1. Why is it necessary for accountants to assume that business entity will remain a going concern?
Answer
It is necessary for accountants to assume that business entity will remain a going concern because
→ It helps in recording fixed assets at their original cost and depreciation is charged on these assets without reference to their market value. For example: if a machinery is purchased which would last for next 5 years, the cost of this machinery will be spread over the next 5 years for calculating the net profit or loss of each year. The full cost machinery would not be treated as an expense in the year of its purchase itself.
→ It is also because of this concept that outside parties enter into long-term contracts with the enterprise, give loans and purchase the debentures and shares of enterprise.
2. When should revenue be recognised? Are there exceptions to the general rule?
Answer
Revenue is recognised only when it is realised i.e., when a legal right to receive it arises. Thus credit sales are treated as revenue on the day sales are made and not when cash is received from the buyers. Similarly, rent for the month of March even if received in April month will be treated as revenue of the financial year ending 31st March. There are two exceptions to this rule: → In case of sales on installment basis, only the amount collected in installments is treated as revenue. → In case of long-term construction contracts, proportionate amount of revenue, based on part of the contracted completed by the end of the financial year is treated as realised.
3. What is the basic accounting equation?
Answer
Assets = Liabilities + Capital
4. The realisation concept determines when goods sent on credit to customers are to be included in the sales figure for the purpose of computing the profit or loss for the accounting period. Which of the following tends to be used in practice to determine when to include a transaction in the sales figure for the period. When the goods have been: (a) dispatched (b) invoiced (c) delivered (d) paid for
Answer
According to the realisation concept, revenue is recognised when a legal right to receive it arises. Therefore, when the goods are invoiced, it is treated as the transfer of ownership of goods from the seller to the buyer and hence the revenue is recognised.
5. Complete the following work sheet:
(i) If a firm believes that some of its debtors may ‘default’, it should act on this by making sure that all possible losses are recorded in the books. This is an example of the ___________ concept. ► conservatism
(ii) The fact that a business is separate and distinguishable from its owner is best exemplified by the ___________ concept. ► business entity concept
(iii) Everything a firm owns, it also owns out to somebody. This co-incidence is explained by the ___________ concept. ► dual aspect
(iv) The ___________ concept states that if straight line method of depreciation is used in one year, then it should also be used in the next year. ► consistency
(v) A firm may hold stock which is heavily in demand. Consequently, the market value of this stock may be increased. Normal accounting procedure is to ignore this because of the ___________. ► conservatism
(vi) If a firm receives an order for goods, it would not be included in the sales figure owing to the ___________. ► revenue recognition
(vii) The management of a firm is remarkably incompetent, but the firms accountants can not take this into account while preparing book of accounts because of ___________ concept. ► money measurement
Long Answer Type Questions
Q1. ‘The accounting concepts and accounting standards are generally referred to as the essence of financial accounting’. Comment. Answer : Financial accounting is concerned with the preparation of the financial statements and provides financial information to various accounting users. It is performed according to the basic accounting concepts like Business Entity, Money Measurement, Consistency, Conservatism, etc. These concepts allow various alternatives to treat the same transaction. For example, there are a number of methods available for calculating stock and depreciation, which can be followed by various firms. This leads to wrong interpretation of financial results by external users due to the problem of inconsistency and incomparability of financial results among different business entities. In order to mitigate inconsistency and incomparability and to bring uniformity in preparation of the financial statements, accounting standards are being issued in India by the Institute of Chartered Accountant of India. Accounting standards help in removing ambiguities and inconsistencies. Hence, accounting standards and accounting concepts are referred as the essence of financial accounting.
Q2. Why is it important to adopt a consistent basis for the preparation of financial statements? Explain. Answer : Financial statements are drawn to provide information about growth or decline of business activities over a period of time or comparison of the results, i.e. intra-firm (comparison within the same organisation) or inter-firm comparisons (comparison between different firms). Comparisons can be performed only when the accounting policies are uniform and consistent. According to the Consistency Principle, accounting practices once selected should be continued over a period of time (i.e. years after years) and should not be changed very frequently. These help in a better understanding of the financial statements and thus make comparisons easy. For example, if a firm is following FIFO method for recording stock, and switches over to the weighted average method, then the results of this year cannot be compared to that of the previous years. Although consistency does not prevent change in the accounting policies, but if change in the policies is essential for better presentation and better understanding of the financial results, then the firm must undertake change in its accounting policies and must fully disclose all the relevant information, reasons and effects of those changes in the financial statements.
Q3. Discuss the concept-based on the premise ‘do not anticipate profits but provide for all losses’. Answer : According to the Conservatism Principle, profits should not be anticipated; however, all losses should be accounted (irrespective whether they occurred or not). It states that profits should not be recorded until they get recognised; however, all possible losses even though they may happen rarely, should be provided. For example, stock is valued at cost or market price, whichever is lower. If the market price is lower than the cost price, loss should be accounted; whereas, if the former is more than the latter, then this profit should not be recorded until unless the stock is sold. There are numerous provisions that are maintained based on the conservatism principle like, provision for discount to debtors, provision for doubtful bad debts, etc. This principle is based on the common sense and depicts pessimism. This also helps the business to deal uncertainty and unforeseen conditions.
Q4 . What is matching concept? Why should a business concern follow this concept? Discuss? Answer : Matching Concept states that all expenses incurred during the year, whether paid or not, and all revenues earned during the year, whether received or not, should be taken into account while determining the profit of that year. In other words, expenses incurred in a period should be set off against its revenues earned in the same accounting period for ascertaining profit or loss. For example, insurance premium paid for a year is Rs1200 on July 01 and if accounts are closed on March 31, every year, then the insurance premium of the current year will be ascertained for nine months (i.e. from July to March) and will be calculated as, Rs 1200 – Rs 900 = Rs 300 Thus, according to the matching concept, the expense of Rs 900 will be taken into account and not Rs 1200 for determining profit, as the benefit of only Rs 900 is availed in the current accounting period. The business entities follow this concept mainly to ascertain the true profit or loss during an accounting period. It is possible that in the same accounting period, the business may either pay or receive payments that may or may not belong to the same accounting period. This leads to either overcasting or undercasting of the profit or loss, which may not reveal the true efficiency of the business and its activities in the concerned accounting period. Similarly, there may be various expenditures like, purchase of machinery, buildings, etc. These expenditures are capital in nature and their benefits can be availed over a period of time. In such cases, only the depreciation of such assets is treated as an expense and should be taken into account for calculating profit or loss of the concerned year. Thus, it is very necessary for any business entity to follow the matching concept.
