NCERT MCQ CLASS-11 CHAPTER-4 | PHYSICS NCERT MCQ | MOTION IN A PLANE | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-4 Motion in a Plane NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Physics which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON MOTION IN A PLANE

Question 1.
Three vectors A, B and C satisfy the relation A.B = 0 and A.C = 0. The vector A is parallel to

(a) B
(b) C
(c) B × c
(d) B.C

Answer: (c) B × c

Question 2.
What is the minimum number of unequal forces whose resultant will be zero?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer: (c) 3

Question 3.
A body travelling in a circular path at uniform speed has :

(a) constant velocity
(b) tangential acceleration
(c) inward acceleration
(d) outward acceleration

Answer: (c) inward acceleration

Question 4.
When a disc containing mercury and water is rotated rapidly about a vertical axis, then the outermost place in the disc will be taken by:

(a) water
(b) mercury
(c) sometimes water and sometimes mercury
(d) none of these.

Answer: (b) mercury

Question 5.
The resultant of two forces P and Q is R. If one of the forces is reversed in direction, then the resultant becomes S. Then for the identity R² + S² = 2(P² + Q²) to hold good

(a) The forces are collinear
(b) The forces act as right angles to each other
(c) The forces are inclined at 45° to each other
(d) The forces can have any angle of inclination between them

Answer: (d) The forces can have any angle of inclination between them

Question 6.
A bus is moving on a straight road towards north with a uniform speed of 50 kmh-1 when it turns left through 90°. If the speed remains unchanged after turning, the increase in the velocity of the bus in the turning process is :

(a) zero
(b) 50 kmh-1
(c) 70.7 kmh-1 along south-west direction
(d) 70.7 lcmh-1 along north-west direction

Answer: (c) 70.7 kmh-1 along south-west direction

Question 7.
Two bullets are fired simultaneously horizontally and with different speeds from the same place. Which bullet will hit the ground first?

(a) The slower one
(b) The faster one
(c) Both will reach simultaneously
(d) Depends on the masses

Answer: (c) Both will reach simultaneously

Question 8.
A particle is acted upon by a force of constant magnitude, which is always perpendicular to the velocity of the particle. The motion of the particle takes place in a plane. It follows that:

(a) its velocity is constant
(b) its acceleration is constant
(c) its kinetic energy is constant
(d) it moves in a circular path

Answer: (c) and (d).

Question 9.
The muzzle speed of a certain rifle is 330 ms-1. At the end of one second, a bullet fired straight up into the air will travel a distance of:

(a) 330 m
(b) (330 – 4.9) m
(c) (330 – 9.8) m
(d) (330 + 4.9) m

Answer: (b) (330 – 4.9) m

Question 10.
If a body A of mass M is thrown with velocity v at angle of 30° to the horizontal and another body B of the same mass is thrown with the same speed at an angle of 60° to the horizontal, the ratio of the horizontal ranges of A and B will be

(a) 1 : 3
(b) 1 : 1
(c) √3 : 1
(c) 1 : √3

Answer: (b) 1 : 1

Question 11.
One body is dropped while a second body is thrown downwards with an initial velocity of 1 ms-1 simultaneously. The separation between these is 18 m after a time

(a) 4.5 s
(b) 9 s
(c) 18 s
(d) 36 s

Answer: (c) 18 s

Question 12.
A boat which has the speed of 5 kmh-1 still water crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest possible path in 15 minutes. The velocity of the river water is

(a) 3 kmh-1
(b) 4 kmh-1
(c) 41−−√ kmh-1
(d) 1 kmh-1

Answer: (a) 3 kmh-1

Question 13.
Which of the following vectors is perpendicular to i^ Pcos 9 +

(a) i^ Pcos θ + j^ Qsin θ
(b) i^ Qcos θ – j^ Psin θ
(c) i^ Psin θ + j^ Qcos θ
(d) i^ Qsin θ – j^Pcos θ

Answer: (d) i^ Qsin θ – j^Pcos θ

Question 14.
Which of the following operations between the two vectors can yield a vector perpendicular to either of them

(a) addition
(b) subtraction
(c) multiplication
(d) division

Answer: (c) multiplication

Question 15.
Which of the following is the essential characteristic of a projectile?

(a) Zero velocity at the highest point
(b) Initial velocity inclined to the horizontal
(c) Constant acceleration perpendicular to the velocity
(d) None of these

Answer (d) None of these



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NCERT MCQ CLASS-11 CHAPTER-3 | PHYSICS NCERT MCQ | MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-3 Motion in a Straight Line NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Physics which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE

Question 1.
The displacement in metres of a body varies with time t in second as y = t2 – t – 2. The displacement is zero for a positive of t equal to

(a) 1 s
(b) 2 s
(c) 3 s
(d) 4 s

Answer: (b) 2 s

Question 2.
A boy starts from a point A, travels to a point B at a distance of 3 km from A and returns to A. If he takes two hours to do so, his speed is

(a) 3 km/h
(b) zero
(c) 2 km/h
(d) 1.5 km/h

Answer: (a) 3 km/h

Question 3.
A 180 metre long train is moving due north at a speed of 25 m/s. A small bird is flying due south, a little above the train, with a speed of 5 m/s. The time taken by the bird to cross the train is

(a) 10 s
(b) 12 s
(c) 9 s
(d) 6 s

Answer: (d) 6 s

Question 4.
A boy starts from a point A, travels to a point B at a distance of 1.5 km and returns to A. If he takes one hour to do so, his average velocity is

(a) 3 km/h
(b) zero
(c) 1.5 km/h
(d) 2 km/h

Answer: (b) zero

Question 5.
A body starts from rest and travels with uniform acceleration on a straight line. If its velocity after making a displacement of 32 m is 8 m/s, its acceleration is

(a) 1 m/s²
(b) 2 m/s²
(c) 3 m/s²
(d) 4 m/s²

Answer: (a) 1 m/s²

Question 6.
Which one of the following is the unit of velocity?

