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Short Answer Type Question:

Q.1 Discuss the formalities involved in getting an export licence.
ANSWER: The formalities involved in getting an export license are:

→ Opening a bank account in any bank authorised by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and getting an account number.
→ Obtaining Import Export Code (IEC) number from the Directorate General Foreign Trade (DGFT) or Regional Import Export Licensing Authority.
→ Registering with appropriate export promotion council.
→ Registering with Export Credit and Guarantee Corporation (ECGC) in order to safeguard against risks of non payments.

Q.2 Why is it necessary to get registered with an export promotion council?
ANSWER: It is necessary for firm to register with an export promotion council and obtain the registration-cum-membership certificate (RCMC). This enables the firm to take advantage of the benefits made available to export firms by the government. Export promotion councils carry out various promotional activities to create demand for domestically manufactured products in the international market. By joining appropriate export promotion council a firm can get support in the form of continuous promotion of its products.

Q.3 What is IEC number?

ANSWER: IEC number stands for Importer Exporter Code number is an unique number granted by the Directorate General for Foreign Trade (DGFT) to an import/export firm depending upon the firm’s credibility. It is needed to be filled in various export/import documents.

Q.4 What is pre-shipment finance?
ANSWER: Pre-shipment finance is the finance that the exporter needs for procuring raw materials and other components, processing and packing of goods and transportation of goods to the port of shipment.
Q.5 Why is it necessary for an export firm to go in for pre-shipment inspection?
ANSWER: Pre-shipment inspection is a compulsory step for inspection of certain products by a competent agency as designated by the government. The government has passed Export Quality Control andInspection Act, 1963 for this purpose. and has authorised some agencies to act as inspection agencies. If the product to be exported comes under such a category, the exporter needs to contact the Export Inspection Agency (EIA) or the other designated agency for obtaining inspection certificate.

Q.6 Discuss the procedure related to excise clearance of goods.
ANSWER: As per the Central Excise Tariff Act, excise duty is payable on the materials used in manufacturing goods. The exporter, therefore, has to apply to the concerned Excise Commissioner in the region with
an invoice. If the Excise Commissioner is satisfied, he may issue the excise clearance. But in many cases the government exempts payment of excise duty or later on refunds the excise duty paid. This is done in order to encourage exports. The refund of excise duty is known as duty drawback.

Q.7 Explain briefly the process of customs clearance of export goods.
ANSWER: The goods must be cleared from the customs before these can be loaded on the ship. For obtaining customs clearance, the exporter prepares the shipping bill that contains particulars of the goods being exported, the name of the vessel, the port at which goods are to be discharged, country of final destination, exporter’s name and address, etc. Five copies of the shipping bill along with the following documents are then submitted to the Customs Appraiser at the Customs House:• Export order
• Letter of credit
• Commercial invoice
• Certificate of origin
• Certificate of inspection, if necessary
• Marine insurance policy
After submission of these documents the superintendent of the concerned port trust is approached for carting order and after obtaining it, the Cargo is physically moved into the port area and stored in shed.

Q.8 What is bill of lading? How does it differ from bill of entry?
ANSWER: Bill of lading is a document wherein a shipping company gives its official receipt of the goods put on board its vessel and at the same time gives an undertaking to carry them to the port of destination.

It differ from bill of entry in following manner:

Bill of lading	Bill of entry
It is required at the time of an export transaction.	It is required at the time of an import transaction.
It is issued by the shipping company as a token of acceptance that the goods have been put on board in its vessel.	It is a form supplied by the customs office and filled by the importer once the goods are received.

Q.9 What is shipping bill?
ANSWER: The shipping bill is the main document on the basis of which customs office grants permission for the export. It contains particulars of the goods being exported, the name of the vessel, the port at which goods are to be discharged, country of final destination, exporter’s name and address, etc.
Q.10 Explain the meaning of mate’s receipt.
ANSWER: A mate receipt is a receipt issued by the commanding officer of the ship when the cargo is loaded on board, and contains the information about the name of the vessel, berth, date of shipment, description of packages, marks and numbers, condition of the cargo at the time of receipt on board the ship, etc.
Q.11 What is a letter of credit? Why does an exporter need this document?
ANSWER: A letter of credit is a guarantee issued by the importer’s bank that it will honour up to a certain amount the payment of export bills to the bank of the exporter. An exporter need this document as it is the most appropriate and secure method of payment adopted to settle international transactions.
Q.12 Discuss the process involved in securing payment for exports.
ANSWER: After the shipment of goods, the exporter informs the importer about the shipment of goods. The exporter sends the documents like certified copy of invoice, bill of lading, packing list, etc. needed by the importer to claim the title of goods on their arrival at his/her country and getting them customs cleared. These documents are sent through exporter’s banker with the instruction that these may be delivered to the importer after acceptance of the bill of exchange. The exporter’s bank receives the payment through the importer’s bank and is credited to the exporter’s account. The exporter can get immediate payment from his/ her bank on the submission of documents by signing a letter of indemnity. After receiving the payment for exports, the exporter needs to get a bank certificate of payment which states that the necessary documents relating to the particular export consignment have been presented to the importer for payment and the payment has been received in accordance with the exchange control regulations.

Q.13 Differentiate between the following
(i) Sight and usance drafts
(ii) Bill of lading and airway bill
(iii) Pre-shipment and post-shipment finance

ANSWER:

(i) Sight and usance drafts

Sight drafts	Usance drafts
Documents are handed over to the importer once he or she agrees to sign the draft.	Documents are handed over to the importer after the acceptance of the bill of exchange.
Payment is made at the time of issuing the draft.	Payment is made on the expiry of a specified period.

(ii) Bill of lading and airway bill

Bill of lading	Airway bill
Issued by shipping companies.	Issued by airline companies.
Goods are sent by ship.	Goods are sent by air.

(iii) Pre-shipment and post-shipment finance

Pre-shipment finance	Post-shipment finance
Credit is obtained before the shipment of goods.	Credit is obtained after the shipment of goods.
Used for purchasing raw materials to undertake production activities, packaging of goods and transporting goods to the port of shipment.	Used for financing activities from the date of receiving credit till payment is received from the importer.

Q.14 Explain the meaning of the following documents used in connection with import transactions
(i) trade enquiry (ii) Import licence (iii) Shipment of advice
(iv) Import general manifest (v) Bill of entry
ANSWER:
(i) trade enquiry: A trade enquiry is a written request by the importer to the exporter for supply of information regarding the price and various terms and conditions on which the importer is ready to exports goods.

