CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -3 Human Reproduction |NCERT BIOLOGY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

Class 12 biology sets a strong basis for advanced studies. Subject experts clear all your queries during exam preparation by the explanation of the solutions in a conceptual way.

All chapter class 12 Biology NCERT Solutions are prescribed by the subject teachers based on the NCERT textbook questions and explained all solutions in a better way for easy understanding. In-depth knowledge of the biology subject can be attained by the students with the help of detailed NCERT Solutions of Class 12 Biology

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter :3 Human Reproduction

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.

  1. Humans reproduce___(asexually/ sexually).
  2. Humans are ___(oviparous/ viviparous/ ovoviviparous).
  3. Fertilisation is___in humans (external/internal).
  4. Male and female gametes are___ (diploid/haploid).
  5. Zygote is___(diploid/haploid).
  6. The process of release of ovum from a mature follicle is called___
  7. Ovulation is induced by a hormone called ___
  8. The fusion of male and female gametes is called___
  9. Fertilisation takes place in ___
  10. Zygote divides to form___which is implanted in uterus.
  11. The structure which provides vascular connection between foetus and uterus is called ___

Solution:

  1. sexually;
  2. viviparous;
  3. internal;
  4. haploid;
  5. diploid;
  6. ovulation;
  7. LH;
  8. fertilisation;
  9. ampullary-isthmic junction of Fallopian tube;
  10. blastocyst;
  11. placenta

Question 2.
Draw a labelled diagram of male reproductive system.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction Q2.1

Question 3.
Draw a labelled diagram of female reproductive system.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction Q3.1

Question 4.
Write two major functions each of testis and ovary.
Solution:
Testis:

  1. The seminiferous tubules of the testis produce sperm.
  2. The Leydig cells of testis produce hormones such as androsterone and testosterone, together called androgens.

Ovary:

  1. Produce ovum
  2. Produce ovarian hormones such as estradiol, estrone, and estriol collectively called estrogens.

Question 5.
Describe the structure of a seminiferous tubule
Solution:
Seminiferous tubules are located in the testicles, and are the specific location of meiosis, and the subsequent creation of gametes, namely spermatozoa.

The lining of seminiferous tubules called germinal epithelium contains two types of cells – primary germ ceils which undergo spermatogenesis to form spermatozoa and columnar indifferent cells (derived from coelomic epithelium) which enlarge to form Sertoli cells. Sertoli cells function as nurse cells for providing nourishment to the developing spermatozoa, phagocvtise defective sperm and secrete protein hormone inhibin (which inhibits FSH secretion).

The seminiferous tubules are situated in testicular lobules. Both ends of the tubule are connected to the central region of the testis and form a network of small ductules called the rete testis.

Question 6.
What is spermatogenesis ? Briefly describe the process of spermatogenesis.
Solution:
Spermatogenesis is the process by which male spermatogonia develop into mature male gamete, spermatozoa. It starts at puberty and usually continues uninterrupted until death, although a slight decrease can be discerned in the quantity of produced sperm with increase in age. The process of spermatogenesis includes the formation of spermatogonia from germinal epithelium (primordial germ cell) through mitosis (multiplication phase). Finally they stop undergoing mitosis, grow and become primary spermatocytes (growth phase). Each spermatocyte undergoes meiosis (maturation phase). First maturation division is reductional, and produces two secondary spermatocytes. The latter divides by equational division (second maturation division) to form four haploid spermatids. Spermatids receive nourishment from the Sertoli cells to form sperms. This step is called spermiogenesis.

During this process one spermatogonium produces four sperms having half number of chromosomes.

Question 7.
Name the hormones involved in the regulation of spermatogenesis.
Solution:
The hormones involved in the regulation of spermatogenesis are:

  • Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
  • Luteinizing hormone (LH)
  • Follicle-stimulating hormone
  • Testosterone.

Question 8.
Define spermiogenesis and spermiation.
Solution:
The transformation of spermatid into sperm is called spermiogenesis. The release of sperm from the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.

Question 9.
Draw a labelled diagram of sperm
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction Q9.1

Question 10.
What are the major components of seminal plasma?
Solution:
Secretions of prostate gland, seminal vesicle and Cowper’s gland and , sperms together constitute semen.

Question 11.
What are the major functions of male accessory ducts and glands?
Solution:
The main functions of male accessory ducts and glands are as follows:

1. Functions of accessory ducts:

  • Rete Testis: They transport sperms from seminiferous tubule to Vas efferentia.
  • Vas efferentia: Transports sperms to epdidymis.
  • Epididymis: Sperms are stored here. Maturation of sperms occurs.
  • Vas deference: Transports sperms from the epididymis to the urethra.

2. Functions of glands:

  • Prostate gland: It produces milky secretion which forms a considerable part of the semen. It makes sperm motile.
  • Bulbourethral gland: Its secretion makes the penis lubricated.
  • Seminal vesicle: It secretes mucus and watery alkaline fluid which provide energy to the sperm.

Question 12.
What is oogenesis? Give a brief account of oogenesis.
Solution:
Oogenesis is the production and growth of the ova (egg cell) in the ovary. It starts only after the female has attained puberty. The process is induced by FSH from the anterior pituitary. It leads to the growth of a single Graafian follicle in one of the two ovaries every month. The developing ovary is colonised by primordial germ cells prior to birth which differentiate into oogonia. These enlarge within the follicle under the influence of mitotic division to form primary oocyte containing diploid number of chromosomes. These undergo reductional division (1st meiotic division) to form a secondary oocyte and first polar body. The secondary oocyte proceeds with meiosis II but the division gets arrested until fertilisation occurs. The ‘egg’ is released at secondary oocyte stage under the effect of LH. A second polar body is extruded. The first polar body may also divide to form two polar bodies of equal sizes which do not take part in reproduction and ultimately degenerates. During oogenesis one oogonium produces one ovum and three polar bodies. Polar bodies containing small amount of cytoplasm helps to retain sufficient amount of cytoplasm in the ovum which is essential for the development of early embryo. Formation of polar bodies maintains the half number of chromosomes in the ovum.

Question 13.
Draw a labelled diagram of a section through ovary.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction Q13.1

Question 14.
Draw a labelled diagram of a Graafian follicle ?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction Q14.1

Question 15.
Give the functions of the following.

  1. Corpus luteum
  2. Endometrium
  3. Acrosome
  4. Sperm tail
  5. Fimbriae

Solution:
The functions of the following:

  1. Corpus luteum secretes a large amount of progesterone which is essential for the maintenance of the endometrium of the uterus.
  2. Endometrium is necessary for the implantation of the fertillised ovum, for contributing towards the making of the placenta and other events of pregnancy.
  3. Acrosome is filled with enzymes that help in dissolving the outer cover of the ovum and entry of sperm nucleus.
  4. Sperm tail facilitates motility of the sperm essential for reaching the ovum to fertilize it.
  5. Fimbriae are fingers-like projections at the mouth of fallopian tubules that help in the collection of the ovum after ovulation.

Question 16.
Identify True/False statements. Correct each false statement to make it true.

  1. Androgens are produced by Sertoli cells.
  2. Spermatozoa get nutrition from Sertoli cells.
  3. Leydig cells are found in ovary.
  4. Leydig cells synthesise androgens.
  5. Oogenesis takes place in corpus luteum.
  6. Menstrual cycle ceases during pregnancy.
  7. Presence or absence of a hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity Or sexual experience.

Solution:

  1. False: Androgens are produced by interstitial cells or Leydig cells.
  2. True
  3. False: Leydig’s cells are found in the testes (in between the seminiferous tubules).
  4. True
  5. False: Oogenesis takes place in the ovary.
  6. True
  7. True

Question 17.
What is the menstrual cycle? Which hormones regulate the menstrual cycle?
Solution:
The recurring cycle of physiological changes in the uterus, ovaries and other sexual structures that occur from the beginning of one menstrual period through the beginning of the next is called menstrual cycle. The beginning of menstruation is called menarche. Hormones involved in the regulation of menstrual cycle are pituitary or ovarian hormones. These are LH, FSH, estrogen and progesterone.

Question 18.
What is parturition? Which hormones are involved in the induction of parturition?

Solution:

  • The process of delivering of the fully developed fetus or baby at the end of the pregnancy period through vigorous contraction of the uterus is called parturition.
  • Estrogen (amount of estrogen is more than progesterone) and oxytocin are the hormones involved in the induction of parturition.

Question 19.
In our society, women are often blamed for giving birth to daughters. Can you explain why this is not correct?
Solution:
This is not correct that women in our society are often blamed for giving birth to daughters because the sex of the baby is determined by the father, not by the mother. As we know that the chromosome pattern in the human female is XX and that in the male is XY.

Therefore, all the haploid gametes produced by the female (ova) have the sex chromosome X whereas in the male gametes (sperms) the sex chromosome could be either X or Y, hence, 50 per cent of sperms carry the X chromosome while the other 50 per cent carry the Y. After fusion of the male and female gametes the zygote would carry either XX or XY depending on whether the sperm carrying X or Y fertilised the ovum. The zygote carrying XX would develop into a female baby and XY would form a male.

Question 20.
How many eggs are released by a human ovary in a month? How many eggs do you think would have been released if the mother gave birth to identical twins? Would your answer change if the twins born were fraternal?
Solution:
Each ovary develops a number of immature eggs associated with groups of other cells called follicles. Normally, in humans, only one egg is released at one time; occasionally, two or more erupt during the menstrual cycle. The egg erupts from the ovary on the 14th to 16th day of the approximately 28 day menstrual cycle. Identical twins occur when a single egg is fertilised to form one zygote (monozygotic) which then divides into two separate embryos. And if the twins were born fraternal two eggs are released. Fraternal twins (commonly known as “non-identical twins”) usually occur when two fertilised eggs are implanted in the uterine wall at the same time. The two eggs form two zygotes, and these twins are therefore also known as dizygotic as well as “binovular” twins.

Question 21.
How many eggs do you think were released by the ovary of a female dog which gave birth to 6 puppies?
Solution:
One oogonium produces one ovum and three polar bodies. The ovum is the actual female gamete. The polar bodies take no part in reproduction and hence, soon degenerate. In human beings, ovum is released from the ovary in the secondary oocyte stage. So, six ova (eggs), were released by ovary of a female dog which gave birth to 6 puppies.

Read More

CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants |NCERT BIOLOGY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

Class 12 biology sets a strong basis for advanced studies. Subject experts clear all your queries during exam preparation by the explanation of the solutions in a conceptual way.

All chapter class 12 Biology NCERT Solutions are prescribed by the subject teachers based on the NCERT textbook questions and explained all solutions in a better way for easy understanding. In-depth knowledge of the biology subject can be attained by the students with the help of detailed NCERT Solutions of Class 12 Biology

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter :2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Exercises

Question 1.
Name the parts of an angiosperm flower in which development of male and female gametophyte take place.
Answer:
The male gametophyte or the pollen grain develops inside the pollen chamber of the anther, whereas the female gametophyte (also known as the embryo sac) develops inside the nucellus of the ovule from the functional megaspore.