(a) kilogram
(b) metre
(c) m/s
(d) second

Answer: (c) m/s

Question 7.
A body starts from rest and travels for t second with uniform acceleration of 2 m/s². If the displacement made by it is 16 m, the time of travel t is

(a) 4 s
(b) 3 s
(c) 6 s
(d) 8 s

Answer: (a) 4 s

Question 8.
The dimensional formula for speed is

(a) T-1
(b) LT-1
(c) L-1T-1
(d) L-1T

Answer: (b) LT-1

Question 9.
The dimensional formula for velocity is

(a) [LT]
(b) [LT-1]
(c) [L2T]
(d) [L-1T]

Answer: (b) [LT-1]

Question 10.
A body starts from rest and travels with an acceleration
of 2 m/s². After t seconds its velocity is 10 m/s . Then t is
(a) 10 s
(b) 5 s
(c) 20 s
(d) 6 s

Answer: (b) 5 s

Question 11.
A boy starts from a point A, travels to a point B at a distance of 1.5 km and returns to A. If he takes one hour to do so, his average velocity is

(a) 3 km/h
(b) zero
(c) 1.5 km/h
(d) 2 km/h

Answer: (b) zero

Question 12.
A body starts from rest. If it travels with an acceleration of 2 m/s², its displacement at the end of 3 seconds is
(a) 9 m
(b) 12 m
(c) 16 m
(d) 10 m

Answer: (a) 9 m

Question 13.
A body starts from rest and travels with uniform acceleration of 2 m/s². If its velocity is v after making a displacement of 9 m, then v is

(a) 8 m/s
(b) 6 m/s
(c) 10 m/s
(d) 4 m/s

Answer: (b) 6 m/s

Question 14.
A body starts from rest and travels with an acceleration of 2 m/s². After t seconds its velocity is 10 m/s. Then t is

(a) 10 s
(b) 5 s
(c) 20 s
(d) 6 s

Answer: (b) 5 s

Question 15.
A body starts from rest and travels for five seconds to make a displacement of 25 m if it has travelled the distance with uniform acceleration a then a is

(a) 3 m/s²
(b) 4 m/s²
(c) 2 m/s²
(d) 1 m/s²

Answer: (c) 2 m/s²

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NCERT MCQ CLASS-11 CHAPTER-2 | PHYSICS NCERT MCQ | UNITS AND MEASUREMENT | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-2 Units and Measurement NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Physics which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON UNITS AND MEASUREMENT

Question 1 :  One second is defined to be equal to

  • a) 9192631770 periods of the cesium clock
  • b) 1650763.73 periods of the cesium clock
  • c) 652189.63 periods of the krypton clock
  • d) 1650763.73 periods of the krypton clock

Answer :  9192631770 periods of the cesium clock

Question 2 :  One yard in SI unit is equal to

  • a) 0.9144 metre
  • b) 1.0936 kilometre
  • c) 1.9144 metre
  • d) 0.09144 kilometre

Answer :  0.9144 metre

Question 3 :  One pico farad is equal to

  • a) 10–12 farad
  • b) 10–24 farad
  • c) 10–18 farad
  • d) 10–6 farad

Answer :  10–12 farad

Question 4 :  ‘Torr’ is the unit of

  • a) pressure
  • b) volume
  • c) density
  • d) flux

Answer :  pressure

Question 5 :  Very large distances such as the distance of a Planet or a star from Earth can be measured by

  • a) Parallax method
  • b) All of these
  • c) Millikan’s oil drop method
  • d) Spectrograph

Answer :  Parallax method

Question 6 :  Joule second is a unit of

  • a) angular momentum
  • b) torque
  • c) energy
  • d) power

Answer :  angular momentum

Question 7 :  Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of

  • a) None of these
  • b) mass and time
  • c) length and mass
  • d) length, mass and time

Answer :  None of these

Question 8 :  Unit of specific resistance is

  • a) ohm – m
  • b) ohm/m
  • c) ohm m3
  • d) ohm/m2

Answer :  ohm – m

Question 9 :  Unit of magnetic moment is

  • a) ampere–metre2
  • b) weber–metre2
  • c) ampere–metre
  • d) weber/metre

Answer :  ampere–metre2

 

Question 10 :  Dimensional analysis can be applied to

  • a) All of these
  • b) to convert from one system of units to another
  • c) deduce relations among the physical quantities
  • d) check the dimensional consistency of equations

Answer :  All of these

Question 11 :  The dimensions of pressure is equal to

  • a) energy per unit volume
  • b) energy
  • c) force
  • d) force per unit volume

Answer :  energy per unit volume

Question 12 :  Which is dimensionless?

  • a) Force/acceleration
  • b) Velocity/acceleration
  • c) Energy/work
  • d) Volume/area

Answer :  Force/acceleration

Question 13 :  The dimensions of torque are

  • a)
  • b)
  • c)
  • d)

Answer :

Question 14 :  The division of energy by time is X. The dimensional formula of X is same as that of

  • a) power
  • b) electric field
  • c) momentum
  • d) torque

Answer :  power

Question 15 :  Which of the following is a dimensional constant?

  • a) Gravitational constant
  • b) Dielectric constant
  • c) Refractive index
  • d) Relative density

Answer :  Gravitational constant

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NCERT MCQ CLASS-11 CHAPTER-1 | PHYSICS NCERT MCQ | PHYSICAL WORLD | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-1 Physical World NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Physics which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON PHYSICAL WORLD

Question 1 :  Which of the following is true regarding the physical science?