Q5. What is the money measurement concept? Which one factor can make it difficult to compare the monetary values of one year with the monetary values of another year? Answer : Money Measurement Concept states that only those events that can be expressed in monetary terms are recorded in the books of accounts. For example, 12 television sets of Rs10,000 each are purchased and this event is recorded in the books with a total amount of Rs 1,20,000. Money acts a common denomination for all the transactions and helps in expressing different measurement units into a common unit, for example rupees. Thus, money measurement concept enables consistency in maintaining accounting records. But on the other hand, the adherence to the money measurement concept makes it difficult to compare the monetary values of one period with that of another. It is because of the fact that the money measurement concept ignores the changes in the purchasing power of the money, i.e. only the nominal value of money is concerned with and not the real value. What Rs 1 could buy 10 years back cannot buy today; hence, the nominal value of money makes comparison difficult. In fact, the real value of money would be a more appropriate measure as it considers the price level (inflation), which depicts the changes in profits, expenses, incomes, assets and liabilities of the business.
Accounting is the art of recording, classifying, summarising and communicating financial information to users for correct decision making.
2. State the end product of financial accounting.
Answer
The end product of financial accounting are Trading account, Profit and loss account and Balance sheet.
3. Enumerate main objectives of accounting.
Answer
The main objectives of accounting are: → To keep a systematic record of all business transactions → To determine the profit earned or loss incurred during an accounting period by preparing profit and loss account → To ascertain the financial position of the business at the end of each accounting period by preparing balance sheet → To assist management for decision making, effective control, forecasting, etc. → To assess the progress and growth of business from year to year → To detect and prevent errors and frauds → To communicate information to various users
4. List any five users who have indirect interest in accounting.
Answer
The five users who have indirect interest in accounting are: • Trade associations • Labour unions • Customers • Lenders and Financial Institutions • Tax authorities
5. State the nature of accounting information required by long-term lenders.
Answer
Long term lenders are interested in repaying capacity of the business, profitability, liquidity, operational efficiency, potential growth of business.
6. Who are the external users of information?
Answer
External users of information are the individual or the organisations that have direct or indirect interest in the business firm, however, are not a part of management. They do not have direct access to the internal data of the firm and uses published data or reports like profit and loss accounts, balance sheets, annual reports, press releases, etc. Some examples of external users are government, tax authorities, labour unions, etc.
7. Enumerate informational needs of management. Answer The informational needs of management: → For Planning: Management would like to know whether sales are increasing or decreasing also the speed of increase in the cost of production which helps the management in estimating future sales and expenses. → For Decision making: Management needs information to take number of decisions such as what will be the selling price of goods and how much discount they should offer. → For Controlling: Management would like to know that cost incurred is manufacturing the product is reasonable and that no department is overspending.
8. Give any three examples of revenues. Answer
Three examples of revenue are given below. • Sales revenue • Interest received • Dividends
9. Distinguish between debtors and creditors.
Answer
Basis of difference
Debtors
Creditors
Meaning
Persons or organisations that are liable to pay money to a firm are called debtors.
Persons or organisations to whom the firm is liable to pay money are called creditors.
Nature
They have debit balance to the firm.
They have credit balance to the firm.
Payment
Payments are received from them.
Payments are made to them.
Shown
They are shown as assets in the Balance sheet under Current Assets.
They are shown as liabilities in the Balance Sheet under Current Liabilities.
10. ‘Accounting information should be comparable’. Do you agree with this statement? Give two reasons.
Answer
Yes, accounting information should be comparable because:
→ Comparability is needed to make inter-firm comparisons, i.e., to find out how a firm has performed as compared to the other firms.
→ Comparability is needed to make inter-period comparisons, i.e., to find out how it has performed as compared to the previous years.
11. If the accounting information is not clearly presented, which of the qualitative characteristic of the accounting information is violated?
Answer
If the accounting information is not clearly presented, then it will violate the ‘Reliability and Understandability’ qualitative characteristics of accounting because if accounting information is not clearly presented then it will not be reliable and also cannot be understood easily.
12. The role of accounting has changed over the period of time”- Do you agree? Explain.
Answer
The role of accounting has now shifted from that of a mere recording of business transactions to that of providing information to managers and other various interested parties in order to help them in making appropriate decisions. It now becomes an information system.
13. Giving examples, explain each of the following accounting terms: • Fixed assets • Revenue • Expenses • Short-term liability • Capital
Answer
• Fixed Assets: Fixed Assets refers to those assets which are held for continued use in the business for the purpose of producing goods and services and not meant for resale. Examples: Plant and Machinery, Land and Building etc.
• Revenue: Revenues refer to the amount received from day to day activities of the business, likesale proceeds of goods and rendering services to the customers. Example: Commission received, dividend, royalty etc.
• Expenses: Expense is the cost incurred in producing and selling the goods and services. Example: wages, depreciation, salaries etc.
• Short-term liability: Those liabilities which are to be paid in near future (normally within one year). Example: Bank Overdraft, Bills payable etc.
• Capital: It refers to the amount invested by the proprietor in a business enterprise. It is the amount with the help of which goods and assets are purchased in the business.
14. Define revenues and expenses?
Answer
Revenues is the income of a regular nature such as receipts from sale of goods, rent, commission etc. Expense is the cost incurred in producing and selling the goods and services.
15. What is the primary reason for the business students and others to familiarise themselves with the accounting discipline?
Answer
Every monetary transaction must be recorded in such a manner that various accounting users must understand and interpret these results in the same manner without any ambiguity. The primary reason to study accounting discipline because it helps in the learning: • the various aspects of accounting. • how to maintain books of accounts. • how to summarise accounting information. • how to interpret the accounting information with relative accuracy.
Long Answer Type Questions:
Q1. Explain the factors, which necessitated systematic accounting. Answer: The factors that necessitated systematic accounting are given below. 1. Only financial transactions are recorded- Those events that are financial in nature are only recorded in the books of accounts. For example, salary of an employee is recorded in the books but his/her educational qualification is not recorded. 2. Transactions are recorded in monetary terms- Only those transactions which can be expressed in monetary terms are recorded in the books. For example, if a business has two buildings and four machines, then their monetary values is recorded in the books, i.e. two buildings costing Rs 2,00,000, four machines costing Rs 8,00,000. Thus the total value of assets is Rs 10,00,000. 3. Art of recording- Transactions are recorded in the order of their occurrence. 4. Classification of transaction- Business transactions of similar nature are classified and posted under their respective accounts. For example, all the transactions relating to machinery will be posted in the Machinery Account. 5. Summarising of data- All business transactions are summarised in the form of Trial Balance, Trading Account, Profit and Loss Account and Balance Sheet that provides necessary information to various users. 6. Analysing and interpreting data- Systematic accounting records enable users to analyse and interpret the accounting data in a proper and appropriate manner. These accounting data and information are presented in form of graphs, statements, charts that leads to easy communication and understandability by various users. Moreover, these facilitates in decision making and future predictions.
