question 21.
The value of ∆fG° for formation of Cr2O3 is – 540 kJ mol-1 and that of Al2O3 is – 827 kJ mol-1. Is the reduction of Cr2O3 possible with Al?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 15

Question 22.
Out of C and CO, which is a better reducing agent for ZnO?
Solution:
The free energy of formation (∆f G°) of CO from C becomes lower at temperatures above 1120 K whereas that of CO2 from C becomes lower above 1323 K than ∆fG° of ZnO. However, ∆fG° of CO2 from CO is always higher than that of ZnO. Therefore, C can reduce ZnO to Zn but not CO. Therefore, out of C and CO, C is a better reducing agent than CO for ZnO.
Reduction of ZnO is usually carried out around
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 16

Question 23.
The choice of a reducing agent in a particular case depends on thermodynamic factor. How far do you agree with this statement? Support your opinion with two examples.
Solution:
Some basic concepts of thermodynamics lielp us in understanding the theory of metallurgical transformations. Gibb’s energy is the most significant term.
The graphical representation of Gibb’s energy was first used by H.J.T. Ellingham. This
provides a sound basis for considering the k choice of reducing agent in the reduction of oxides. This is known as Ellingham diagram. (Tor diagram refer answer number 3) Such diagrams help us in predicting the feasibility of thermal reduction of an ore. The criterion of feasibility is that at a given temperature Gibb’s energy of the reaction must be negative.
Examples :
(i) Thermodynamics helps us to understand how coke reduces the oxide and why blast furnace is chosen. One of the main reduction steps in this process is :
FeO(s) + C(s) → Fe(s/l) + CO(g)… (1)
It can be seen as a couple of two simpler reactions. In one, the reduction of FeO is taking place and in the other, C is being oxidised to CO :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 17
When both the reactions take place to yield the equation (1), the net Gibb’s energy change becomes :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 18
Naturally, the resultant reaction will take place when the right hand side in equation (3) is negative. In ∆G° vs T plot representing reaction 2, the plot goes upward and that representing the change C → CO (C, CO) goes downward. At temperatures above 1073 K (approx), the C, CO line comes below the Fe, FeO line [∆G(c,co) < ∆G(Fe,FeO)] So in this range, coke will be reducing the FeO and will itself be oxidised to CO. In a similar way the reduction of Fe3O4 and Fe2O3 at relatively lower temperatures by CO can be explained on the basis of lower lying points of intersection of their curves with the CO, CO2 curve in Ellinghan diagram.

(ii) In the graph of ∆r.G° vs T for formation of oxides, the Cu2O line is almost at the top. So it is quite easy to reduce oxide ores of copper directly to the metal by heating with coke (both the lines of C, CO and C, CO2 are at much lower position in the graph particularly after 500 – 600 K). However most of the ores are sulphide and some may also contain iron. The sulphide ores are roasted/smelted to give oxides:
2CU2S + 3O2 → 2Cu2O + 2SO2
The oxide can then be easily reduced to metallic copper using coke.
Cu2O + C → 2Cu + CO

Question 24.
Name the processes from which chlorine is obtained as a by-product. What will happen if an aqueous solution of NaCI is subjected to electrolysis?
Solution:
Sodium metal is prepared by Down’s process. This process involves the electrolysis of a fused mixture of NaCI and CaCl2 at 873 K. During electrolysis, sodium is discharged at the cathode and Cl2 is obtained at the anode as a by-product.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 19
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 20

Question 25.
What is the role of graphite rod in the electrometallurgy of aluminium?
Solution:
In this process, a fused mixture of alumina, cryolite and fluorspar (CaF2) is electrolysed using graphite as anode and steel as cathode. During electrolysis, Al is liberated at the cathode whereas CO and CO2 are liberated at the anode.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 21
If some other metal is used as the anode other than graphite, then O2 liberated will not only oxidise the metal of the electrode but would also convert some of the Al liberated at the cathode back to Al2O3. Since graphite is much cheaper than any metal, graphite is used as the anode. So, the role of graphite in electrometallurgy of Al is to prevent the liberation of O2 at the anode which may otherwise oxidise some of the liberated Al back to Al2O3.

Question 26.
Outline the principles of refining of metals by the following methods :

  1. Zone refining
  2. Electrolytic refining
  3. Vapour phase refining

Solution:
(i) Refer answer number 4(i).

(ii) In this method, the impure metal is made to act as anode. A strip of the same metal in pure form is used as cathode. They are put in a suitable electrolytic bath containing soluble salt of the same metal. The more basic metal remains in the solution and the less basic ones go to the anode mud.
Anode : M → Mn+ ne
Cathode : Mn+ + ne → M
Copper is refined using an electrolytic method. Anodes are of impure copper and pure copper strips are taken as cathode. The electrolyte is acidified solution of copper sulphate and the net result of electrolysis is the transfer of copper in pure form from the anode to the cathode :
Anode : Cu → Cu2+ + 2e
Cathode : Cu2+ + 2e → Cu
Impurities from the blister copper deposit as anode mud which contains antimony, selenium, tellurium, silver, gold and platinum; recovery of these elements may meet the cost of refining.
Zinc may also be refined this way.

(iii) In this method, the metal is converted into its volatile compound and collected elsewhere. It is then decomposed to give pure metal. So, the two requirements are :

(a) The metal should form a volatile compound with an available reagent.
(b) The volatile compound should be easily decomposable, so that the recovery is easy.

Following example will illustrate this technique.
Mond process for Refining Nickel : In this process, nickel is heated in a stream of carbon monoxide forming a volatile complex, nickel tetracarbonyl :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 22
The carbonyl is subjected to higher temperature so that it is decomposed giving the pure metal :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 23

Question 27.
Predict conditions under which Al might be expected to reduce MgO.
Solution:
The two equations are :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 24

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CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements |NCERT CHEMISTRY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry : The NCERT solutions provided here will enhance the concepts of the students, as well as suggest alternative methods to solve particular problems to the teachers. The target is to direct individuals towards problem solving strategies, rather than solving problems in one prescribed format. The links below provide the detailed solutions for all the Class 12 Chemistry problems.

Chemistry is much more than the language of Science. We have made sure that our solutions reflect the same. We aim to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using logical approach and methodology. The NCERT Solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the subject.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter :6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements

INTEXT Questions

Question 1.
Which of the ores mentioned in Table 6.1 (NCERT Textbook) can be concentrated by magnetic separation method?
Solution:
Ores in which one of the components (either the impurity or the actual ore) is magnetic can be concentrated by magnetic separation, e.g., ores containing iron (haematite, magnetite, siderite and iron pyrites).

Question 2.
What is the significance of leaching in the extraction of aluminium?
Solution:
Leaching is significant as it helps in removing the impurities like SiO2, Fe2O3, etc. from the bauxite ore.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 1
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 2

Question 3.
The reaction, Cr2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2cr (∆G° = – 421 kJ) is thermodynamically feasible as is apparent from the Gibbs energy value. Why does it not take place at room temperature?
Solution:
Certain amount of activation energy is essential even for such reactions which are thermodynamically feasible, therefore heating is required.

Question 4.
Is it true that under certain conditions. Mg can reduce Al2O3 and Al can reduce MgO? What are those conditions?
Solution:
Yes, below 1350°C, Mg can reduce Al2O3 and above 1350°C, Al can reduce MgO. This can be inferred from ∆G° vs T plots.

NCERT Exercises

Question 1.
Copper can be extracted by hydrometallurgy but not zinc. Explain.
Solution:
The E° of zinc (Zn2+/Zn = – 0.76 V) is lower luau that of copper (Cu2+/Cu = +0.34 V). Hence, zinc can displace Cu from solutions of Cu2+ ions.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 3
But all these metals react with water forming their corresponding ions with the evolution of H2 gas. Hence, Al, Mg, etc. cannot be used to displace zinc from the solution of Zn2+ ions. Thus, copper can be extracted by hydrometal-lurgy but not zinc.

