NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-8 | ENGLISH VISTAS NCERT MCQ | MEMORIES OF THE CHILDHOOD | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-8 Memories of the Childhood NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English Vistas which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON MEMORIES OF THE CHILDHOOD

Question 1.
Annan’s words for Bama had

(a) deep impression on her
(b) no effect on her
(c) made her laugh
(d) made her cryAnswer

Answer: (a) deep impression on her

Question 2.
Bama’s brother was asked by the landlord’s men

(a) his name and street
(b) his address only
(c) his parents’ names
(d) his caste

Answer: (a) his name and street

Question 3.
He used to get his books from

(a) neighbor’s house
(b) from his teacher
(c) from a library
(d) from the city

Answer: (c) from a library

Question 4.
The author on learning about the practice of Untouchability was

(a) amused
(b) terribly sad
(c) happy
(d) very guilty

Answer: (b) terribly sad

Question 5.
On reaching home, Bama narrated the incident to her

(a) elder sister
(b) cousin
(c) father
(d) elder brother

Answer: (d) elder brother

Question 6.
The elderly man, Bama saw, was carrying a small packet and this made her

(a) want to cry
(b) dance
(c) want to sing
(d) want to shriek with laughter

Answer: (d) want to shriek with laughter

Question 7.
Which tree had its fruit occasionally blown down by the wind?

(a) almond tree
(b) apple tree
(c) mango tree
(d) Jamun tree

Answer: (a) almond tree

Question 8.
The author enlists numerous things that pulled her to

(a) eat on the roadside
(b) a standstill
(c) take a side on the joy-riders
(d) watch the snake charmer only

Answer: (b) a standstill

Question 9.
The distance from school to her home usually took Bama

(a) ten minutes
(b) thirty minutes to an hour
(c) forty minutes
(d) one hour

Answer: (b) thirty minutes to an hour

Question 10.
Bama’s incident took place when she was in

(a) class two
(b) class three
(c) class five
(d) class nine

Answer: (b) class three

Question 11.
The author, when she heard that her hair was to be cut hid

(a) under the bed
(b) behind the door
(c) in the bathroom
(d) in the attic

Answer: (a) under the bed

Question 12.
Shingled hair was worn by

(a) cowards
(b) warriors
(c) young girls
(d) dancers

Answer: (a) cowards

Question 13.
The author’s mother had taught her that the hair of the following people were shingled by the enemy
(a) skilled guns men
(b) laborer
(c) unskilled warriors
(d) generals of the army

Answer: (c) unskilled warriors

Question 14.
Everyone present in the dining room started eating when the bell rang

(a) once
(b) twice
(c) thrice
(d) four times

Answer: (c) thrice

Question 15.
As the author pulled out her chair

(a) the other student snatched it
(b) she slipped into it from one side
(c) the others clapped
(d) the other pupils made fun of her

Answer: (b) she slipped into it from one side


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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-7 | ENGLISH VISTAS NCERT MCQ | EVAN TRIES AN O-LEVEL | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-7 The Evan Tries An O-Level  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English Vistas which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON EVAN TRIES AN O-LEVEL

Question 1.
The police laid their hands on Evans in a hotel named ___

(a) the Lion’s Den
(b) Lion’s Cage
(c) the Golden Lion
(d) the Golden Web

Answer: (c) the Golden Lio

Question 2.
Carter tells Governor that he had left Evans at __

(a) Radcliff Hospital
(b) Broad Street
(c) St. Mary’s Mag
(d) Elsfield Way

Answer: (a) Radcliff Hospital

Question 3.
Mc Leery directed the superintendent to lead him towards ___

(a) Radcliff Hospital
(b) Elsfield Way
(c) Broad Street
(d) Oxford Lane

Answer: (b) Elsfield Way

Question 4.
The wounded man in the cell was ___

(a) Mc Leery
(b) Jackson
(c) Stephens
(d) Evans

Answer: (d) Evans

Question 5.
At 11:22 __ minutes before the examination was to be over Jackson called Stephens telling him that the Governor wanted to speak with him

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Answer: (b) 3

Question 6.
Evans is told about the corrections on ___ by Mc Leery

(a) page three, line fifteen
(b) page three, line nine
(c) page two, line twelve
(d) page two, line fifteen

Answer: (a) page three, line fifteen

Question 7.
The examination started at ——-

(a) 9:15 am
(b) 9:25 am
(c) 9:35 am
(d) 9:45 am

Answer: (b) 9:25 am

Question 8.
The Index number was ___

(a) 303
(b) 313
(c) 323
(d) 333

Answer: (b) 313

Question 9.
Mc Leery said he was suffering from ___

(a) diabetes
(b) cough
(c) piles
(d) cold

Answer: (c) piles

Question 10.
Governor switched on the receiver at ___

(a) 9:00 am
(b) 9:10 am
(c) 9:20 am
(d) 9:30 am

Answer: (b) 9:10 am

Question 11.
The Governor had got Evans cell ___ because he did not want to take chances with Evans, the master planner.

(a) bugged
(b) guarded
(c) watched
(d) locked

Answer: (a) bugged

Question 12.
Jackson instructs Stephen to take away ___

(a) the bag
(b) the razor
(c) the scissors
(d) the knife

Answer: (b) the razor

Question 13.
The names of the officers who visited Evans before the examination were __
_
(a) Jackson and Stephens
(b) Jackson and Bell
(c) Jackson and Carter
(d) Carter and Bell

Answer: (a) Jackson and Stephens

Question 14.
Evans’ tutor wished him good luck one day before the examination on ___

(a) February 10
(b) June 7
(c) July 11
(d) November 17

Answer: (b) June 7

Question 15.
Evans had escaped from jail

(a) 3 times
(b) 4 times
(c) 5 times
(d) 6 times

Answer: (a) 3 times




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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-6 | ENGLISH VISTAS NCERT MCQ | ON THE FACE OF IT | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-6 On The Face Of It NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English Vistas which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE FACE OF IT

Question 1.
Why does Derry begin to weep in the end?