Q2. Describe the brief history of accounting. Answer: The history of accounting can be traced long back in civilisation. Around 4000 B.C., in Babylonia and Egypt, payment of wages and taxes were recorded on clay tablets. As history claims that Egyptians kept the record of gold and valuables deposits and withdrawal from the treasuries. These records were reported on daily basis by the incharge of treasuries to the wazir, who used to forward the monthly reports to the king. Babylonia and Egypt used this method to rectify and remove errors, frauds and inefficiency from the records. Around 2000 B.C., China used sophisticated form of accounting. In Greece, accounting was used to maintain total receipts and total payments and to balance government accounts. In Rome, around 700 B.C., receipts and payments were recorded in daybook and were posted in the ledger at the end of the month. In India, around twenty three centuries ago, Kautilya wrote the book Arthshastra, which describes how accounting records have to be maintained. In 1494, Luca Pacioli wrote the book Summa de Arithmetica Geometria Proportioni et Proportionalita. In this, he explained the term debit and credit, which are used in accounting till date.
Q3. Explain the development of and role of accounting. Answer : Development of accounting In ancient times, around 4000 B.C., accounting was used for recording wages and salaries, deposits and withdrawals of valuable goods (such as gold and silver) from the treasures of the king. Afterwards, it was used to record the receipts and payments and balancing of government financial transactions. During 1500 A.D., accounting was used by business firms for recording transactions related to business. In 1800 A.D., accounting was used to record transactions and also to provide information to various users of financial data.
Role of accounting- While in the earlier times accounting was merely concerned with recording the financial events (i.e. record-keeping activity); however, now-a-days, accounting is done with the rationale of not only maintaining records, but also providing an information system that provides important and relevant information to various accounting users. 1. Substitute of memory- As, it is beyond human capabilities to remember each and every business transaction, so accounting plays an important role in recording these transactions in the book of accounts. 2. Assistance to management- Management uses accounting information for short term and long term planning of business activities and to control various costs and budgets. 3. Comparative study- In order to ascertain the performance of the business, accounting enables comparison of current year’s profit with that of previous years (intra-firm comparison)and also with other firms in the same business (inter-firm comparison). 4. Evidence in court- It acts as evidence that can be used or presented in the court, if any discrepancy arises in the future.
Q4. Define accounting and state its objectives. Answer :Accounting is a process of identifying the events of financial nature, recording them in the journal, classifying in their respective accounts and summarising them in profit and loss account and balance sheet and communicating results to users of such information, viz. owner, government, creditor, investors, etc. According to American Institute of Certified Accountants, 1941, “Accounting is the art of recording, classifying and summarising in a significant manner and in terms of money, transactions and events that are, in part at least, of financial character and interpreting the results thereof.” In 1970, American Institute of Certified Public Accountants changed the definition and stated, “The function of accounting is to provide quantitative information, primarily financial in nature, about economic entities, that is intended to be useful in making economic decisions.” Objectives of Accounting: 1. Recording business transactions systematically- It is necessary to maintain systematic records of every business transaction, as it is beyond human capacities to remember such large number of transactions. Skipping the record of any one of the transactions may lead to erroneous and faulty results. 2. Determining profit earned or loss incurred- In order to determine the net result at the end of an accounting period, we need to calculate profit or loss. For this purpose trading and profit and loss account are prepared. It gives information regarding how much of goods have been purchased and sold, expenses incurred and amount earned during a year. 3. Ascertaining financial position of the firm- Ascertaining profit earned or loss incurred is not enough; proprietor also interested in knowing the financial position of his/her firm, i.e. the value of the assets, amount of liabilities owed, net increase or decrease in his/her capital. This purpose is served by preparing the balance sheet that facilitates in ascertaining the true financial position of the business. 4. Assisting management- Systematic accounting helps the management in effective decision making, efficient control on cash management policies, preparing budget and forecasting, etc. 5. Assessing the progress of the business- Accounting helps in assessing the progress of business from year to year, as accounting facilitates the comparison both inter-firm as well as intra-firm. 6. Detecting and preventing frauds and errors- It is necessary to detect and prevent fraud and errors, mismanagement and wastage of the finance. Systematic recording helps in the easy detection and rectification of frauds, errors and inefficiencies, if any. 7. Communicating accounting information to various users- The important step in the accounting process is to communicate financial and accounting information to various users including both internal and external users like owners, management, government, labour, tax authorities, etc. This assists the users to understand and interpret the accounting data in a meaningful and appropriate manner without any ambiguity.
Q5. Describe the informational needs of external users. Answer : There are various external users of accounting who need accounting information for decision making, investment planning and to assess the financial position of the business. The various external users are given below. 1. Banks and other financial institutions- Banks provide finance in form of loans and advances to various businesses. Thus, they need information regarding liquidity, creditworthiness, solvency and profitability to advance loans. 2. Creditors- These are those individuals and organisations to whom a business owes money on account of credit purchases of goods and receiving services; hence, the creditors require information about credit worthiness of the business. 3. Investors and potential investors- They invest or plan to invest in the business. Hence, in order to assess the viability and prospectus of their investment, creditors need information about profitability and solvency of the business. 4. Tax authorities- They need information about sales, revenues, profit and taxable income in order to determine the levy various types of tax on the business. 5. Government- It needs information to determine national income, GDP, industrial growth, etc. The accounting information assist the government in the formulation of various policies measures and to address various economic problems like employment, poverty etc. 6. Researcher- Various research institutes like NGOs and other independent research institutions like CRISIL, stock exchanges, etc. undertake various research projects and the accounting information facilitates their research work. 7. Consumer- Every business tries to build up reputation in the eyes of consumers, which can be created by the supply of better quality products and post-sale services at reasonable and affordable prices. Business that has transparent financial records, assists the customers to know the correct cost of production and accordingly assess the degree of reasonability of the price charged by the business for its products and thus helps in repo building of the business. 8. Public- Public is keenly interested to know the proportion of the profit that the business spends on various public welfare schemes; for example, charitable hospitals, funding schools, etc. This information is also revealed by the profit and loss account and balance sheet of the business.
Q6. What do you mean by an asset and what are different types of assets? Answer :Any valuable thing that has monetary value, which is owned by a business, is its asset. In other words, assets are the monetary values of the properties or the legal rights that are owned by the business organisations. Fixed Assets- These are those assets that are hold for the long term and increase the profit earning capacity and productive capacity of the business. These assets are not meant for sale, for example, land, building machinery, etc. Current Assets- Assets that can be easily converted into cash or cash equivalents are termed as current assets. These are required to run day to day business activities; for example, cash, debtors, stock, etc. Tangible Assets- Assets that have physical existence, i.e., which can be seen and touched, are tangible assets; for example, car, furniture, building, etc. Intangible Assets- Assets that cannot be seen or touched, i.e. those assets that do not have physical existence, are intangible assets; for example, goodwill, patents, trade mark, etc. Liquid Assets- Assets that are kept either in cash or cash equivalents are regarded as liquid assets. These can be converted into cash in a very short period of time; for example, cash, bank, bills receivable, etc. Fictitious Assets- These are the heavy revenue expenditures, the benefit of whose can be derived in more than one year. They represent loss or expense that are written off over a period of time, for example, if advertisement expenditure is Rs 1,00,000 for 5 years, then each year Rs 2,00,000 will be written off.