Question 2.
What is the role of depressant in froth-floatation process?
Solution:
In froth -floatation process, the role of the depressant is to prevent one type of sulphide ore particles from forming the froth with air bubbles. For example, NaCN is used as a depressant to separate lead sulphide (PbS) ore from zinc sulphide (ZnS) ore. The reason is that NaCN forms a zinc complex, Na2[Zn(CN)4] on the surface of ZnS preventing it from the formation of the froth. Under these conditions, only PbS forms froth and therefore, it can be separated from ZnS ore.

Question 3.
Why is the extraction of copper from pyrites more difficult than that from its oxide ore through reduction?
Solution:
In the Ellingham diagram, the Cu2O line is almost at the top. So it is quite easy to reduce oxide ores of copper directly to the metal by heating with coke (as can be seen in graph that the lines of C, CO and C, CO2 are at much lower positions). But most of the ores are sulphide and some may also contain iron. So, the sulphide ores are roasted/smelted to give oxides :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 4

Question 4.
Explain : (i) Zone refining (ii) Column chroma-tography.
Solution:
(i) This method is based on the principle that the impurities are more soluble in the melt than in the solid state of the metal. A circular mobile heater is fixed at one end of a rod of the impure metal. The molten zone moves along with the heater which is moved forward. As the heater moves forward, the pure metal crystallises out of the melt and the impurities pass on into the adjacent molten zone. The process is repeated several times and the heater is moved in the same direction. At one end, impurities get concentrated. This end is cut off. This method is very useful for producing semiconductor and other metals of very high purity, c.g., germanium, silicon, boron, gallium and indium.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 25

(ii) Chromatographic method is based on the principle that different components of a mixture are differently adsorbed on an adsorbent. The adsorbed components are removed (eluted) by using suitable (eluant). There are several chromatogrpahic techniques such as paper chromatography, column chromatography, gas chromatography etc.

Column chromatography : Column chroma-tography involves separation of a mixture over a column of adsorbent (stationary phase) packed in a glass tube. The column is fitted with a stopcock at its lower end (fig). The mixture adsorbed on adsorbent is placed on the top of the adsorbent column packed in a glass tube.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 5

An appropriate eluant which is a liquid or a mixture of liquids is allowed to flow the column slowly. Depending upon the degree to which the compounds are adsored, complete separation takes place. The most readily adsorbed substances are retained near the top and others come down to various distance in the column.

Question 5.
Out of C and CO, which is a better reducing agent at 673 K?
Solution:
When carbon acts as a reducing agent, it is either converted into CO or CO2 or both.
2C + O2 → 2CO
C + O2 → CO2
CO is oxidised to CO2 when it is used as a reducing agent.
2CO + O2 → 2CO2
From the Ellingham diagram (refer answer number 3), it is clear that at the temperature 673 K, the AG° of the formation of CO2 from CO is more negative than the formation of CO or CO2 from carbon. Hence, at temperature 673 K, CO is a better reducing agent than C.

Question 6.
Name the common elements present in the anode mud in electrolytic refining of copper. Why are they so present?
Solution:
Many of the metals such as copper, silver, gold, aluminium, lead, etc., are purified by this method. This is perhaps the most important method. The impure metal is made anode while a thin sheet of pure metal acts as a cathode. The electrolytic solution consists of generally an aqueous solution of a salt or a complex of the metal. On passing the current, the pure metal is deposited on the cathode and equivalent amount of the metal gets dissolved from the anode. Thus, the metal is transferred from anode to cathode through solution. The soluble impurities pass into the solution while the insoluble one, especially less electropositive impurities collect below the anode as anodic mud or anode sludge. Impurities from the blister copper deposit as anode mud which contains antimony, selenium, tellurium, silver, gold and platinum.

Question 7.
Write down the reactions taking place in different zones in the blast furnace during the extraction of iron.
Solution:
Near the bottom of the furnace (zone of combustion, 2170 K), coke first combines with air to form CO2 which then combines with more coke (zone of heat absorption, 1423 K) to form CO. The CO thus produced acts as the reducing agent and reduces iron oxide to spongy iron near the top of the furnace (zone of reduction, 823 K).
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 6
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 7

At the lower part of the furnace (zone of fusion, 1423-1673 K) the spongy iron melts and dissolves some carbon, S, P, SiO2, Mn, etc.

The molten slag being less dense floats over the surface of the molten iron. The molten iron is then tapped off from the furnace and is then solidified to give blocks of iron called cast iron or pig iron.

Question 8.
Write chemical reactions taking place in the extraction of zinc from zinc blende.
Solution:
Concentration : When zinc blende is used, the powdered ore is concentrated by froth-floatation process.

Roasting : The concentrated ore is heated in excess of oxygen at about 900°C. Zinc sulphide is oxidised to zinc oxide. If some of the ore is oxidised to zinc sulphate, it also decomposes at 900°C into ZnO.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 8
For roasting, a reverberatory furnace may be used.

Reduction : The principal reaction that takes place during reduction is the conversion of the oxide into the metal with the help of carbon.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 9

Electrolytic refining : Purification of zinc is done by electrolytic refining using pure Zn as cathode and impure Zn as anode. The electrolyte is ZnSO4.

Reaction at cathode : Zn2+(aq)+ 2e → Zn(s)
Reaction at anode : 2H2O(l) → O2(g)+ 4H+(aq)+ 4e
ZnSO4 electrolyte is added from time to time.

Question 9.
State the role of silica in the metallurgy of copper.
Solution:
Iron present in pyrites has greater affinity for oxygen than copper. The copper oxide formed reacts with unchanged iron sulphide to form iron oxide so, most of the iron sulphide is oxidised to ferrous oxide.
2FeS + 3O2 → 2FeO + 2sO2
Ferrous oxide combines with silica which acts as flux and forms ferrous silicate. By this reaction most of the iron is removed as slag.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 10

Question 10.
What is meant by the term “chromatography”?
Solution:
Chromatographic method is based on the principle that different components of a mixture are differently adsorbed on an adsorbent. The adsorbed components are removed (eluted) by using suitable (eluant). There are several chromatogrpahic techniques such as paper chromatography, column chromatography, gas chromatography, etc.

Question 11.
What criterion is followed for the selection of the stationary phase in chromatography?
Solution:
The stationary phase is selected in such a way that the impurities are more strongly adsorbed or are more soluble in the stationary phase than element to be purified. Under these conditions, when the column is extracted, the impurities will be retained by the stationary phase whereas the pure component is easily removed.

Question 12.
Describe a method for refining nickel.
Solution:
Nickel is purified by Mond’s process. Impure nickel is treated with carbon monoxide at 60-80°C when volatile compound nickel carbonyl is formed. Nickel carbonyl decomposes at 180°C to form pure nickel and carbon monoxide.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 11

Question 13.
How can you separate alumina from silica in a bauxite ore associated with silica? Give equations, if any.
Solution:
Serpeck’s process is used when silica is present in considerable amounts in bauxite ore. The ore is mixed with coke and heated at 1800°C in presence of nitrogen, where AIN is formed.
Al2O3 + 3C + N2 → 2AlN + 3CO
Silica is reduced to silicon which volatilises off at this temperature.
SiO2 + 2C → Si + 2CO

Question 14.
Giving examples, differentiate between ‘roasting’ and ‘calcination’.
Solution:
Calcination : It is the process of converting an ore into its oxide by heating it strongly below its melting point either in absence or limited supply of air.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 12
Roasting : In roasting, the ore is heated in a regular supply of air in a furnace at a temperature below the melting point of the metal.
2 ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2
2 PbS + 3O2 → 2PbO + 2SO2

Question 15.
How is’cast iron’different from ‘pig iron’?
Solution:
The iron obtained from Blast furnace contains about 4% carbon and many impurities in smaller amount (e.g., S, P, Si, Mn). This is known as pig iron and cast into variety of shapes.