(a) Out of relief as had managed to come
(b) Mr. Lamb was dead
(c) Mr. Lamb did not want him
(d) His mother prohibited him from stepping out of doors

Answer: (b) Mr. Lamb was dead

Question 2.
Derry’s family has been living in that house for only __ months

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Answer: (b) 3

Question 3.
___ blew up Mr. Lamb’s leg

(a) A bomb
(b) A gunshot
(c) An accident
(d) A splinter

Answer: (a) A bomb

Question 4.
Mr. Lamb made __ with honey

(a) cake
(b) cookies
(c) pie
(d) toffee

Answer: (d) toffee

Question 5.
Mr. Lamb had ___ at the windows

(a) barricades
(b) lovely curtains
(c) no curtains
(d) no window panes

Answer: (c) no curtains

Question 6.
The man who locked himself in the room died because

(a) a picture fell on his head
(b) he slipped over a banana peel
(c) a donkey kicked him to death
(d) a bus ran over him

Answer: (a) a picture fell on his head

Question 7.
Mr. Lamb thinks the bees ___

(a) sing
(b) dance
(c) play
(d) understand

Answer: (a) sing

Question 8.
Mr. Lamb advised Deny to keep his ears ___

(a) shut
(b) open
(c) clean
(d) shown

Answer: (a) shut

Question 9.
Derry’s mother also kissed him ___

(a) occasionally
(b) on the other side of the face
(c) on the burnt side of the face
(d) lovingly, regardless of the burns

Answer: (b) on the other side of the face

Question 10.
Derry visits Mr. Lamb in the month of ___

(a) February
(b) July
(c) September
(d) December

Answer: (c) September

Question 11.
Which fruit was Derry going to step on when he jumped over Mr. Lamb’s garden?

(a) Plums
(b) Crabapple
(c) Banana
(d) Mango

Answer: (b) Crabapple

Question 12.
Mr. Lamb believes all living beings are the same they all ___

(a) breathe
(b) make mistakes
(c) grow
(d) make choices

Answer: (c) grow

Question 13.
Derry feels that Mr. Lamb can cover up his handicap by ___

(a) not walking
(b) wearing trousers
(c) not meeting people
(d) by being confident

Answer: (b) wearing trousers

Question 14.
Children called Mr. Lamb ___

(a) an old hat
(b) a beast
(c) Lamey-Lamb
(d) an ogre

Answer: (c) Lamey-Lamb

Question 15.
Mr. Lamb has __ an attitude

(a) negative
(b) crazy
(c) positive
(d) pessimistic

Answer: (c) positive


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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-5 | ENGLISH VISTAS NCERT MCQ | SHOULD WIZARD HIT MOMMY? | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-5 Should Wizard Hit Mommy?  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English Vistas which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON SHOULD WIZARD HIT MOMMY?

Question 1.
Clare complains of in __ Jack’s coming down

(a) hesitation
(b) promptness
(c) enthusiasm
(d) delay

Answer: (d) delay

Question 2.
What is Jo a short form of?

(a) John
(b) Joe
(c) Joanne
(d) Jane

Answer: (c) Joanne

Question 3.
Jo wanted ___in the story the next day

(a) skunk to smell of roses
(b) skunk mommy to relent
(c) wizard to hit mommy
(d) animals to love skunk

Answer: (c) wizard to hit mommy

Question 4.
What word does Jo mispronounce as evenshiladee?

(a) Evening
(b) Eventually
(c) Evasive
(d) Evacuation

Answer: (b) Eventually

Question 5.
Mommy skunk was ___with the wizard?

(a) angry
(b) pleased
(c) indifferent
(d) civil

Answer: (a) angry

Question 6.
What did mommy skunk call the smell of roses?

(a) Pleasant
(b) Unusual
(c) Heavenly
(d) Awful

Answer: (d) Awful

Question 7.
How many times did the wizard ask Roger to turn at the end of the lane?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Answer: (b) 3

Question 8.
What did Jack mistakenly call Roger Skunk?

(a) Roger Rabbit
(b) Roger fish
(c) Roger squirrel
(d) Roger monkey

Answer: (c) Roger squirrel

Question 9.
What did Roger Skunk want to smell like?

(a) Roses
(b) Lilies
(c) Lavender
(d) Jasmine

Answer: (a) Roses

Question 10.
Jack felt being ___ suited him

(a) an old man
(b) an Owl
(c) a Skunk
(d) a kid

Answer: (a) an old man

Question 11.
What is a crick?

(a) A hill
(b) A little river
(c) A park
(d) A dress

Answer: (b) A little river

Question 12.
Jack’s wife is called

(a) Mommy
(b) Clare
(c) Roses
(d) Jill

Answer: (b) Clare

Question 13.
Roger Skunk’s smell makes ______ creatures run away

(a) Woodland
(b) Wood York
(c) Yorkshire
(d) Wood hills

Answer: (a) Woodland

Question 14.
Roger’s daddy returns home from ___

(a) New York
(b) Boston
(c) Washington
(d) Reading

Answer: (b) Boston

Question 15.
When the problem is solved ___ is demanded

(a) fee
(b) happiness
(c) nothing
(d) food

Answer: (a) fee


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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-3 | ENGLISH VISTAS NCERT MCQ | JOURNEY TO THE END OF EARTH | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-3 The Journey to the End of Earth NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English Vistas which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON JOURNEY TO THE END OF EARTH

Question 1: Who is the author of the lesson?

a) Tishani Doshi b) Kamla Das c) Jane Austen d) Chitra Das 

Answer : A


Question 2 : What does the lesson revolve around?