Q7. Explain the meaning of gain and profit. Distinguish between these two terms. Answer : Profit- Excess of revenue over expense is known as profit. It is normally categorised into gross profit or net profit. It increases the owner’s capital as it is added to the capital at the end of each accounting period. For example, goods costing Rs 1, 00,000 is sold at Rs 1,20,000, then the sale proceeds of Rs 1,20,000 is the revenue and 1,00,000 is the expense to generate this revenue. Hence, accounting profit of Rs 20,000 (i.e. Rs 1,20,000 – Rs 1,00,000) is the difference between the revenue and expense that is earned by the business. Gain- It arises from irregular activities or non-recurring transactions. In other words, a gain is a result of transactions that are incidental to the business, other than operating transactions. For example, an old machinery of book value Rs 20,000 is sold at Rs 25,000. Hence, the gain is Rs 5,000 (i.e. Rs 25,000 – Rs 20,000). Here, the sale of the old machinery is an irregular activity; so, the difference is termed as gain Thus, in other words the only difference between profit and gain is that profit is the excess of revenue over expense and gain arises from other than operating transactions.
Q8. Explain the qualitative characteristics of accounting information. Answer : The following are the qualitative characteristics of accounting information: 1. Reliability- It means that the user can rely on the accounting information. All accounting information is verifiable and can be verified from the source document (voucher), viz. cash memos, bills, etc. Hence, the available information should be free from any errors and unbiased. 2. Relevance- It means that essential and appropriate information should be easily and timely available and any irrelevant information should be avoided. The users of accounting information need relevant information for decision making, planning and predicting the future conditions. 3. Understandability- Accounting information should be presented in such a way that every user is able to interpret the information without any difficulty in a meaningful and appropriate manner. 4. Comparability- It is the most important quality of accounting information. Comparability means accounting information of a current year can be comparable with that of the previous years. Comparability enables intra-firm and inter-firm comparison. This assists in assessing the outcomes of various policies and programmes adopted in different time horizons by the same or different businesses. Further, it helps to ascertain the growth and progress of the business over time and in comparison to other businesses.
Q9. Describe the role of accounting in the modern world. Answer: The role of accounting has been changing over a period of time. In the modern world, the role of accounting is not only limited to record financial transactions but also to provide a basic framework for various decision making, providing relevant information to various users and assists in both short-run and long run planning. The role of accounting in the modern world are given below. 1. Assisting management- Management uses accounting information for short term and long term planning of business activities, to predict the future conditions, prepare budgets and various control measures. 2. Comparative study- In the modern world, accounting information helps us to know the performance of the business by comparing current year’s profit with that of the previous years and also with other firms in the same industry. 3. Substitute of memory- In the modern world, every business incurs large number of transactions and it is beyond human capability to memorise each and every transaction. Hence, it is very necessary to record transactions in the books of accounts. 4. Information to end user- Accounting plays an important role in recording, summarising and providing relevant and reliable information to its users, in form of financial data that helps in decision making.
In This Post we are providing Chapter-5 Organic Chemistry- Some Basic Principles and Techniques NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.
NCERT MCQ ON ORGANIC CHEMISTRY- SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES AND TECHNIQUES
Question 1: In laboratory, first organic compound was synthesized by
a) Wohler
b) Kekule
c) Hennel
d) Liebig
Answer: Wohler
Question 2: Who is known as the “Father of Chemistry”?
a) Lavoisier
b) Priestley
c) Faraday
d) Rutherford
Answer: Lavoisier
Question 3: The percentage of s- character of the hybrid orbitals in ethane, ethene and ethyne are respectively
a) 25, 33, 50
b) 50, 75, 100
c) 25, 50, 75
d) 10, 20, 40
Answer: 25, 33, 50
Question 4: The functional group present in organic, acid is –
a) –COOH
b) – OH
c) – CHO
d) > C = O
Answer: –COOH
Question 5: Which of these contains the carbonyl group?
a) all of these
b) aldehydes
c) ketones
d) esters
Answer: all of these
Question 6: Butanone is a four-carbon compound with the functional group –
a) ketone
b) carboxylic acid
c) aldehyde.
d) alcohol.
Answer: ketone
Question 7: Which of the following compounds contains 1°, 2°, 3° as well as 4° carbon atoms ?
a) 2,2,3-trimethyl pentane
b) 2-methyl pentane
c) Neopentane
d) 2,3-dimethyl butane
Answer: 2,2,3-trimethyl pentane
Question 8: The number of secondary hydrogens in 2, 2-dimethylbutane is
a) 2
b) 6
c) 8
d) 4
Answer: 2
Question 9: The compound which has one isopropyl group is
a) 2- Methypentane
b) 2, 2, 3- Trimethylpentane
c) 2, 2 – Dimethylpentane
d) 2, 2, 3, 3 – Tetramethylpentane
Answer: 2- Methypentane
Question 10: Which of the following statements is false for isopentane ?
a) It has a carbon which is not bonded to hydrogen
b) It has one CH group
c) It has one CH2 group
d) It has three CH3 groups
Answer: It has a carbon which is not bonded to hydrogen
Question 11: The number of primary, secondary and tertiary carbons in 3, 4-dimethylheptane are respectively
a) 4, 3 and 2
b) 4, 2 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 3, 4 and 2
Answer: 4, 3 and 2
Question 12: The number of primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary carbons in neopentane are respectively
a) 4, 0, 0 and 1
b) 4, 3, 2 and 1
c) 5, 0, 0 and 1
d) 4, 0, 1 and 1
Answer: 4, 0, 0 and 1
Question 13: What is the IUPAC name of t-butyl alcohol.
a) 2–Methyl-propan–2-ol
b) Propanol-2
c) Butanol–2
d) Butanol–1
Answer: 2–Methyl-propan–2-ol
Question 14: The IUPAC name of CH3COCH (CH3)2 is –
a) 3-methyl-2-butanone
b) 4-methylisopropyl ketone
c) 2-methyl-3-butanone
d) isopropyl methyl ketone
Answer: 3-methyl-2-butanone
Question 15: Which of the following statements is false for isopentane–
a) It has a carbon which is not bonded to hydrogen
b) It has one CH group
c) It has three CH3 groups
d) It has one CH2 group
Answer: It has a carbon which is not bonded to hydrogen
In This Post we are providing Chapter-4 The p-block Elements NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.
NCERT MCQ ON THE p-BLOCK ELEMENTS
Question 1 : Which of the following is/are true regarding gallium?