Cast iron is different from pig iron and is made by melting pig iron with scrap iron and coke using hot air blast. It has slightly lower carbon content (about 3%) and is extremely hard and brittle.

Question 16.
Differentiate between “minerals”and “ores’.
Solution:
The natural substances in which the metal or their compounds occur in the earth are called minerals. The mineral has a definite composition. It may be a single compound or complex mixture. The minerals from which the metals can be conveniently and economically extracted are known as ores. All the ores arc minerals but all minerals cannot be ores, e.g., both bauxite (Al2O3.xH2O) and clay (Al2O3.2SiO2.2H2O) are minerals of aluminium. It is bauxite which is used for extraction of aluminium and not clay. Thus bauxite is an ore of aluminium.

Question 17.
Why copper matte is put in silica lined converter ?
Solution:
Copper matte consists of Cu2S and FeS. Wheia a blast of hot air is passed through molten matte taken in a silica lined converter, FeS present in matte is oxidised to FeO which combines with silica (SiO2) to form FeSiO3 (slag).
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 13
When complete iron has been removed as slag, some of the Cu2S undergoes oxidation to form Cu2O which then reacts with more Cu2S to form copper metal.
2CU2S + 3O2 → 2CU2O + 2SO2
2CU2O + Cu2S → 6Cu + SO2
Thus, copper matte is heated in silica lined converter to remove FeS present in matte as FeSiO3 (slag).

Question 18.
What is the role of cryolite in the metallurgy of aluminium?
Solution:
The role of cryolite is as follows :

  1. It makes alumina a good conductor of electricity.
  2. It lowers the fusion temperature of the bath from 2323 K to about 1140 K.

Question 19.
How is leaching carried out in case of low grade copper ores?
Solution:
The leaching of the low grade copper ores is carried out with acids in the presence of air when copper goes into solution as Cu2+ ions. Therefore,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 14

Question 20.
Why is zinc not extracted from zinc oxide through reduction using CO?
Solution:
The standard free energy of formation (∆fG°) of CO2 from CO is higher than that of the formation of ZnO from Zn. Hence, CO cannot be used to reduce ZnO to Zn.

Question 21.
The value of ∆fG° for formation of Cr2O3 is – 540 kJ mol-1 and that of Al2O3 is – 827 kJ mol-1. Is the reduction of Cr2O3 possible with Al?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 15

Question 22.
Out of C and CO, which is a better reducing agent for ZnO?
Solution:
The free energy of formation (∆f G°) of CO from C becomes lower at temperatures above 1120 K whereas that of CO2 from C becomes lower above 1323 K than ∆fG° of ZnO. However, ∆fG° of CO2 from CO is always higher than that of ZnO. Therefore, C can reduce ZnO to Zn but not CO. Therefore, out of C and CO, C is a better reducing agent than CO for ZnO.
Reduction of ZnO is usually carried out around
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 16

Question 23.
The choice of a reducing agent in a particular case depends on thermodynamic factor. How far do you agree with this statement? Support your opinion with two examples.
Solution:
Some basic concepts of thermodynamics lielp us in understanding the theory of metallurgical transformations. Gibb’s energy is the most significant term.
The graphical representation of Gibb’s energy was first used by H.J.T. Ellingham. This
provides a sound basis for considering the k choice of reducing agent in the reduction of oxides. This is known as Ellingham diagram. (Tor diagram refer answer number 3) Such diagrams help us in predicting the feasibility of thermal reduction of an ore. The criterion of feasibility is that at a given temperature Gibb’s energy of the reaction must be negative.
Examples :
(i) Thermodynamics helps us to understand how coke reduces the oxide and why blast furnace is chosen. One of the main reduction steps in this process is :
FeO(s) + C(s) → Fe(s/l) + CO(g)… (1)
It can be seen as a couple of two simpler reactions. In one, the reduction of FeO is taking place and in the other, C is being oxidised to CO :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 17
When both the reactions take place to yield the equation (1), the net Gibb’s energy change becomes :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 18
Naturally, the resultant reaction will take place when the right hand side in equation (3) is negative. In ∆G° vs T plot representing reaction 2, the plot goes upward and that representing the change C → CO (C, CO) goes downward. At temperatures above 1073 K (approx), the C, CO line comes below the Fe, FeO line [∆G(c,co) < ∆G(Fe,FeO)] So in this range, coke will be reducing the FeO and will itself be oxidised to CO. In a similar way the reduction of Fe3O4 and Fe2O3 at relatively lower temperatures by CO can be explained on the basis of lower lying points of intersection of their curves with the CO, CO2 curve in Ellinghan diagram.

(ii) In the graph of ∆r.G° vs T for formation of oxides, the Cu2O line is almost at the top. So it is quite easy to reduce oxide ores of copper directly to the metal by heating with coke (both the lines of C, CO and C, CO2 are at much lower position in the graph particularly after 500 – 600 K). However most of the ores are sulphide and some may also contain iron. The sulphide ores are roasted/smelted to give oxides:
2CU2S + 3O2 → 2Cu2O + 2SO2
The oxide can then be easily reduced to metallic copper using coke.
Cu2O + C → 2Cu + CO

Question 24.
Name the processes from which chlorine is obtained as a by-product. What will happen if an aqueous solution of NaCI is subjected to electrolysis?
Solution:
Sodium metal is prepared by Down’s process. This process involves the electrolysis of a fused mixture of NaCI and CaCl2 at 873 K. During electrolysis, sodium is discharged at the cathode and Cl2 is obtained at the anode as a by-product.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 19
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 20

Question 25.
What is the role of graphite rod in the electrometallurgy of aluminium?
Solution:
In this process, a fused mixture of alumina, cryolite and fluorspar (CaF2) is electrolysed using graphite as anode and steel as cathode. During electrolysis, Al is liberated at the cathode whereas CO and CO2 are liberated at the anode.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 21
If some other metal is used as the anode other than graphite, then O2 liberated will not only oxidise the metal of the electrode but would also convert some of the Al liberated at the cathode back to Al2O3. Since graphite is much cheaper than any metal, graphite is used as the anode. So, the role of graphite in electrometallurgy of Al is to prevent the liberation of O2 at the anode which may otherwise oxidise some of the liberated Al back to Al2O3.

Question 26.
Outline the principles of refining of metals by the following methods :

  1. Zone refining
  2. Electrolytic refining
  3. Vapour phase refining

Solution:
(i) Refer answer number 4(i).

(ii) In this method, the impure metal is made to act as anode. A strip of the same metal in pure form is used as cathode. They are put in a suitable electrolytic bath containing soluble salt of the same metal. The more basic metal remains in the solution and the less basic ones go to the anode mud.
Anode : M → Mn+ ne
Cathode : Mn+ + ne → M
Copper is refined using an electrolytic method. Anodes are of impure copper and pure copper strips are taken as cathode. The electrolyte is acidified solution of copper sulphate and the net result of electrolysis is the transfer of copper in pure form from the anode to the cathode :
Anode : Cu → Cu2+ + 2e
Cathode : Cu2+ + 2e → Cu
Impurities from the blister copper deposit as anode mud which contains antimony, selenium, tellurium, silver, gold and platinum; recovery of these elements may meet the cost of refining.
Zinc may also be refined this way.

(iii) In this method, the metal is converted into its volatile compound and collected elsewhere. It is then decomposed to give pure metal. So, the two requirements are :

(a) The metal should form a volatile compound with an available reagent.
(b) The volatile compound should be easily decomposable, so that the recovery is easy.