(ii) Import licence: It is a licence which permits the import of goods that cannot be imported freely. In India, for obtaining an import licence, an importer requires an IEC (Importer Expert Code) number, which is obtained after the importer’s registration with the Directorate General for Foreign Trade (DGFT) or the Regional Import Export Licensing Authority.

(iii) Shipment of advice: The shipment advice is a document that the exporter sends to the importer informing him that the shipment of goods has been made. Shipment of advice contains invoice number, bill of lading/airways bill number and date, name of the vessel with date, the port of export, description of goods and quantity, band the date of sailing of the vessel.

(iv) Import general manifest: Import general manifest is a document that contains the details of the imported good. It is the document on the basis of which unloading of cargo takes place.

(v) Bill of entry: It is a form filled by the importer for assessment of custom import duty. It contains information such as the name and address of the importer, name of the ship in which the goods were transported and number of packages. The importer fills in the bill form and returns it to the customs office.

Q.15 List out major affiliated bodies of the World Bank

ANSWER: The major affiliated bodies of the world bank are:
• International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
• International Financial Corporation (IFC)
• International Development Association (IDA)
• Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA)
• International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID)

Q.16Write short notes on the following
(i) UNCTAD
(ii) MIGA
(iii) World Bank
(iv) ITPO
(v) IMF

ANSWER: (i) UNCTAD: The United Nation Conference on Trade and Development was established in 1964 with the objective of integrating the developing countries with the world economy through discussions. It undertakes activities such as collecting research and data for policy making and extending technical assistance to the less developed countries as per their requirements.
(ii) MIGA: The Multinational Investment Guarantee Agency, or MIGA , was established in April 1988 with the objective of encouraging foreign direct investment in the less developed countries. It aims at insuring investors against political and non-commercial risks, providing advisory services, etc.
(iii) World Bank: It is earlier known as International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) setup to assist the reconstruction of war -affected countries and to facilitate the development of the under-developed nations of the world. Now, the world bank turned its attention to
the development of underdeveloped nations. Apart from investing in infrastructure development, agriculture, health and industry, the World Bank is significantly involved in programmes to remove poverty, increasing the income of the poor and providing technological support.

(iv) ITPO: Indian Trade Promotion Organisation was setup on 1st January 1992 under the Companies Act 1956. Its main objective is to maintain close interactions among traders, industry and the government. In order to fulfil this objective, the ITPO organises trade fairs and exhibitions within and outside the country, thereby helping export firms to interact with international trade bodies.

(v) IMF: International Monetary Fund (IMF) came into existence in 1945 has its headquarters located in Washington DC. It aims at facilitating a system of international payments and adjustments in exchange rates among national currencies in order to bring about balanced growth at the international level and increase the levels of employment and income.

Long Answer Type Question:

Q.1 Rekha Garments has received an order to export 2000 men’s trousers to Swift Imports Ltd. located in Australia. Discuss the procedure that Rekha Garments would need to go through for executing the export order.
Answer:  Rekha Garments will have to adopt the following procedures given below to execute the export order.

• As the exporter, it should first assess the credit worthiness of the importer. Swift Imports, through an enquiry. It should then ask for a letter of credit from the importer’s bank, guaranteeing to honour a draft of a specified amount drawn on it by the exporter.
• Once Rekha Garments is assured that it will be paid for the goods, it will need to register itself and secure an Importer Exporter Code number in order to obtain an export license.
• After obtaining the license, it should acquire pre-shipment finance from a bank in order to purchase raw materials to undertake production and packaging.
• With the finance made available, Rekha Garments can procure the raw materials and other inputs required and start the production process.
• After the goods are produced, Rekha Garments must get them inspected before exporting them. For this inspection, it must contact the Export Inspection Agency (EIA) or another designated agency and obtain a certificate of inspection.
• The exporter then needs to secure excise clearance, for which it must submit an invoice to the regional excise commissioner. The excise commissioner then examines the invoice and, if satisfied, issues the excise clearance to the exporter.
• Once the excise clearance is received, Rekha Garments needs a certificate of origin, which specifies the country in which the goods are being produced. It allows the importer to claim tariff concessions and other exemptions, if any.
• The next step is for the exporter to submit an application to a shipping company for booking shipping space in a vessel. In the application, it must provide details such as the type of goods to be shipped and the port of destination. After the application is received, the shipping company will issue a shipping order to the captain of its ship to inform him or her that the specified goods will be received on board after the customs clearance.
• The goods are then properly packed and labelled with Ml the necessary information such as the importer’s name, port of destination, and gross and net weight of the goods.
• Once the goods are ready for export, Rekha Garments must insure the goods against perils of the sea or any related damage.
• It must then secure customs clearance before loading the goods on the ship. For getting customs clearance, the exporter must submit the necessary documents to the customs appraiser at Customs House.
• After customs clearance, a mate’s receipt will be issued by the captain or commanding officer of the ship to the exporter as evidence that the cargo has been loaded on the ship.
• Later, a bill of lading will have to be obtained from the shipping company as a token of acceptance that the goods have been put on board in its vessel.
• After the goods are shipped, an invoice will have to be prepared by the exporter, which will include the quantity of goods sent and the amount to be paid by the importer.
• The exporter then needs to send a set of documents to the banker, which is to be handed over to the importer on acceptance of a bill of exchange. After receiving the bill of exchange, the importer, Swift Imports, will instruct its bank to transfer money to the exporter’s bank account.
• Last, the exporter would be required to collect a bank certificate of payment, which will state that the necessary documents, along with the bill of exchange, have been presented to the importer for payment, and that the payment has been received in accordance with the exchange control regulations.

Q.2 Your firm is planning to import textile machinery from Canada. Describe the procedure involved in importing.
Answer:  In order to import textile machinery from Canada, the firm will have to take the following steps:

• The firm (the importer) should first make an enquiry about the price of the machinery, terms and conditions on which the selected Canadian exporter is willing to supply the goods and such related information. It should then send the trade enquiry to the exporter. On receipt of the trade enquiry, the exporter will prepare a quotation and send it to the importer.
• The importer must find out whether the goods to be imported are subject to import licensing. If needed, it must secure an import license.
• The firm must then convert domestic currency into foreign currency to make payment to the exporter. This is done by submitting an application to a bank in the prescribed form along with documents.
• Once the import license is obtained, the importer can place an order with the exporter specifying the price, quantity and quality of the goods required.
• The importer will be required to send a letter of credit to the Canadian exporter. This letter is obtained from the importer’s bank and acts as a bank guarantee that a draft of a specified amount drawn on it by the exporter will be honoured.
• The next step is for the importer to arrange for finance in order to make payment to the exporter on the arrival of the goods. This is necessary to avoid penalties on account of any delay in payment.
• Once the goods are shipped, the exporter will send a shipment advice to the importer. This document is proof of dispatch of the goods and contains information about the bill of lading, name of the vessel with date, port of export, description of goods, etc.
• The importer must then prepare a bill of exchange that is to be handed over to the exporter’s banker in exchange for the export documents. After this is done, the importer is required to instruct its bank to transfer money to the exporter’s bank account.
• An import general manifest will be issued by the person in charge of the carrier (ship or airliner) in which the goods are being imported. This is done in order to inform the officer in charge at the dock or the airport about the arrival of the goods. This document contains information about the goods being imported, and it is on the basis of this document that unloading of the cargo will take place.
• Once the goods arrive at the port, the importer must get customs clearance, which in turn requires a delivery order, a port duty dues receipt and a bill of entry.