a) It revolves around the world b) tourism c) children and their tour d) the world’s most preserved place, Antarctica 

Answer : D


Question 3 : What is the purpose of The Journey to the world’s most preserved place, Antarctica?

a) to tour the world b) to see the beauty of the earth c) to know the geography more closely d) to sensitize the young minds towards climatic change

 Answer : D


Question 4: How will the geographical phenomena help us to know the history of mankind?

a) by telling the age of existence of human beings on the earth b) by showing the global warming c) by showing the impacts of global warming d) none

 Answer : A


 Question 5 : Why is a visit to Antartica important to understand the effect of global warming?

a) because here one can see quickly melting glaciers and collapsing ice-shelves b) because it is filled with snow c) because it is away from urban rush d) None 

Answer : A


 Question 6 : What is there in Antarctica?

a) man’s history b) snow’s history c) geographical history d) Geological history

 Answer : D


Question 7 : Which Programme aimed to take high school students to the end of the world?

a) The author’s delight b) Teachers delight c) School Programme d) Geoff Green’s ‘Students on Ice’ Programme 

Answer : D


Question 8 : Why did Geoff decide to take high school students on the journey?

a) to make them tour the world b) to make them enjoy c) to make them feel relaxed d) to make them understand their planet and respect it. 

Answer : D


 Question 9: Why is the Antarctica the right place to understand the past, present and future?

a) because half million-year-old carbon records are trapped in its layers of ice. b) because of layers of ice c) because of cold d) none 

Answer : B


 Question 10: Why did the author visit Antarctica?

a) to have a better understanding of the planet b) to see the white expanse c) to enjoy the cold weather d) none 

Answer : A


Question 11 : Why has the author called her journey as Journey to the End of the Earth?

a) because it was too far b) because no human race or plants exist c) crosses nine time zones, six checkpoints, three water bodies and many ecospheres to reach there. d) All these 

Answer : C


Question 12: Why is Antarctica a restricted place?

a) because it’s too cold b) because of no life c) because of snow d) to protect the environment 

Answer : D


Question 13 : Who was Geoff Green?

a) Geoff was a Fellow of the Royal Canadian Geographical Society and The Explorers Club. b) A scientist c) A traveler d) A tourist guide 

Answer : A

Question 14: How many years back were India and Antarctica part of the same landmass?

a) 100 million years backb) 300 million years agoc) 200 million years agod) 400 million years ago

 Answer : B
 

Question 15: What was Gondwana?

a) An ancient tourist place b) an ancient city in Antarctica c) An ancient super continent d) None 

Answer : C

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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-3 | ENGLISH VISTAS NCERT MCQ | THE ENEMY | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-3 The Enemy NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English Vistas which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE ENEMY

Question 1.
The American landlady had once helped Sadao when

(a) she nursed him through influenza
(b) she gave him food for a month
(c) she had mended his clothes
(d) had not taken rent for a monthAnswer

Answer: (a) she nursed him through influenza

Question 2.
Sadao got his reward when

(a) the prisoner could escape
(b) when he got an award from the government
(c) when his servants returned
(d) when his wife appreciated him

Answer: (a) the prisoner could escape

Question 3.
Sadao made the prisoner dress up in

(a) Korean clothes
(b) Chinese clothes
(c) Indian clothes
(d) Japanese clothes

Answer: (d) Japanese clothes

Question 4.
The young prisoner was asked to flash the light if food ran out

(a) twice
(b) thrice
(c) once
(d) not at all

Answer: (a) twice

Question 5.
When the assassins did not come, Sadao decided to

(a) kill the prisoner himself
(b) help him to escape
(c) hand him over to the police
(d) send him to America

Answer: (b) help him to escape

Question 6.
The General only wanted Sadao to operate upon him because

(a) Sadao was very skilled
(b) General did not like any other doctor
(c) General was his close friend
(d) General did not want to go abroad for surgery

Answer: (a) Sadao was very skilled

Question 7.
’Why are we different from other Japanese?’, this was said by

(a) the servant
(b) the General
(c) Sadao
(d) Hana

Answer: (d) Hana

Question 8.
The day Sadao opened the soldier’s stitches, he

(a) called the police
(b) typed out a letter to the Chief of Police
(c) made him run away
(d) tied him up

Answer: (a) called the police

Question 9.
All the servants in Sadao’s household

(a) were happy with their master
(b) felt that he deserved a reward
(c) were very critical of him
(d) wanted him to let the soldier die

Answer: (c) were very critical of him

Question 10.
The recovering soldier was fed by

(a) Sadao
(b) Sadao’s servant
(c) Yumi
(d) Hana

Answer: (d) Hana

Question 11.
Sadao removed the bullet from close to soldiers

(a) heart
(b) liver lungs
(c) Kidney
(d) lungs

Answer: (c) Kidney

Question 12.
While Sadao operating upon the wounded soldier, Liana had to rush out to

(a) drink water
(b) rest for a while
(c) to vomit (retch)
(d) to check on the babies

Answer: (c) to vomit (retch)

Question 13.
When Yumi, the servant refused to help Hana told her that

(a) she could get out of the house
(b) go back to the baby’s room
(c) go and cook food
(d) she and Sadao would hand him over as a prisoner after making him conscious

Answer: (d) she and Sadao would hand him over as a prisoner after making him conscious

Question 14.
The reaction of the servants, when told about the injured person, was

(a) they got angry
(b) they were frightened
(c) they were willing to help
(d) they ran away

Answer: (b) they were frightened

Question 15.
The first treatment Sadao gave the wounded soldier was

(a) his wounds were washed
(b) he was operated upon
(c) he was fed
(d) his wounds were dressed

Answer: (a) his wounds were washed


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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-2 | ENGLISH VISTAS NCERT MCQ | THE TIGER KING | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-2 The Tiger King NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English Vistas which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE TIGER KING

Question 1.
Where were the surgeons summoned from?