  • a) Both
  • b) The study of matter are conducted at atomic or ionic levels
  • c) None of these
  • d) They deal with non-living things

Answer :  Both

Question 2 :  The scientific principle involves in production of ultra high magnetic fields is

  • a) super conductivity
  • b) photoelectric effect
  • c) digital logic
  • d) laws of thermodynamics

Answer :  super conductivity

Question 3 :  Louis de-Broglie is credited for his work on

  • a) matter waves
  • b) law of distribution of velocities
  • c) electromagnetic theory
  • d) theory of relativity

Answer :  matter waves

Question 4 :  Madam Marie Curie won Nobel Prize twice which were in the field of

  • a) Physics and chemistry
  • b) Physics only
  • c) Chemistry only
  • d) Biology only

Answer :  Physics and chemistry

Question 5 :  Scientific way of doing things involve

  • a) All of the above
  • b) hypothesising a possible theory
  • c) collecting data
  • d) identifying the problem

Answer :  All of the above

Question 6 :  The exchange particles for the electromagnetic force are

  • a) photons
  • b) gravitons
  • c) gluons
  • d) mesons

Answer :  photons

Question 7 :  Which of the following is the weakest force?

  • a) Gravitational force
  • b) None of these
  • c) Nuclear force
  • d) Electromagnetic force

Answer :  Gravitational force

Question 8 :

Assertion : Electromagnetic force is much stronger than the gravitational force.
Reason : Electromagnetic force dominates all phenomena at atomic and molecular scales

  • a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
  • b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
  • c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
  • d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

Answer :  Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.

Question 9 :  When we hold a book in our hand, we are balancing the gravitational force on the book due to

  • a) normal force provided by our hand
  • b) friction force provided by our book
  • c) both
  • d) None of these

Answer :  normal force provided by our hand

Question 10 :   Which of the following has infinite range?

  • a) Both
  • b) Electromagnetic force
  • c) Gravitational force
  • d) None of these

Answer :  Both

Question 11 :  Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. Strong nuclear force binds protons and neutrons in a nucleus.
II. In twentieth century, silicon chip triggered a revolutionary changes in technology of computer system.
III. The fossil fuels of the planet are dwindling fast and there is urgent need to discover new source of energy.

  • a) I, II and III
  • b) Only III
  • c) I and II
  • d) Only I

Answer :  I, II and III

Question 12 :  The field of work of S. Chandrashekar is

  • a) theory of black hole
  • b) theory of relativity
  • c) Cosmic rays
  • d) X-rays

Answer :  theory of black hole

Question 13 :  Who discovered X-rays?

  • a) Roentgen
  • b) Madam Curie
  • c) Chadwick
  • d) Thomson

Answer :  Roentgen

Question 14 :  Who gave general theory of relativity?

  • a) Einstein
  • b) Marconi
  • c) Ampere
  • d) Newton

Answer :  Einstein

Question 15 :  Which of the following is wrongly matched ?

  • a) Humidity-Calorimeter
  • b) Coulomb’s law-charges
  • c) Lactometer-Milk
  • d) Barometer-Pressure

Answer :  Humidity-Calorimeter

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NCERT MCQ CLASS-11 CHAPTER-16 | MATH NCERT MCQ | PROBABILITY | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-16 Probability NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Math which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON PROBABILITY

Question 1.
Two cards from a pack of 52 cards are lost. One card is drawn from the remaining cards. If drawn card is diamond then the probability that the lost cards were both hearts is

(a) 143/1176
(b) 143/11760
(c) 143/11706
(d) 134/11760

Answer: (b) 143/11760

Question 2.
If four whole numbers taken at random are multiplied together, then the chance that the last digit in the product is 1, 3, 5, 7 is

(a) 16/25
(b) 16/125
(c) 16/625
(d) none of these

Answer: (c) 16/625

Question 3.
Three identical dice are rolled. The probability that the same number will appear on each of them is

(a) 1/6
(b) 1/36
(c) 1/18
(d) 3/28

Answer: (b) 1/36

Question 4.
There are four machines and it is known that exactly two of them are faulty. They are tested, one by one, in a random order till both the faulty machines are identified. Then the probability that only two tests are needed is

(a) 1/3
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/2
(d) 1/4

Answer: (b) 1/6

Question 5.
Two unbiased dice are thrown. The probability that neither a doublet nor a total of 10 will appear is

(a) 3/5
(b) 2/7
(c) 5/7
(d) 7/9

Answer: (d) 7/9

Question 6.
Two dice are thrown the events A, B, C are as follows A: Getting an odd number on the first die. B: Getting a total of 7 on the two dice. C: Getting a total of greater than or equal to 8 on the two dice. Then AUB is equal to

(a) 15
(b) 17
(c) 19
(d) 21

Answer: (d) 21

Question 7.
Two numbers are chosen from {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} one after another without replacement. Find the probability that the smaller of the two is less than 4.

(a) 4/5
(b) 1/15
(c) 1/5
(d) 14/15

Answer: (a) 4/5

Question 8.
The probability that when a hand of 7 cards is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards, it contains 3 Kings is

(a) 1/221
(b) 5/716
(c) 9/1547
(d) None of these

Answer: (c) 9/1547

Question 9.
A certain company sells tractors which fail at a rate of 1 out of 1000. If 500 tractors are purchased from this company, what is the probability of 2 of them failing within first year

(a) e-1/2/2
(b) e-1/2/4
(c) e-1/2/8
(d) none of these

Answer: (c) e-1/2/8

Question 10.
The probability that in a random arrangement of the letters of the word INSTITUTION the three T are together is
(a) 0.554

(b) 0.0554
(c) 0.545
(d) 0.0545

Answer: (d) 0.0545

Question 11.
Three houses are available in a locality. Three persons apply for the houses. Each applies for one house without consulting others. The probability that all the three apply for the same house is

(a) 2/9
(b) 1/9
(c) 8/9
(d) 7/9

Answer: (b) 1/9

Question 12.
A bag contains 5 brown and 4 white socks . A man pulls out two socks. The probability that both the socks are of the same colour is

(a) 9/20
(b) 2/9
(c) 3/20
(d) 4/9

Answer: (d) 4/9

Question 13.
When a coin is tossed 8 times getting a head is a success. Then the probability that at least 2 heads will occur is
(a) 247/265