Q.3 Discuss the principal documents used in exporting.
Answer:  The following documents are required for an export transaction:

• Export Invoice: It is a seller’s bill which contains information about the quantity of goods, total value of goods, number and marks of packaging, name of the ship, etc.
• Packing List: It includes information related to the goods that are packed, such as the number of items packed in one package, details of goods contained in one package, etc.
• Certificate of Origin: Certificate of Origin specifies the country in which the goods being exported were produced. It allows the importer to claim tariff concessions and other exemptions.
• Certificate of Inspection: Certificate of Inspection is proof that the goods being exported are of good quality. The exporter contacts the Export Inspection Agency (EIA) or another designated agency and obtains the certificate of inspection after getting the goods inspected.
• Mate’s Receipt: It is a receipt issued by the captain or commanding officer of a ship to an exporter as evidence that the exporter’s cargo has been loaded on the ship. It contains information about the name of the vessel, berth, date of shipment, condition of the cargo when the goods were loaded, description of packages of the cargo, number of packages, marks on the packages, etc.
• Shipping Bill: It contains information regarding the specifications of the goods for export, such as the name of the vessel, port at which the goods are to be discharged, country of final destination and exporter’s name and address. This document forms an essential part of an export transaction as it is on the basis of this document that customs grants clearance to the export.
• Bill of Lading: Bill of lading is an essential document required for an export transaction. It is issued by the shipping company concerned as a token of acceptance that the goods have been put on board in its vessel. A bill of lading is an undertaking signed by the shipping company to transfer the goods to the port of destination. Bills of Lading are freely transferable.
• Airway Bill: It is issued by an airline as a token of acceptance that the goods for export have been put on board its aircraft.
• Marine Insurance Policy: Marine Insurance Policy is an insurance contract under which the insurance company concerned, in return for a premium, agrees to pay an exporter a specified amount in case of loss of goods or damage caused during transport by sea.
• Cart Ticket: Also known as a cart chit or a gate pass is prepared by an exporter and includes information about the exporter’s cargo.
• Letter of Credit: Letter of Credit is issued by the bank of an importer guaranteeing to honour a draft of a specified amount drawn on it by the exporter. A letter of credit enables the exporter to assess the creditworthiness of the importer and is the most appropriate and secure method of payment for settling international transactions.
• Bill of Exchange: Bill .of Exchange indicates the amount that an importer must pay to the bearer of the bill. On receiving a bill of exchange, the importer instructs its bank to transfer the amount to the exporter’s bank account.
• Bank Certificate of Payment: Bank Certificate of Payment indicates that the necessary documents, along with the bill of exchange, have been presented to the importer, and that payment from the importer has been received in accordance with the exchange control regulations.

Q.4 List and explain various incentives and schemes that the government has evolved for promoting the country’s foreign trade.
Answer:  The following are some of the schemes and incentives adopted by the government to promote exports:

• Duty Drawback Scheme: Under the duty drawback scheme, exporters are either exempted from payment of excise duties or are refunded a certain percentage of the excise duty paid earlier. In case where inputs are used for export production, the custom duties paid on import of raw material and machines are refunded.
• Export Manufacturing under the Bond Scheme: This bond scheme enables exporters to undertake production of goods meant for exports without paying excise or other duties. In order to avail themselves of this scheme, exporters must sign an undertaking that the goods produced are meant only for exports and not for domestic consumption.
• Exemptions from Payment of Sales Tax: The goods that are meant for imports are not subjected to sales tax. The income earned by exporters (only those who run 100 per cent export-oriented units or units in export processing zones and special economic zones) from the export of goods is exempted from payment of income tax.
• Advance License Scheme: Advance License Scheme allows exporters to use inputs (those that are domestically produced or imported) without the payment of any duties. In addition, the scheme exempts exporters from paying custom duties in cases where the imported inputs are used for manufacturing goods meant for exports.
• Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) Scheme: The EPCG Scheme promotes the import of goods for the production of export goods. Under the scheme, exporters are allowed to import goods at concessional rates of custom duties. However, to avail themselves of this scheme, exporters must fulfill certain export obligations stated under the scheme. ‘
• Scheme of Recognizing Export House, Trading House and Superstar Trading House: This scheme aims at facilitating well-established trading houses to market their products globally. Under the scheme, selected exporting firms are given the status of export house, trading house and star trading house by the government. This status is given on the basis of the past export performances of export firms.

Q.5 Identify various organizations that have been set up in the country by the government for promoting country’s foreign trade.
Answer:  In order to promote foreign trade, the Government has set up the following institutions:

• Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT): Established in 1963 under the Societies Registration Act, the IIFT is an autonomous body responsible for the management of the country’s foreign trade. It is also a deemed university that provides training
  in international trade, conducts research in areas of international business and disseminates data related to international trade.
• Export Inspection Council (EIC): The EIC was established by the Government of India under Section 3 of the Export Quality Control and Inspection Act, 1963, with the objective of promoting exports through quality control and pre-shipment inspections. According to this act, all goods that are meant for exports (except some commodities) must pass through the EIC for quality inspection.
• Indian Institute of Packaging (IIP): The IIP is a training and research institute established in 1966 by the joint efforts of the Ministry of Commerce of the Government of India, Indian Packaging Industry and Allied Industries. The institute caters to the packaging needs of domestic manufacturers and exporters.
• Indian Trade Promotion Organisation (ITPO): The ITPO was formed on January 1, 1992, under the Companies Act, 1956. Its main objective is to maintain close interactions among traders, industry and the government. In order to fulfill this objective, the ITPO organizes trade fairs and exhibitions within and outside the country, thereby helping export firms to interact with international trade bodies.
• Department of Commerce: The Department of Commerce is the apex body in the Ministry of Commerce of the Government of India and is responsible for formulating policies related to foreign trade as well as evolving import and export policies for the country. It is responsible for all matters related to the country’s external trade.
• Export Promotion Councils (EPCs): Registered under the Companies Act or the Societies Registration Act, EPCs are non-profit organizations that are responsible for promoting the exports of particular products. However, the product promoted by a particular EPC must fall under its jurisdiction.