Following example will illustrate this technique.
Mond process for Refining Nickel : In this process, nickel is heated in a stream of carbon monoxide forming a volatile complex, nickel tetracarbonyl :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 22
The carbonyl is subjected to higher temperature so that it is decomposed giving the pure metal :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 23

Question 27.
Predict conditions under which Al might be expected to reduce MgO.
Solution:
The two equations are :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 24

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CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -5 Surface Chemistry |NCERT CHEMISTRY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry : The NCERT solutions provided here will enhance the concepts of the students, as well as suggest alternative methods to solve particular problems to the teachers. The target is to direct individuals towards problem solving strategies, rather than solving problems in one prescribed format. The links below provide the detailed solutions for all the Class 12 Chemistry problems.

Chemistry is much more than the language of Science. We have made sure that our solutions reflect the same. We aim to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using logical approach and methodology. The NCERT Solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the subject.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter :5 Surface Chemistry

 INTEXT Questions

Question 1.
Why are substances like platinum and palladium often used for carrying out electrolysis of aqueous solutions?
Solution:
Due to their inert nature, these metals do not affect the products of electrolysis. They have good adsorbing capacity for hydrogen.

Question 2.
Why does physisorption decrease with the increase of temperature?
Solution:
Physical adsorption of a gas by a solid is generally reversible. Thus,
Solid + Gas \rightleftharpoons  Gas / Solid + Heat
Since the adsorption process is exothermic, the physical adsorption occurs readily at low temperature and decreases with increasing temperature (Le Chatelier’s principle).

Question 3.
Why are powdered substances more effective adsorbents than their crystalline forms?
Solution:
The extent of adsorption increases with increase in surface area of the adsorbent. Finely powdered substances have large, porous areas and act as good adsorbents.

Question 4.
Why is it necessary to remove CO when ammonia is obtained by Haber’s process?
Solution:
CO is a catalytic poison. It reacts with iron to form iron carbonyl thus inhibiting the activity of catalyst.

Question 5.
Why is the ester hydrolysis slow in the beginning and becomes faster after sometime?
Solution:
The acid formed during the reaction provides hydrogen ions which act as catalyst for the reaction and it becomes faster.

Question 6.
What is the role of desorption in the process of catalysis?
Solution:
In catalysis the products formed are desorbed and detached from the surface so that, more reactants can get adsorbed on the surface of catalyst.

Question 7.
What modification can you suggest in the Hardy Schulze law?
Solution:
The Hardy Schulze law considers the coagulation of sols because of neutralisation of their charges. Since coagulation can also occur by mixing two oppositely charged sols, it should also include “when oppositely charged sols are mixed in proper proportions to neutralize the charges of each other, the coagulation of both the sols occurs.”

Question 8.
Why is it essential to wash the precipitate with water before estimating it quantitatively?
Solution:
Few impurities which are soluble in water and are adsorbed on the surface of the precipitate are removed by washing them with water.

NCERT Exercises

Question 1.
Distinguish between the meaning of the terms adsorption and absorption. Give one example of each.
Solution:
The phenomenon of accumulation of the molecules of a substance on a solid or liquid surface resulting in the increased concentration of the molecules on the surface is called adsorption. In absorption, the substance is uniformly distributed throughout the bulk of the solution. A distinction can be made by taking an example of water vapours. Water vapours are absorbed by anhydrous calcium chloride but adsorbed by silica gel.

 AdsorptionAbsorption
1. It is a surface phenomenon, i.e., it occurs only on the adsorbent surface. It occurs throughout the body of the material. It is called bulk phenomenon.
2. The concentration on the adsorbent’s surface is different from that in the bulk. The concentration is same throughout.
3. The rate varies throughout the process. The rate remains the same.

Question 2.
What is the difference between physisorption and chemisorption?
Solution:

PhysisorptionChemisorption
1.The adsorbate and adsorbent are held by weak van der Waals forces.The adsorbate and adsorbent are held by forces similar to a chemical bond.
2.Heat of adsorption is of the order of 20 kj/mol.Heat of adsorption is of the order of 200 kj/mol.
3.It is reversible.It is irreversible.
4.It decreases with increase in temperature and occurs at lower temperatures.It increases with temperature and occurs at high temperature.
5.It is not specific in nature, i.e., all gases are adsorbed on all solids to some extent.It is specific in nature and occurs only when a chemical bond is formed between the adsorbate and adsorbent.
6.Multimolecular layers may be formed on the adsorbent.Usually unimolecular layer is formed on the adsorbent.

Question 3.
Give reason why a finely divided substance is more effective as an adsorbent.
Solution:
The extent of adsorption increases with increase in surface area of the adsorbent. Thus, finely divided metals and porous substances having large surface areas are good adsorbents.

Question 4.
What are the factors which influence the adsorption of a gas on a solid?
Solution:
Factors affecting adsorption of a gas on solids are :

Nature of the adsorbent : The same gas is adsorbed to different extents by different solids at the same temperature. Also, greater the surface area of the adsorbent, more is the gas adsorbed.

Nature of the adsorbate : Different gases are adsorbed to different extents by different solids at the same temperature. Higher the critical temperature of the gas, greater is its amount adsorbed.

Temperature : Since adsorption is an exothermic process, applying Le Chatelier’s principle, we can find out that adsorption decreases with an increase in temperature.

Specific area of the adsorbent : Surface area available for adsorption per gram of the adsorbent increases the extent of adsorption. Greater the surface area, higher would be the adsorption therefore, porous or powdered adsorbents are used.

Pressure : At constant temperature, the adsorption of gas increases with pressure.

Activation of adsorbent : It means increasing the adsorbing power of an adsorbent by increasing its surface area. It is done by :

  1. making the adsorbent’s surface rough
  2. removing gases already adsorbed
  3. subdividing the adsorbent into smaller pieces.

Question 5.
What is an adsorption isotherm? Describe Freundlich adsorption isotherm.
Solution:
Adsorption isotherm is a graph between the amount of the gas adsorbed by an adsorbent and equilibrium pressure of the adsorbate at constant temperature. Freundlich obtained an empirical relationship between the quantity of gas adsorbed by unit mass of solid adsorbent and pressure at a particular temperature. It is mathematically represented in the following way :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry 1
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry 2

Question 6.
What do you understand by activation of adsorbent? How is it achieved?
Solution:
Activation of an adsorbent means increasing its adsorbing power by increasing the surface area of the adsorbent by making its surface rough, and removing adsorbed gases from it. With an increase in surface area the adsorption increases.

Question 7.
What role does adsorption play in heterogenous catalysis?
Solution:
Adsorption of reactants on solid surface of the catalysts increases the rate of reaction. There are many gaseous reactions of industrial importance involving solid catalysts. Manufacture of ammonia using iron as a catalyst, manufacture of H2SO4 by Contact process and use of finely divided nickel in the hydrogenation of oils are excellent examples of heterogeneous catalysis.

Question 8.
Why is adsorption always exothermic?
Solution:
During adsorption, there is always a decrease in residual forces of the surface, i.e., there is decrease in surface energy which appears as heat. Adsorption therefore, is invariably an exothermic process. In other words, ∆H of adsorption is always negative to keep the value of ∆G negative for the reaction to be spontaneous as ∆S decreases during adsorption.

Question 9.
How are the colloidal solutions classified on the basis of physical states of the dispersed phase and dispersion medium?
Solution:
Colloids can be classified into eight types depending upon the physical state of the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry 3

Question 10.
Discuss the effect of pressure and temperature on the adsorption of gases on solids.
Solution:

  1. Adsorption decreases with an increase in, temperature because it is an exothermic process and according to Le Chatelier’s principle the reaction will proceed in backward direction with increase in temperature.
  2. At a constant temperature, adsorption increases with pressure.

Question 11.
What are lyophilic and lyophobic sols? Give one example of each type. Why are hydrophobic sols easily coagulated?
Solution:
There are two types of colloidal sols :

(i) Lyophilic sols : The word lyophilic means solvent loving. They are obtained by directly mixing the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium, e.g., sols of gum, gelatin, starch, etc. They are solvent attracting hence quite stable and cannot be coagulated easily.