(b) 73/256
(c) 247/256
(d) 27/256

Answer: (c) 247/256

Question 14.
A couple has two children. The probability that both children are females if it is known that the elder child is a female is
(a) 0

(b) 1
(c) 1/2
(d) 1/3

Answer: (c) 1/2

Question 15.
A certain company sells tractors which fail at a rate of 1 out of 1000. If 500 tractors are purchased from this company, what is the probability of 2 of them failing within first year

(a) e-1/2/2
(b) e--1/2/4
(c) e-1/2/8
(d) none of these

Answer: (c) e-1/2/8

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NCERT MCQ CLASS-11 CHAPTER-15 | MATH NCERT MCQ | STATISTICS| EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-15 Statistics NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Math which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON STATISTICS

Question 1: What is the standard deviation of the following series ? 
Measurements 0 -10   10 – 20    20 -30   30 – 40
Frequency           1          3             4           2
(a) 81
(b) 7.6
(c) 9
(d) 2.26

Answer :  C

Question 2: The mean deviation from the mean of the following data : 
Marks   0-10    10-20    20-30    30-40   40-50
No. of     5         8          15         16         6
Students
is
(a) 10
(b) 10.22
(c) 9.86
(d) 9.44

Answer :  D

Question 3 : The standard deviation for the following data is 
Wages per week upto  15   30   45    60     75     90     105    120
Number of Workers      12   30   65   107   157    202    222   230
(a) 26.75
(b) 24.46
(c) 25.89
(d) none

Answer :  C

Question 4 : The mean of 13 observations is 14. If the mean of the first 7 observations is 12 and that of the last 7 observations is 16, what is the value of the 7th observation ? 
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 15

Answer :  C


Question 5: A batsman scores runs in 10 innings 38, 70, 48,34, 42, 55, 63, 46, 54 and 44, then the mean deviation is 
(a) 8.6
(b) 6.4
(c) 10.6
(d) 9.6

Answer :  A

Question 6 : Let x1, x2, …..xn be n observations. Let wi = l xi + k for i = 1, 2, … n, where l and k are constants. If the mean of xi’s is 48 and their standard deviation is 12, the mean of w’is is 55 and standard deviation of w’is is 15, the values of l and k should be 
(a) l = 1.25, k = – 5
(b) l = –1.25, k = 5
(c) l = 2.5, k = – 5
(d) l = 2.5, k = 5

Answer :  A


Question 7 : Standard deviations for first 10 natural numbers is 
(a) 5.5
(b) 3.87
(c) 2.97
(d) 2.87

Answer :  D


Question 8 : The standard deviation of some temperature data in °C is 5. If the data were converted into °F, the variance would be 
(a) 81
(b) 57
(c) 36
(d) 25

Answer :  A

Question 9 : The variance of the following distribution is 
x1 2 3 11
f(x1) 1/3 1/2 1/6
(a) 10
(b) 16
(c) 8
(d) 7.5

Answer :  A

Question 10 : In an experiment with 15 observations on x, the following results were available :Sx2 = 2830, Sx =170One observation that was 20 was found to be wrong and was replaced by the correct value 30. The corrected variance is 
(a) 8.33
(b) 78.00
(c) 188.66
(d) 177.33

Answer :  B

Question 11 : In a series of 2 n observations, half of them equal a and remaining half equal –a. If the standard deviation of the observations is 2, then |a| equals. 
(a) √2 / n
(b) √2
(c) 2 
(d) 1/n

Answer :  C

Question 12 : A scientist is weighing each of 30 fishes. Their mean weight worked out is 30 gm and a standarion deviation of 2 gm. Later, it was found that the measuring scale was misaligned and always under reported every fish weight by 2 gm. The correct mean and standard deviation (in gm) of fishes are respectively : 
(a) 32, 2
(b) 32, 4
(c) 28,2
(d) 28, 4

Answer :  A


Question 13 : In a batch of 15 students, if the marks of 10 students who passed are 70, 50, 95, 40, 60, 70, 80, 90, 75, 80 then the median marks of all the 15 students is: 
(a) 40
(b) 50
(c) 60
(d) 70

Answer :  C

Question 14 : If f (x + y, x – y) = xy, then the arithmetic mean of f (x, y) and f(y, x) is : 
(a) x
(b) y
(c) 0
(d) none of these

Answer :  C

Question 15: If a variable takes discrete values x + 4, x – 7/2 , x – 5/2 , x – 3 , x – 2 , x + 1/2 , x – 1/2 , x + 5 (x is positive), then the median is : 
(a) x – 5/4
(b) x – 1/2
(c) x – 2 
(d) x + 5/4

Answer :  A

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NCERT MCQ CLASS-11 CHAPTER-14 | MATH NCERT MCQ | MATHEMATICAL REASONING | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-14 Mathematical Reasoning NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Math which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON MATHEMATICAL REASONING

Question 1.
The connective in the statement 2 + 7 > 9 or 2 + 7 < 9 is

(a) and
(b) or
(c) >
(d) <

Answer: (b) or

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a negation of the statement A natural number is greater than zero
(a) A natural number is not greater than zero
(b) It is false that a natural number is greater than zero
(c) It is false that a natural number is not greater than zero
(d) None of these

Answer: (c) It is false that a natural number is not greater than zero.