Question 2.
Differentiate between microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis. Which type of cell division occurs during these events? Name the structures formed at the end of these two events.
Answer:

(a)MicrosporogenesisMegasporogenesis
1.It is the process of the formation of microspore tetrads from a microspore mother cell through meiosis.It is the process of the formation of the four megaspores from a megaspore mother cell in the region of the nucellus through meiosis.
2.It occurs inside the pollen sac of the anther.It occurs inside the ovule.

(b) Both events (microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis ) involve the process of meiosis or reduction division which results in the formation of haploid gametes from the microspore and megaspore mother cells.
(c) Microsporogenesis results in the formation of haploid microspores from a diploid microspore mother cell. On the other hand, megasporogenesis results in the formation of haploid megaspores from a diploid megaspore mother cell.

Question 3.
Arrange the following terms in the correct developmental sequence: Pollen grain, sporogenous tissue, microspore tetrad, pollen mother cell, male gametes.
Answer:
The correct developmental sequence is as follows: Sporogenous tissue, pollen mother cell, microspore tetrad, pollen grain, male gametes. During the development of microsporangium, each cell of the sporogenous tissue acts as a pollen mother cell and gives rise to a microspore tetrad, containing four haploid microspores by the process of meiosis (microsporogenesis). As the anther matures, these microspores dissociate and develop into pollen grains. The pollen grains mature and give rise to male gametes.

Question 4.
With a neat, labelled diagram, describe the parts of a typical angiosperm ovule.
Answer:
An ovule is a female megasporangium where the formation of megaspores takes place.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 1
The various parts of a typical angiospermic ovule are as follows :

  1. Funiculus : It is a stalk-like structure which represents the point of attachment of the ovule to the placenta of the ovary.
  2. Hilum : It is the point where the body of the ovule is attached to the funiculus.
  3. Integuments : They are the outer layers surrounding the ovule that provide protection to the developing embryo.
  4. Micropyle : It is a narrow pore formed by the projection of integuments. It marks the point where the pollen tube enters the ovule at the time of fertilisation.
  5. Nucellus : It is a mass of the parenchymatous tissue surrounded by the integuments from the outside. The nucellus provides nutrition to the developing embryo. The embryo sac is located inside the nucellus.
  6. Chalaza : It is the based swollen part of the nucellus from where the integuments originate.

Question 5.
What is meant by monosporic development of female gametophyte?
Answer:
The female gametophyte or the embryo sac develops from a single functional megaspore. This is known as monosporic development of the female gametophyte. In most flowering plants, a single megaspore mother cell present at the micropylar pole of the nucellus region of the ovule undergoes meiosis to produce four haploid megaspores. Later, out of these four megaspores, only one functional megaspoxe develops into the female gametophyte, while the remaining three degenerate.

Question 6.
With a neat diagram explain the 7-celled, 8-nucleate nature of the female gametophyte.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 2
The female gametophyte (embryo sac) develops from a single functional megaspore. This megaspore undergoes three successive mitotic divisions to form eight nucleate embryo sacs. The first mitotic division in the megaspore forms two nuclei. One nucleus moves towards the micropylar end while the other nucleus moves towards the chalazal end. Then, these nuclei divide at their respective ends and re-divide to form eight nucleate stages. As a result, there are four nuclei each at both the ends i.e., at the micropylar and the chalazal end in the embryo sac. At the micropylar end, out of the four nuclei only three differentiate into two synergids and one egg cell. Together they are known as the egg apparatus. Similarly, at the chalazal end, three out of four nuclei differentiates as antipodal cells. The remaining two cells (of the micropylar and the chalazal end) move towards the centre and are known as the polar nuclei, which are situated in a large central cell. Hence, at maturity, the female gametophyte appears as a 7-celled structure, though it has 8-nucleate.

Question 7.
What are chasmogamous flowers? Can cross-pollination occur in cleistogamous flowers? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
There are two types of flowers present in plants namely Oxalis and Viola—chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers. Chasmogamous flowers have exposed anthers and stigmata similar to the flowers of other species.
Cross-pollination cannot occur in cleistogamous flowers. This is because cleistogamous flowers never open at all. Also, the anther and the stigma lie close to each other in these flowers. Hence, only self-pollination is possible in these flowers.

Question 8.
Mention two strategies evolved to prevent self-pollination in flowers.
Answer:
Self-pollination involves the transfer of pollen from the stamen to the pistil of the same flower. Two strategies that have evolved to prevent self-pollination in flowers are given on next page:

  1. Self-incompatibility : In certain plants, the stigma of the flower has the capability to prevent the germination of pollen grains and hence, prevent the growth of the pollen tube. It is a genetic mechanism to prevent self-pollination called self-incompatibility. Incompatibility may be between individuals of the same species or between individuals of different species. Thus, incompatibility prevents breeding.
  2. Protandry : In some plants, the gynoecium matures before the androecium or vice-versa. This phenomenon is known as protogyny or protandry respectively. This prevents the pollen from coming in contact with the stigma of the same flower.

Question 9.
What is self-incompatibility? Why does self-pollination not lead to seed formation in self-incompatible species?
Answer:
Self-incompatibility is a genetic mechanism in angiosperms that prevents self-pollination. It develops genetic incompatibility between ‘ individuals of the same species or between individuals of different species.

The plants which exhibit this phenomenon have the ability to prevent germination of pollen grains and thus, prevent the growth of the pollen tube on the stigma of the flower. This prevents the fusion of the gametes along with the development of the embryo. As a result, no seed formation takes place.

Question 10.
What is bagging technique? How is it useful in a plant breeding ‘ programme?
Answer:
Various artificial hybridisation techniques (under various crop , improvement programmes) involve the removal of the anther from bisexual flowers without affecting the female reproductive part (pistil) through the process of emasculation. Then, these emasculated flowers are wrapped in bags to prevent pollination by unwanted pollen grains.

This process is called bagging. This technique is an important part of the plant breeding programme as it ensures that pollen grains of only desirable plants are used for fertilisation of the stigma to develop the desired plant variety.

Question 11.
What is triple fusion? Where and how does it take place? Name the nuclei involved in triple fusion.
Answer:
Triple fusion is the fusion of the male gamete with two polar nuclei inside the embryo sac of the angiosperm. This process of fusion takes place inside the embryo sac.

When pollen grains fall on the stigma, they germinate and give rise to the pollen tube that passes through the style and enters into the ovule. After this, the pollen tube enters one of synergids and releases two male gametes there.

Out of the two male gametes, one gamete fuses with the nucleus of the egg cell and forms the zygote (syngamy). The other male gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei present in the central cell to form a triploid primary endosperm nucleus. Since this process involves the fusion of three haploid nuclei, it is known as triple fusion. It results in the formation of the endosperm. One male gamete nucleus and two polar nuclei are involved in this process.

Question 12.
Why do you think the zygote is dormant for sometime in a fertilised ovule?
Answer:
The zygote is formed by the fusion of the male gamete with the nucleus of the egg cell. The zygote remains dormant for some time and waits for the endosperm to form, which develops from the primary endosperm cell resulting from triple fusion. The endosperm provides food for the growing embryo and after the formation of the endosperm, further development of the embryo from the zygote starts.

Question 13.
Differentiate between:
(a) hypocotyl and epicotyl;
(b) coleoptile and coleorrhiza;
(c) integument and testa;
(d) perisperm and pericarp.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 3
Question 14.
Why is apple called a false fruit? Which part(s) of the flower forms the fruit?
Answer:
Fruits derived from the ovary and other accessory floral parts are called false fruits. On the contrary, true fruits are those fruits which develop from the ovary, but do not consist of the thalamus or any other floral part. In an apple, the fleshy receptacle forms the main edible part. Hence, it is a false fruit.

Question 15.
What is meant by emasculation? When and why does a plant breeder employ this technique?
Answer:
Emasculation is the process of removing anthers from bisexual flowers ! without affecting the female reproductive part (pistil), which is used in various plant hybridisation techniques.

Emasculation is performed by plant breeders in bisexual flowers to obtain the desired variety of a plant by crossing a particular plant with the desired pollen grain. To remove the anthers, the flowers are f covered with a bag before they open. This ensures that the flower is pollinated by pollen grains obtained from desirable varieties only. Later, the mature, viable, and stored pollen grains are dusted on the bagged stigma by breeders to allow artificial pollination to take place and obtain the desired plant variety.

Question 16.
If one can induce parthenocarpy through the application of growth substances, which fruits would you select to induce parthenocarpy and why?
Answer:
Parthenocarpy is the process of developing fruits without involving the process of fertilisation or seed formation. Therefore, the seedless f varieties of economically important fruits such as orange, lemon, water melon etc. are produced using this technique. This technique involves inducing fruit formation by the application of plant growth hormones such as auxins.

Question 17.
Explain the role of tapetum in the formation of pollen-grain i wall.
Answer:
Tapetum is the innermost layer of the microsporangium. It provides nourishment to the developing pollen grains. During microsporogenesis, the cells of tapetum produce various enzymes, hormones, amino acids, and other nutritious material required for the ‘ development of pollen grains. It also produces the exine layer of the pollen grains, which is composed of the sporopollenin.

Question 18.
What is apomixis and what is its importance?
Answer:
Apomixis is the mechanism of seed production without involving the process of meiosis and syngamy. It plays an important role in hybrid seed production. The method of producing hybrid seeds by cultivation is very expensive for farmers. Also, by sowing hybrid seeds, it is difficult to maintain hybrid characters as characters segregate during meiosis. Apomixis prevents the loss of specific characters in the hybrid. Also, it is a cost-effective method for producing seeds.

Read More

CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -16 Chemistry in Every Day Life |NCERT CHEMISTRY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry : The NCERT solutions provided here will enhance the concepts of the students, as well as suggest alternative methods to solve particular problems to the teachers. The target is to direct individuals towards problem solving strategies, rather than solving problems in one prescribed format. The links below provide the detailed solutions for all the Class 12 Chemistry problems.

Chemistry is much more than the language of Science. We have made sure that our solutions reflect the same. We aim to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using logical approach and methodology. The NCERT Solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the subject.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter :16 Chemistry in Every Day Life

INTEXT Questions

Question 1.
Sleeping pills are recommended by doctors to the patients suffering from sleeplessness but it is not advisable to take its doses without consultation with the doctor. Why ?
Solution:
Most of the dru gs taken in doses higher than recommended may cause harmful effect and act as poison. Therefore, a doctor should always be consulted before taking medicine.

Question 2.
With reference to which classification has the statement, “ranitidine is an antacid” been given?
Solution:
This statement refers to the classification according to pharmacological effect of the drug because any drug which will be used to counteract the effect of excess acid in the stomach will be called antacid.

Question 3.
Why do we require artificial sweetening agents?
Solution:
Those people who have diabetes or who need to control intake of calories, they cannot take sugar. They need its substitute. These substitutes are called artificial sweeteners. These are excreted from the body in urine unchanged.

Question 4.
Write the chemical equation for preparing sodium soap from glyceryloleate and glyceryl palmitate. Structural formulae of these compounds are given below.

  1. (C15H31COO)3C3H5 – Glyceryl palmitate
  2. (C17H33COO)3C3H5 – Glyceryl oleate.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Every Day Life 1

Question 5.
Following type of non-ionic detergents are present in liquid detergents, emulsifying agents and wetting agents. Label the hydrophilic and hydrophobic parts in the molecule. Identify the functional group(s) present in the molecule.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Every Day Life 2
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Every Day Life 3

The functional groups present in the molecule are alcoholic group and ethereal linkage (—O—).