(ii) Lyophobic sols : They cannot be prepared by directly mixing the dispersed phase and dispersion medium but are prepared by special methods, e.g., sols of metals. They are solvent repelling. Hydrophobic sols are easily coagulated due to repulsion between water and dispersed phase.

Question 12.
What is the difference between multimolecular and macromoiecular colloids? Give one example of each. How are associated colloids different from these two types of colloids?
Solution:
Depending upon the type of particles of the dispersed phase, colloids are classified as : multimolecular, macromoiecular and associated colloids.

(i) Multimolecular colloids : On dissolution, a large number of atoms or smaller molecules of a substance aggregate together to form species having size in the colloidal range (diameter < 1 nm). The species thus formed are called multimolecular colloids. For example, a gold sol may contain particles of various sizes having many atoms. Sulphur sol consists of particles containing a thousand or more of S8 sulphur molecules.

(ii) Macromoiecular colloids : Macromolecules in suitable solvents form solutions in which the size of the macromolecules may be in the colloidal range. Such systems are called macromoiecular colloids. These colloids are quite stable and resemble true solutions in many respects. Examples of naturally occurring macromolecules are starch, cellulose, proteins and enzymes; and those of man-made macromolecules are polythene, nylon, polystyrene, synthetic rubber, etc.

(iii) Associated colloids (Micelles) : There are some substances which at low concentrations behave as normal strong electrolytes but, at higher concentrations exhibit colloidal behaviour due to the formation of aggregates. The aggregated particles thus formed are called micelles. These are also known as associated colloids. The formation of micelles takes place only above a particular temperature called Kraft temperature (Tk) and above a particular concentration called critical micelle concentration (CMC). On dilution, these colloids revert back to individual ions. Surface active agents such as soaps and synthetic detergents belong to this class. For soaps, the CMC is 10-4 to 10-3 mol L-1. These colloids have both lyophobic and lyophilic parts. Micelles may contain as many as 100 molecules or more.

Question 13.
What are enzymes? Write in brief the mechanism of enzyme catalysis.
Solution:
Enzymes are complex nitrogenous organic compounds which act as biological catalysts and increase the rate of cellular processes. According to the lock and key model, like every lock has a specific key, similarly every enzyme acts at a specific substrate.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry 4
When the substrate fits the active site (lock) of the enzyme, the chemical change begins. But it has also been noticed that enzyme changes shape, when substrate lands at the active site. This induced-fit model of enzyme action pictures the substrate inducing the 1 active site to adopt a perfect fit, rather than a rigid shaped lock and key. Therefore, the new model for enzyme action is called induced fit model.

Question 14.
How are colloids classified on the basis of

  1. physical states of components
  2. nature of dispersion medium and
  3. interaction between dispersed phase and dispersion medium?

Solution:

  1. Refer answer number 9.
  2. Depending upon the nature of dispersion medium colloids can be classified as sol if the dispersion medium is liquid, gel if the dispersion medium is solid. If the dispersion medium is water, the sol is called hydrosol and if the dispersion medium is alcohol, it is called alcosol. A colloid in which the dispersion medium as well as dispersed phase are liquids, is called emulsion.
  3. Refer answer number 11.

Question 15.
Explain what is observed

  1. when a beam of light is passed through a colloidal sol.
  2. an electrolyte, NaCI is added to hydrated ferric oxide sol.
  3. electric current is passed through a colloidal sol?

Solution:
(i) When a beam of light is passed through colloidal particles, its path becomes clearly visible and is known as Tyndall effect. It is due to scattering of light by colloidal particles. The bright cone of the light is called Tyndall cone.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry 5

(ii) When NaCI is added to hydrated ferric oxide sol coagulation takes place. Since ferric oxide is a positive sol, it is coagulated by the negative chloride ions.

(iii) When electric potential is applied across two platinum electrodes dipped in a colloidal solution, the colloidal particles move towards one or the other electrode. The movement of colloidal particles under an applied electric potential is called electrophoresis.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry 6
Positively charged particles move towards the cathode while negatively charged particles move towards the anode. Since all the colloidal particles in a given colloidal solution carry the same charge, the particles move to one or the other electrode depending on the charge.

Question 16.
What are emulsions? What are their different types? Give example of each type.
Solution:
These are liquid-liquid colloidal systems, i.e., the dispersion of finely divided droplets in another liquid. If a mixture of two immiscible or partially miscible liquids is shaken, a coarse dispersion of one liquid in the other is obtained which is called emulsion. Generally, one of the two liquids is water. There are two types of emulsions :

  1. Oil dispersed in water (O/W type) and
  2. Water dispersed in oil (W/O type).

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry 7

In the first system, water acts as dispersion medium. Examples of this type of emulsion are milk and vanishing cream. In milk, liquid fat is dispersed in water. In the second system, oil acts as dispersion medium. Common examples of this type are butter and cream.

Question 17.
What is demulsification? Name two demulsifiers.
Solution:
The process of converting the emulsion back into two distinct components, oil and water is called demulsification. This can be done by

  1. boiling
  2. freezing
  3. changing pH
  4. electrostatic precipitation.

Question 18.
Action of soap is due to emulsification and micelle formation. Comment.
Solution:
Soap is sodium or potassium salt of a higher fatty acid and may be represented as RCOO Na+ (e.g., sodium stearate CH3(CH2)]16 COO Na+, which is a major component of many bar soaps). When dissolved in water, it dissociates into RCOO and Na+ ions. The RCOO ions, however, consist of two parts – a long hydrocarbon chain R (also called non-polar ‘tail’) which is hydrophobic (water repelling), and a polar group COO (also called polar-ionic ‘head’), which is hydrophilic (water loving).

The RCOO ions are, therefore, present on the surface with their COO groups in water and the hydrocarbon chains R staying away from it and remain at the surface. But at critical micelle concentration, the anions are pulled into the bulk of the solution and aggregate to form a spherical shape with their hydrocarbon chains pointing towards the centre of the sphere with COO part remaining outward on the surface of the sphere. An aggregate thus formed is known as ‘ionic micelle’.

The cleansing action of soap is due to the fact that soap molecules form micelle around the oil droplet in such a way that hydrophobic part of the stearate ions is in the oil droplet and hydrophilic part projects out of the grease droplet like the bristles
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry 8

(a) Grease on cloth
(b) Stearate ions (from soap) arranging around the grease droplets
(c) Micelle formed

Since the polar groups can interact with water, the oil droplet surrounded by stearate ions is now pulled in water and removed from the dirty surface. Thus soap helps in emulsification and washing away of oils and fats. Tne negatively charged sheath around the globules prevents them from coming together and forming aggregates.

Question 19.
Give four examples of heterogeneous catalysis.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry 9

Question 20.
What do you mean by activity and selectivity of catalysts?
Solution:
(a) Activity : The activity of a catalyst depends upon the strength of chemisorption to a large extent. The reactants must get adsorbed reasonably strongly on to the catalyst to become active. But adsorption must not be so strong that they are immobilised. It is observed that maximum activity is shown by elements of groups 7 – 9 of the periodic table
2H2 + O2 \underrightarrow { Pt } 2H2O

(b) Selectivity : The selectivity of a calatyst is its ability to yield a particular product in the reaction e.g.,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry 10
Thus, a selective catalyst can act as a catalyst in one reaction and may fail to catalyse another reaction.

Question 21.
Describe some features of catalysis by zeolites.
Solution:
(a) Zeolites are hydrated aluminosilicates which have a three dimensional network structure containing water molecules in their pores.
(b) The pores are made vacant by heating before catalysis.
(c) The reactions taking place in zeolites depend upon the size and shape of reactant and product molecules and also on the pores and cavities in them, e.g., ZSM-5 converts alcohols to hydrocarbons by dehydrating them.