(i) It has unusually low melting point (303 K). (ii) It exist in liquid state during summer. (iii) It has a high boiling point (2676 K). The correct option is
a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
b) (i) and (ii)
c) (i) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer : (i), (ii) and (iii)
Question 2 : The element which shows least metallic character is
a) Boron
b) Gallium
c) Indium
d) Aluminium
Answer : Boron
Question 3 : Which one of the following has the lowest m.p.?
a) Ga
b) B
c) Al
d) Tl
Answer : Ga
Question 4 : Which of the following does not form M3+ ion?
a) Boron
b) Indium
c) Aluminium
d) Gallium
Answer : Boron
Question 5: The group 13 element that is liquid during summer and used for measuring high temperature is
a) Gallium
b) Boron
c) Aluminium
d) Indium
Answer : Gallium
Question 6: Thallium shows different oxidation states because
a) of inert pair effect
b) of its amphoteric character
c) of its higher reactivity
d) it is transition element
Answer : of inert pair effect
Question 7 : Aluminium chloride is a/an
a) Lewis acid
b) Bronsted – Lowery acid
c) Arhenius acid
d) Lewis base
Answer : Lewis acid
Question 8 : The strongest Lewis acid is
a) BI3
b) BCl3
c) BF3
d) BBr3
Answer : BI3
Question 9 : Which metal is protected by a layer of its own oxide?
a) Al
b) Au
c) Ag
d) Fe
Answer : Al
Question 10 : Aluminium vessels should not be washed with materials containing washing soda because
a) washing soda reacts with aluminium to form soluble aluminate
b) washing soda reacts with aluminium to form insoluble aluminium oxide
c) washing soda is easily decomposed
d) washing soda is expensive
Answer : washing soda reacts with aluminium to form soluble aluminate
Question 11 : When Al is added to KOH solution
a) hydrogen is evolved
b) oxygen is evolved
c) no action takes place
d) water is produced
Answer : hydrogen is evolved
Question 12: Which of the following does not react with aqueous NaOH ?
a) B
b) Al
c) Ga
d) Tl
Answer : B
Question 13 : In borax bead test which compound is formed?
a) Meta-borate
b) Tetra-borate
c) Ortho-borate
d) Double oxide
Answer : Meta-borate
Question 14 : Boric acid is polymeric due to
a) the presence of hydrogen bonds
b) its acidic nature
c) its monobasic nature
d) its geometry
Answer : the presence of hydrogen bonds
Question 15 : Orthoboric acid when heated to red hot gives
In This Post we are providing Chapter-3 The s-block Elements NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.
NCERT MCQ ON THE s-BLOCK ELEMENTS
Question 1. The paramagnetic species is (a) KO2 (b) SiO2 (c) TiO2 (d) BaO2
Answer: (a) KO2
Question 2. On dissolving moderate amount of sodium metal in liquid ammonia at low temperature, which one of the following does not occur? (a) Blue coloured solution is obtained (b) Na+ ions are formed in the solution (c) Liquid NH3 becomes good conductor of electricity (d) Liquid ammonia remain diamagnetic.
Answer: (d) Liquid ammonia remain diamagnetic.
Question 3. The substance not likely to contain CaCO3 is (a) Dolomite (b) A marble (c) Calcined gypsum (d) Sea shells.
Answer: (c) Calcined gypsum
Question 4. TLe active constituent of bleaching powder is (a) Ca(OCl)2 (b) Ca(OCl)Cl (c) Ca(ClO2) (d) Ca(ClO2)Cl
Answer: (b) Ca(OCl)Cl
Question 5. Which of the following is the correct order of gradually decreasing basic nature of the oxides? (a) Al2O3, MgO, Cl2O7, SO3 (b) Cl2O7, SO3, Al2O3, MgO (c) SO3, Cl2O7, MgO, Al2O3 (d) MgO, Al2O3, SO3, Cl2O7
Answer: (d) MgO, Al2O3, SO3, Cl2O7
Question 6. Among the alkaline earth metals, the element forming the predominantly covalent compound is (a) Barium (b) Strontium (c) Calcium (d) Beryllium.
Answer: (d) Beryllium.
Question 7. Which of the following substances can be used for drying gases? (a) Calcium carbonate (b) Sodium carbonate (c) Sodium bicarbonate (d) Calcium oxide
Answer: (d) Calcium oxide
Question 8. The stability of the following alkali metal chlorides follows the order (a) LiCl > KCl > NaCl > CsCl (b) CsCl > KCl > NaCl > LiCl (c) NaCl > KCl > LiCl > CsCl (d) KCl > CsCl > NaCl > LiCl
Answer: (a) LiCl > KCl > NaCl > CsCl
Question 9. Solubility of carbonates decrease down the Magnesium group due to decrease in (a) Entropy of solution formation (b) Lattice energies of solids (c) Hydration energy of cations (d) Inter-ionic attraction.
Answer: (c) Hydration energy of cations
Question 10. In curing cement plasters, water is sprinkled from time to time. This helps in (a) Converting sand into silicic acid (b) Keeping it cool. (c) Developing interlocking like crystals of hydrated silicates (d) Hydrating sand and gravel mixed with cement.
Answer: (c) Developing interlocking like crystals of hydrated silicates
Question 11. Bleaching powder loses its power on keeping for a long time because (a) It changes into calcium hypochlorite (b) It changes into calcium chloride and calcium hydroxide (c) It absorbs moisture (d) It changes into calcium chloride and calcium chlorate
Answer: (d) It changes into calciumchloride and calcium chlorate
Question 12. A metal M readily forms water soluble sulphate MSO4, water insoluble hydroxide M(OH)2 and oxide MO which becomes inert on heating. The hydroxide is soluble in NaOH. The metal M is (a) Be (b) Mg (c) Ca (d) Sr
Answer: (a) Be
Question 13. KO2 (Potassium superoxide) is used in oxygen cylinders in space and submarines because it (a) Absorbs CO2 and increases O2 content (b) Eliminates moisture (c) Absorbs CO2 (d) Produces ozone
Answer: (a) Absorbs CO2 and increases O2 content
Question 14. Which one is used as an air purifier in space craft? (a) Quick lime (b) Slaked lime (c) Potassium superoxide (d) Anhydrous CaCl2
Answer: (c) Potassium superoxide
Question 15. The correct order of increasing ionic character is (a) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 < BaCl2 (b) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < BaCl2 < CaCl2 (c) BeCl2 < BaCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 (d) BaCl2 < CaCl2 < MgCl2 < BeCl2
In This Post we are providing Chapter-2 Hydrogen NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.
NCERT MCQON HYDROGEN
Question 1: Hydrogen accepts an electron to form inert gas configuration. In this it resembles
a) halogen
b) chalcogens
c) alkali metals
d) alkaline earth metals
Answer: halogen
Question 2: Which of the following statements is correct ?
a) It has oxidation number of –1 and +1
b) It will not be liberated at anode
c) Hydrogen has same electronegativity as halogens
d) Hydrogen has same IP as alkali metals
Answer: It has oxidation number of –1 and +1
Question 3: Why does H+ ion always get associated with other atoms or molecules?
a) Loss of an electron from hydrogen atom results in a nucleus of very small size as compared to other atoms or ions. Due to small size it cannot exist free.
b) It resembles both alkali metals and halogens
c) Its reactivity is similar to halogens
d) Ionisation enthalpy of hydrogen resembles that of alkali metals
Answer: Loss of an electron from hydrogen atom results in a nucleus of very small size as compared to other atoms or ions. Due to small size it cannot exist free.