Q.6 What is World Bank? Discuss its various objectives and role of its affiliated agencies.
Answer:  The World Bank is an International Financial Institution that was established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference.
The following are some of the main objectives behind the setting up of the World Bank:

1. To facilitate the task of reconstruction of the war-affected European countries.
2. To focus on the development of underdeveloped nations of the world.
3. To encourage investments in infrastructure development, agriculture, health and industry;
4. To eradicate poverty, increase the income of the poor and provide technological support.

The following are some of the affiliates of the World Bank:

1.  MIGA: MIGA, or the Multinational Investment Guarantee Agency, was established in April 1988 with the objective of encouraging foreign direct investments in the less developed nations of the world. It also aims at insuring investors against political and non-commercial risks and providing advisory services.
2. IFC: The IFC, or the International Finance Corporation, was formed in 1956 as a separate legal entity to provide finance to the private sector in developing nations. Although the IFC is an affiliate of the World Bank, it has its own funding, besides functions that are managed independently.
3. IDA: The IDA, or the International Development Association, was established in 1960 with the affiliation to the World Bank. The basic objective of the association is to provide loans and grants on a soft-loan basis to the less developed member countries—it aims at providing loans at concessional rates to the member countries
   whose per capita income is very low. It is because of this objective that the IDA is also known as the World Bank’s soft-loan window.

Q.7 What is IMF? Discuss its .various objectives and functions.
Answer:  The IMF, or the International Monetary Fund, came into existence in 1945 with the objective of establishing a healthy and orderly monetary system. It aimed at facilitating a system of international payments and taking care of the adjustments in exchange rates among national currencies. It is one of the three international institutions—the other two being the World Bank and the International Trade Organization—that were created for facilitating and monitoring the economic development of the world.
Objectives of the IMF

1. To aid the balanced growth of international trade and market, thereby promoting the growth of employment and income;
2. To promote international monetary cooperation among the member countries;
3. To facilitate the orderly exchange of goods between the member countries;
4. To facilitate international payments with respect to the exchange transactions between the member countries.

Functions of the IMF

1. Providing short-term credit to member countries;
2. Maintaining stability in the exchange rate of the member countries;
3. Fixing and altering the value of a country’s currency whenever required, to facilitate the adjustment of exchange rate of member countries;
4. Collecting the currencies of member countries so as to allow them to borrow the currency of other nations;
5. Lending foreign currency to member nations and facilitating international payments with respect to the exchange transactions between member countries.

Q.8 Write a detailed note on features, structure, objectives and functioning of WTO.
Answer:  Features of the WTO (World Trade Organisation):

1. It governs trade in goods, services and intellectual property rights among the member countries.
2. It is a body created by an international treaty with the approval of the governments and legislatures of the member states.
3. The decisions of the WTO are made by the governments of the member nations on the basis of consensus.

Structure of the WTO
On January 1, 1995, the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was transformed into the WTO to facilitate international trade among the member countries. The WTO was made much more powerful than GATT, by removing tariff and non-tariff barriers between the member nations. It is a permanent body created by an international treaty and represents the implementation of the original proposal of the ITO.
Objectives of the WTO

1. Reducing tariff and other non-trade barriers imposed by different nations;
2. Ensuring sustainable development by optimally using the world resources;
3. Developing a more integrated, feasible and stable trading system.

Functions of the WTO

1. Providing an environment to the member countries such that they can put forward their grievances before the WTO without any hesitation;
2. Resolving trade disputes among member nations;
3. Eliminating discriminations in trade relations by laying down a commonly accepted code of conduct;
4. Creating better understanding between member countries by consulting with the IMF, the World Bank and other affiliates.

Short Answer Type Question:

Q.1 Differentiate between international trade and international business.
ANSWER:

International trade	International business
International trade refers to the exchange of goods and services across the international boundaries of countries.	International business not only includes movement of capital, of goods and services, but also of capital, personnel, technology and intellectual property like patents, trademarks, know-how and copyrights.
International trade means movements of goods only.	Business transaction that takes place between two or more countries is known as international business.
International trade is a narrow term.	International business is much broader than international trade.

Q.2 Discuss any three advantages of international business.
ANSWER: Three advantages of international business are:
→ Earning of foreign exchange: International business helps a country to earn foreign exchange which it can later use for meeting its imports of capital goods, technology, petroleum products and fertilisers, pharmaceutical products and a host of other consumer products which otherwise might not be available domestically.
→ More efficient use of resources: International business allows a country to produce what a country can produce more efficiently and trade the surplus production so generated with other countries to procure what they can produce more efficiently.

→ Improving growth prospects and employment potentials: International business encourages many countries, especially the developing ones to produce on a larger scale which not only helps in improving their growth prospects, but also created opportunities for employment of people living in these countries.

Q.3 What is the major reason underlying trade between nations?

ANSWER: The major reason underlying trade between nations are:
→ Unequal distribution of natural resources among different nations.
→ Availability of various factors of production such as labour, capital and raw materials that are required for producing different goods and services differ among nations.
→ Labour productivity and production costs differ among nations due to various socio-economic, geographical and political reasons.

Q.4 Discuss as to why nations trade.

ANSWER: The nations cannot produce equally well or cheaply all that they need because of the unequal distribution of natural resources and various other factors such as labour productivity and production costs. Therefore, some countries are in an advantageous position in producing select goods and services which other countries cannot produce that effectively and efficiently, and vice-versa and procuring the rest through trade with other countries which the other countries can produce at lower costs.

Q.5 Enumerate limitations of contract manufacturing.
ANSWER: The limitations of contract manufacturing are:

→ Local firms might not adhere to production design and quality standards, thus causing serious product quality problems to the international firm.

→  Local manufacturer in the foreign country loses his control over the manufacturing process because goods are produced strictly as per the terms and specifications of the contract.

The profitability of local firm producing under contract manufacturing is low as it is not free to sell the contracted output as per its will. It has to sell the goods to the international company at prices agreed upon under the contract which may be lower than the open market prices.
Q.6 Why is it said that licensing is an easier way to expand globally?
ANSWER: Licensing is an easier way to expand globally because:

→ Under the licensing system, it is the licensor who sets up the business unit and invests his/her own money in the business and the licensor has to virtually make no investments abroad. Therefore, it is considered a less expensive mode of entering into international business.