(a) Delhi
(b) Bombay
(c) Calcutta
(d) Madras

Answer: (d) Madras

Question 2.
While playing with the prince, the king got hurt when a tiny sliver pierce his

(a) right hand
(b) left hand
(c) right elbow
(d) left the ankle

Answer: (a) right hand

Question 3.
__ stood out of the wooden tiger

(a) Tiny slivers
(b) Gems
(c) Engravings of ivory
(d) Chains of silver

Answer: (a) Tiny slivers

Question 4.
The shopkeeper sold it to the Tiger King for __

(a) 30 rupees
(b) 60 rupees
(c) 120 rupees
(d) 300 rupees

Answer: (d) 300 rupees

Question 5.
What present did the king buy for his son?

(a) A real tiger
(b) A toy car
(c) A toy tiger
(d) An air gun

Answer: (c) A toy tiger

Question 6.
Who shot the 100th tiger?

(a) The Tiger King
(b) The Dewan
(c) One of the hunters
(d) The British officer

Answer: (c) One of the hunters

Question 7.
The Tiger Ring was ___ when he thought he had shot the final tiger

(a) related
(b) sad
(c) stoic
(d) relieved

Answer: (a) related

Question 8.
The old tiger was kept ___

(a) in the state jail
(b) hidden in the Dewan’s house
(c) tied to a tree in the jungle
(d) hidden in a car

Answer: (b) hidden in the Dewan’s house

Question 9.
The King thought of ___ the land tax.

(a) reducing
(b) abolishing
(c) doubling
(d) imposing

Answer: (c) doubling

Question 10.
The Maharaja was sunk in gloom because

(a) there were no tigers to kill
(b) the British officer was angry
(c) he had not purchased his son’s birthday present
(d) the British officer’s wife accepted all the rings

Answer: (a) there were no tigers to kill

Question 11.
___ were left in the kingdom

(a) 30 tigers
(b) No tigers
(c) A few tigers
(d) Many tigers

Answer: (b) No tigers

Question 12.
The diamond rings cost the king __

(a) 3 lakh rupees
(b) 13 lakh rupees
(c) 18 lakh rupees
(d) 23 lakh rupees

Answer: (a) 3 lakh rupees

Question 13.
The Tiger King sometimes killed the tiger ___

(a) with bare hands
(b) without taking aim
(c) with the help of Dewan
(d) with the help of British Official

Answer: (a) with bare hands

Question 14.
The Tiger King rejected the British Officer’s request

(a) for fifty diamond rings
(b) of getting photographed with a tiger
(c) visiting his kingdom
(d) for killing a tiger

Answer: (b) of getting photographed with a tiger

Question 15.
The state ___ tiger killing

(a) protected
(b) encouraged
(c) restricted
(d) banned

Answer: (d) banned



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CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance |NCERT BIOLOGY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

Class 12 biology sets a strong basis for advanced studies. Subject experts clear all your queries during exam preparation by the explanation of the solutions in a conceptual way.

All chapter class 12 Biology NCERT Solutions are prescribed by the subject teachers based on the NCERT textbook questions and explained all solutions in a better way for easy understanding. In-depth knowledge of the biology subject can be attained by the students with the help of detailed NCERT Solutions of Class 12 Biology

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter :6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Question 1.
Group the following as nitrogenous bases and nucleosides:
Adenine, cytidine, thymine, guanosine, uracil, and cytosine.

Solution:
Adenine, Guanosine, Thymine, Uracil, and Cytosine are nitrogenous bases. (Adenine and Guanosine → Purine, Thymine, Uracil and Cytosine → Pyrimidine) Cytidine is a nucleoside.

Question 2.
If a double-stranded DNA has 20 percent of cytosine, calculate the percent of adenine in the DNA.
Solution:
According to Chargaff’s rule, in a double-stranded DNA, the total number of cytosine molecules will be equal to the number of guanine molecules and the number of adenine molecules will be equal to the number of thymine molecules. Therefore, if a double-stranded DNA has 20 percent of cytosine then the guanine will also be 20 per cent. The remaining 60% will consist of adenine and thymine in equal amount. Thus adenine will be 30%.

Question 3.
If the sequence of one strand of DNA is written as follows:
5′-ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCA
TGCATGC-3′
Write down the sequence of complementary strand in 5′ -> 3′ direction.
Solution:
5′-GCATGCATGCATGCATGCAT G C ATG CAT-3′.

Question 4.
If the sequence of the coding strand in a transcription unit is written as follows: 5′-ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGC-3′ Write down the sequence of mRNA.
Solution:
If the sequence of coding strand is :
5′ – ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGC – 3′
Then template strand is :
3′ – TACGTACGTACGTACGTACGTACGTACG – 5′
The mRNA will be formed on the template strand in 5′ —> 3’ direction. Thus mRNA sequence will be:
5′-AUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGC-3′
Thymine in DNA is substituted by uracil in RNA.

Question 5.
Which property of DNA double helix led Watson and Crick to hypothesise a semi-conservative mode of DNA replication? Explain.
Solution:
The two strands of DNA show complementary base pairing. This property of DNA led Watson and Crick to suggest a semi-conservative mechanism of DNA replication in which one strand of a parent is conserved while the other complementary strand formed is new.

Question 6.
Depending upon the chemical nature of the template (DNA or RNA) and the nature of nucleic acids synthesised from it (DNA or RNA), list the types of nucleic acid polymerases
Solution:
DNA dependent DNA polymerases and DNA dependent RNA polymerases.