NCERT Exercises

Question 1.
Why do we need to classify drugs in different ways?
Solution:
In a general way, the drug may be defined as a substance used in the prevention, diagnosis, treatment or cure of diseases. We must classify the drug so as to understand its action on our body. Drugs are classified on the basis of (a) pharmacological effect, (b) drug action, (c) chemical structure and (d) molecular targets.

Question 2.
Explain the term, target molecules or drug targets as used in medicinal chemistry.
Solution:
Drugs usually interact with biomolecules, such as carbohydrates, lipids, proteins and nucleic acids. These are called target molecules or drug targets. These perform various functions in the body. For example, proteins which perform the role of biological catalysts in the body are called enzymes and those which are crucial to communication system in the body are called receptors. Nucleic acids have coded genetic information for the cell. Lipids and carbohydrates are structural parts of the cell membrane.

Question 3.
Name the macromolecules that are chosen as drug targets.
Solution:
Macromolecules of biological origin such as carbohydrates, lipids, proteins and nucleic acids.

Question 4.
Why should not medicines be taken without consulting doctors?
Solution:
Drugs are designed to interact with specific targets so that these have the least chance of affecting other targets. Only a doctor can diagnose a disease properly and prescribe the correct medicine in proper dose because excess of medicines may have harmful effects on our body. So we should not take medicines without consulting doctors.

Question 5.
Define the term chemotherapy.
Solution:
Chemotherapy (literally means chemical treatment) is the science in which chemicals are used for the treatement of diseases. Chemotherapy is defined as the use of chemicals (drugs) to injure or destroy infectious microorganisms without causing any injury to the host. Chemotherapy has developed into a vast subject today and efforts are being continuously made to search new drugs as to free human beings from various types of diseases.

Question 6.
Which forces are involved in holding the drugs to the active site of enzymes?
Solution:
Substrates bind to the active site of the enzyme through a variety of interactions such as ionic bonding, hydrogen bonding, van der Waals interaction or dipol-dipole interaction.

Question 7.
While antacids and antiallergic drugs interfere with the function of histamines, why do these not interfere with the function of each other?
Solution:
Histamine stimulates the secretion of pepsin and hydrochloric acid in the stomach. The drug cimetidine (antacid) was designed to prevent the interaction of histamine with the receptors present in the stomach wall. This resulted in release of lesser amount of acid. Antacid and antiallergic drugs work on different receptors.

Question 8.
Low level of noradrenaline is the cause of depression. What type of drugs are needed to cure this problem? Name two drugs.
Solution:
Noradrenaline is one of the Neurotransmitters that plays a role in mood changes. If the level of noradrenalines remains low for some reason, then the signal¬sending activity becomes low and the person suffers from depression. In such situations, antidepressant drugs are required. These drugs inhibit the enzymes which catalyse the degradation of noradrenaline. If the enzyme is inhibited, this important neurotransmitter is slowly metabolised and can activate its receptor for longer periods of time, thus counteracting the effect of depression. Iproniazid and phenylzine are two such drugs.

Question 9.
What is meant by the term ‘broad spectrum antibiotics’? Explain.
Solution:
The range of bacteria or other microorganisms that are affected by a certain antibiotic is expressed as its spectrum of action. Antibiotics which kill or inhibit a wide range of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria are said to be broad spectrum antibiotics, e.g., Chloramphenicol, Tetracycline, etc.

Question 10.
How do antiseptics differ from disinfectants? Give one example of each.
Solution:
Antiseptics and disinfectants are the chemicals which either kill or prevent the growth of microorganisms. Antiseptics are applied to the living tissues such as wounds, cuts, ulcers and diseased skin surfaces. Examples are furacine, soframicine, etc. These are not ingested like antibiotics. On the other hand, disinfectants are applied to inanimate objects such as floors, drainage system, instruments, etc.

Same substances can act as an antiseptic as well as disinfectant by varying the concentration. For example, 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while its 1% solution is disinfectant.

Question 11.
Why are cimetidine and ranitidine better antacids than sodium hydrogencarbonate or magnesium or aluminium hydroxide?
Solution:
Excessive hydrogencarbonate can make the stomach alkaline and trigger the production of even more acid. Metal hydroxides are better alternatives because being insoluble, these do not increase the pH above neutrality. These treatments control only symptoms, and not the cause. Therefore, with these metal salts, the patients cannot be treated easily.

The drugs cimetidine (Tegamet) and ranitidine (Zantac) prevent the interaction of histamine with the receptors present in the stomach wall. This resulted in release of lesser amount of acid.

Question 12.
Name a substance which can be used as an antiseptic as well as disinfectant.
Solution:
0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while its 1% solution is disinfectant.

Question 13.
What are the main constituents of dettol?
Solution:
Dettol is a mixture of chloroxylenol (4-chloro-3,5-dimethylphenol) and terpineol.

Question 14.
What is tincture of iodine? What is its use?
Solution:
2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol- water mixture is known as tincture of iodine. It is a powerful antiseptic.

Question 15.
What are food preservatives?
Solution:
Food preservatives prevent spoilage of food due to microbial growth or these may be defined as the substances which are capable of inhibiting the process of fermentation, acidification or any other decomposition of food. The most commonly used preservatives include table salt, sugar, vegetable oils and sodium benzoate. Salts of sorbic acid and propanoic acid are also used as preservatives.

Question 16.
Why is use of aspartame limited to cold foods and drinks?
Solution:
Use of aspartame is limited to cold foods and soft drinks because it in unstable to heat and decomposes at cooking temperature.

Question 17.
What are artificial sweetening agents? Give two examples.
Solution:
The chemical substances which give sweetening effect to food but do not add any calorie to our body are celled artificial sweetening agents, e.g., aspartame, saccharin etc.

Question 18.
Name the sweetening agent used in the preparation of sweets for a diabetic patient.
Solution:
Saccharin is of great value of diabetic persons and people who need to control intake of calories because it is excreted from the body in urine unchanged and appears to be entirely inert and harmless when taken.

Question 19.
What problem arises in using alitame as artificial sweetener?
Solution:
Alitame is high potency sweetener (2000 times as sweet as cane sugar). The control of sweetness of food is difficult while using it.

Question 20.
How are synthetic detergents better than soaps?
Solution:
Soaps when used in hard water form insoluble precipitates which separate as scum in water and are useless as cleansing agent. In fact these are hindrance to good washing, because the precipitate adheres onto the fibre of the cloth as gummy mass. On the other hand, synthetic detergents can be used both in soft and hard water as they give foam even in hard water. Some of the detergents give foam even in ice cold water.

Question 21.
Explain the following terms with suitable examples
(i) cationic detergents
(ii) anionic detergents and
(iii) non-ionic detergents.
Solution:
(i) Cationic detergents : Cationic detergents are quarternary ammonium salts of amines with acetates, chlorides or bromides as’ anions. Cationic part possess a long hydrocarbon chain and a positive charge on nitrogen atom. Hence, these are called cationicdetergents.Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide is a popular cationic detergent and is used in hair conditioners.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Every Day Life 4Cationic detergents have germicidal properties and are expensive, therefore these are of limited use.

(ii) Anionic detergents : Anionic detergents are sodium salts of sulphonated long chain alcohols or hydrocarbons. Alkyl hydrogensulphates formed by treating long chain alcohols with concentrated sulphuric acid are neutralised with alkali to form anionic detergents. Similarly alkyl benzene sulphonates are obtained by neutralising alkyl benzene sulphonic acids with alkali.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Every Day Life 5
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Every Day Life 6
In anionic detergents, the anionic part of the molecule is involved in the cleansing action. Sodium salts of alkylbenzenesulphonates are an important class of anionic detergents.

They are mostly used for household work. Anionic detergents are also used in toothpastes.

(iii) Non-ionic detergents : Non-ionic detergents do not contain any ion in their constitution. One such detergent is formed when stearic acid reacts with polyethyleneglycol.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Every Day Life 7
Liquid dishwashing detergents are non-ionic type.

Question 22.
What are biodegradable and non-biodegradable detergents? Give one example of each.
Solution:
Biodegradable detergents : Detergents having straight hydrocarbon chains are easily degraded by microorganisms and hence are called biodegradable detergents, e.g.,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Every Day Life 8

Non-biodegradable detergents : Detergents containing branched hydrocarbon chains are not easily degraded by the microorganisms and hence are called non-biodegradable detergents.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Every Day Life 9

Question 23.
Why do soaps not work in hard water?
Solution:
Hard water contains calcium and magnesium ions. These ions form insoluble calcium and magnesium soaps respectively when sodium or potassium soaps are dissolved in hard water.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Every Day Life 10
These insoluble soaps separate as scum in water and are useless as cleansing agent. In fact these are hindrance to good washing, because the precipitate adheres onto the fibre of the cloth as gummy mass.

Question 24.
Can you use soaps and synthetic detergents to check the hardness of water?
Solution:
Soaps and detergents can be used to check the hardness of water. Hard water forms curdy white precipitate with Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions present in hard water whereas no such precipitates are formed by detergents in hard water.

Question 25.
Explain the cleansing action of soaps.
Solution:
Soap is sodium or potassium salt of a higher fatty acid and may be represented as RCOO Na (e.g., sodium stearate CH3(CH2)16 COO Na+ When dissolved in water, it dissociates into RCOO and Na+ ions. The RCOO ions, however, consist of two parts – a long hydrocarbon chain R (also called non-polar ‘tail’) which is hydrophobic (water repelling), and a polar group COO- (also called polar-ionic ‘head’), which is hydrophilic (water loving).
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Every Day Life 11
The RCOO ions are, therefore, present on the surface with their COO groups in water and the hydrocarbon chains R staying away from it and remain at the surface. But at critical micelle concentration, the anions are pulled into the bulk of the solution and aggregate to form a spherical shape with their hydrocarbon chains pointing towards the centre of the sphere with COO part remaining outward on the surface of the sphere. An aggregate thus formed is known as ‘ionic micelle’. These micelles may contain as many as 100 such ions.

The cleansing action of soap is due to the fact that soap molecules form micelle around the oil droplet in such a way that hydrophobic part of the stearate ions is in the oil droplet and hydrophilic part projects out of the grease droplet like the bristles. Since the polar groups can interact with water, the oil droplet surrounded by stearate ions is now pulled in water and removed from the dirty surface. Thus soap helps in emulsification and washing away of oils and fats. The negatively charged sheath around the globules prevents them from coming together and forming aggregates.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Every Day Life 12

Question 26.
If water contains dissolved calcium hydrogen carbonate, out of soaps and synthetic detergents which one will you use for cleaning clothes?
Solution:
Synthetic detergents.

Question 27.
Label the hydrophilic and hydrophobic parts in the following compounds.

  1. CH3(CH2)10CH2OSO3Na+
  2. CH3(CH2)15 N+ (CH3)3 Br
  3. CH3(CH2)16COO(CH2CH2O)nCH2CH2OH

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Every Day Life 13

Read More

CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -1 Reproduction in Organisms |NCERT BIOLOGY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

Class 12 biology sets a strong basis for advanced studies. Subject experts clear all your queries during exam preparation by the explanation of the solutions in a conceptual way.