Alcohols \underrightarrow { ZSM-5 } Hydrocarbons

Question 22.
What is shape selective catalysis?
Solution:
The catalytic reaction that depends upon the pore structure of the catalyst and the size of the reactant and product molecules is called shape-selective catalysis. Zeolites are good shape-selective catalysts because of their honeycomb-like structures. They are microporous aluminosilicates with three dimensional network of silicates in which some silicon atoms are replaced by aluminium atoms giving Al-O-Si framework. The reactions taking place in zeolites depend upon the size and shape of reactant and product molecules as well as upon the pores and cavities of the zeolites. They are found in nature as well as synthesised for catalytic selectivity.

Question 23.
Explain the following terms :

  1. Electrophoresis
  2. Coagulation
  3. Dialysis
  4. Tyndall effect

Solution:
(i) Electrophoresis : Refer answer number 15 (iii)

(ii) Coagulation or precipitation : The stability of the lyophobic sols is due to the presence of charge on colloidal particles. If somehow, the charge is removed, the particles will come nearer to each other to form aggregates (or coagulate) and settle down under the force of gravity. The process of settling down of colloidal particles is called coagulation.

(iii) Dialysis : It is the process of removing dissolved substances from a colloidal solution by means of diffusion through a suitable membrane. Since particles (ions or smaller molecules) in a true solution can pass through animal membrane (bladder) or parchment paper or cellophane sheet but not the colloidal particles, the membrane can be used for dialysis. The apparatus used for this purpose is called dialyser. A bag of suitable membrane containing the colloidal solution is suspended in a vessel through which fresh water is continuously flowing. The molecules and ions diffuse through membrane into the outer water and pure colloidal solution is left behind.

(iv) Tyndall effect : Refer answer number 15 (i)

Question 24.
Give four uses of emulsions.
Solution:

  1. Some of the medicines are effective as emulsions.
  2. Paints are emulsions which are used in our daily life.
  3. Soaps and detergents act as cleansing agents, action of which is based on emulsification.
  4. Photographic films are coated with emulsion of AgBr on its surface.

Question 25.
What are micelles? Give an example of a micelle system.
Solution:
Micelles are substances that behave as normal strong electrolytes at low concentration but at high concentrations behave as colloids due to formation of aggregates. They are also called associated colloids, e.g., soaps and detergents. They can form ions and may contain 100 or more molecules to form a micelle.

Question 26.
Explain the terms with suitable examples :

  1. Alcosol
  2. Aerosol
  3. Hydrosol

Solution:
(i) Alcosol : The sol in which alcohol is used as dispersion medium is called alcosol e.g., sol of cellulose nitrate in ethyl alcohol.

(ii) Aerosol : The sol in which dispersion medium is gas and dispersed phase is either solid or liquid, the colloidal system is called aerosol e.g., fog, insecticides, sprays, etc.

(iii) Hydrosol : The sol in which dispersion medium is water is called hydrosol e.g., starch sol.

Question 27.
Comment on the statement that’colloid is not a substance but a state of substance’.
Solution:
Colloid is not a substance, but a state of substance because the same substance may exist as a colloid or crystalloid under different conditions e.g., sulphur. Colloidal solution of sulphur consists of sulphur molecules dispersed in water. In this state, sulphur atoms combine to form multimolecules whose size lies between 1 nm to 1000 nm and form colloidal state. Sulphur forms true solution in carbon disulphide. Similarly soap is a solution at low concentration but a colloid at higher concentration.

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CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -4 Chemical Kinetics |NCERT CHEMISTRY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry : The NCERT solutions provided here will enhance the concepts of the students, as well as suggest alternative methods to solve particular problems to the teachers. The target is to direct individuals towards problem solving strategies, rather than solving problems in one prescribed format. The links below provide the detailed solutions for all the Class 12 Chemistry problems.

Chemistry is much more than the language of Science. We have made sure that our solutions reflect the same. We aim to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using logical approach and methodology. The NCERT Solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the subject.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter : 4 Chemical Kinetics

 INTEXT Questions

Question 1.
For the reaction R → P, the concentration of a reactant changes from 0.03 M to 0.02 M in 25 minutes. Calculate the average rate of reaction using units of time both in minutes and seconds.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 1

Question 2.
In a reaction, 2A → products, the concentration of A decreases from 0.5 mol L-1 to 0.4 mol L-1 in 10 minutes. Calculate the rate during this interval.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 2

Question 3.
For a reaction, A + B → product; the rate law is given by, r = k[A]1/2 [B]2. What is the order of the reaction?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 3

Question 4.
The conversion of molecules X to Y follows second order kinetics. If concentration of X is increased to three times how will it affect the rate of formation of Y?
Solution:
The reaction, X → Y, follows second order kinetics hence the rate law equation will be
Rate = kC2, where C = [X]
If concentration of X increases three times, now, [X] = 3C mol L-1
∴ Rate = k(3C)2 = 9kC2
Thus the rate of reaction will become 9 times. Hence, the rate of formation of Y will increase 9 times.

Question 5.
A first order reaction has a rate constant 1.15 × 10-3 s-1. How long will 5 g of this reactant take to reduce to 3 g?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 4

Question 6.
Time required to decompose SO2Cl2 to half of its initial amount is 60 minutes. If the decomposition is a first order reaction, calculate the rate constant of the reaction.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 5

Question 7.
What will be the effect of temperature on rate constant?
Solution:
It has been found that for a chemical reaction, with rise in temperature by 10°, the rate constant is nearly doubled.

The temperature dependence of the rate of a chemical reaction can be accurately explained by Arrhenius equation.
K = Ae-Ea/RT
Where A is the Arrhenius factor or the frequency factor. It is also called pre exponential factor. It is a constant specific to a particular reaction. R is gas constant and Ea is activation energy measured in joules/mole (J mol-1).

Question 8.
The rate of the chemical reaction doubles for an increase of 10 K in absolute temperature from 298 K. Calculate Ea.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 6
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 7

 

Question 9.
The activation energy for the reaction 2Hl(g) → H2(g) + l2(g) is 209.5 kJ mol-1 at 581 K. Calculate the fraction of molecules of reactants having energy equal to or greater than activation energy.
Solution:
Fraction of molecules having energy equal to or greater than activation energy is given as
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 8

 NCERT Exercises

Question 1.
From the rate expression for the following reactions, determine their order of reaction and the dimensions of the rate constants.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 9
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 10
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 11

Question 2.
For the reaction : 2A + B → A2B the rate = k[A][B]2 with k = 2.0 × 10-6 mol-2 L2 s-1 Calculate the initial rate of the reaction when [A] = 0.1 mol L-1 [B] = 0.2 mol L-1 Calculate the rate of reaction after [A] is reduced to 0.06 mol L-1.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 12

Question 3.
The decomposition of NH3 on platinum surface is zero order reaction. What are the rates of production of N2 and H2 if k = 2.5 × 10-4 mol L-1 s-1 ?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 13

Question 4.
The decomposition of dimethyl ether leads to the formation of CH4, H2 and CO and the reaction rate is given by
Rate = k[CH3OCH3]3/2
The rate of reaction is followed by increase in pressure in closed vessel, so the rate can also be expressed in terms of the partial pressure of dimethyl ether, i.e.,
Rate = K(pCH3OCH3)3/2
If the pressure is measured in bar and time in minutes, then what are the units of rate and rate constants ?
Solution:
In terms of pressure,
Units of rate = bar min-1
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 14

Question 5.
Mention the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction.
Solution:
Following are the factors on which rate of reaction depends.
(i) Nature of the reactant : Rate of reaction depends on nature of reactant.
Example : Reactions of ionic compounds are faster than that of covalent compounds.

(ii) State of reactants : Solid reactions are slow, reactions of liquids are fast whereas that of gases are very fast.

(iii) Temperature : Rate of reaction largely depends on temperature. It has been observed that every 10°C rise in temperature increases rate of reaction by 2-3 times.
\frac { { r }_{ t }+10 }{ { r }_{ t } }  = 2 – 3 . This ratio is called temperature coefficient.
There are two reasons for increasing rate of reaction with increasing temperature.