Question 3.
Which of the following is the conditional p → q

(a) q is sufficient for p
(b) p is necessary for q
(c) p only if q
(d) if q then p

Answer: (c) 6 is a natural number

Question 4.
The contra-positive of the statement If a triangle is not equilateral, it is not isosceles is

(a) If a triangle is not equilateral, it is not isosceles
(b) If a triangle is equilateral, it is not isosceles
(c) If a triangle is not equilateral, it is isosceles
(d) If a triangle is equilateral, it is isosceles

Answer: (d) If a triangle is equilateral, it is isosceles

Question 5.
Which of the following is a statement

(a) I will go tomorrow
(b) She will come today
(c) 3 is a prime number
(d) Tomorrow is Friday

Answer: (c) 3 is a prime number

Question 6.
The contra-positive of the statement if p then q is

(a) if ~p then q
(b) if p then ~q
(c) if q then p
(d) if ~q then ~p

Answer: (d) if ~q then ~p

Question 7.
Which of the following is not a statement

(a) The product of (-1) and 8 is 8
(b) All complex number are real number
(c) Today is windy day
(d) All of the above

Answer: (d) All of the above

Question 8.
If (p or q) is true, then

(a) p is true and q is false
(b) p is true and q is true
(c) p is false and q is true
(d) All of the above

Answer: (d) All of the above

Question 9.
Which of the following statement is a conjunction

(a) Ram and Shyam are friends
(b) Both Ram and Shyam are friends
(c) Both Ram and Shyam are enemies
(d) None of these

Answer: (d) None of these

Question 10.
Which of the following is a compound statement

(a) Sun is a star
(b) I am a very strong boy
(c) There is something wrong in the room
(d) 7 is both odd and prime number.

Answer: (d) 7 is both odd and prime number.

Question 11.
Which of the following is a statement

(a) x is a real number
(b) Switch of the fan
(c) 6 is a natural number
(d) Let me go

Answer: (c) 6 is a natural number

Question 12.
Which of the following is not a statement

(a) 8 is less than 6.
(b) Every set is finite set.
(c) The sun is a star.
(d) Mathematics is fun.

Answer: (d) Mathematics is fun.

Question 13.
Which of the following is true

(a) A prime number is either even or odd
(b) √3 is irrational number.
(c) 24 is a multiple of 2, 4 and 8
(d) Everyone in India speaks Hindi.

Answer: (d) Everyone in India speaks Hindi.

Question 14.
If (p and q) is false then

(a) p is true and q is false
(b) p is false and q is false
(c) p is false and q is true
(d) all of the above

Answer: (d) all of the above

Question 15.
The converse of the statement p ⇒ q is

(a) p ⇒ q
(b) q ⇒ p
(c) ~p ⇒ q
(d) ~q ⇒ p

Answer: (b) q ⇒ p


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CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -16 Environmental Issues |NCERT BIOLOGY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

Class 12 biology sets a strong basis for advanced studies. Subject experts clear all your queries during exam preparation by the explanation of the solutions in a conceptual way.

All chapter class 12 Biology NCERT Solutions are prescribed by the subject teachers based on the NCERT textbook questions and explained all solutions in a better way for easy understanding. In-depth knowledge of the biology subject can be attained by the students with the help of detailed NCERT Solutions of Class 12 Biology

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter :16 Environmental Issues

Question 1.
What are the various constituents of domestic sewage ? Discuss the effects of sewage discharge on a river.
Solution:
The domestic sewage contains every-thing that goes down the drain into the sewer of the house. The various constituents of domestic sewage are suspended solids, colloidal particles, pathogenic contaminants and dissolved materials. Suspended solids are sand and silt. Colloidal particles include clay, faecal matter, fine fibres of paper and cloth. Pathogenic contaminants are eggs of coliforms and enterococci. Dissolved materials includes inorganic nutrients such as nitrates, phosphates, ammonia, sodium and calcium. Effects of sewage discharge on a river :

  • Water becomes unfit for bathing and drinking and also for domestic or industrial use as it becomes colored, turbid with a lot of particulate matter floating on water.
  • The domestic sewage adds nitrates and phosphates into the river. These nitrates and phosphates encourage a thick bloom of blue green algae, which depletes the oxygen content of the water during night. This suffocates the fish and other aquatic life. Consequently river become highly polluted.

Question 2.
List all the wastes that you generate, at home, school, or during your trips to other places. Could you very easily reduce the generation of these wastes? Which would be difficult or rather impossible to reduce?
Solution:
Wastes generated at home include plastic bags, paper napkins, toiletries, kitchen wastes (such as peelings of vegetables and fruits, tea leaves), domestic sewage, glass, etc.

Wastes generated at school include waste paper, plastics, vegetable and fruit peels, food wrapping, sewage, etc. Wastes generated at trips or picnics include plastic, paper, vegetable and fruit peels, disposable cups, plates, spoons etc.

Yes, wastes can be easily reduced by the judicious use of the above materials. Wastage of paper can be minimized by writing on both sides of the paper and by using recycled paper.

Plastic and glass waste can also be reduced by recycling and re-using. Also, substituting plastic bags with biodegradable jute bags can reduce wastes generated at home, school or during trips. Domestic sewage can be reduced by optimizing the use of water while bathing, cooking, and other household activities.

Non-biodegradable wastes such as plastic, metal, broken glass, etc. are difficult to decompose because microorganisms do not have the ability to decompose them.

Question 3.
Discuss the causes and effects of global warming. What measures need to be taken to control global warming?
Solution:

  • Global warming is a rise in the mean temperature of the lower atmosphere and the earth’s surface. Causes – increase in the quantity of radioactively active greenhouse gases CO2, CH4, N2O, CFCs. They allow heat waves to reach the surface and prevent their escape.
  • They are produced by combustion of fossil fuels, biomass [CO2]; burning of nitrogen-rich fuels [N2O]; paddy fields, fermentation in cattle and wetlands [CH4]; refrigerators, aerosols, drying, cleaning [CFCs].
  • Effects: Heating of earth surface [mean temperature is increased] Climatic changes e.g.: El Nino effect.
  • Increased melting of polar ice caps and Himalayan snowcaps. Increased sea levels and coastal areas will submerge.
  • Measures – Decreased use of fossil fuels, improve the efficiency of energy usage, Reduce deforestation, plant trees Control of man-made sources of greenhouse gases like vehicles, aerosol sprays.

Question 4.
Match the items given in Column A and B
column A                                       Column B
(a) Catalytic converter               (i) Particulate matter
(b) Electrostatic precipitator    (ii) Carbon monoxide and nitrogen oxides
(c) Earmuffs                               (iii) High noise level
(d) Landfills                               (iv) Solid wastes
Solution:
(a) – (ii); (b) – (i); (c) – (iii); (d) – (iv).