Question 7.
How did Hershey and Chase differentiate between DNA and protein in their experiment while proving that DNA is the genetic
material?
Solution:
They raised 2 types of bacteriophages

  • On radioactive phosphorous (32P)
  • On radioactive sulphur (35S).

35S gets into protein and 32P into DNA When both bacteriophages infected bacteria differently and by shaking them, the viral protein coat was separated

After raising these bacteria it was found that those infected with 32P bacteriophage → radioactivity were found. But with 35S → no radioactivity was found.

Question 8.
Differentiate between the following:

  1. Repetitive DNA and Satellite DNA
  2. Template strand and Coding strand
  3. mRNA and tRNA

Solution:

  1. Differences between repetitive DNA and satellite DNA are as follows:
    NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance Q8.1
    NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance Q8.2
  2. Differences between template strand and coding strand are as follows:
    NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance Q8.3
    NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance Q8.4
  3. Differences between mRNA and tRNA are as follows:
    NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance Q8.5
    NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance Q8.6
    NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance Q8.7
    NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance Q8.8

Question 9.
List two essential roles of ribosome during translation
Solution:
Two essential roles of the ribosome during translation are:

  1. One of the RNA acts as a peptidyl transferase ribozyme for the formation of peptide bonds.
  2. The ribosome provides sites for attachment of mRNA and charged tRNA for polypeptide synthesis.

Question 10.
In the medium where E. coli was growing, lactose was added, which induced the lac operon. Then, why does lac operon shut down some time after addition of lactose in the medium?
Solution:
The lac operon is regulated by the amount of lactose in the medium where the bacteria are grown. When the amount of lactose is exhausted in the medium, the lac operon shuts down.

Question 11.
Explain (in one or two lines) the function of the followings:

  1. Promoter
  2. tRNA
  3. Exons

Solution:

  1. Promoter: It is located at the 5′ end of the transcription unit and provides site for attachment of transcription factors (TATA Box) and RNA polymerase.
  2. tRNA: It takes part in the transfer of activated amino acids from cellular pool to ribosome so that they can take part in protein formation.
  3. Exons: In eukaryotes, DNA is mosaic of exons and introns. Exons are coding sequences of DNA which are both transcribed and translated.

Question 12.
Why is the Human Genome Project called a mega project?
Solution:
The human genome was a megaproject that aimed to sequence every base in the human genome. The estimated cost of the project would be a billion (1 billion = 100 crores) US dollars.

Question 13.
What is DNA fingerprinting? Mention its application.
Solution:
DNA fingerprinting is the identification of differences in specific regions of DNA sequences based on DNA polymorphism, repetitive DNA, and satellite DNA.
Application of DNA fingerprinting: Settling, paternity disputes and identity of criminal by different DNA profiles in forensic laboratories.

Question 14.
Briefly describe the following:

  1. Transcription
  2. Polymorphism
  3. Translation
  4. Bioinformatics

Solution:
1. Transcription
– It is the process of copying genetic information from the anti-sense or template strand of the DNA into RNA. It is meant for taking the coded information from DNA in nucleus to the site where it is required for protein synthesis. Principle of complementarity is used even in transcription. The exception is that uracil is incorporated instead of thymine opposite adenine of template. The segment of DNA that takes part in transcription is called transcription unit. It has three components

    • a promoter,
    • the structural gene and
    • a terminator.

2. Polymorphism – It is the variation at genetic level, arisen due to mutations. Such variations are unique at particular site of
DNA. They occur approximately once in every 500 nucleotides or about 107 times per genome. These are due to deletions, insertions, and single-base substitutions. These alterations in healthy people, occur in non-coding regions of DNA and do not code for any protein but are heritable. The polymorphism in DNA sequences is the basis of genetic mapping of human genome as well as DNA fingerprinting.

3. Translation – It is the mechanism by which the triplet base sequence of mRNA guides the linking of a specific sequence of amino acids to form a polypeptide chain (protein) on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm. All the protein that a cell needs are synthesised by the cell within itself.
The raw materials required in protein synthesis are ribosomes, amino acids, mRNA, tRNAs and amino acyl tRNA synthetase. Mechanism of protein synthesis involves following steps:

    • Activation of amino acids
    • Charging or aminoacylation of tRNA
    • Initiation
    • Elongation (Polypeptide chain formation)
    • Termination

The ribosomes move along the mRNA ‘reading’ each codon in turn. Molecules of transfer RNA (tRNA), each bearing a particular amino acid, are brought to their correct positions along the mRNA, molecule base pairing occurs between the bases of the codons and the complementary base triplets of tRNA. In this way, amino acids are assembled in the correct sequence to form the polypeptide chain.

4. Bioinformatics – Bioinformatics is the combination of biology, information technology and computer science. Basically, bioinformatics is a recently developed science which uses information technology to understand biological phenomenon. It broadly involves the computational tools and methods used to manage, analyse and manipulate volumes of biological data.

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CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation |NCERT BIOLOGY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

Class 12 biology sets a strong basis for advanced studies. Subject experts clear all your queries during exam preparation by the explanation of the solutions in a conceptual way.

All chapter class 12 Biology NCERT Solutions are prescribed by the subject teachers based on the NCERT textbook questions and explained all solutions in a better way for easy understanding. In-depth knowledge of the biology subject can be attained by the students with the help of detailed NCERT Solutions of Class 12 Biology

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter :5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Mention the advantages of selecting pea plant for experiment by Mendel.
Solution:

  1. The plant shows clear-cut contrasting characters.
  2. Hybrids are perfectly fertile.
  3. Genes for the seven contrasting characters are located on seven separate chromosomes.
  4. Easy to cultivate.
  5. The floral structure is suitable for artificial pollination.
  6. Short growth period and life cycle.
  7. Cross-pollination is easy if self-pollination is prevented.
  8. Pure breeding varieties are available

Question 2.
Differentiate between the following:

  1. Dominant and Recessive
  2. Homozygous and Heterozygous
  3. Monohybrid and Dihybrid

Solution:

  1. Differences between dominant and recessive genes are as follows :
    NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation Q2.1
  2. Differences between homozygous and heterozygous are as follows :
    NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation Q2.2
  3. Differences between monohybrid and dihybrid cross are as follows :
    NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation Q2.3

Question 3.
A diploid organism is heterozygous for 4 loci, how many types of gametes can be produced?
Solution:
A diploid organism heterozygous for 4 loci will have the supported genetic constitution YyRr for two characters. The alleles Y-y and R-r will be present on different 4 loci. Each parent will produce four types of gametes – YR, Yr, yR, yr.