All chapter class 12 Biology NCERT Solutions are prescribed by the subject teachers based on the NCERT textbook questions and explained all solutions in a better way for easy understanding. In-depth knowledge of the biology subject can be attained by the students with the help of detailed NCERT Solutions of Class 12 Biology

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter :1 Reproduction in Organisms

Exercises

Page No: 17

1. Why is reproduction essential for organisms?

Answer

Reproduction is essential for organisms for continuity of species. Each and every organism have definite life span. If organisms stops reproducing the species will not be able to exist for long time and get extinct.

2. Which is a better mode of reproduction sexual or asexual? Why?

Answer

Sexual mode of is a better mode of reproduction because in sexual mode there is fusion of male and female gametes which results genetic variations in offspring which give some survival advantages under stressful environmental conditions. It also contributes to evolution.

3. Why is the offspring formed by asexual reproduction referred to as clone?

Answer

The offspring formed by asexual reproduction referred to as clone because the offspring morphologically and genetically similar to each other and parent.

4. Offspring formed due to sexual reproduction have better chances of survival. Why? Is this statement always true?

Answer

In sexual reproduction there is fusion of the male and the female gamete which leads to variations by the combination of the different DNA. This variations allow the individuals to adapt under varied environmental conditions for better chances of survival. Also, the offspring may be hybrid vigour which may adjust better with environment.
No, the statement is not always true because offspring may be inferior to the parents.

5. How does the progeny formed from asexual reproduction differ from those formed by sexual reproduction?

Answer

Progeny formed from asexual reproduction
Progeny formed from sexual reproduction
There is no fusion of gametes therefore progeny are morphologically and genetically identical to single parent.There is fusion of gametes therefore progeny are not identical to parents.
Variations are absent.Variations are present.
Progeny is less adaptable to changes in environment.Progeny is more adaptable to changes in environment.

6. Distinguish between asexual and sexual reproduction. Why is vegetative reproduction also considered as a type of asexual reproduction?

Answer

Asexual reproduction
Sexual reproduction
It does not involves fusion of male and female gametes.There is fusion of gametes therefore progeny are not identical to parents.
Single parent involvedTwo parents involved usually.
The offspring are identical to the parent and are called as clones.The offspring are not identical to their parents and show variations from each other and their parents.
It does not play important role in evolution process.It play important role in evolution process.
It is common in single celled organisms or organisms with simple structure.It is common in high level organisms which have complex structure.
Only mitotic cell division takes place.It involves both meiosis and mitosis.
Rate of reproduction is fasterRate of reproduction is slower

Vegetative reproductions is also considered as a type of asexual reproduction because
• Single parent is involved.
• There is no fusion of male and female gametes.
• Offspring are generally identical.

Page No: 18

7. What is vegetative propagation? Give two suitable examples.

Answer

Vegetative propagation is the process of reproducing plants from any portion of the vegetative organs of the plant without involving the seeds or spores. It involves only single parent and considered as asexual reproduction.Examples of vegetative propagation are:
•  Eyes (buds) on the potato tuber.
• Adventitious buds on the leaves of Bryophyllum are capable of giving rise to new plants

8. Define
(a) Juvenile phase,
(b) Reproductive phase,
(c) Senescent phase

Answer

(a) The period of growth from birth up to a stage, where the organism will start undergoing changes leading to reproductive maturity is known as Juvenile phase.

(b) The period during which an organism is sexually mature and can produce gametes that can give rise to new organisms is known as Reproductive phase.


(c) The period from the end of the reproductive phase till death. In this period, slower metabolism, break down of proteins, immobilisation of nutrients takes place in animals whereas in plants, leaves become yellow and fall off.
 
9. Higher organisms have resorted to sexual reproduction in spite of its complexity. Why?

Answer

Higher organisms have resorted to sexual reproduction because it allows genetic variations through the combination of different genetics in gametes and improves the genetic makeup in the offspring. These factors may give survival advantages to species and contribute to evolution.

10. Explain why meiosis and gametogenesis are always interlinked?

Answer

Haploid gametes can be produced only through meiosis and gametogenesis is the process of formation of gametes. The gametes produced by gametogenesis are always haploid, while the body of an organism is diploid. Therefore, it is necessary that meiosis has to occur for the formation of haploid gametes which ensures half number of chromosomes in the developing gametes.

11. Identify each part in a flowering plant and write whether it is haploid (n) or diploid (2n).
(a) Ovary ___________________
(b) Anther __________________
(c) Egg _____________________
(d) Pollen ___________________
(e) Male gamete ______________
(f) Zygote ___________________

Answer

(a) Ovary Diploid
(b) Anther Diploid
(c) Egg Haploid
(d) Pollen Haploid
(e) Male gamete Haploid
(f) Zygote Diploid

12. Define external fertilization. Mention its disadvantages.


Answer

External fertilisation is a type of fertilization that occurs outside the female body, in external medium, such as water.
Disadvantages of external fertilixation are
• Very less chance of fusion of male and female gametes.
• Offspring are vulnerable to predators because of no parental care.

13. Differentiate between a zoospore and a zygote.

Answer

Zoospore
Zygote
It is an asexual reproductive structure.It is sexual reproductive structure.
It is a motile asexual spore that uses flagella for movement.It is a non-motile cell.
It can be haploid or diploid.It is diploid
It germinates to directly give rise to new plants.It develops into an embryo that further
differentiates to form a new individual.

14. Differentiate between gametogenesis from embryogenesis.

Answer

Gametogenesis
Embryogenesis
It is the process of generation of haploid gametes.It is the process of formation of embryo.
It involves meiosis.It involves mitosis.
Further transformation may be required to make male gametes motileFurther cell differentiation required for the formation of specialised tissues and organs.

15. Describe the post-fertilization changes in a flower.

Answer

Post-fertilization changes in flower are:
• The sepal, petal and stamen of the flower withers and fall off only pistil remains attached to the plant.
• The zygote develops into the embryo.
• The ovules develop into the seed.
• The ovary develops into the fruit.
• The ovary wall is transformed into a protective layer called the pericarp which covers the fruit.

16. What is a bisexual flower? Collect five bisexual flowers from your neighbourhood and with the help of your teacher find out their common and scientific names.

Answer

A flower bearing both male and female organs (stamens and pistil) is called a bisexual flower.Flowers with common name and scientific names:
• Rose – Rosa alba
• Water lily – Nymphaea odorata• Sun flower – Helianthus annus
• China rose – Hibiscus Rosa-sinensis
• Mustard – Brassica nigra

17. Examine a few flowers of any cucurbit plant and try to identify the staminate and pistillate flowers. Do you know any other plant that bears unisexual flowers?

Answer

Cucurbit plant bears separate male and female flowers. The staminate flowers bear bright, yellow coloured petals along with stamens representing the male reproductive structure while the pistillate flowers bear only the pistil representing the female reproductive structure.

18. Why are offspring of oviparous animals at a greater risk as compared to offspring of viviparous animals?

Answer

The offsprings of oviparous animals are at a greater risk because they develop outside the female body and are exposed to various environmental conditions and predator threat whereas in viviparous animals, young ones develop inside the female body, which ensures proper embryonic care and protection.
Read More

CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -15 Polymers |NCERT CHEMISTRY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry : The NCERT solutions provided here will enhance the concepts of the students, as well as suggest alternative methods to solve particular problems to the teachers. The target is to direct individuals towards problem solving strategies, rather than solving problems in one prescribed format. The links below provide the detailed solutions for all the Class 12 Chemistry problems.

Chemistry is much more than the language of Science. We have made sure that our solutions reflect the same. We aim to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using logical approach and methodology. The NCERT Solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the subject.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter :15 Polymers

INTEXT Questions

Question 1.
What are polymers ?
Solution:
Polymers are high molecular mass substances consisting of large number of repeating structural units. They are also called as macromolecules. Some examples of polymers are polythene, bakelite, rubber, nylon 6, 6 etc.

Question 2.
How are polymers classified on the basis of structure?
Solution:
On the basis of structure, the polymers are classified as below :

  1. Linear polymers such as polythene, polyvinyl chloride, etc.
  2. Branched chain polymers such as low density polythene.
  3. Cross linked polymers such as bakelite, melamine, etc.

Question 3.
Write the names of monomers of the following polymers :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers 1
Solution:

  1. Hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid
  2. Caprolactam
  3. Tetrafluoroethene

Question 4.
Classify the following as addition and condensation polymers : Terylene, Bakelite, Polyvinyl chloride, Polythene.
Solution:
Addition polymers : Polyvinyl chloride, Polythene.
Condensation polymer : Terylene, Bakelite.

Question 5.
Explain the difference between Buna-N and Buna-S.
Solution:
Buna-N is a copolymer of 1, 3-butadiene and acrylonitrile and Buna-S is a copolymer of 1, 3-butadiene and styrene.

Question 6.
Arrange the following polymers in increasing order of their intermolecular forces.

  1. Nylon 6,6, Buna-S, Polythene
  2. Nylon 6, Neoprene, Polyvinyl chloride.

Solution:
The increasing order of intermolecular forces is :

  1. Buna-S, Polythene, Nylon 6, 6
  2. Neoprene, Polyvinyl chloride, Nylon 6.

NCERT Exercises

Question 1.
Explain the terms polymer and monomer.
Solution:
Polymers are very large molecules having high molecular mass, which are formed by joining of repeating structural units on a large scale derived from monomers, e.g., Polythene, PVC, Nylon-6, 6 etc.

Monomer is a simple molecule capable of undergoing polymerisation and leading to the formation of the corresponding polymer e.g., Ethene, Vinyl chloride, etc.

Question 2.
What are natural and synthetic polymers? Give two examples of each type.
Solution:
Natural Polymers – These are substances of natural origin, i.e., these are found in nature mainly in plants and animals. The well known natural polymers are proteins (polymers of amino acids), polysaccharides (polymers of monosaccharides), etc.

Synthetic Polymers – These are man made polymers i.e., polymers synthesised in laboratory. These include synthetic plastics, fibres and synthetic rubber. Specific examples are polythene and dacron.

Question 3.
Distinguish between the terms homopolymer and copolymer and give an example of each.
Solution:
A polymer which is obtained from only one type of monomer molecules is known as homopolymer e.g., Polythene, Polyvinyl chloride, etc.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers 2

Question 4.
How do you explain the functionality of a monomer?
Solution:
Functionality of a monomer is defined as the number of bonding sites in the monomers.

Question 5.
Define the term polymerisation.
Solution:
The process of joining together of a large number of simple small molecules (monomers) to make very large molecules (polymer) is termed polymerisation.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers 3

Question 6.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers 4

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers 5

Question 7.
In which classes, the polymers are classified on the basis of molecular forces?
Solution:
On the basis of molecular forces present between the chains of various polymers, the polymers are classified into the following four groups

  1. Elastomers
  2. Fibres
  3. Thermoplastic polymers and
  4. Thermosetting polymers.

Question 8.
How can you differentiate between addition and condensation polymerisation?
Solution:
In addition polymerisation, the molecules of the same or different monomers add together to form a large polymer molecule without the elimination of simple molecules like H2O, HCl etc. Condensation polymerisation is a process in which two or more bifunctional molecules undergo a series of condensation reactions with the elimination of some simple molecules like H2O, HCl, alcohol leading to the formation of polymers.