Question 4: Which one of the following is not an isotope of hydrogen ?
a) Ortho hydrogen
b) Deuterium
c) None of these
d) Tritium
Answer: Ortho hydrogen
Question 5: Number of neutrons in three isotopes of hydrogen, protium, deuterium and tritium respectively is
a) 0, 1, 2
b) 2, 1, 0
c) 2, 0, 1
d) 1, 1,1
Answer: 0, 1, 2
Question 6: Hydrogen bond energy is equal to
a) 3-10 kcals
b) 3-7 cals
c) 30-70 cals
d) 30-70 kcals
Answer: 3-10 kcals
Question 7: Which of the following is formed when zinc reacts with sodium hydroxide?
a) Both
b) Sodium zincate
c) Hydrogen gas
d) None of these
Answer: Both
Question 8: Why is water gas (mixture of CO and H2) also called ‘syn gas’?
a) Because it is used in the synthesis of methanol and a number of hydrocarbons
b) None of these
c) Because it is synthesised from methane gas
d) Because it is synthesised from sewage, saw – dust, scrap wood etc.
Answer: Because it is used in the synthesis of methanol and a number of hydrocarbons
Question 9: Which one of the following pairs of substances on reaction will not evolve H2 gas?
a) Copper and HCl (aqueous)
b) Sodium and ethyl alcohol
c) Iron and steam
d) Iron and H2SO4 (aqueous)
Answer: Copper and HCl (aqueous)
Question 10: Which of the following metal evolves hydrogen on reacting with cold dilute HNO3 ?
a) Mg
b) Al
c) Fe
d) Cu
Answer: Mg
Question 11: Hydrogen is evolved by the action of cold dil. HNO3 on
a) Mn
b) Al
c) Fe
d) Cu
Answer: Mn
Question 12: In Bosch’s process which gas is utilized for the production of hydrogen gas ?
a) Water gas
b) None of these
c) Producer gas
d) Coal gas
Answer: Water gas
Question 13: Hydrogen is not obtained when zinc reacts with
a) Cold water
b) dil. HCl
c) Both
d) None of these
Answer: Cold water
Question 14: Which one of the following pairs of substances will not produce hydrogen when reacted together?
a) Copper and conc. nitric acid
b) Ethanol and metallic sodium
c) Magnesium and steam
d) Phenol and metallic sodium
Answer: Copper and conc. nitric acid
Question 15: Very pure hydrogen (99.9) can be made by which of the following processes ?
a) Reaction of salts like hydrides with water
b) Electrolysis of water
c) Mixing natural hydrocarbons of high molecular weight
d) Reaction of methane with steam
Answer: Reaction of salts like hydrides with water
In This Post we are providing Chapter-1 Redox Reactions NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.
NCERT MCQ ON REDOX REACTIONS
Question 1: The loss of electron is termed as
a) oxidation
b) reduction
c) combustion
d) neutralization
Answer: oxidation
Question 2: When a strip of metallic zinc is placed in an aqueous solution of copper nitrate the blue colour of the solution disappear due to formation of
a) Zn2+
b) Cus
c) ZnS
d) Cu2+
Answer: Zn2+
Question 3: The correct order of electron releasing tendency of the metals Cu, Zn and Ag is in the order
a) Zn > Cu > Ag
b) Zn > Ag > Cu
c) Cu > Zn > Ag
d) Ag > Zn > Cu
Answer: Zn > Cu > Ag
Question 4: What is the oxidation number of elements in the free or in the uncombined state ?
a) 0
b) –1
c) +1
d) +2
Answer:
Question 5: ‘Oxidation number of H in NaH, CaH2 and LiH, respectively is
a) –1,–1, –1
b) –1, +1, + 1
c) +1, +1, –1
d) +1, + 1, + 1
Answer: –1,–1, –1
Question 6: Which of the following is the correct representative of stock notation for auric chloride?
a) Au(III)Cl3
b) Au(II)Cl2
c) Au(I)Cl2
d) None of these
Answer: Au(III)Cl3
Question 7: Oxidation number of N in HNO3 is
a) + 5
b) + 3.5
c) – 3.5
d) –5
Answer: + 5
Question 8: The oxidation number of chromium in potassium dichromate is
a) + 6
b) – 5
c) – 2
d) + 2
Answer: + 6
Question 9: Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)4] is
a) –3
b) +3
c) +1
d) –1
Answer: –3
Question 10: Oxidation number of carbon in CH2Cl2 is
a) 0
b) –4
c) +4
d) –2
Answer:
Question 11: The oxidation state of osmium (Os) in OsO4 is
a) +8
b) +6
c) +7
d) +4
Answer: +8
Question 12: Which of the following transition metal has zero oxidation state ?
a) [Fe(CO)5]
b) NOClO4
c) NH2.NH2
d) CrO5
Answer: [Fe(CO)5]
Question 13: In which of the compounds does ‘manganese’ exhibit highest oxidation number ?
a) KMnO4
b) MnO2
c) Mn3O4
d) MnSO4
Answer: KMnO4
Question 14: A metal ion M3+ loses 3 electrons, its oxidation number will be
a) +6
b) –3
c) +3
d) 0
Answer: +6
Question 15: The correct name for NO2 using stock notation is
In This Post we are providing Chapter-7 Equilibrium NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.
NCERT MCQ ON EQUILIBRIUM
Question 1: The liquid which has a ____ vapour pressure is more volatile and has a_____boiling point.
a) Higher, lower
b) Higher , higher
c) Lower, lower
d) Lower, higher
Answer: Higher, lower
Question 2: Boiling point of the liquid depends on the atmospheric pressure. It depends on the altitude of the place; at high altitude the boiling point…………..
a) decreases
b) increases
c) either decreases or increases
d) remains same
Answer: decreases
Question 3: In an experiment three watch glasses containing separately 1mL each of acetone, ethyl alcohol, and water are exposed to atmosphere and the experiment with different volumes of the liquids in a warmer room is repeated, it is observed that in all such cases the liquid eventually disappears and the time taken for complete evaporation in each case was different. The possible reason is/are
a) All of the above
b) the temperature is different
c) the amount of the liquids is different
d) the nature of the liquids is different
Answer: All of the above
Question 4: A small amount of acetone is taken in a watch glass and it is kept open in atmosphere. Which statement is correct for the given experiment?
a) The rate of condensation from vapour to liquid state is much less than the rate of evaporation
b) The rate of condensation from vapour to liquid state is equal or less than the rate of evaporation.
c) The rate of condensation from vapour to liquid state is equal to the rate of evaporation
d) None of these
Answer: The rate of condensation from vapour to liquid state is much less than the rate of evaporation
Question 5: Reaction is said to be in equilibrium when
a) the rate of transformation of reactant to products is equal to the rate of transformation of products to the reactants.
b) 50% of the reactants are converted to products
c) the volume of reactants is just equal to the volume of the products
d) the reaction is near completion and all the reactants are converted to products
Answer: the rate of transformation of reactant to products is equal to the rate of transformation of products to the reactants.