Question 4.
Explain the law of dominance using a monohybrid cross.
Solution:
The Law of dominance states that when a pair of alleles or allelomorphs are brought together in F1 hybrid, then only one of them expresses itself, masking the expression of the other completely. Monohybrid cross was made to study the simultaneous inheritance of a single pair of Mendelian factors. The cross in which only alternate forms of a single character are taken into consideration is called a monohybrid cross. The trait which appeared in the F1 generation was called dominant and the other which did not appear in the F1 population was called recessive.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation Q4.1
Thus, when a pair of alleles are brought together in an F1 hybrid, then only one of them expresses itself masking the expression of the other completely. In the above example, in Tt – F1 hybrid (tall) only ‘T’ expresses itself so dominant, and ‘t’ is masked so recessively. Thus, this’ proves and explains the law of dominance.

Question 5.
Define and design a test-cross.
Solution:
The crossing of F1 individuals having dominant phenotype with its homozygous recessive parent is called test cross. The test cross is used to determine whether the individuals exhibiting dominant character are homozygous or heterozygous.
Example: When a tall plant (TT) is crossed with the dwarf plant (tt) in the F1, generation only tall plant (Tt) appears which is then crossed with homozygous recessive (tt) in a test cross.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation Q5.1
In the given test cross between tall heterozygous F1 hybrid with dwarf homozygous recessive parent produces tall and dwarf progeny in equal proportion indicating that F : hybrids are heterozygous.

Question 6.
Using a Punnett square, work out the distribution of phenotypic features in the first filial generation after a cross between a homozygous female and a heterozygous male for a single locus.
Solution:
When a heterozygous male tall plant (Tt) is crossed with the homozygous dominant female tall plant (TT), we get two types of gametes in males: half with T and a half with t, and in females, we get only one type of gametes i.e., T.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation Q6.1
From the Punnett square it is seen that all the progeny in the F generation are tall (Tt), 50% homozygous tall (TT), and 50% heterozygous tall (Tt).

Question 7.
When a cross is made between a tall plant with yellow seeds (TtYy) and a tall plant with the green seed (Ttyy), what proportions of phenotype in the offspring could be expected to be

  1. tall and green
  2. dwarf and green

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation Q7.1
Phenotypes of the offsprings –
Tall Yellow : 3
Tall Green : 3
Dwarf Green: 1
Dwarf Yellow: 1
(a) Proportion of tall and green is 3/8.
(b) Proportion of dwarf and green is 1/8.

Question 8.
Two heterozygous parents are crossed. If the two loci are linked what would be the distribution of phenotypic features in F1 generation for a dihybrid cross?
Solution:
Two heterozygous parents (i.e. GgLl and GgLl) are crossed and the two loci are linked then the cross will be
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation Q8.1
This means, if ‘G’ represent grey body (dorhinant), ‘g’ black body (recessive), ‘L’-long (dominant) and ‘I’-dwarf (recessive) then the distribution of phenotypic features in F1 generation will be 3 : 1 i.e. 3/4 will show the dominant feature, grey and long, either in homozygous (GGLL) or in heterozygous (GgLl) condition and 1/4 will show the recessive feature, black and dwarf (ggll).

Question 9.
Briefly mention the contribution of T.H. Morgan in genetics.
Solution:
TH Morgan is a Geneticist who got Nobel Prize.

  • He found fruit fly (Drosophila Melanogaster) to be an experimental material as it was easy to rear and multiply.
  • The established presence of genes over the chromosomes.
  • Principle of linkage and crossing over.
  • Discovered sex linkage and crossing over.
  • He observed mutations.
  • The developed technique of chromosome mapping,
  • Wrote the book “The theory of Gene”.

Question 10.
What is pedigree analysis? Suggest how such an analysis, can be useful.
Solution:
A record of inheritance of certain genetic traits for two or more generations presented in the form of a diagram of family tree is called pedigree. Pedigree analysis is study of pedigree for the transmission of particular trait and finding the possibility of absence or presence of that trait in homozygous or heterozygous state in a particular individual. Pedigree analysis is useful for the following:

  • It is useful for the genetic counsellors to advice intending couples about the possibility of having children with genetic defects like haemophilia, colour blindness, alkaptonuria, phenylketonuria, thalassemia, sickle cell anaemia (recessive traits), brachydactyly and syndactyly (dominant traits).
  • Pedigree analysis indicates that Mendel’s principles are also applicable to human genetics with some modifications found out later like quantitative inheritance, sex linked characters and other linkages.
  • It can indicate the origin of a trait in the ancestors, e.g., haemophilia appeared in Queen Victoria and spread in royal families of Europe through marriages.
  • It helps to know the possibility of a recessive allele to create a disorder in the progeny like thalassemia, muscular dystrophy, haemophilia.
  • It can indicate about the harm that a marriage between close relatives, may cause.
  • It helps to identify whether a particular genetic disease is due to a recessive gene or a dominant gene.
  • In certain cases it may help to identify the genotypes of offspring yet to be born.