Question 9.
Explain the term copolymerisation and give two examples.
Solution:
Copolymerisation is a process in which a mixture of more than one monomeric species is allowed to polymerise. The copolymer contains multiple units of each monomer in the chain. The examples are copolymer of 1, 3-butadiene and styrene. Another example is the copolymer of 1, 3-butadiene and acrylonitrile.

Question 10.
Write the free radical mechanism for the polymerisation of ethene.
Solution:
The polymerisation of ethene to polythene consists of heating or exposing to light a mixture of ethene with a small amount of benzoyl peroxide initiator. The process starts with the addition of phenyl free radical formed by the peroxide to the ethene double bond thus regenerating a new and larger free radical. This step is called chain initiating step. As this radical reacts with another molecule of ethene, another bigger sized radical is formed. The repetition of this sequence with new and bigger radicals carries the reaction forward and the step is termed as chain propagating step. Ultimately, at some stage the product radical thus formed reacts with another radical to form the polymerised product. This step is called the chain terminating step. The sequence of steps may be depicted as follows :
Chain initiating steps :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers 6
Chain terminating step :
For termination of the long chain, these radicals can combine in different ways to form polythene. One mode of termination of chain is shown as under :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers 7

Question 11.
Define thermoplastics and thermosetting polymers with two examples of each.
Solution:
Thermoplastic polymers : These are the linear or slightly branched long chain molecules capable of repeatedly softening on heating and hardening on cooling. These polymers possess intermolecular forces of attraction intermediate between elastomers and fibres. Some common thermoplastics are polythene, polystyrene, polyvinyls, etc.

Thermosetting polymers : These polymers are cross linked or heavily branched molecules, which on heating undergo extensive cross linking in moulds and become infusible. These cannot be reused. Some common examples are bakelite, urea-formaldelyde resins, etc.

Question 12.
Write the monomers used for getting the following polymers.

  1. Polyvinyl chloride
  2. Teflon
  3. Bakelite

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers 8

Question 13.
Write the name and structure of one of the common initiators used in free radical addition polymerisation.
Solution:
Benzoyl peroxide
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers 9

Question 14.
How does the presence of double bonds in rubber molecules influence their structure and reactivity?
Solution:
Natural rubber is a linear polymer of isoprene i.e., 2-methy l-1, 3-butadiene.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers 10
In the polymer double bonds are located between C2 and C3 isoprene units. The cis- polyisoprene molecule consists of various chains held together by weak van der Waals interactions and has coiled structure. This cis-configuration about double bonds does not allow the chains to come closer for effective attraction due to weak van der Waals interactions. Thus, it can be stretched like a spring and exhibits elastic properties.

Question 15.
Discuss the main purpose of vulcanisation of rubber.
Solution:
Natural rubber becomes soft at high temperature (>335 K) and brittle at low temperature (<283 K) and shows high water absorption capacity. It is soluble in non¬polar solvents and is non-resistant to attack by oxidising agents. To improve upon these physical properties, a process of vulcanisation is carried out. This process consists of heating a mixture of raw rubber with sulphur and an appropriate additive at a temperature range between 373 K to 415 K. On vulcanisation, sulphur forms cross links at the reactive sites of double bonds and thus the rubber gets stiffened.

Question 16.
What are the monomeric repeating units of Nylon-6 and Nylon-6,6?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers 11

Question 17.
Write the names and structures of the monomers of the following polymers :

  1. Buna-S
  2. Buna-N
  3. Dacron
  4. Neoprene.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers 12

 

Question 18.
Identify the monomers in the following polymeric structures.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers 13
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers 14

Question 19.
How is dacron obtained from ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid?
Solution:
Dacron is obtained from ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid by condensation polymerisation reaction.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers 15

Question 20.
What is a biodegradable polymer? Give an example of a biodegradable aliphatic polyester.
Solution:
A large number of polymers are quite resistant to the environmental degradation processes and are thus responsible for the accumulation of polymeric solid waste materials. These solid wastes cause acute environmental problems and remain undegraded for quite a long time.

Aliphatic polyesters are one of the important classes of biodegradable polymers. One such example is of PHBV.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers 16

Read More

CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -14 Biomolecules |NCERT CHEMISTRY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry : The NCERT solutions provided here will enhance the concepts of the students, as well as suggest alternative methods to solve particular problems to the teachers. The target is to direct individuals towards problem solving strategies, rather than solving problems in one prescribed format. The links below provide the detailed solutions for all the Class 12 Chemistry problems.

Chemistry is much more than the language of Science. We have made sure that our solutions reflect the same. We aim to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using logical approach and methodology. The NCERT Solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the subject.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter :14 Biomolecules

INTEXT Questions

Question 1.
Glucose or sucrose are soluble in water, but cyclohexane or benzene (simple six membered ring compounds) are insoluble in water. Explain.
Solution:
Glucose or sucrose contain several hydroxyl groups in their molecules which form hydrogen bonding with water molecules due to which they dissolve in water. On the other hand compounds like benzene or cyclohexane cannot form hydrogen bonds with water molecules, so they are insoluble in water.

Question 2.
What products are expected when lactose is hydrolysed ?
Solution:
Lactose (C12H22O11) on hydrolysis with dilute acid yields an equimolar mixture of D-glucose and D-galactose.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules 1

Question 3.
How do you explain the absence of aldehyde group in pentaacetate of glucose ?
Solution:
The cyclic hemiacetal form of glucose contains an OH group at C-1 which gets hydrolysed in the aqueous solution to produce the open chain aldehydic form which then reacts with NH2OH to form the corresponding oxime. Therefore, glucose contains an aldehydic group. On the other hand, when glucose is reacted with acetic anhydride, the OH group at C-1, along with the four other OH groups at C-2, C-3, C-4 and C-6 form a pentaacetate. As the pentaacetate of glucose does not contain a free OH group at C-1, it cannot get hydrolysed in aqueous solution to produce the open chain aldehydic form and thus glucose pentaacetate does not react with NH2OH to form glucose oxime. Hence, glucose pentaacetate does not contain the aldehdye group.

Question 4.
The melting points and solubility in water of amino acids are higher than those of the corresponding haloacids. Explain.
Solution:
The amino acids exist as zwitter ions, H3N+ OHR – COO. Because of this dipolar salt like character they have strong dipole- dipole attractions. So, their melting points are higher than halo acids which do not have sail like character. Moreover, due to this salt like character, they interact strongly with H2O. Thus, solubility of amino acids in water is higher than that of the corresponding halo acids which do not have salt like character.

Question 5.
Where does the water present in the egg go after boiling the egg.
Solution:
The boiling of an egg is a common example of denaturation of proteins present in the white portion of an egg.

The albumin present in the white of an egg gets coagulated when the egg is boiled hard. The soluble globular protein present in it is denatured resulting in the formation of insoluble fibrous protein.

Question 6.
Why vitamin C cannot be stored in our body?
Solution:
Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin. Water-soluble vitamins when supplied regularly in the diet cannot be stored in out body because they are readily excreted in urine.

Question 7.
What products would be formed when a nucleotide from DNA containing thymine is hydrolysed ?
Solution:
When a nucleotide from DNA containing thymine is completely hydrolysed, the products obtained are :

  1. 2-deoxy-D(-)ribose.
  2. two pyrimidine i.e., guanine (G) and adenine (A).
  3. two purines, i.e., thymine (T) and cytosine (C) and
  4. phosphoric acid.

Question 8.
When RNA is hydrolysed, there is no relationship among the quantities of different bases obtained ? What does this fact suggest about the structure of RNA ?
Solution:
A DNA molecule has two strands in which the four complementary bases pair each other, viz. cytosine (C) always pairs with guanine (G) while thymine (T) always pairs with adenine (A). Therefore, when a DNA molecule is hydrolysed the molar amount of cytosine is always equal to that of guanine and that of adenine is always equal to that of thymine RNA also contains four bases, the first three are same as in DNA but the fourth one is uracil (U).

As in RNA there is no relationship between the quantities of four bases (C, G, A and U) obtained, therefore, the base-pairing principle, viz., (A) pairs with (U) and (C) pairs with (G) is not followed. So, unlike DNA, RNA has a single strand.

NCERT Exercises

Question 1.
What are monosaccharides?
Solution:
A carbohydrate that cannot be hydrolysed further to give simpler unit of polyhydroxy aldehyde or ketone is called a monosaccharide. With a few exceptions they have general formula, C,,H2„O„. About 20 monosaccharides are known to occur in nature. Some common examples are glucose, fructose, ribose, etc.

Question 2.
What are reducing sugars?
Solution:
All those carbohydrates which reduce Fehling’s solution and Tollen’s reagent are referred to as reducing sugars. All monosaccharides whether aldose or ketose are reducing sugars.

Question 3.
Write two main functions of carbohydrates in plants.
Solution:
Two main functions of carbohydrates are

  1. Cell wall of bacteria and plants is made up of a polysaccharide, cellulose.
  2. Starch is the major food reserve material in plants.

Question 4.
Classify the following into monosaccharides and disaccharides. Ribose, 2-deoxyribose, maltose, galactose, fructose and lactose.
Solution:
Monosaccharides : Ribose, 2-deoxyribose, galactose and fructose
Disaccharides : Maltose and Lactose

Question 5.
What do you understand by the term glycosidic linkage?
Solution:
Disaccharides on hydrolysis with dilute acids or enzymes yield two molecules of either the same or different monosaccharides. The two monosaccharides are joined together by an oxide linkage formed by the loss of a water molecule. Such a linkage between two monosaccharides units through oxygen atom is called glycosidic linkage.

Question 6.
What is glycogen? How is it different from starch ?
Solution:
The carbohydrates are stored in animal body as glycogen. It is also known as animal starch because its structure is similar to amylopectin. It is present in liver, muscles and brain. When the body needs glucose, enzymes break the glycogen down to glucose. Glycogen is also found in yeast and fungi.

Starch is the main storage polysaccharide of plants. It is the most important dietary source for human being. High content of starch is found in cereals, roots, tubers and some vegetables. It is a polymer of two components-amylose (15-20%) which is water soluble and amylopectin(80-85%) which is water insoluble.

Question 7.
What are the hydrolysis products of (i) sucrose and (ii) lactose ?
Solution:

  1. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives one unit of glucose and one unit of fructose.
    NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules 2
  2. Lactose on hydrolysis with dilute acids yields an equimolar mixture of D-glucose and D-galactose.

Question 8.
What is the basic structural difference between starch and cellulose ?
Solution:
The basic structural difference between starch and cellulose is of linkage between the glucose units. In starch, there is a-D-glycosidic linkage. Both the components of starch-amylose and amylopectine are polymer of α-D-glucose. On the other hand, cellulose is a linear polymer of β-D-glucose in which C1 of one glucose unit is connected to C4 of the other through β-D-glycosidic linkage.

Question 9.
What happens when D-glucose is treated with the following reagents?

  1. Hl
  2. Bromine water
  3. HNO3

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules 3

Question 10.
Enumerate the reactions of D-glucose which cannot be explained by its open chain structure.
Solution:
The open chain structure of D-glucose OHC – (CHOH)4 – CH2OH fails to explain the following reactions :

(i) Though it contains the aldehyde (-CHO) group, glucose does not give

2,4-DNP test, Schiff’s test and it does not form the hydrogen sulphite addition product with NaHSO3.