Question 5.
Write critical notes on the following :
(a) Eutrophication
(b) Biological magnification
(c) Groundwater depletion and ways for its replenishment
Solution:
(a) Eutrophication: The natural aging process of lakes by nutrient enrichment of their water. In young lake water is cold and clear and supports only little life. With time, streams introduce nutrients into lake which increases lakes’ fertility and encourages aquatic growth. Over centuries silts and organic debris pile up, and lake becomes shallow and warmer. It supports plants and later gets converted into land. Lakes span depends on the climate, size of lake.

(b) Biological magnification: Industrial wastes released into water contain toxic substances, such as arsenic, cadmium, lead, zinc, copper, mercury, and cyanides, besides some salts, acids, and alkalies. All these materials can prove harmful for our health.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 16 Environmental Issues 5.1
They may reach the human body directly with contaminated food or indirectly by way of plants and other animals. The concentration of the toxic materials increases at each trophic level of a food chain. This is called biological magnification. River water may have a very low concentration of DDT, but the carnivorous fish in that river may contain a high concentration of DDT and become unfit for eating by man. Mercury discharged into rivers and lakes is changed by bacteria to the neurotoxic form called methyl mercury. The latter is highly poisonous and may be directly absorbed by fish.

(c) Groundwater depletion and ways for its replenishment: Groundwater depletion is defined as long-term water-level decline caused by sustained groundwater pumping. The volume of ground water in storage is decreasing in many areas of the world in response to pumping. Some of the negative effects of groundwater depletion include increased pumping costs, deterioration of water quality, reduction of water in streams and lakes.
Some ways for water replenishment are:

  • Reduction in consumption: Sprinkler and subsurface irrigation techniques reduce the amount of water used in irrigation.
  • Rain water harvesting: Rain water collected over roofs is allowed to pass into the ground through deep water pipes.

Question 6.
Why does the ozone hole form over Antarctica? How will enhanced ultraviolet radiation affect us?
Solution:
Ozone hole forms over Antarctica where no one lives and no pollution is present but not over Newyork, Bangalore etc., (polluted cities). It is because CFCs and ozone-depleting substances (ODS) released worldwide accumulates in the stratosphere and drifts towards, Antarctica in winters (July – August) when temperatures is -’85° C in Antarctica.

In winters polar ice clouds are formed over Antarctica. It provides a catalytic surface for (CFCs and other ODS to release CL and other free radicals that breakdown ozone layer forming an ozone hole during spring in presence of sunlight. In summer, the ozone hole disappears due to mixing of air worldwide.

Ozone holes allow UV radiations (UVA & UVB) to reach earth’s surface. Which was earlier reflected by the ozone layer. UVB damages DNA, skin cells and causes mutations and skin cancers respectively. UVB even causes corneal damage (Snow Blindness).

Question 7.
Discuss the role of women and communities in protection and conservation of forests.
Solution:
Forest Conservation and Management:
It is time to think deeply and act seriously in order to protect this vital natural resource. Some of the measures of conservation are

  1. Social forestry programme: It was started in 1976 and involves the affor­estation on public and common lands for fuel, fodder, timber for agricul­tural equipment and fruits. These are mainly meant for rural people.
  2. Agroforestry programme: It involves the multiple use of same land for agriculture, forestry and animal husbandary. Taungya System and Jhum are examples.
    • Taungya System: It involves growing agricultural crops between planted trees.
    • Jhum (Slash and burn agriculture): It involves felling and burning of forests, followed by the cultivation of crops for a few years. Later the cultivation is abandoned for the growth of forests. It is a traditional agroforestry system.
  3. Urban forestry programme: It involves afforestation in urban land ar­eas e.g. along the roads, big parks, big compounds etc. with ornamental and fruit trees.
  4. Commercial forestry: It involves planting of fast-growing trees on avail­able land to fulfill commercial demand.
  5. Conservation forestry: It involves protection of degraded forest to allow recoupment of their flora and fauna.

Reforestation: It is the process of restoring a forest that once existed, but was removed at some point of time in the past. Reforestation may occur naturally in a deforested area. The above-said methods speed up the refor­estation programme.

Question 8.
What measures, as an individual, you would take to reduce environmental pollution?
Solution:
To reduce environmental pollution, we should change our habits and lifestyle so as to reduce the use of disposable materials. We should use preferably those items which can easily be recycled and also minimise the use of fossil fuels. We should also take measures to improve the quality of air by using CNG gases wherever possible instead of using diesel or petrol. We should also use the catalytic converter in our vehicles.

Question 9.
Discuss briefly the following:
(a) Radioactive wastes
(b) Defunct ships and e-wastes
(c) Municipal solid wastes
Solution:
a. Radioactive waste materials are released from thermonuclear explosions. Radioactive isotopes, such as radium-226, thorium- 232, potassium-40, uranium-235, carbon-14, etc. are spread all over the world and contaminate air, soil, water, vegetation and animals.

b. Irrepairble electronic goods and computers are called electronic wastes (e-waste).
Ships that are no longer in use or that are to be dismantled are called defunct ships. Asbestos, Polychlorinated Biphenyl (PCB) produced during dismantling defunct ship cause serious health hazards especially cancer.

c. Municipal solid wastes are wastes from homes, offices, stores, schools, hospitals, etc., that are collected and disposed of by the municipality.

Question 10.
What initiatives were taken for reducing vehicular air pollution in Delhi? Has air quality improved in Delhi?
Solution:
Under the direction of Supreme Court of India, the State Government of Delhi took the following measures to improve the quality of air:

  • Switching over the entire fleet of public transport buses from diesel to CNG (Compressed Natural Gas) by the end of 2002.
  • Phasing out of old vehicles.
  • Use of unleaded petrol.
  • Use of low sulphur petrol and diesel.
  • Use of catalytic converters in vehicles.
  • Application of Euro II norms for vehicles.