Question 11.
How is sex determined in human beings?
Solution:
In humans, there are 23 pairs of chromosomes. 22 pairs of these chromosomes do not take part in sex determination called autosomes. The 23rd pair determines the sex of an individual called allosome or sex chromosome. If it is XX then female, if XY then male. The presence of Y1 makes a person male. Human females produce only 1 type of gamete 22 + X. In males, it could be 22 + X or 22+ Y.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation Q11.1

Question 12.
A child has blood group O. If the father has blood group A and mother blood group B, work out the genotypes of the parents and the possible genotypes of the other offsprings.
Solution:
If the father has blood group A i.e., IAIA (homozygous) and mother has blood group B i.e., IBIB (homozygous) then all the offsprings will have blood group AB (IAIB) and not blood group O.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation Q12.1
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation Q12.2
Thus the genotypes of the parents of child with blood group O will be IAi and IBi There is the possibility of 3 other types of blood groups of offsprings besides O blood group offspring. They are IAi (blood group A). IBi (blood group B) and IAIB (blood group AB).

Question 13.
Explain the following terms with an example:

  1. Codominance
  2. Incomplete dominance

Solution:
Codominance (1 : 2 : 1) — It is the phenomenon of two alleles (different forms of a Mendelian factor present on the same gene locus on homologous chromosomes) lacking dominant- recessive relationship and are able to express themselves independently when present together.

Example – AB blood group: Alleles for blood group A(IA) and blood group B(IB) are codominant so that when they come together in an individual, they produce blood group AB. It is characterized by the presence of both antigen A (from IA) and antigen B (from IB) over the surface of erythrocytes.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation Q13.1

Incomplete dominance (1 : 2 : 1) – It is the phenomenon where none of the two contrasting alleles being dominant so that expression in the hybrid is intermediate between the expressions of the two alleles in the homozygous state. Fphenotypic ratio is 1 : 2 : 1, similar to genotypic ratio. Example-In Mirabilis jalapa (Four o’clock) and Antirrhinum majus (Snapdragon or dog flower), there are two types of flower colour generation are of three types- red, pink and white flowered in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 1. The pink colour apparently appears either due to the mixing of red and white colours (incomplete dominance).
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation Q13.2

Question 14.
What is point mutation? Give one example.
Solution:
Point mutation is a gene mutation that arises due to a change in a single base pair of DNA.
Example: Sickle-cell anaemia.
Substitution of a single nitrogen base at the sixth codon of the β- globin chain of haemoglobin molecule causes the change in the shape of the R.B.C. from biconcave disc to the elongated shaped, structure which results in sickle cell anaemia.

Question 15.
Who had proposed the chromosomal theory of inheritance?
Solution:
Sutton and Boveri proposed the chromosomal theory of inheritance. The theory believes that chromosomes are vehicles of hereditary information that possess mendelian factors or genes and it is the chromosomes which segregate and assort independently during transmission from one generation to the next.

Question 16.
Mention any two autosomal genetic disorders with their symptoms
Solution:
Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder of infants, children, and young adults that is due to a recessive autosomal allele present on chromosome 7. It is common in Caucasian Northern Europeans and White North Americans. The disease gets its name from the fibrous cysts that appear in the pancreas. In 70% of cases, it is due to the deletion of three bases. It produces a defective glycoprotein. The defective glycoprotein causes the formation of thick mucus in the skin, lungs, pancreas, liver, and other secretory organs. Accumulation of thick mucus in the lungs results in obstruction of airways. Because of it, the disease was also called mucoviscoides, Mucus deposition in the pancreas blocks secretion of pancreatic juice. There is a maldigestion of food with high-fat content in the stool. The liver may undergo cirrhosis and there is impaired production of bile. Vasa deferentia of males undergo atrophy.

Huntington’s disease or Huntington’s chorea is a dominantly autosomal inherited disorder in which muscle and mental deterioration occur. There is gradual loss of motor control resulting in uncontrollable shaking and dance-like movements (chorea). The brain shrinks between 20-30% in size followed by slurring of speech, loss of memory, and hallucinations. Life expectancy averages 15 years from the onset of symptoms. This disorder does not occur till the age of 25 to 55. The defective gene is dominant autosomal, located on chromosome 4. This defective gene has 42 -100 repeats of CAG instead of 10-34 repeats in the normal gene. The frequency of this disorder is 1 in 10000 to 1 in 20000.

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CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -4 Reproductive Health |NCERT BIOLOGY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

Class 12 biology sets a strong basis for advanced studies. Subject experts clear all your queries during exam preparation by the explanation of the solutions in a conceptual way.

All chapter class 12 Biology NCERT Solutions are prescribed by the subject teachers based on the NCERT textbook questions and explained all solutions in a better way for easy understanding. In-depth knowledge of the biology subject can be attained by the students with the help of detailed NCERT Solutions of Class 12 Biology

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter :4 Reproductive Health

Question 1.
What do you think is the significance of reproductive health in a society?
Solution:
Significance of reproductive health in society are:

  • Control over the transmission of STDs.
  • Less death due to reproduction-related diseases like-AIDS, cancer of the reproductive tract.
  • Control in a population explosion.
  • Not only the reproductive health of men and women affects the health of the next generation.

Question 2.
Suggest the aspects of reproductive health which need to be given special attention in the present scenario.
Solution:
Providing medical facilities and care to the problems like menstrual irregularities, pregnancy related aspects, delivery, medical termination of pregnancy, STDs, birth control, infertility. Post-natal child maternal management is another important aspect of the reproductive and child health care programme.

Question 3.
Is sex education necessary in schools? Why?
Solution:
Yes, sex education is necessary for schools because:

  • It will provide proper information about reproductive organs, adolescence, safe, hygienic sexual practices, and Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs).
  • It will provide the right information to avoid myths and misconceptions about sex-related queries.