Question 6: Which of the following is not true about a reversible reaction?
a) Number of moles of reactants and products is always equal
b) It can be attained only in a closed container
c) It cannot be influenced by a catalyst
d) The reaction does not proceed to completion
Answer: Number of moles of reactants and products is always equal
Question 7: If a system is at equilibrium, the rate of forward to the reverse reaction is
a) equal
b) less
c) high
d) at equilibrium
Answer: equal
Question 8: In a reversible chemical reaction having two reactants in equilibrium, if the concentration of the reactants are doubled then the equilibrium constant will
a) Remain the same
b) Be halved
c) Also be doubled
d) Become one-fourth
Answer: Remain the same
Question 9: Which one of the following information can be obtained on the basis of Le Chatelier principle?
a) Shift in equilibrium position on changing value of a constraint
b) Equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction
c) Entropy change in a reaction
d) Dissociation constant of a weak acid
Answer: Shift in equilibrium position on changing value of a constraint
Question 10: Suitable conditions for melting of ice
a) high temperature and high pressure
b) high temperature and low pressure
c) low temperature and low pressure
d) low temperature and high pressure
Answer: high temperature and high pressure
Question 11: In an equilibrium reaction if temperature increases
a) any of the above
b) no effect
c) equilibrium constant decreases
d) equilibrium constant increases
Answer: any of the above
Question 12: What happens when an inert gas is added to an equilibrium keeping volume unchanged?
a) More product will form
b) Less product will form
c) More reactant will form
d) Equilibrium will remain unchanged
Answer: More product will form
Question 13: Which of the following is/are electrolytes?
In This Post we are providing Chapter-6 Thermodynamics NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.
NCERT MCQ ON THERMODYNAMICS
Question 1. One gram of sample of NH4NO3 is decomposed in a bomb calorimeter. The temperature of the calorimeter increases by 6.12 K. The heat capacity of the system is 1.23 kj/deg. What is the molar heat of decomposition of NH4NO3? (a) -7.53 kj/mol (b) -398.1 kj mol-1 (c) -16.1 kj/mol (d) -602 kj/mol.
Answer: (d) -602 kj/mol.
Question 2. AHr of graphite is 0.23 kj/mol and ∆Hf for diamond is 1.896 kj mol-1, ∆Htransition from graphite to diamond is (a) 1.66 kj/mol (b) 2.1 kj/mol (c) 2.33 kj/mol (d) 1.5 kj/mol
Answer: (a) 1.66 kj/mol
Question 3. The bond energies of C-C, C=C; H-H and C-H linkages are 350, 600, 400 and 410 kj per mole respectively. The heat of hydrogenation of ethylene is (a) -170 kj mol-1 (b) -260 kj mol-1 (c) 400 kj mol-1 (d) -450 kj mol-1
Answer: (a) -170 kj mol-1
Question 4. Which of the following reaction defines ∆H0f? (a) C(Diamond) + O2(g) → CO2(g) (b) 12 H2(g) + 12 F2(g) → HF(g) (c) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) (d) CO(g) + 12 O2(g) → CO2(g)
Answer: (b) 12 H2(g) + 12 F2(g) → HF(g)
Question 5. One mole of a hon-ideal gas undergoes a change of state (2.0 atm, 3.0 L, 95 K) → (4.0 atm, 5.0 L, 245 K) with a change in internal energy, ∆U = 30.0 L atm. The change in enthalpy (∆H) of the process in L atm is (a) 44.0 (b) 42.3 (c) 44.0 (d) not defined because pressure is not constant.
Answer: (c) 44.0
Question 6. Which one of the following statement is false? (a) Work is a state function (b) Temperature is a state function (c) Change in the state is completely defined when the initial final states are specified (d) Work appears at the boundary of the system
Answer: (a) Work is a state function
Question 7. Molar heat capacity of water in equilibrium with ice at constant pressure is (a) zero (b) infinity (c) 40.45 kj K-1 mol-1 (d) 75.48 JK-1 mol-1
Answer: (b) infinity
Question 8. For the reaction C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(I) at constant temperature ∆H – ∆E is (a) + RT (b) – 3RT (c) + 3RT (d) -RT
Answer: (b) – 3RT
Question 9. For which one of the following equations AHreaction equals ∆H0f for the product? (a) N2(g) + O3(g) → N2O3(g) (b) CH4(g) + 2Cl2(g) → CH2Cl2(l) + 2HCl(g) (c) Xe(g) + 2F2(g) → XeF4(g) (d) 2C(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g)
Answer: (c) Xe(g) + 2F2(g) → XeF4(g)
Question 10. Enthalpy of CH4 + 12 O2 → CH3OH is negative. If enthalpy of combustion of CH4 and CH3OH are x and y respectively then which reaction is correct? (a) x > y (b) x < y (c) x = y (d) x ≥ y
Answer: (b) x < y
Question 11. The heat required to raise the temperature of a body by 1 K is called (a) Specific heat (b) Thermal capacity (c) Water equivalent (d) Molar heat capacity
Answer: (b) Thermal capacity
Question 12. In a reaction involving only solids and liquids, which of the following is true? (a) ∆H < ∆E (b) ∆H = ∆E (c) ∆H > ∆E (d) ∆H = ∆E + RT∆11
Answer: (b) ∆H = ∆E
Question 13. In which of the following process, the process is always non-feasible? (a) ∆H > 0, ∆S > 0 (b) ∆H < 0, ∆S > 0 (c) ∆H > 0, ∆S < 0 (d) ∆H < 0, ∆S < 0
Answer: (c) ∆H > 0, ∆S < 0
Question 14. Internal energy does not include (a) Nuclear energy (b) Vibrational energy (c) Rotational energy (d) Energy of gravitational pull
Answer: (d) Energy of gravitational pull
Question 15. Which of the following reactions is endothermic? (a) N2 + O2 → 2NO (b) H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl (c) H2SO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + 2H11O (d) None of these
In This Post we are providing Chapter-5 States of Matter NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.
NCERT MCQ ON STATES OF MATTER
Question 1. The vapor pressure of water at 300 K in a closed container is 0.4 atm. If the volume of container is doubled, its vapour pressure at 300 K will be (a) 0.8 atm (b) 0.2 atm (c) 0.4 atm (d) 0.6 atm
Answer: (c) 0.4 atm Explanation: Vapor pressure depends on T only and it does not depend on container volume.
Question 2. Name the liquid with higher vapor pressure in the following pairs: (a) Alcohol, glycerin (b) Petrol, kerosene (c) mercury, water. (a) Alcohol, Water, Petrol (b) Petrol, Water, Alcohol (c) Alcohol, Petrol, Water (d) None of these
Answer: (c) Alcohol, Petrol, Water Explanation: The vapour pressure of the liquid is inversely proportional to the magnitude of the intermolecular forces of attraction present. Based on this, the liquid with higher vapour pressure in the different pairs is: (a) Alcohol, (b) Petrol, (c) Water.