→ Since the business in the foreign country is managed by the licensee who is a local person, there are lower risks of business takeovers or government interventions.

→ Licensee being a local person has greater market knowledge and contacts which can prove quite helpful to the licensor in successfully conducting its marketing operations.
Q.7 Differentiate between contract manufacturing and setting up wholly owned production subsidiary abroad.

ANSWER:

Contract manufacturing	Wholly owned production subsidiary
A firm enters into a contract with one or a few local manufacturers in foreign countries to get certain components or goods produced as per its specifications.	The parent company acquires full control over the foreign company by making 100 per cent investment in its equity capital.
The firm has limited control over the local manufacturer.	The parent company has full control over its operations in another country through the subsidiary.
There is no or little investment in the foreign countries	The parent company buys up the entire equity of the firm abroad and makes this firm its subsidiary.

Q.8 Distinguish between licensing and franchising.
ANSWER:

Licensing	Franchising
The licensor grants licence to a foreign company (licensee) to produce and sell goods under the licensor’s logo and trademarks for a fee.	The franchiser grants a foreign firm (franchisee) the right to operate a business using a common brand name for an initial or a regular fee.
Operations are related to production and marketing of goods.	Operations are related to the services business.
Less stringent rules and regulations	Strict rules and regulations

Q.9 List major items of India’s exports.
ANSWER: The major items of India’s exports are Tea, Basmati rice, Spices, Leather and leather products and Semi-precious stones.
Q.10 What are the major items that are exported from India?

Answer:
The major items that  are exported from India are tea, pearls, precious and semi-precious stones,medicinal and pharmaceutical products, rice, spices, iron ore and concentrates, leather and leather manufactures, textile yarns fabrics, garments and tobacco. It also holds the distinct position of being the largest exporter in the world in select commodities such as basmati rice, tea, and ayurvedic products
Q.11 List the major countries with whom India trades.
ANSWER: The major countries with whom India trades are USA, UK, Belgium, Germany, Japan, Switzerland, Hong Kong, UAE, China, Singapore and Malaysia.

Long Answer Type Question:

Q.1 What is international business? How is it different from domestic business?
Answer:  International business refers to business which is carried on in two or more nations. It means carrying on business activities beyond national boundaries. These activities normally include the transaction of economic resources such as goods, capital, services (comprising technology, skilled labour, and transportation, etc.), and international production. It refers to that business activity that takes place beyond the geographical limits of a country. Production may either involve production of physical goods or provision of services like banking, finance, insurance, construction, trading, and so on. Thus, international business includes not only international trade of goods and services but also foreign investment, especially foreign direct investment.
Differences between International Business and Domestic Business are summarised below:

Q.2“International business is more than international trade”. Comment.
Answer:  It is rightly said that international business is more than international trade. The scope of international business is much wider than international trade. International trade means exports and imports of goods which is an important component of international business but international business includes much more than this. International trade in services like travel and tourism, transportation, communication, banking, warehousing, distribution and advertising is a part of international business. International business also includes foreign direct investments, contract manufacturing, and setting up wholly owned subsidiaries etc. which are not included in international trade. It is clear from the diagram given below:

Q.3 What benefits do firms derive by entering into international business?
Answer:  The trade between two or more nations is termed as foreign trade or international trade. It involves exchange of goods and services between the trades of two countries. Foreign trade consists of import trade, export trade and entrepot trade. In the early stages of human civilization, production was confined as per consumption. Human wants were limited. Nowadays, human wants are increasing and as such no man was considered to be self-dependent. Like this no country can live in isolation and claimed the status to be self-sufficient. Because of this reason countries have trade relationships with each other. The primary objective of foreign trade is to increase foreign trade and increase the standard of living of its people. There is an increasing demand for foreign trade because of the following reasons:

1. The natural resources are unevenly distributed.
2. The presence of specialisation and division of labour.
3. Different countries have difference in economic growth rate.
4. The presence of the theory of comparative cost.
   The following are some of the advantages of foreign trade:

1. Optimum use of Resources: Foreign trade helps in the optimum use of natural resources and avoids wastages of resources.
2. Stable Price: It ensures the presence of stable price by avoiding wide fluctuations in prices. It tries to equalise the world price.
3. Availability of all types of goods: It enables a country to import those goods which it cannot produce.
4. Increased Standard of living: It ensures more production to meet the demand of the people of different countries. By increased production, it becomes possible to increase income and the standard of living of its people. It also increases the standard of living by increasing more employment opportunities.
5. Large Scale production: It ensures large production because the production is carried on to meet the demand of its people as well as world market. Large scale production also ensures a great deal of internal economies which reduces the cost of production.

Q.4 In what ways is exporting a better way of entering into international markets than setting up wholly owned subsidiaries abroad.
Answer:  Exporting is a better way of entering into international markets than setting up wholly owned subsidiaries abroad in following ways:

1. Easiest Way: It is easy to enter international markets through exports as compared to wholly owned subsidiaries.
2. Less Involving: It is less involving as compared to establishing a wholly owned subsidiary because firms need not invest that much time and money.
3. Zero risk of Foreign Investment: Exporting does not require much of investment in foreign countries. Therefore, foreign investments risks are low as compared to when a firm starts its wholly owned subsidiary in foreign country.
4. Less Costly: In a wholly owned subsidiary, 100% equity investment is to be made by foreign company. Therefore, small and medium size producers can’t think of this mode of entering into international business.
5. Risk of Profit and Loss: In wholly owned subsidiary, 100% equity capital is contributed by foreign company alone. Therefore, it alone has to bear the risk of losses.
6. Government Intervention: Some countries are averse to setting up of 100% wholly owned subsidiaries by foreign companies. This form of business operations is subject to high degree of political risks.

Q.5 Discuss briefly the factors that govern the choice of mode of entry into international business.
Answer:  Following factors govern the choice of mode of entry into international business,

1. Ease of entry: First and foremost factor that determines the choice of mode of entry into international business is ease of entry. A businessman wants to adopt such mode of entry into international business which is easy and less formalities requiring. Exporting, importing, licensing and franchising are better ways from this perspective.
2. Cost: Second determining factor is cost involved. For example, very less cost is involved in exporting, importing, licensing, franchising and contract manufacturing as compared to joint ventures and setting wholly owned subsidiaries.
3. Control over production: If the foreign company or producer wants full control over production activities in local country, he will prefer franchising, wholly owned subsidiary or joint venture with majority share holding. If it is not so important, he will prefer exporting, importing, contract manufacturing licensing etc.
4. Sharing of Technology: If the company has no problem in sharing of technology then it may choose joint venture or franchising. But if it does not want to share its technology and trade secrets, it will prefer wholly owned subsidiary or exporting,
5. Risk Involved: If a firm is ready to take risk, it may choose wholly owned subsidiary or joint ventures but if it is willing to minimize its loss then it should choose exporting, licensing, franchising or contract manufacturing.