(a) Increase in temperature increases average kinetic energy of reactant molecules. Hence, rate of collision increases.
(b) With increase in temperature number of molecules having threshold energy also increases i.e. number of active molecules increases. As a result, number of effective collisions increases. Hence, rate of reaction increases.

(iv) Concentration : Rate of reaction also depends on concentration of reactants.
Rate = k × C, where n = order of reaction, C = concentration of reactant.

(v) Presence of catalyst : Rate of reaction also depends on presence of catalyst. Catalyst increases rate of reaction by any of the following ways:
(a) Increasing surface area of reaction.
(b) Adsorbing the reactants on its surface and thus increasing chance of collision.
(c) By forming unstable intermediate with the substrate.
(d) By providing alternate path of lower activation energy.

Question 6.
A reaction is second order with respect to a reactant. How is the rate of reaction affected if the concentration of the reactant is

  1. doubled
  2. reduced to half ?

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 15
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 16

Question 7.
What is the effect of temperature on the rate constant of a reaction? How can this temperature effect on rate constant be represented quantitatively?
Solution:
The rate constant increases with increase in temperature and becomes almost double for every 10° increase in temperature. Swedish chemist, Arrhenius derived a quantitative relation between rate of reaction and temperature. According to Arrhenius,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 17

Question 8.
In a pseudo first order hydrolysis of ester in water, the following results were obtained :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 18

  1. Calculate the average rate of reaction between the time interval 30 to 60 seconds.
  2. Calculate the pseudo first order rate constant for the hydrolysis of ester.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 19
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 20

Question 9.
A reaction is first order in A and second order in B.

  1. Write the differential rate equation.
  2. How is the rate affected on increasing the concentration of 6 three times?
  3. How is the rate affected when the concentrations of both A and B are doubled?

Solution:
(i) Reaction is first order in A and second order in B, hence differential rate equation is
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 21

Question 10.
In a reaction between A and B, the initial rate of reaction (r0) was measured for different initial concentrations of A and B as given below :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 22
What is the order of the reaction with respect to A and B ?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 23
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 24

Question 11.
The following results have been obtained during the kinetic studies of the reaction :
2 A + B → C + D
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 25
Determine the rate law and the rate constant for the reaction.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 26
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 27

Question 12.
The reaction between A and B is first order with respect to A and zero order with respect to B. Fill in the blanks in the following table :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 28
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 29

Question 13.
Calculate the half-life of the first order reaction from their rate constants given below:

  1. 200 s-1
  2. 2 min-1
  3. 4 year-1

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 30

Question 14.
The half-life for radioactive decay of 14C is 5730 years. An archaeological artifact containing wood had only 80% of the 14C found in a living tree. Estimate the age of the sample.
Solution:
Radioactive decay follows first order kinetics. Therefore,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 31

Question 15.
The experimental data for the decomposition of N2O5
[2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2]
in gas phase at 318K are given below :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 32

  1. Plot [N2O5] against t.
  2. Find the half-life period for the reaction.
  3. Draw a graph between log [N2O5] and t.
  4. What is the rate law?
  5. Calculate the rate constant.
  6. Calculate the half-life period from k and compare it with (ii).

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 33
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 34
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 35
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 36

Question 16.
The rate constant for a first order reaction is 60 s-1. How much time will it take to reduce the initial concentration of the reactant to its 1/16 th value ?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 37

Question 17.
During nuclear explosion, one of the products is 90Sr with half-life of 28.1 years. If 1 µg of 90Sr was absorbed in the bones of a newly born baby instead of calcium, how much of it will remain after 10 years and 60 years if it is not lost metabolically ?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 38
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 39

Question 18.
For a first order reaction, show that time required for 99% completion is twice the time required for the completion of 90% of reaction.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 40

 

Question 19.
A first order reaction takes 40 min for 30% decomposition. Calculate t1/2.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 41

Question 20.
For the decomposition of azoisopropane to hexane and nitrogen at 543 K, the following data are obtained.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 42
Calculate the rate constant
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 43

 Question 21.
The following data were obtained during the first order thermal decomposition of SO2Cl2 at a constant volume.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 44
Calculate the rate of the reaction when total pressure is 0.65 atm.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 45

Question 22.
The rate constant for the decomposition of N2O5 at various temperatures is given below :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 46
Draw a graph between In k and 1/7 and calculate the value of A and Ea. Predict the rate constant at 30°C and 50°C.
Solution:
The values of rate constants for the decomposition of N2O5 at various temperatures are given below :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 47
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 48
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 49

Question 23.
The rate constant for the decomposition of a hydrocarbon is 2.418 × 10-5 s-1 at 546 K. If the energy of activation is 179.9 kJ/mol, what will be the value of pre-exponential factor.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 50

Question 24.
Consider a certain reaction A → Products with k = 2.0 × 10-2 s-1. Calculate the concentration of A remaining after 100 s if the initial concentration of A is 1.0 mol L-1.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 51

Question 25.
Sucrose decomposes in acid solution into glucose and fructose according to the first order rate law, with t1/2 = 3.00 hours. What fraction of sample of sucrose remains after 8 hours ?
Solution:
Sucrose decomposes according to first order rate law, hence
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 52

Question 26.
The decomposition of a hydrocarbon follows the equation
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 53
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 54

Question 27.
The rate constant for the first order decomposition of H2O2 is given by the following equation:
log k = 14.34 – 1.25 × 104 K/T
Calculate Ea for this reaction and at what temperature will its half-period be 256 minutes?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 55
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 56

 

Question 28.
The decomposition of A into product has value of k as 4.5 × 103 s-1 at 10°C and energy of activation 60 kJ mol-1. At what temperature would k be 1.5 × 104 s-1 ?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 57

Question 29.
The time required for 10% completion of the first order reaction at 298 K is equal to that required for its 25% completion at 308 K. If the value of A is 4 × 1010 s-1, calculated at 318 K and Ea.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 58
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 59
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 60

Question 30.
The rate of a reaction quadruples when the temperature changes from 293 K to 313 K. Calculate the energy of activation of the reaction assuming that it does not change with temperature.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 61

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CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -3 Electrochemistry |NCERT CHEMISTRY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry : The NCERT solutions provided here will enhance the concepts of the students, as well as suggest alternative methods to solve particular problems to the teachers. The target is to direct individuals towards problem solving strategies, rather than solving problems in one prescribed format. The links below provide the detailed solutions for all the Class 12 Chemistry problems.

Chemistry is much more than the language of Science. We have made sure that our solutions reflect the same. We aim to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using logical approach and methodology. The NCERT Solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the subject.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter : 3 Electrochemistry

INTEXT Questions

Question 1.
How would you determine the standard electrode potential of the system Mg2+ | Mg?
Solution:
Set up an electrochemical cell consisting of MglMgSO4(1 M) as one electrode by dipping a magnesium wire in 1 M MgSO4 solution and standard hydrogen electrode Pt, H2 (1 atm) | H+(1 M) as the second electrode. Measure the EMF of the cell and also note the direction of deflection in the voltmeter. The direction of deflection shows that the electrons flow from magnesium electrode to hydrogen electrode, i.e., oxidation takes place on magnesium electrode and reduction on hydrogen electrode.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 1

Question 2.
Can you store copper sulphate solution in a zinc pot ?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 2

Question 3.
Consult the table of standard electrode potentials and suggest three substances that can oxidise ferrous ions under suitable conditions.
Solution:
Oxidation of ferrous ions means :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 3
Only those substances can oxidise Fe2+ to Fe3+ which are stronger oxidising agents and have positive reduction potentials greater than 0.77 V so that EMF of the cell reaction is positive. This is for elements lying below Fe3+/Fe2+ in the electrochemical series, for example, Br2, Cl2 and F2.