Question 4.
Do you think that reproductive health in our country has improved in the past 50 years? If yes, mention some such areas of improvement.
Solution:
The reproductive health in our country has improved in the last 50 years. Some areas of improvement are :

  • Massive child immunization.
  • Increasing use of contraceptives.
  • Better awareness about sex related matters.
  • Increased number of medically assisted deliveries and better post-natal care leading to decreased maternal and infant mortality rates.
  • Increased number of couples with small families.
  • Better detection and cure of STDs and overall increased medical facilities for all sex related problems.

Question 5.
What are the suggested reasons for the population explosion?
Solution:

  • Improved medical facilities
  • Decline in death rate, IMR, MMR
  • Slower decline in birth rate.
  • Longer life span.
  • Lack of 100% family planning and education among the village.

Question 6.
Is the use of contraceptives justified? Give reasons.
Solution:
Yes, the use of contraceptives is justified: To overcome the population growth rate, contraceptive methods are used. It will help in bringing birth rate down & subsequently curb population growth. With the rapid spread of HIV/ AIDS in the country, there is now a growing realization about the need to know about contraception & condoms.

Question 7.
Removal of gonads cannot be considered as a contraceptive option. Why?
Solution:
Removal of gonads not only stops the production of gametes but will also stop the secretions of various important hormones, which are important for bodily functions. This method is irreversible and thus, can not be considered as a contraceptive method.

Question 8.
Amniocentesis for sex determination is banned in our country. Is this ban necessary? Comment.
Solution:
Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic technique to find out the genetic disorders and metabolic disorders of the foetus. Unfortunately, the useful technique of amnio-centesis had been misused to kill the normal female foetuses as it could help detect the sex of foetus also. Hence, this technique is now banned in our country. This ban is necessary as this technique was promoting female foeticide in our country.

Question 9.
Suggest some methods to assist infertile couples to have children.
Solution:
If the couples are enabled birth to the children and corrections are not possible, the couples could be assisted to have children through certain special techniques, commonly known as Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART). Some methods are given as:

1. In Vitro Fertilization (IVF): In this method, ova from the female and the sperm from the male are collected and induced to form a zygote under simulated conditions in the laboratory. This process is called In Vitro Fertilization (IVF). Some method is given as follows:

  • Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer (ZIFT): The zygote or early embryo with up to 8 blastomeres is transferred into the fallopian tube.
  • Intra-Uterine Transfer (IUT): Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred into the uterus in females who cannot conceive embryos formed by the fusion of gametes in another female are transferred.
  • Test tube baby: In this method, ova from the donor (female) and sperm from the donor (male) are collected and are induced to form a zygote under simulated conditions in the laboratory. The zygote could then be transferred into the fallopian tube and embryos transferred into the uterus, to complete its further development. The child born from this method is called a test-tube baby.

2. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT): It is the transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube 8 another female who cannot produce one, but can provide a suitable environment for fertilization and further development of the embryo.

3. Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) : It is a procedure to form an embryo HI* the laboratory by directly injecting the sperm into an ovum.

4. Artificial Insemination (AI): In this method, the semen collected either from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced into the vegina or into the uterus (Intra Uterine Insemination, IUI). This technique is used in cases where the male is unable to inseminate sperms in the female reproductive tract or due to very low sperm counts in the ejaculation.

5. Host Mothering: In this process, the embryo is transferred from the biological mother to a surrogate mother. The embryo then develops till it is fully developed or partially developed. It is then transferred to the biological mother or into any other. This technique is useful for females in which embryo forms but is not able to develop.

Question 10.
What are the measures one has to take to prevent contracting STDs?
Solution:
Diseases or infections which are transmitted through sexual intercourse are collectively called sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) or reproductive tract infections (RT), e.g., gonorrhea, syphilis, genital herpes, AIDS, etc. The measures that one has to take to prevent from contracting STDs are:

  • Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners.
  • use condoms during coitus.
  • In case of doubt, go to a qualified doctor for early detection and get complete treatment if diagnosed with the disease.

Question 11.
State True/False with an explanation.

  1. Abortions could happen spontaneously too.
  2. Infertility is defined as the inability to produce viable offspring and is always due to abnormalities/defects in the female partner.
  3. Complete lactation could help as a natural method of contraception.
  4. Creating awareness about sex related aspects is an effective method to improve the reproductive health of people.

Solution:

  1. True: One-third of all pregnancies abort spontaneously (called miscarriage) within four weeks of conception and abortion passes unrecognized with menses.
  2. False: Infertility is defined as the inability of the couple to produce viable offspring. It is due to abnormalities/defects in either male or female or both.
  3. True: Complete lactation is a natural method of contraception as during this period ovulation does not occur, but this is limited to a period of 6 months after parturition.
  4. True: Creating awareness in people about sex-related aspects like right information about reproductive organs, accessory organs of reproduction, safe and hygienic sexual practices, birth control methods, care of pregnant women, post-natal care of mother and child, etc., can help in improving the reproductive health of people.

Question 12.
State True/False with an explanation.
(a) Abortions could happen spontaneously too. (True/False)
Answer:
False, Abortion does not happen under normal conditions. It happens accidentally or under the will of Parents.

(b) Infertility is defined as the inability to produce a viable offspring and is always due to abnormalities/defects in the female partner. (True/False)
Answer:
False, Sterility always does not occur due to females sometimes. Males are also responsible for this.

(c) Complete lactation could help as a natural method of contraception. (True/False)
Answer:
True, the Menstrual cycle does not occur after parturition which can act as natural
contraception but this method is functional for a period of six months from parturition.

(d) Creating awareness about sex related aspects is an effective method to improve the reproductive health of dead people. (True/False)
Answer:
True, this creates better reproductive health among people.

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