Q.6 Discuss the major trends in India’s foreign trade. Also list the major products that India trades with other countries.
Answer:  India is 10th largest economy in the world. It is the second fastest growing economy, next only to China. But India’s performance in international business is not very good. India’s share in world trade in 2003 was just 0.8%. In absolute terms, there has been significant increase in imports as well as exports. Total exports have increased from 606 crores in 1950-51 to Rs. 2, 93,367 crores in 2003-04 while imports have increased from 608 crores in 1950-51 to 3, 59,108 crores in 2003-04. Exports increased 480 times while imports increased 590 times indicating that there is adverse balance of trade. India’s major trading partners are USA, UK, Germany, Japan, Belgium, Hong Kong, UAE, China, Switzerland, Singapore and Malaysia.
India’s major items of exports include: Textiles, garments, gems and jewellery, engineering products and chemicals, agriculture and allied products.
India’s major items of imports include: Crude oil and petroleum products, capital goods, electronic goods, pearls, precious and semi precious stones, gold, silver and chemicals.
Before 1991, promotion of import substitution and discouraging of exports was government strategy. Imports consisted of machinery, equipment and intermediates in production, petroleum and petroleum-products. After green revolution, imports of fertilizer too increased.
Before 1991, India’s exports consisted of agricultural products like tea, raw cotton with the diversifying industrial structure, promoted by import substitution, exports of manufactures were growing. During 1986-91, external trade formed only 13.40 % of the GDP. During the 1990-2000, this share is rising continuously.
India’s foreign trade has grown to exports of $250 billion and imports of $380 billion in 2010-11. The ratio of exports plus imports to GDP has grown from 13.40 % during 1985-90 to almost three times that, being 37.7 % in 2010-11. On adding services it becomes from 22.9 % in the 1990s to 49.0 % in 2010-11.
Leading role has been played by ‘invisibles’ which includes both services, mainly software services, export of which has grown to $59 billion in 2010-11. It has decreased the current account deficit from $130 billion to $44. This deficit was compensated by capital account surplus of $59 billion in that year.
But it is only because of IT services and we are still lacking in manufacturing exports which can generate a large volume of employment. We have not done as well as China and Malaysia have done.

Q.7 What is invisible trade? Discuss salient aspects of India’s trade in services.
Answer:  Trade in services is called invisible trade. Since services are invisible, export and import of services has been named as invisible trade. In absolute terms, there has been significant increase in India’s foreign trade in services. Export and import of foreign travel, transportation and insurance has largely increased during last four decades. There has been a change in composition of services exports. Software and other miscellaneous services have emerged as the main categories of India’s export of services. Share of travel and transportation has declined to 29.6% in 2003-04 from 64.3% in 1995-96 while the share of software exports has increased from 10.2% in 1995-96 to 49% in 2003-04.

The composition of India’s external trade has been changing. During 1950s and 60s exports were mainly of primary goods. Over time, the role of engineering goods has been increasing. Overall manufactured goods constitute 66 % of total exports, of which engineering goods are 27%. Textiles and textile products, garments and leather products make around 10 % of India’s exports.
In nutshell, we can say that the role of the external or internationally traded goods sector has been growing steadily in Indian economy. At present imports and exports together account for upto 49 % of India’s GDP which was 18% in 1990s. In India there is greater share of exports of services which are IT software services, called IT- enabled services (ITES). It contributed more than 20% of India’s export earnings. India accounts for about 45% of the world’s BPO services. The major Indian IT companies, TCS, Infosys and Wipro, initiated and perfected the Global Services Delivery (GSD) model. It is because India has a vast pool of software engineers and an even bigger pool of English-knowing staff. With growing competition in the market for such services, Indian companies have moved from BPO to Knowledge Process Outsourcing (KPO), which involves providing services for R and D and to high-end consulting.

Short answer Type Question

Q.1 What is meant by internal trade?

Answer: Buying and selling of goods and services within the boundaries of a nation are referred to as internal trade. Purchases of goods from a local shop, a mall or an exhibition are all examples of internal trade.No custom duty or import duty is levied on these goods and services. It can be classified into two broad categories: wholesale trade and retailing trade.

Q.2 Specify the characteristics of fixed shop retailers.

Answer: The characteristics of fixed shop retailers are:
→ They have greater resources and operate at a relatively large scale as compared with the itinerant traders.
→ These retailers deal in different products, including consumer durables as well as non-durables.
→ They have greater credibility in the minds of customers.
→ They are in a position to provide greater services to the customers such as home delivery, repairs, credit facilities etc.

Q.3 What purpose is served by wholesalers providing warehousing facilities?
Answer: Two purpose is served by wholesalers providing warehousing facilities in following ways: → Wholesalers reduces the burden of manufacturers of providing for storage facilities for the finished products. Warehousing by wholesalers also relieves the retailers of the work of collecting goods from several producers and keeping big inventory of the same for maintaining adequate stock of varied commodities for the customers.
Q.4 How does market information provided by the wholesalers benefit the manufacturers?
Answer: As the wholesalers are in direct contact with the retailers, they provide information and advice the manufacturers about various aspects including customer’s tastes and p.references, market conditions, competitive activities and the features preferred by the buyers. This information helps manufacturers to cater to the changing needs of consumers.

Q.5 How does the wholesaler help the manufacturer in availing the economies of scale?

Answer: Wholesalers collect small orders from a number of retailers and pass on the pool of such orders to the manufacturers and make purchases in bulk quantities. This enables the producers to undertake production on a large scale and take advantage of the economies of scale.

Q.6 Distinguish between single line stores and speciality stores. Can you identify such stores in your locality?

Answer:

Single-line stores	Speciality stores
These are small shops that deal in only one product for example, garments or electronics.	These stores deal only in a particular type of product from a selected product line for example, men’s clothing.
These stores offer a wide variety of the product.	These stores generally sell all the brands of the product in which they specialise.
For example: If a store that deals in garments will have a wide variety of clothes in all sizes for men, women and children.	For example, if a store specializes in men’s clothing, then it will have all the brands of men’s garments.

On the basis of these features, we can identify the different types of stores in a locality whether they are single-line stores or speciality stores.

Q.7 How would you differentiate between street traders and street shops?

Answer:

Street traders	Street shops
Small retailers who generally sell low-priced consumer items on streets.	Shops situated on street sides or main roads.
Do not have permanent shops.	These stores generally sell all the brands of the product in which they specialise.
Stationery items, eatables, newspapers, etc.	Clothes, shoes, grocery items, bakery items, etc.