(ii) The pentaacetate of glucose does not T react with hydroxylamine (NH2OH) to form ’ the oxime indicating the absence of free -CHO group.

(iii) The formation of two anomeric methyl glycosides by glucose on reaction with CH3OH and dry HCl can be explained in terms of the cyclic structure. The equilibrium mixture of a-and (3-glucose react separately with methanol in the presence of dry HCl gas to form the corresponding methyl D-glucosides.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules 4
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules 5

These pentaacetates donot have a free -OH group at C1 and hence are not hydrolysed in aqueous solution to produce the open chain aldehyde form and hence do not react with NH2OH to form glucose oxime.

(v) The existence of glucose in two crystalline forms termed as a and β-D-glucose can again be explained on the basis of cyclic structure of glucose and not by its open chain structure. It was proposed that one of the -OH groups may add to – CHO group and form a cyclic hemiacetal structure. It was found that glucose forms a 6-membered ring in which -OH at C – 5 is involved in ring formation. This explains the absence of -CHO group and also existence of glucose in two forms as shown below. These two forms exist in equilibrium with open chain structure.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules 6

Question 11.
What are essential and non-essential amino acids? Give two examples of each type.
Solution:
There are about 20 amino acids which make up the bio-proteins. Out of these 10 amino acids (non-essential) are synthesised by our bodies and rest are essential in the diet (essential amino acids) and supplied to our bodies by food which we take because they cannot be synthesised in our body.
e.g. Essential amino acid – Valine and Leucine
Non-essential amino acid – Glycine and Alanine

Question 12.
Define the following as related to proteins

  1. Peptide linkage
  2. Primary structure
  3. Denaturation.

Solution:
(i) Peptide Linkage : Proteins are the polymers of a-amino acids which are connected to each other by peptide bond or peptide linkage. Chemically, peptide linkage is an amide formed between -COOH group and -NH2 group. The reaction between two molecules of similar or different amino acids, proceeds through the combination of the amino group of one molecule with the carboxyl group of the other. This results in the elimination of a water molecule and formation of a peptide bond -CO-NH-. The product of the reaction is called a dipeptide because it is made up of two amino acids. For example, when carboxyl group of glycine combines with the amino group of alanine we get a dipeptide, glycylalanine.

(ii) Primary Structure : Proteins may have one or more polypeptide chains. Each polypeptide in a protein has amino acids linked with each other in a specific sequence and it is this sequence of amino acids that is said to be the primary structure of that protein. Any change in this primary structure i.e., the sequence of amine acids creates a different protein.

(iii) Denaturation : Protein found in a biological system with a unique three-dimensional structure and biological activity is called a native protein. When a protein in its native form, is subjected to physical change like change in temperature or chemical change in pH, the hydrogen bonds are disturbed. Due to this, globules unfold and helix get uncoiled and protein loses its biological activity. This is called denaturation of protein. During denaturation 2° and 3° structures are destroyed but 1° structure remains intact. The coagulation of egg white on boiling is a common example of denaturation. Another example is curdling of milk which is caused due to the formation of lactic acid by the bacteria present in milk.

Question 13.
What are the common types of secondary structure of proteins?
Solution:
The secondary structure of protein refers to the shape in which a long polypeptide chain can exist. They are found to exist in two different types of structures viz, a-helix and P-pleated sheet structure. These structures arise due to the regular folding of the backbone of the polypeptide chain due to hydrogen bonding between
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules 7
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules 8

Question 14.
What type of bonding helps in stabilising the α-helix structure of proteins?
Solution:
α-Helix is one of the most common ways in which a polypeptide chain forms all possible hydrogen bonds by twisting into a right handed screw (helix) with the -NH group of each amino acid residue hydrogen bonded to the >C = O of an adjacent turn of the helix.

Question 15.
Differentiate between globular and fibrous proteins.
Solution:
Characteristic differences between globular and fibrous proteins can be given as :

Globular Proteins

  1. These are cross linked proteins and are condensation product of acidic and basic amino acids.
  2. These are soluble in water, mineral acids and bases.
  3. These proteins have three dimensional folded structure. These are stabilised by internal hydrogen bonding, e.g., egg albumin enzymes.

Fibrous Proteins

  1. These are linear condensation polymer
  2. These are insoluble in water but soluble in strong acids and bases.
  3. These are linear polymers held together by intermolecular hydrogen bonds. e.g., hair, silk.

Question 16.
How do you explain the amphoteric behaviour of amino acids?
Solution:
Due to dipolar or Zwitter ionic structure, amino acids are amphoteric in nature. The acidic character of the amino acids is due to the N+H3 group while the basic character is due to the COO group.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules 9

Question 17.
What are enzymes?
Solution:
Life is possible due to the coordination of various chemical processes in living organisms. An example is the digestion of food, absorption of appropriate molecules and ultimately production of energy. This process involves a sequence of reactions and all these reactions occur in the body under very mild conditions. This occurs with the help of certain biocatalysts called enzymes. Almost all the enzymes are globular proteins. Enzymes are specific for a particular reaction and for a particular substrate. They are generally named after the compound or class of compounds upon which they work. For example, the enzyme that catalyses hydrolysis of maltose into glucose is named as maltose.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules 10

Question 18.
What is the effect of denaturation on the structure of proteins?
Solution:
Proteins are very sensitive to the action of heat, mineral acids, alkalies etc. On heating or on treatment with mineral acids, soluble forms of proteins such as globular proteins often undergo coagulation or precipitation to give fibrous proteins which are insoluble in water. This coagulation also results in the loss of the biological activity of the protein. That is why the coagulated proteins so formed are called denatured proteins.. Chemically, denaturation does not change the primary structure but brings about changes in the secondary and tertiary structure of proteins.

Question 19.
How are vitamins classified? Name the vitamin responsible for the coagulation of blood.
Solution:
Vitamins are classified into two groups depending upon their solubility in water or fat.
(i) Fat soluble vitamins : Vitamins which are soluble in fats and oils but insoluble in water are kept in this group. These are vitamins A, D, E and K. They are stored in liver and adipose (fat storing) tissues.
(ii) Water soluble vitamins : B group vitamins and vitamin C are soluble in water so they are grouped together. Water soluble vitamins must be supplied regularly in diet
because they are readily excreted in urine and cannot be stored (except vitamin B12) in our body.
Vitamin K is responsible for coagulation of blood.

Question 20.
Why are vitamin A and vitamin C essential to us? Give their important sources.
Solution:
Deficiency of vitamin A causes Xerophthalmia (hardening of cornea of the eye) and night blindness. So its use is essential to us. It is available in fish liver oil, carrots, butter and milk. It promotes growth and increases resistance to diseases. Vitamin C is very essential to us because its deficiency causes Scurvy (bleeding of gums) and pyorrhea (loosening and bleeding of teeth). Vitamin C increases resistance of the body towards diseases. Maintains healthy skin and helps cuts and abrasions to heat properly. It is soluble in water. It is present in citrus fruits, e.g.,oranges, lemons, amla, tomato. green vegetables (Cabbage) chillies, sprou pulses and germinated grains.

Question 21.
What are nucleic acids? Mention their two important functions.
Solution:
Nucleic acids : They constitute an important class of biomolecules which are found in the nuclei of all living cells in the form of nucleoproteins (i.e., proteins containing nucleic acid as the prosthetic group). Nucleic acids are the genetic materials of the cells and are responsible for transmission of hereditary effect from one generation to the other and also carry out the biosynthesis of proteins. Nucleic acids are biopolymers (i.e., polymers present in the living system). The genetic information coded in nucleic acids controls the structure of all proteins including enzymes and thus governs the entire metabolic activity in the living organism.
Two important functions of nucleic acids are :

  1. Replication : The process by which a single DNA molecule produces two identical copies of itself is called replication.
  2. Protein Synthesis : DNA may be regarded as the instrument manual for the synthesis of all proteins present in the cell.

Question 22.
What is the difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide?
Solution:
Nucleoside : A nucleoside contains only two basic components of nucleic acids, i.e., a pentose sugar and a nitrogenous base. It may be represented as Sugar-base. Depending upon the type of sugar present, nucleosides are of two types :

  1. Ribonucleosides and
  2. Deoxyribonucleosides.

Nucleotides : A nucleotide contains all the three basic components of nucleic acids, i.e., a phosphoric acid group, a pentose sugar and a nitrogenous base. In other words, nucleotides are nucleoside monophosphates.

Depending upon the type of sugar present, nucleotides like nucleosides are of two types :

  1. Ribonucleotides and
  2. Deoxyribonucleotides.

Question 23.
The two strands in DNA are not identical but are complementary. Explain.
Solution:
Two nucleic acid chains are wound about each other and held together by hydrogen bonds between pairs of bases. The trands are complementary to each other because the hydrogen bonds are formed between specific pairs of bases. Adenine forms hydrogen bonds with thymine whereas cytosine forms hydrogen bonds with guanine.

Question 24.
Write the important structural and functional differences between DNA and RNA.
Solution:
Difference between DNA and RNA.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules 11
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules 12
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules 13

Question 25.
What are the different types of RNA found in the cell?
Solution:
RNA molecules are of three types and they perform different functions. They are named as messenger RNA (m-RNA), ribosomal RNA (r-RNA) and transfer RNA (t-RNA).

Read More

CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -13 Amines |NCERT CHEMISTRY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry : The NCERT solutions provided here will enhance the concepts of the students, as well as suggest alternative methods to solve particular problems to the teachers. The target is to direct individuals towards problem solving strategies, rather than solving problems in one prescribed format. The links below provide the detailed solutions for all the Class 12 Chemistry problems.

Chemistry is much more than the language of Science. We have made sure that our solutions reflect the same. We aim to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using logical approach and methodology. The NCERT Solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the subject.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter :13 Amines

INTEXT Questions

Question 1.
Classify the following amines as primary, secondary and tertiary :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 1
Amines class 12 NCERT Solutions:

(a) Primary
(b) Tertiary
(c) Primary
(d) Secondary

Question 2.
(a) Write structures of different isomeric amines corresponding to the molecular formula, C4H11N.
(b) Write IUPAC names of all the isomers.
(c) What type of isomerism is exhibited by different pairs of amines?
Amines class 12 NCERT Solutions:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 2
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 3

Question 3.
How will you convert: (i) Benzene into aniline, (ii) Benzene into N,N-dimethylaniline, (iii) Cl(CH2)4Cl into hexan-1,6-diamine?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 4
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 5

Question 4.
Arrange the following in increasing order of their basic strength.

(a) C2H5NH2, C6H5NH2, NH3, C6H5CH2NH2 and (C2H5)2NH
(b) C2H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N, C6H5NH2
(c) CH3NH2< (CH3)2NH, (CH3)3N, C6H5NH2> C6H5CH2NH2.