Because of above mentioned measures adopted by the Government the air quality of Delhi has improved with a substantial fall in S02, CO, Nox level between 1997-2005.

Question 11.
Discuss in brief the following:
(a) Green house gases
(b) Catalytic converter
(c) Ultraviolet B
Solution:
(a) Green house gases: The gases which are transparent to solar radiation but retain and partially reflect back long wave heat radiations are called greenhouse gases. Green house gases are essential for keeping the earth warm and hospitable. They are also called radiatively active gases. They prevent a substantial part of long wave radiations emitted by earth to escape into space. Rather green house gases radiate a part of this energy back to the earth. The phenomenon is called greenhouse flux. Because of greenhouse flux, the mean annual temperature of the earth is 15°C. In its absence, it will fall to – 18°C.

However, recently the concentration of greenhouse gases has started rising to result in an enhanced greenhouse effect that is resulting in increasing the mean global temperature. It is called global warming. A regular assessment of the abundance of greenhouse gases and their impact on the global environment is being made by IPCC (Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change). The various green house gases are CO2 (warming effect 60%), CH4 (effect 20%) , chlorofluorocarbons or CFCs (14%) andT nitrous oxide (N2O, 6%). Others of minor significance are water vapors and ozone.

(b) Catalytic converter: Catalytic converters are devices that are fitted into automobiles for reducing the emission of gases. These have expensive metals (platinum – palladium, and rhodium) as catalysts. As the exhaust passes through the catalytic converters, unburnt hydrocarbons are converted into CO2 and H2O and carbon monoxide and nitric oxide are changed to CO2 and N2 respectively. Vehicles fitted with catalytic converters should be run on unleaded petrol as leaded petrol would inactivate the catalyst in the converters.

(c) Ultraviolet B – UV-B having 280-320nm wavelength. Their harmful radiations penetrate through the ozone hole to strike the earth. On earth, these can affect human beings and other animals by causing :

  • Skin cancer
  • Blindness and increased incidence of cataract in eyes, and
  • Malfunctioning of the immune system.
  • Higher number of mutations.
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CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -15 Biodiversity and Conservation |NCERT BIOLOGY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

Class 12 biology sets a strong basis for advanced studies. Subject experts clear all your queries during exam preparation by the explanation of the solutions in a conceptual way.

All chapter class 12 Biology NCERT Solutions are prescribed by the subject teachers based on the NCERT textbook questions and explained all solutions in a better way for easy understanding. In-depth knowledge of the biology subject can be attained by the students with the help of detailed NCERT Solutions of Class 12 Biology

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter :15 Biodiversity and Conservation

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CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -14 Ecosystem |NCERT BIOLOGY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

Class 12 biology sets a strong basis for advanced studies. Subject experts clear all your queries during exam preparation by the explanation of the solutions in a conceptual way.

All chapter class 12 Biology NCERT Solutions are prescribed by the subject teachers based on the NCERT textbook questions and explained all solutions in a better way for easy understanding. In-depth knowledge of the biology subject can be attained by the students with the help of detailed NCERT Solutions of Class 12 Biology

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter :14 Ecosystem

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks
(a) Plants are called as ___ because they fix carbon dioxide.
(b) In an ecosystem dominated by trees, the pyramid (of numbers) is ___ type.
(c) In aquatic ecosystem, the limiting factor for the productivity is ___
(d) Common detritivores in our ecosystem are ____
(e) The major reservoir of carbon on earth is ___
Solution:
(a) producers
(b) inverted or spindle
(c) light
(d) saprotrophs
(e) oceans

Question 2.
Which one of the following has the largest population in a food chain?
(a) Producers
(b) Primary consumers
(c) Secondary consumers
(d) Decomposer’s
Solution:
(d) decomposer’s

Question 3.
The second trophic level in a lake is
(a) phytoplankton
(b) zooplankton
(c) benthos
(d) fishes.
Solution:
(b) zooplankton

Question 4.
Secondary producers are
(a) herbivores
(b) producers
(c) carnivores
(d) none of these
Solution:
(a) herbivores

Question 5.
What is the percentage of photosynthetically active radiation (PAR), in the incident solar radiation.
(a) 100%
(b) 50%
(c) 1 – 5%
(d) 2 – 10%
Solution:
(b) 50%

Question 6.
Distinguish between
(a) Grazing food chain and detritus food chain
(b) Upright and inverted pyramid
(c) Litter and detritus
(d) Production and decomposition
(e) Food chain and food web
(f) Primary and secondary productivity
Solution:
(a) Differences between grazing food chain and detritus food chain are as follows
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem 6.1

(b) Differences between upright and inverted pyramids are as follows :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem 6.2

(c) Differences between litter and detritus are as follows :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem 6.3

(d) Differences between production and decomposition are as follows :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem 6.4

(e) Differences between food chain and food web are as follows:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem 6.5

(f) Differences between primary productivity and secondary productivity are as follows :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem 6.6

Question 7.
Describe the components of an ecosystem.
Solution:
Ecosystem: The system resulting from the interaction between organisms and their environment is called an ecosystem.
(a) Producers: Organisms, which can synthesize their own food are included under producers, e.g., Volvox, Pandorina, Oedogonium, Saggitaria, Utricularia, Azolla, Trapa, Lemna, Typha, Nymphaea etc. form the producer class of the pond ecosystem.

(b) Consumers:

  • Primary consumer: Animals, which feed on producers are included in this category e.g., Daphnia, Cyclops, Paramoecium, Amoeba, and small fishes.
  • Secondary consumers: Primary consumers also serve as food for water snakes, a few tortoises, few types of fish, etc. hence, these are carnivores.
  • Tertiary consumers: Secondary consumers also serve as food for aquatic birds like kingfishers, cranes, big fish and these together form a top-class carnivorous group and called tertiary consumers.