Q.8 Explain the services offered by wholesalers to manufacturers.

Answer: The services offered by wholesalers to manufacturers are:

→ Facilitating large scale production: Wholesalers purchase goods in bulk from manufacturers and sell them to retailers in small quantities for further resale. This enables the producers to undertake production on a large scale.

→ Bearing risk: The wholesalers deal in goods in their own name, take delivery of the goods and keep them in their warehouses bearing risks of fall in prices, theft, spoilage, fire, etc.
→ Financial assistance: The wholesalers provide financial assistance to the manufacturers in the sense that they generally make cash payment for the goods purchased by them.

→ Expert advice: Wholesalers can advice the manufacturers about various aspects like customer’s tastes and preferences, market conditions, competitive activities and the features preferred by the buyers as they are in touch with retailers.
→ Help in marketing function: The wholesalers take care of the distribution of goods to a number ofretailers who, in turn, sell these goods to a large number of customers spread over a large geographical area.
→  Facilitate production continuity: The wholesalers facilitate continuity of production activity throughout the year by purchasing the goods as and when these are produced.
→ Storage: Wholesalers take delivery of goods when these are produced in factory and keep them in their godowns/warehouses.

Q.9 What are the services offered by retailers to wholesalers and consumers?
Answer: The services offered by retailers to wholesalers are:
→ Help in distribution of goods
→ Personal Selling
→ Enabling large scale operations
→ Collecting market information
→ Help in promotion of goods and services
The services offered by retailers to consumers are:→ Regular availability of products
→ New product information
→ Convenience of buying
→ Trade selection
→ After sales service
→ Credit facilities

Long Answer Type Question:

Q.1 Itinerant traders have been an integral part of internal trade in India. Analyse the reasons for their survival in spite of competition from large scale retailers.
Answer:  Itinerant traders are retailers who do not have a fixed place of operation. That is, they do not have a shop from where they sell their products. They are also known as mobile traders as they keep moving from place to place in order to sell their products. They are generally found on street sides, and they shift their place of operation in search of more customers. They usually sell low-priced and non-standard goods.
The reasons that itinerant traders survive in spite of the tough competition from large-scale retailers can be attributed to the following factors:

1. It is very easy to set up a small scale retail shop. One person with limited funds himself can start business. He need not associate other persons and no formalities are necessary.
2. A small scale retail shop can be located anywhere. It can provide goods of daily use near the place of consumers. They are not required to travel to big markets.
3. The small scale retailer knows his customers. He can attend to them personally and cater to their individual tastes and needs. Such personalised service is not available in large scale retail stores.
4. Small scale retailers cater to the masses that have limited income and can afford to buy small quantity. In India majority of the population is poor.
5. It is easy to manage and control a small sale retail shop. The owner himself is the manager. He has direct motivation to work hard and increase the efficiency of business. He takes personal interest in his business organisations.
6. Small amount of capital is required to start a small retail shop. People with small amount of funds can start retail business on a small scale.

Q.2 Discuss the features of a departmental store. How are they different from multiple shops or chain stores?
Answer:  Departmental stores are basically large, fixed establishments that deal in a wide variety of products. The following points highlight the features of a departmental store:

1. Central locations: Department stores are generally located in central areas so as to attract a large number of customers.
2. Defined hierarchy: The management in departmental stores follows the same hierarchy that is generally followed in any joint stock company. That is, the top management consists of a board of directors, with the managing director, the general manager and the department managers under it in that order.
3. Absence of middlemen: Departmental stores purchase goods directly from manufacturers and sell them to customers. Thus, they eliminate the role of middlemen.
4. Centralised purchase with decentralised sales: In a departmental store, the purchases from manufacturers are handled by a single division that follows a centralised purchase policy. On the other hand, the sales are handled by the respective sections of the departmental store, which follow a decentralised policy for sales.
   Differences between Departmental stores and Multiple shops
   

Q.3 Why are consumers cooperative stores considered to be less expensive? What are its relative advantages over other large scale retailers?
Answer:  Consumer cooperative stores are formed by groups of consumers to provide goods at reasonable prices to members of consumer societies. In such societies, the role of middlemen is eliminated as these societies purchase goods from manufacturers or wholesalers directly and sell them to society members at reasonable rates. As consumer cooperative stores do not aim at profit-making, the prices of goods offered by them are much lower than the prices of goods at retail shops. Compared with large-scale retailers, the capital requirement for starting a consumer cooperative society is very low. Thus, consumer cooperative stores do not require much investment, and the goods sold by them are priced lower.
The following are some advantages that consumer cooperative stores have over large- scale retailers:

1. Democratic management: Consumer cooperative stores are democratic organisations as they are managed and controlled by elected managing committees of consumer societies. The members of managing committees are elected by the members of consumer societies on the principle of ‘one member, one vote’.
2. Limited liability: The liability of the members of consumer cooperative societies is limited to the amount of shares held by them. Thus, in case a society’s liabilities increase beyond the assets, the members will not be liable to repay the debts using their personal assets.
3. Low price of goods: As the goods offered by consumer cooperatives are directly purchased from manufacturers and wholesalers, the role of middlemen is eliminated. Therefore, consumer societies are able to sell goods at lower prices.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-20 Locomotion and Movement NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT

Question 1 : Which of the following is the contractile protein of a muscle?

• a) Myosin
• b) Tropomyosin
• c) Tropomyosin
• d) Actin

Answer : Myosin

Question 2 : Myofibrils are made up of

• a) All the above components
• b) Actin and tropomyosin
• c) Myosin and actin
• d) Myosin and troponin

Answer : All the above components

Question 3 :  The number of floating ribs, in the human body, is

• a) 2 pairs
• b) 5 pairs
• c) 6 pairs
• d) 3 pairs

Answer : 2 pairs

Question 4 : Synovial fluid is found in

• a) freely movable joints
• b) spinal cavity
• c) cranial cavity
• d) immovable joints

Answer : freely movable joints

Question 5 : Humerus differs from the femur in having

• a) Deltoid ridge
• b) Sigmoid notch
• c) Trochanter
• d) None of these

Answer : Deltoid ridge

Question 6 : The most abundant mineral in human body is

• a) Calcium
• b) Magnesium
• c) Sodium
• d) Potassium

Answer : Calcium

Question 7 : Ankle joint is

• a) Hinge joint
• b) Pivot Joint
• c) Ball and socket joint
• d) Gliding joint

Answer : Hinge joint

Question 8 : The major function of the intervertebral disc is to

• a) Absorb shock
• b) String the vertebrae together
• c) Prevent injuries
• d) Prevent hyperextension

Answer : Absorb shock

Question 9 : Which of the following is an autoimmune disorder ?