Amines class 12 NCERT Solutions:
(a) The order of basicity is C6H5NH2 < NH3 < C6H5CH2NH2 < C2H5NH2 < (C2H5)2NH
The basic nature of amine arises from their ability to donate the lone pair of electrons on N to electrophiles. The availability of this l.p. depends on two factors :
(i) Electron donating/withdrawing effect of the alkyl groups attached to the N atom.
(ii) Steric hindrance posed by alkyl groups around N.
The presence of alkyl groups on the N atom increases the electron density and makes the l.p. more available for electrophiles. This happens due to the +1 effect of the alkyl groups. But, if the alkyl groups are too bulky or too many in number, they tend to sterically hinder the incoming proton and the basic strength decreases. These two factors working in opposing directions, tend to balance out each other in 2° amines, making them most basic and the basic strength follows the order :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 6

Question 5.
Complete the following acid-base reactions and name the products :

  1. CH3CH2CH2NH2 + HCl →
  2. (C2H5)3N + HCl →

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 7

Question 6.
Write the reactions of the final alkylation product of aniline with excess of methyl iodide in the presence of sodium carbonate solution.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 8

Question 7.
Write the chemical reaction of aniline with benzoyl chloride and write the name of the product obtained.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 9

Question 8.
Write structures of different isomers corresponding to the molecular formula, C3H9N. Write IUPAC name of the isomers which will liberate nitrogen gas on treatment with nitrous acid.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 10
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 11

Question 9.
Convert

  1. 3-Methylaniline into 3-nitrotoluene
  2. Aniline into 1,3,5-tribromobenzene.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 12
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 13

Amines class 12 NCERT Solutions – NCERT Exercises

Question 1.
Write IUPAC names of the following compounds and classify them into primary, secondary and tertiary amines.

  1. (CH3)2CHNH2
  2. CH3(CH2)2NH2
  3. CH3NHCH(CH3)2
  4. (CH3)3CNH2
  5. C6H5NHCH3
  6. (CH3CH2)2NCH3
  7. m-BrC6H4NH2

Solution:

  1. Propan-2-amine (primary),
  2. Propan-l-amine (primary),
  3. N-Methylpropan-2-amine (secondary),
  4. 2-Methylpropan-2-amine (primary),
  5. N-Methylbenzenamine or N-Methylaniline (secondary),
  6. N-Ethyl-N-methylethanamine (tertiary),
  7. 3-Bromobenzenamine or 3-Bromoaniline (primary).

Question 2.
Give one chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds.

  1. Methylamine and dimethylamine
  2. Secondary and tertiary amine
  3. Ethylamine and W-methylaniline
  4. Aniline and benzylamine
  5. Aniline and N-methylaniline

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 14
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 15

Question 3.
Account for the following :
(i) pKb of aniline is more than that of methylamine.
(ii) Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not.
(iii) Methylamine in water reacts with ferric chloride to precipitate hydrated ferric oxide.
(iv) Although amino group is o- and p-directing in aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions, aniline on nitration gives a substantial amount of m-nitroaniline.
(v) Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction.
(vi) Diazonium salts of aromatic amines are more stable than those of aliphatic amines.
(vii) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is preferred .for synthesising primary amines.
Solution:
(i) If the pKb value of any base or compound is higher than that of another, it implies that the former is a weaker base than the latter. In aniline, the N-atom is attached to the benzene ring and therefore the lone pair on N is delocalised over the entire benzene ring. As a result, it cannot accept a proton or any other electrophile.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 16
This is why it has a lower Kb value (lower basic strength) and high corresponding pKb value.

In methylamine, CH3NH2, the electron density on nitrogen is greater than that in case of aniline. This is because -CH3 group in methylamine, by virtue of its +1 effect, increases electron density on N, which is more available for protonation.

(ii) Any compound capable of forming hydrogen bonds with water, dissolves in it. Ethylamine is able to do the same and hence its solubility.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 17
However, in aniline, the bulky hydrocarbon part – C6H5 prevents the formation of effective hydrogen bonding and therefore it is not soluble.

(iii) The formation of hydrated ferric oxide may be understood by taking into consideration the basic strength of CH3NH2. In presence of CH3NH2, water hydrolyses as
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 18
(iv) During nitration, the nitration mixture used (cone. HNO3 and cone. H2SO4) protonates the NH2 group to produce anilinium ion as
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 19
But when this reaction is carried out with aniline, no electrophile generation takes place. The reason being the presence of aniline as a base.

Aniline is a Lewis base, reacts with AlCl3 and hence deactivates it. The Lewis acid is therefore no more available for electrophile generation and hence reaction does not take place.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 20
(vi) Diazonium salts carry a N atom with a positive charge. This positive charge is well dispersed in aromatic diazonium salts through resonance as shown below :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 21
Such a charge delocalisation is not possible in aliphatic amines and hence they are less stable.

(vii) Gabriel phthalimide reaction gives pure primary amines without any contamination of secondary and tertiary amines. Therefore, it is preferred for synthesising primary amines.

Question 4.
Arrange the following :
(i) In decreasing order of the pKb values: C2H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, (C2H5)2NH and C6H5NH2
(ii) In increasing order of basic strength: C6H5NH2, C6H5N(CH3)2, (C2H5)2NH and CH3NH2
(iii) In increasing order of basic strength:
(a) Aniline, p-nitroaniline and p-toluidine
(b) C6H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, C6H5CH2NH2.
(iv) In decreasing order of basic strength in gas phase : C2H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N and NH3
(v) In increasing order of boiling point: C2H5OH, (CH3)2NH, C2H5NH2
(vi) In increasing order of solubility in water: C6H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, C2H5NH2.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 22
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 23

The availability of l.p. on N of p-nitroaniline is drastically reduced by presence of electron withdrawing -NO2 group on it.

In contrast, presence of electron releasing -CH3 group increases the electron density on N atom and improves basicity in p-toluidine.

(b) C6H5NH2 < C6H5NHCH3 < C6H5CH2NH2 Involvement of l.p. of N in resonance causes aniline to have low basicity. In II, the -Me group through its +I effect improves the electron density on N and therefore its basic strength increases. In III, the -NH2 is farther off from benzene ring and hence l.p. is localized on it and hence the basic strength is highest.

(iv) In gas phase, basicity follows the order : (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2 > NH3 In gas phase, the stabilization by solvation is not present and hence basic strength follows the expected order based on +I effect of alkyl groups.

(v) (CH3)2NH < C2H5NH2 < C2H5OH

(vi) C6H5NH2 < (C2H5)2NH < C2H5NH2

Amines can form hydrogen bonds with water and are therefore soluble in it. However, the solubility decreases if the mass of the hydrocarbon part increases.

Question 5.
How will you convert :

  1. Ethanoic acid into methanamine
  2. Hexanenitrile into 1-aminopentane
  3. Methanol to ethanoic acid
  4. Ethanamine into methanamine
  5. Ethanoic acid into porpanoic acid
  6. Methanamine into ethanamine
  7. Nitromethane into dimethylamine
  8. Propanoic acid into ethanoic acid?

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 24
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 25
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 26
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 27

Question 6.
Describe a method for the identification of primary, secondary and tertiary amines. Also write chemical equations of the reactions involved.
Solution:
1°,2° and 3° amines can be distinguished by Hinsberg’s reagent.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 28

Question 7.
Write short notes on the following :

  1. Carbylamine reaction
  2. Diazotisation
  3. Hofmann’s bromamide reaction
  4. Coupling reaction
  5. Ammonolysis
  6. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
  7. Acetylation

Solution:
(i) Carbylamine reaction : Aliphatic and aromatic primary amines on heating with chloroform and ethanolic potassium hydroxide form isocyanides or carbylamines which are foul smelling substances. Secondary and tertiary amines do not show this reaction. This reaction is known as carbylamine reaction or isocyanide test and is used as a test for primary amines.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 29
(ii) Diazotisation : The conversion of primary aromatic amines into diazonium salts is known as diazotisation.

The conversion is brought about by reacting the amine with HNO2 which is prepared in situ.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 30

(iii) Hofmann’s bromamide reaction : Primary amides when heated with Br2 and (aqueous or ethanoic solution of) NaOH lose a carbon atom and are converted to the corresponding amines. It is an example of step-down reaction.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 31
(iv) Coupling reaction : The reaction of diazonium salts with phenols and aromatic amines to form azo compounds having an extended conjugate system with both aromatic rings joined through the — N = N — bond, is called coupling reaction. In this reaction, the nitrogen atoms of the diazo group are retained in the product. The coupling with phenols takes place in mildly alkaline medium while that with amines occurs under faintly acidic conditions. For example,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 32
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 33
Coupling generally occurs at the p-position with respect to the hydroxyl or the amino group, if free, otherwise it takes place at the o-position.

(v) Ammonolysis : The process of cleavage of the C — X bond in alkyl halides by ammonia molecule is called ammonolysis. 1° amine thus obtained behaves as a nucleophile and further reacts with alkyl halide to form 2°, 3° and finally quaternary ammonium salt.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 34
(vi) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis : In this reaction phthalimide is converted into its potassium salt by treating it with alcoholic potassium hydroxide. Then potassium phthalimide is heated with an alkyl halide to yield an N-alkylpthalimide which is hydrolysed to phthalic acid and primary amine by alkaline hydrolysis.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 35
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 36
This synthesis is very useful for the preparation of pure aralkyl and aliphatic primary amines. However, aromatic primary amines cannot be prepared by this method.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 37

Question 8.
Accomplish the following conversions :

  1. Nitrobenzene to benzoic acid
  2. Benzene to m-bromophenol
  3. Benzoic acid to aniline
  4. Aniline to 2,4,6-tribromofluorobenzene
  5. Benzyl chloride to 2-phenylethanamine
  6. Chlorobenzene to p-chloroaniline
  7. Aniline to p-bromoaniline
  8. Benzamide to toluene
  9. Aniline to benzyl alcohol.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 38
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 39
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 40
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 41
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 42
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 43
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 44
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 45

Question 9.
Give the structures of A, B and C in the following reactions :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 46
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 47
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 48
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 49
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 50

Question 10.
An aromatic compound ‘A’ on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating forms compound ‘B’which on heating with Br2 and KOH forms a compound ‘C’ of molecular formula C6H7N. Write the structures and IUPAC names of compounds A, B and C.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 51
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 52

Question 11.
Complete the following reactions :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 53
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 54
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 55

Question 12.
Why cannot aromatic primary amines be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis?
Solution:
(i) Gabriel phthalimide reaction involves the nucleophilic attack of the phthalimide on the alkyl halide.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 56
(ii) Such a nucleophilic substitution reaction is not possible if the substrate is an aryl halide.
(iii) The reason for it can be explained on the basis of
(a) Partial double bond character of C — X bond in aryl halide. Consider the following structures :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 57
From the resonance structures we see that the C — X bond has a double bond character in structures II, III and IV and this makes cleavage of C — X bond difficult.

(b) Also the steric hindrance by the bulky aryl group prevents the incoming nucleophile.

Question 13.
Write the reactions of (i) aromatic and (ii) aliphatic primary amines with nitrous acid.
Solution:
Amines do not directly react with nitrous acid, rather they react with a mixture of dil. HCl and NaNO2 and HNO2 is produced in situ.
The reactions are :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 58

Question 14.
Give plausible explanation for each of the following :
(i) Why are amines less acidic than alcohols of comparable molecular masses?
(ii) Why do primary amines have higher boiling point than tertiary amines?
(iii) Why are aliphatic amines stronger bases than aromatic amines?
Solution:
(i) Loss of a proton from an amine gives RNH ion while loss of a proton from alcohol gives RO- ion as shown below :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 59
As O is more electronegative than N,RO can accommodate the negative charge more easily than the RNH can.