Question 4.
Calculate the potential of hydrogen electrode in contact with a solution whose pH is 10.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 4
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 5

Question 5.
Calculate the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place :
Ni(S) + 2Ag+ (0.002 M) → Ni2+(0.160 M) + 2Ag(S)
Given that E°cell = 1.05 V
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 6

Question 6.
The cell in which the following reaction occurs: 2Fe3+(aq) + 2l(aq) → 2Fe2+(aq) + l2(s) has E°cell = 0.236 V at 298 K. Calculate the standard Gibb’s energy and the equilibrium constant of the cell reaction.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 7
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 8

Question 7.
Why does the conductivity of a solution decrease with dilution?
Solution:
Conductivity of solution decreases with dilution because number of ions per unit volume decreases.

Question 8.
Suggest a way to determine the A°m value of water.
Solution:
Water is a weak electrolyte. Its A°m value can be determined with the help of Kohlrausch’s law.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 9

Question 9.
The molar conductivity of 0.025 mol L-1 methanoic acid is 46.1 S cm2 mol-1. Calculate its degree of dissociation and dissociation constant. Given λ (H+) = 349.6 S cm2 mol-1 and λ (HCOO) = 54.6 S cm2 mol-1
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 10

Question 10.
lf a current of 0.5 ampere flows through a metallic wire for 2 hours, then how many electrons would flow though the wire?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 11

Question 11.
Suggest; a list of metals that are extracted electrolytically.
Solution:
Ca, Na, K, Al are extracted electrolytically.

Question 12.
Consider the reaction:
Cr2O2-7 + 14H+ + 6e → 2Cr3+ + 7H2O,
What is the quantity of electricity in coulombs needed to reduce 1 mol of Cr2 O2-7?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 12

Question 13.
Write the chemistry of recharging the lead storage battery, highlighting all the materials that are involved during recharging.
Solution:
Chemical reactions while recharging :
2PbSO4 + 2H2O → PbO2 + Pb + 2H2SO4
Electricity is passed through the electrolyte PbSO4 which is converted into PbO2 and Pb.

Question 14.
Suggest two materials other than hydrogen that can be used as fuels in fuel cells.
Solution:
CH4 and CO can be used in fuel cell instead of hydrogen.

Question 15.
Explain how rusting of iron is envisaged as setting up of an electrochemical cell.
Solution:
The following reactions take place at the surface of iron metal which acts as an electrochemical cell.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 13
The water layer present on the surface of iron dissolves acidic oxides of air like C02 to form acids which dissociate to give H+ ions. Fe starts losing electrons in presence of H+ ions.
H2O + CO2 → H2CO3 \rightleftharpoons  2H+ + C032-

NCERT Exercises

Question 1.
Arrange the following metals in the order in which they displace each other from the solution of their salts.
Al, Cu, Fe, Mg and Zn.
Solution:
Mg, Al, Zn, Fe, Cu

Question 2.
Given the standard electrode potentials,
K+/ K = – 2.93 V, Ag+/ Ag = 0.80 V, Hg2+/ Hg = 0.79 V, Mg2+/ Mg = -2.37 V, Cr3+/ Cr = – 0.74 V
Arrange these metals in their increasing order of reducing power.
Solution:
Higher the oxidation potential, more easily it is oxidized and hence greater is the reducing power. Thus, increasing order of reducing power will be
Ag < Hg < Cr < Mg < K.

Question 3.
Depict the galvanic cell in which the reaction Zn(S) + 2Ag+(aq) Zn2+(aq), + 2Ag(s) takes place. Further show :

  1. Which of the electrode is negatively charged?
  2. The carriers of the current i n the cell.
  3. Individual reaction at each electrode.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 14

Question 4.
Calculate the standard cell potentials of galvanic cell in which the following reactions take place :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 15
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 16
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 17

Question 5.
Write the Nernst equation and emf of the following cells at 298 K :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 18
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 19
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 20
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 21
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 22

Question 6.
In the button cells widely used in watches and other devices the following reaction takes place :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 23
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 24

Question 7.
Define conductivity and molar conductivity for the solution of an electrolyte. Discuss their variation with concentration.
Solution:
The reciprocal of resistivity is known as specific conductance or simply conductivity. It is denoted by K (kappa). Thus, if K is the specific conductance and G is the conductance of the solution, then
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 25
Now, if I = 1 cm and A = lsq.cm, then K = G.

Hence, conductivity of a solution is defined as the conductance of a solution of 1 cm length and having 1 sq. cm as the area of cross¬section. Alternatively, it may be defined as conductance of one centimetre cube of the solution of the electrolyte.

Molar conductivity of a solution at a dilution V is the conductance of all the ions produced from 1 mole of the electrolyte dissolved in V cm3 of the solution when the electrodes are one cm apart and the area of the electrodes is so large that the whole of the solution is contained between them. It is represented by ∆m.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 26

Variation of conductivity and molar conductivity with concentration: Conductivity always decreases with decrease in concentration, for both weak and strong electrolytes. This is because the number of ions per unit volume that carry the current in a solution decreases on dilution.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 27

Molar conductivity increases with decrease in concentration. This is because that total volume, V, of solution containing one mole of electrolyte also increases. It has been found that decrease in K on dilution of a solution is more than compensated by increase in its volume.

Question 8.
The conductivity of 0.20 M solution of KCI at 298 K is 0.0248 S cm-1. Calculate its molar conductivity.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 28

Question 9.
The resistance of a conductivity cell containing 0.001 M KCI solution at 298 K is 1500 Ω. What is the cell constant if conductivity of 0.001 M KCI solution at 298 K is 0.146 × 10-3 S cm-1.
Solution:
Cell constant = K × R = 0.146 × 10-3 × 1500 = 0.219 cm-1

Question 10.
The conductivity of sodium chloride at 298K has been determined at different concentrations and the results are given below:
Concentration/M 0.001 0.010 0.020 0.050 0.100
102 × K/S m-1 1.237 11.85 23.15 55.53 106.74
Calculate ∆m for all concentrations and draw a plot between ∆m and c1/2. Find the value of ∆°m
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 29
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 30
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 31

Question 11.
Conductivity of 0.00241 M acetic acid is 7.896 × 10-5 S cm-1. Calculate its molar conductivity. If ∆°m for acetic acid is 390.5 S cm2 mol-1, what is its dissociation constant?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 32
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 33

Question 12.
How much charge is required for the following reductions:

  1. 1 mol of Al3+to Al ?
  2. 1 mol of Cu2+ to Cu ?
  3. 1 mol of MnO4– to Mn2+ ?

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 34
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 35

Question 13.
How much electricity in terms of Faraday is required to produce

  1. 20.0 g of Ca from molten CaCl2?
  2. 40.0 g of Al from molten Al2O3?

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 36

Question 14.
How much electricity is required in coulomb for the oxidation of

  1. 1 mol of H2O to O2?
  2. 1 mol of FeO to Fe2O3?

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 37
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 38

Question 15.
A solution of Ni(NO3)2 is electrolysed between platinum electrodes using a current of 5 amperes for 20 minutes. What mass of Ni is deposited at the cathode?
(At. mass of Ni = 58.7)
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 39

Question 16.
Three electrolytic cells A, B, C containing solutions of ZnSO4, AgNO3 and CuSO4 respectively are connected in series. A steady current of 1.5 amperes was passed through them until 1.45 g of silver deposited at the cathode of cell B. How long did the current flow? What mass of copper and zinc were deposited?
(At. wt. of Ag = 108, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.3)
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 40
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 41

Question 17.
Using the standard electrode potentials predict if the reaction between the following is feasible :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 42
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 43

Question 18.
Predict the product of electrolysis in each of the following:

  1. An aqueous solution of AgNO3 with silver electrodes.
  2. An aqueous solution of AgNO3 with platinum electrodes.
  3. A dilute solution of H2SO4 with platinum electrodes.
  4. An aqueous solution of CuCI2 with platinum electrodes.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 44
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 45

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