(c) Decomposers: All producers and consumers die and accumulate on the floor of the pond. Even the waste material and feces of these animals get accumulated on the floor of the pond. Similarly, the floor of the pond is also occupied by decomposers, which include bacteria and fungi. These decomposers decompose complex organic compounds of then- bodies into simpler forms which are finally mixed with the soil of the floor of ponds. These are again absorbed by the roots of producer plants and thus matter is recycled.

Question 8.
Define ecological pyramids and describe with examples, pyramids of number and biomass.
Solution:
An ecological pyramid is a graphic representation of an ecological parameter, as a number of individuals present in various trophic levels of a food chain with producers forming the base and top carnivores the tip. Ecological pyramids were developed by Charles Elton (1927) and are, therefore, also called Eltonian pyramids.

There are three types of ecological pyramids, namely,

  • Pyramid of numbers
  • Pyramid of biomass
  • Pyramid of energy

Pyramid of numbers: It is a graphic representation of the number of individuals per unit area of various trophic levels stepwise with producers at the base and top carnivores at the tip. In a grassland, the producers, which are mainly grasses, are always maximum in number. This number then shows a decrease towards the apex, as the primary consumers (herbivores) like rabbits, mice, etc. are lesser in number than the grasses; the secondary consumers, snakes, and lizards are lesser in number than the rabbits and mice. Finally, the top (tertiary) consumers hawks or other birds, are the least in number. Thus, the pyramid becomes upright.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem 8.1

Pyramid of biomass: The amount of living organic matter (fresh and dry weight) is called biomass. Here, different trophic level of the ecosystem are arranged according to the biomass of the organisms. In grassland and forest, there is generally a gradual decrease in biomass of organisms at successive levels from the producers to the top carnivores. Thus these pyramids are upright. But in pond ecosystem, it is inverted because the biomass gradually increases from the producers to carnivores.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem 8.2

Question 9.
What is primary productivity? Give a brief description of factors that affect primary productivity.
Solution:
The rate of biomass production is called productivity.
It is expressed in terms of g-2yr-1  or(Kcal-m-2) yr-1 to compare the productivity of ecosystems.
It can be divided into Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) and Net Primary Productivity (NFP).

Gross Primary Productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis. A considerable amount of GPP is utilized by plants in respiration.

Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the Net Primary Productivity (NPP). GPP – R=NPP.
Primary productivity depends on:

  • The plant species inhabiting a particular area.
  • The environmental factors.
  • Availability of nutrients.
  • Photosynthetic capacity of plants.

Question 10.
Define decomposition and describe the processes and products of decomposition.
Solution:
Decomposition is the breakdown of dead or wastes organic matter by micro-organisms. Decomposition is both physical and chemical in nature. Processes involved in decomposition are – fragmentation, catabolism & leaching.

  • Fragmentation – The process primarily due to the action of detritus feeding invertebrate (detritivores) causes it to break into smaller particles. The detritus gets pulverized when passing through the digestive tracts of animals. Due to fragmentation, the surface area of detritus particles is greatly increased.
  • Catabolism – Enzyme degradation of detritus into simpler organic substances by bacteria and fungi.
  • Leaching – The process by which nutrients, chemicals, or contaminants are dissolved & carried away by water, or are moved into a lower layer of soil.

Various inorganic and organic substances are obtained by decomposition. Inorganic substances are obtained in the process of mineralization while organic substances are obtained in humification. A dark coloured amorphous substance called humus is formed by decomposition. Humus is highly resistant to microbial action & undergoes extremely slow decomposition. It serves as a reservoir of nutrients.

Question 11.
Give an account of energy flow in an ecosystem.
Solution:
Ecosystems require a constant input of energy as every component of an ecosystem is regularly dissipating energy.

Two laws of thermodynamics govern this flow of energy. According to the first law of thermodynamics, energy can be transferred as well as transformed but is neither created nor destroyed. According to the second law of thermodynamics, every activity involving energy transformation is accompanied by the dissipation of energy. Except for deep hydrothermal ecosystems, the source of energy in all ecosystems is solar energy. 50% of the solar energy incident over the earth is present in PAR (photosynthetically active radiation).

Energy flow in an ecosystem is always unidirectional or one way, i.e., solar radiation → producers → herbivores → carnivores. It cannot pass in the reverse direction. There is a decrease in the content and flow of energy with the rise in trophic level. Only 10% of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next.
Producer biomass (1000 K cal) → Herbivore biomass (100 K cal) → Carnivore I biomass (10 Kcal) Carnivore II biomass (1 Kcal)
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem 11.1

Question 12.
Write important features of a sedimentary cycle in an ecosystem
Solution:
Sedimentary Biogeochemical cycle:- It is the circulation of a biogeochemical between the biotic and abiotic compound of an ecosystem is a nongaseous being lithosphere or sediments of the earth. Sedimentary cycles occur in the case of phosphorus, calcium, magnesium, zinc, copper, etc.

Question 13.
Outline salient features of carbon cycling in an ecosystem.
Solution:
Carbon constitutes 49 percent of the dry weight of organisms and is next only to water. 71 percent of carbon is found dissolved in oceans. This ocean reservoir regulates the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. Fossil fuels also represent a reservoir of carbon. Carbon cycling occurs through the atmosphere, ocean, and living and dead organisms. 4 x 1013 kg of carbon is fixed in the biosphere through photosynthesis annually.

A considerable amount of carbon returns to the atmosphere as Co2 through respiratory activities of the producers and consumers. Decomposers also contribute substantially to the CO2 pool by their processing of waste materials and dead organic matter of land or oceans. Some amount of fixed carbon is lost to sediments and removed from circulation. Burning of wood, forest fire and combustion of organic matter, fossil fuels, volcanic activity are additional sources for releasing Co2 into the atmosphere.

Human activities have significantly influenced the carbon cycle. Rapid deforestation and the massive burning of fossil fuels for energy and transport have significantly increased the rate of release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem 13.1

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