As, RO is more stable than RNH the former is formed more. As a result, amines are less acidic than alcohols.

(ii) (a) At boiling point, the molecules in a compound break free from their inter molecular forces and escape into the vapour phase.

Weaker the inter-molecular forces, lower will be the boiling point.

(b) In 1 ° amines, there is strong H-bonding that binds the amine molecules together. Whereas in 3° amine absence of H on N atom prevents hydrogen bonding completely.

This is why 1° amines have higher boiling point.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 60

(iii) (a) The basic nature of amines is a result of the presence of l.p. of electron on the N atom. Also the electron density is increased on N due to the +I effect of alkyl group.
(b) In aryl amines the l.p. on N is involved in resonance with the benzene ring and hence less available for protonation.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines 61
(c) In aliphatic amines there is no such delocalisation and hence it is more basic.

Read More

NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-1 | ENGLISH VISTAS NCERT MCQ | THE THIRD LEVEL | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-1 The Third Level  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English Vistas which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE THIRD LEVEL

Question 1.
What was Sam invited for according to the letter?

(a) for a party
(b) for a tea party
(c) for a bachelor’s party
(d) for a lemonade party

Answer: (d) for a lemonade party

Question 2.
Whose signatures were there on the letter?

(a) Charlee’s teacher
(b) Charlee’s friend
(c) Sam
(d) None

Answer: (c) Sam

Question 3.
What convinced Charly that he had reached the Third Level Grand Central Station and not the second level?
(a) A different world of gas lights and brass spittoons
(b) beards and mustaches of 1894
(c) newspaper with a date June 11, 1894
(d) All of these

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 4.
What did Charley find in his stamp collection?

(a) old addresses
(b) hair styles
(c) old letters
(d) First day cover

Answer: (d) First day cover

Question 5.
What was the strangest thing at The Third Level?

(a) Beards
(b) Mustaches
(c) dresses
(d) The corridor that led him into the past.

Answer: (d) The corridor that led him into the past.

Question 6.
What specific difference did Charley notice at the Third Level of Central Station?

(a) Everything was weird
(b) Everything was old styled and smaller in size
(c) everything was too big
(d) everything was shining

Answer: (b) Everything was old styled and smaller in size

Question 7.
What is First Day Cover?

(a) A new stamp gets the Postmark and date
(b) A gift
(c) A gift wrapper
(d) A gift wrapped in a beautiful wrapper

Answer: (a) A new stamp gets the Postmark and date

Question 8.
Why does Charley want to visit Galesburg?

(a) to escape from the troublesome world
(b) to enjoy
(c) to see the beautiful landscape
(d) to meet his old friends

Answer: (a) to escape from the troublesome world

Question 9.
What did Charley see at the Third Level?

(a) flickering gas lights and people with funny mustaches
(b) brass spittoons
(c) men wearing a tan gabardine suit and a straw
(d) All these

Answer: (a) flickering gas lights and people with funny mustaches

Question 10.
What did Charley see at the Third Level?

(a) flickering gas lights and people with funny mustaches
(b) brass spittoons
(c) men wearing a tan gabardine suit and a straw
(d) All these

Answer: (a) flickering gas lights and people with funny mustaches

Question 11.
How did Charlie reach the Third Level?

(a) In his fantasy he takes a subway or a corridor faster than a bus
(b) in a superfast train
(c) in jetways
(d) in an escalator

Answer: (a) In his fantasy he takes a subway or a corridor faster than a bus

Question 12.
Why was the narrator seeing this Third Level?

(a) as a wish to visit Galesburg
(b) wanted to meet his friends
(c) wanted to take a break from office
(d) As a result of stress and anxiety in his mind

Answer: (d) As a result of stress and anxiety in his mind

Question 13.
Does the Third Level really exist at Grand Station?

(a) Yes
(b) yes, there were 3 levels
(c) No, there were only two levels at the station
(d) None

Answer: (c) No, there were only two levels at the station

Question 14.
Who was Sam in The Third Level?

(a) a doctor
(b) a friend
(c) a psychiatrist and a friend of Charley
(d) None

Answer: (c) a psychiatrist and a friend of Charley

Question 15.
In what way do we try to overcome the
insecurities of the present harsh times
(a) by engaging ourselves in practical activities
(b) by talking to friends and family
(c) reading good books
(d) All these

Answer: (d) All these



Read More

NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 | ENGLISH FLAMINGO NCERT MCQ | AUNT JENNIFER’S TIGER | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Aunt Jennifer’s Tiger   NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English Flamingo which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON AUNT JENNIFER’S TIGER

Question 1.
The beautiful and lifelike tigers on the panel, show Aunt Jennifer’s

(a) hatred for life
(b) hatred for men
(c) creativity
(d) suffering

Answer: (c) creativity

Question 2.
The poem ‘Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers’ uses ‘wedding bands’, ‘tigers’, ‘terrified hands’ etc as

(a) symbols
(b) poetic devices
(c) as alliteration
(d) as a metaphor

Answer: (a) symbols

Question 3.
Will go on prancing’ means the

(a) spirit of freedom of the tigers will continue to exist
(b) tigers will dance
(c) tigers will kill
(d) tigers will show tricks

Answer: (a) spirit of freedom of the tigers will continue to exist

Question 4.
The tigers in the panel that she made’ means

(a) the tigers she sent to the zoo
(b) the tigers embroidered by Jennifer
(c) the tigers that do tricks
(d) the tigers that killed her husband

Answer: (b) the tigers embroidered by Jennifer

Question 5.
‘Ordeals’ refers to

(a) happy times
(b) hardships
(c) joy and splendor
(d) party time

Answer: (b) hardships

Question 6.
‘Terrified hands’ of Aunt Jennifer means

(a) hard and bitter experience of married life
(b) scared hands
(c) un-manicured hands
(d) soft and nice hands

Answer: (a) hard and bitter experience of married life

Question 7.
Sits heavily upon Aunt Jennifer’s hand. This line means that

(a) Aunt Jennifer is a sufferer in a male-dominated society
(b) is a heavy object
(c) hard to carry
(d) cannot lift it at all

Answer: (a) Aunt Jennifer is a sufferer in a male-dominated society

Question 8.
‘Denizens’ in the poem means

(a) resting place
(b) forest
(c) residents
(d) slum areas

Answer: (c) residents

Question 9.
What was lying heavily?

(a) her wedding band
(b) the Tigers on the screen
(c) uncle of the poet
(d) Aunt Jennifer’s cat

Answer: (a) her wedding band

Question 10.
What do her ‘fluttering fingers’ find hard?

(a) to pull the ivory needle
(b) to roll the ball off the wall
(c) to thread the needle
(d) to draw the sketch of tigers

Answer: (b) to roll the ball off the wall

Question 11.
‘Fingers fluttering through her wool’. The poetic device used here is

(a) simile
(b) metaphor
(c) alliteration
(d) personification lie

Answer: (c) alliteration

Question 12.
‘Sleek chivalric certainty’ of the tigers means

(a) totally free movement of the tigers
(b) ensure tiger in the cage
(c) tiger moving in his cage
(d) tiger trying to be chivalrous

Answer: (a) totally free movement of the tigers

Question 13.
The Tigers are not afraid of

(a) the hunters
(b) the elephants
(c) the lions
(d) the men beneath the tree

Answer: (d) the men beneath the tree

Question 14.
The poet describes the colour of the tigers as

(a) brown
(b) light brown
(c) dark brown
(d) topaz coloured

Answer: (d) topaz coloured

Question 15.
Aunt Jennifer’s tigers are actually
(a) Bengal tigers
(b) Assam tigers
(c) embroidered tigers
(d) white tigers

Answer: (c) embroidered tigers


Read More

NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 | ENGLISH FLAMINGO NCERT MCQ | A ROADSIDE STAND | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing  A Roadside Stand  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English Flamingo which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON A ROADSIDE STAND

Question 1.
What is the open prayer from near the open window?

(a) For money to fall from the sky
(b) for more number of people to stop
(c) for getting money from the government
(d) for the sound of coming cars to stop at the road stand to help the owner to earn money from them

Answer: (d) for the sound of coming cars to stop at the road stand to help the owner to earn money from them

Question 2.
What does I stand for in the poem?

(a) owner of the stand
(b) city flower who stopped on the stand
(c) Poet of the poem-Robert Frost
(d) None

Answer: (c) Poet of the poem-Robert Frost

Question 3.
Who are the ‘pitiful kin’ in the poem?

(a) social agencies
(b) government officials
(c) city people with cars
(d) The poor rural folk and farmers

Answer: (d) The poor rural folk and farmers

Question 4.
Who went and waited in the lines?

(a) The rural folk to hear the government’s declaration
(b) The rural folk to talk to the social agencies
(c) The rural folk to have a word with the government officials
(d) The rural folk went to hear the sound of stopping cars

Answer: (d) The rural folk went to hear the sound of stopping cars

Question 5.
Who made roadside stand and where?

(a) The sarpanch made in the village
(b) The government made in the village
(c) social agencies made in the village
(d) The poor rural people made in the village

Answer: (d) The poor rural people made in the village

Question 6.
Who do selfish cars refer to?

(a) social agencies
(b) Government officials
(c) city people
(d) car owners who do not stop on the stand

Answer: (d) car owners who do not stop on the stand

Question 7.
Which word in the poem means fading?

(a) quarts
(b) relief
(c) relief
(d) withering

Answer: (d) withering

Question 8.
What is the importance of cash flow for city people?

(a) they love it
(b) they earn it with their hard work
(c) they earn by befooling others
(d) it runs their life so it is their life line

Answer: (d) it runs their life so it is their life line

Question 9.
What does ‘Out of their wit’ mean in the poem?

(a) by helping the poor people
(b) by showing rosy pictures to the poor people
(c) by fooling and exploiting the poor people to their own benefit
(d) all these

Answer: (c) by fooling and exploiting the poor people to their own benefit

Question 10.
What does polished traffic refer to?

(a) city people
(b) smartness of city people
(c) insensitive attitude of city people and their gentle appearance
(d) none

Answer: (c) insensitive attitude of city people and their gentle appearance

Question 11.
What promise was the government making to relocate the villagers?

(a) to give them all the luxuries
(b) to show them movies
(c) their all needs will be looked after
(d) all these

Answer: (c) their all needs will be looked after

Question 12.
How do city people harm the poor rural folk?

(a) by misguiding and depriving them of their sleep
(b) by attracting them
(c) by making false promises
(d) none

Answer: (a) by misguiding and depriving them of their sleep

Question 13.
Who are beasts of prey in the poem?

(a) the government officials
(b) Rural folk
(c) The city folk
(d) All these

Answer: (c) The city folk

Question 14.
Why are the city people called greedy?

(a) Because of their appearance
(b) because they did not stop at the stand
(c) because of their behavior
(d) because of their selfish interests

Answer: (d) because of their selfish interests

Question 15.
Which words in the poem show that the poet was feeling hurt over the poor plight of rural folk?

(a) sometimes I feel I can hardly bear
(b) The thought of so much childish longing in vain
(c) I can’t help owning the great relief it would be To put these people at one stroke out of their pain
(d) All these

Answer: (d) All these


Read More