Question 3. The rate of diffusion methane is twice that of X. The molecular mass of X is (a) 64.0 (b) 32.0 (c) 40 (d) 80
Answer: (a) 64.0 Explanation: Let rate of diffusion of gas x, r1 = a Therefore, rate of diffusion of methane, r2 = 2 a According to Grahams Law of Diffusion (r1r2) = (M2M1−−−√) M1 = Molecular mass of gas x M2 = Molecular mass of Methane = 16 g Therefore, (a2a) = (16M2−−−√) Squaring both the sides, (14) = (16M2) or, M2 = 16 × 4 = 64 g
Question 4. The state of matter that shows the uniformity of behavior : (a) Solid Liquid (b) Liquid (c) Gas (d) None of the Above
Answer: (c) Gas Explanation: Of the three states of matter, the gaseous state is the simplest and shows greatest uniformity in behaviour. Gases show almost similar behaviour irrespective of their chemical nature. This state is characterized by: Gases maintain neither the volume nor the shape. They completely fill the container in which they are placed.
They expand appreciably on heating. Gases are highly compressible. The volume of the gas decreases when the pressure increases. They diffuse rapidly into space. Gases exert equal pressure in all directions. All gases are colourless except a few e.g. chlorine (greenish yellow) bromine (reddish brown), nitrogen dioxide (reddish brown)
The behaviour of gases can be described by certain quantitative relationships called gas laws. They give the relationship between mass, pressure, volume and temperature.
Question 5. A gas deviates from ideal behavior at a high pressure because its molecules: (a) Attract one another (b) Show the Tyndall Effect (c) Have kinetic energy (d) Are bound by covalent bonds
Answer: (a) Attract one another Explanation: The basic concept of the kinetic-molecular theory give us the information why real gases deviate from ideal behavior. The molecules of an ideal gas are assumed to occupy no space and have no attractions for one another. Real molecules, however, do have finite volumes, and they do attract one another. So, a gas deviates from ideal behavior at a high pressure because its molecules attract one another.
Question 6. The value of universal gas constant R depends on (a) Temperature of Gas (b) Volume of Gas (c) Number of Moles of Gas (d) Units of Volume, Temperature and Pressure
Answer: (d) Units of Volume, Temperature and Pressure Explanation: The value of the gas constant R depends on the units used for pressure, volume and temperature.
Question 7. The critical volumes of four gases A, B, C, D are respectively 0.025 L, 0.312 L, 0.245 L, 0.432 L, the gas with highest value of van der Wall constant b is (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
Question 8. Which of the following statement is wrong for gases? (a) Gases do not have definite shape and volume (b) Volume of the gas is equal to the volume of the container confining the gas (c) Confined gas exert uniform pressure on the wall of the container in all directions (d) Mass of the gas cannot be determined by weighing a container in which it is contained
Answer: (d) Mass of the gas cannot be determined by weighing a container in which it is contained Explanation: Mass of the gas = mass of the cylinder including gas – mass of empty cylinder. So mass of a gas can be determined by weighing the container in which it is enclosed. Thus, the statement (d) is wrong for gases.
Question 9. In van der Waal equation of state of gas laws, the constant b is a measure of (a) Intermolecular collisions per unit volume (b) Intermolecular attraction (c) Volume occupied by the molecules (d) Intermolecular repulsions
Answer: (c) Volume occupied by the molecules Explanation: In van der Waals equation of state of the gas law, the constant b is a measure of the volume occupied by the molecules. It gives the effective size of the gas molecules. The greater value of b indicates a larger size of the molecules and smaller compressible volume.
Question 10. The volume of 2.8 g of carbon monoxide at 27°C and 0.0821 atm is (a) 30 L (b) 3 L (c) 0.3 L (d) 1.5 L
Answer: (a) 30 L Explanation: According to the ideal gas equation, we have PV = nRT PV = (wM) RT V = (wM) (RTP) Given values are: w = 2.8 g M = Molar mass of CO = 28 g mol-1 T = 27°C = (273 + 27) = 300 K P = 0.821 atm R = 0.0821 L atm mol-1 K-1 Putting the values in the formula we get : V = (2.8 g /28 g mol-1) × (0.0821 L atm mol-1 K-1) × (300 K)/(0.821 atm) = 3 L
Question 11. If 20cm³ gas at 1 atm. is expanded to 50 cm³ at constant T, then what is the final pressure (a) 20 × 150 (b) 50 × 120 (c) 1 × 120 × 50 (d) None of these
Question 12. How many of the know elements exist as gases at 25°C? (a) 9 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 15
Answer: (b) 11
Question 13. The states of matter having no definite shape but definite volume: (a) Gas (b) Liquid (c) Solid (d) None of the Above
Answer: (b) Liquid Explanation: In a liquid, particles will flow or glide over one another, but stay toward the bottom of the container. The attractive forces between particles are strong enough to hold a specific volume but not strong enough to keep the molecules sliding over each other.
Question 14. The rise or fall of a liquid within a tube of small bore is called: (a) Surface Tension (b) Capillary Action (c) Viscosity (d) Formation of Curvature
Answer: (b) Capillary Action Explanation: Capillarity, rise or depression of a liquid in a small passage such as a tube of small cross-sectional area, like the spaces between the fibres of a towel or the openings in a porous material. Capillarity is not limited to the vertical direction. Water is drawn into the fibres of a towel, no matter how the towel is oriented.
Liquids that rise in small-bore tubes inserted into the liquid are said to wet the tube, whereas liquids that are depressed within thin tubes below the surface of the surrounding liquid do not wet the tube. Water is a liquid that wets glass capillary tubes; mercury is one that does not. When wetting does not occur, capillarity does not occur.
Capillarity is the result of surface, or interfacial, forces. The rise of water in a thin tube inserted in water is caused by forces of attraction between the molecules of water and the glass walls and among the molecules of water themselves. These attractive forces just balance the force of gravity of the column of water that has risen to a characteristic height. The narrower the bore of the capillary tube, the higher the water rises. Mercury, conversely, is depressed to a greater degree, the narrower the bore.
Question 15. The theory which explains that gases consist of molecules, which are in rapid option is known as: (a) Daltons Atomic Theory (b) Bohrs Theory (c) Rutherford’s Atomic Theory (d) Kinetic Molecular Theory
Answer: (d) Kinetic Molecular Theory Explanation: The kinetic molecular theory (KMT) is a simple microscopic model that effectively explains the gas laws described in previous modules of this chapter. This theory is based on the following five postulates described here. (Note: The term “molecule” will be used to refer to the individual chemical species that compose the gas, although some gases are composed of atomic species, for example, the noble gases.)
Gases are composed of molecules that are in continuous motion, travelling in straight lines and changing direction only when they collide with other molecules or with the walls of a container. The molecules composing the gas are negligibly small compared to the distances between them. The pressure exerted by a gas in a container results from collisions between the gas molecules and the container walls.