• a) Myasthenia gravis
• b) Muscular dystrophy
• c) Osteoporosis
• d) Gout

Answer : Myasthenia gravis

Question 10 : The joint in our neck which allows us to rotate our head left to right is

• a) pivot joint
• b) saddle joint
• c) hinge joint
• d) ellipsoid joint

Answer : pivot joint

Question 11 : A cricket player is fast chasing a ball in the field. Which one of the following groups of bones is directly contributing in this movement?

• a) Tarsals, femur, metatarsals, tibia
• b) Sternum, femur, tibia, fibula
• c) Pelvis, ulna, patella, tarsals
• d) Femur, malleus, tibia, metatarsals

Answer : Tarsals, femur, metatarsals, tibia

Question 12 : Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t. bone?

• a) Bone is made up of 60&70% organic matter and 30 & 40% inorganic matter
• b) If born is kept in HCl it becomes soft
• c) If bone is heated then the organic part disappears and inorganic part is retained
• d) Hydroxyapatite salts and fluorapatite salts are found in matrix

Answer : Bone is made up of 60&70% organic matter and 30 & 40% inorganic matter

Question 13 : One of the following is a location of most abundant cartilage in the human body.

• a) Tracheal rings and costal cartilages
• b) Intevertebral disc and public symphysis
• c) Pinna and tip of nose
• d) Pectoral girdle and pelvic girdle

Answer : Tracheal rings and costal cartilages

Question 14 : What is a hydrostatic skeleton largely composed of?

• a) Fluid
• b) Connective tissue
• c) Bone
• d) Cartilage

Answer : Fluid

Question 15 : The only movable bone in the skull is

• a) Mandible
• b) Ethmoid
• c) Maxilla
• d) None

Answer : Mandible

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-2 Excretory Products and Their Elimination NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON EXCRETORY PRODUCTS AND THEIR ELIMINATION

Question 1 : A person who is one along hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have

• a) less urea in his urine
• b) more sodium in his urine
• c) more glucose in his blood
• d) less amino acids in his urine

Answer : less urea in his urine

Question 2 : Uricotelism is found in

• a) Birds, reptiles and insects
• b) Fishes and fresh water protozoans
• c) Mammals and birds
• d) Frogs and toads

Answer : Birds, reptiles and insects

Question 3: If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron which of the following is to be expected?

• a) The urine will be more dilute
• b) The urine will be more concentrated
• c) There will be no urine formation
• d) None of these

Answer : The urine will be more dilute

Question 4 :  The basic functional unit of the human kidney is

• a) nephron
• b) pyramid
• c) nephridia
• d) Henle’s loop

Answer : nephron

Question 5 : Reabsorption of water in distal parts of kidney tubules/urine formation is controlled by

• a) vasopressin
• b) calcitonin
• c) relaxin
• d) oxytocin

Answer : vasopressin

Question 6 : In mammals, the urinary bladder opens into

• a) Urethra
• b) Uterus
• c) Vestibule
• d) Ureter

Answer : Urethra

Question 7 : Urea from the blood can be removed by

• a) Dialysis
• b) Uremia
• c) Diuresis
• d) Micturition

Answer : Dialysis

Question 8 : Which of the following components of blood does not enter into the nephron?

• a) plasma protein
• b) water
• c) urea
• d) glucose

Answer : plasma protein

Question 9 : The condition of excess urea in blood is known as

• a) Uraemia
• b) Polyuria
• c) Haematuria
• d) None of these

Answer : Uraemia

Question 10 : Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) is released in response to the increase in blood volume and blood pressure. Which of the following is not the function of ANF?

• a) Stimulates aldosterone secretion
• b) Inhibits the release of renin from JGA
• c) Stimulates salt loss in urine
• d) Inhibits sodium reabsorption from collecting duct

Answer : Stimulates aldosterone secretion

Question 11 : Reabsorption of chloride ions from glomerular filtrate in kidney tubule occurs by

• a) Diffusion
• b) Brownian movement
• c) Osmosis
• d) Active transport

Answer : Diffusion

Question 12 : Metanephric kidneys are found in

• a) All of these
• b) Birds only
• c) Reptiles only
• d) mammals only

Answer : All of these

Question 13 : In Prawn, excretion is carried out by

• a) Green glands
• b) Malpighian tubules
• c) Nephrons
• d) Flame cells

Answer : Green glands

Question 14 : By definition, an ectotherm

• a) obtains most of its heat from its environment.
• b) derives most of its heat from its own metabolism
• c) is warm-blooded
• d) is cold-blooded

Answer : obtains most of its heat from its environment.

Question 15 : Which region of the kidney nephron is the main site of amino acid reabsorption?

• a) proximal convoluted tubule
• b) distal convoluted tubule
• c) Bowman’s capsule
• d) glomerulus

Answer : proximal convoluted tubule

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-18 Body Fluids and Circulation NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON BODY FLUIDS AND CIRCULATION

Question 1.
In developing embryo RBCs are formed in
(a) Lymph node
(b) Bone marrow
(c) Liver
(d) Spleen

Answer: (c) Liver

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Question 2.
In humans, blood passes from the post caval to the diastolic right atrium of heart due to:
(a) Pressure difference between the post caval and atrium
(b) Pushing open of the venous valves
(c) Suction pull
(d) Stimulation of the Sino auricular node

Answer: (a) Pressure difference between the post caval and atrium

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Question 3.
When body tissues are injured resulting in the loss of blood, the process of blood clot begins and the blood platelets release
(a) Fibrinogen
(b) Thrombin
(c) Prothrombin
(d) Thromboplastin

Answer: (d) Thromboplastin

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Question 4.
An adult human has systolic and diastolic pressures as:
(a) 80 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg
(b) 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
(c) 50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
(d) 80 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg

Answer: (b) 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg

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Question 5.
Duration of cardiac cycle is
(a) 0.7 sec
(b) 0.9 sec
(c) 0.8 sec
(d) 0.11 sec

Answer: (c) 0.8 sec
Explanation:
Duration of cardiac cycle is 0.8 seconds.

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Question 6.

In the above picture Q represents
(a) excitation of the atria
(b) depolarization of ventricles
(c) beginning of systole
(d) repolarization

Answer: (c) beginning of systole
Explanation:

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Question 7.
Oxygenated blood occurs in
(a) Pulmonary artery
(b) Right atrium
(c) Right ventricle
(d) Pulmonary vein

Answer: (d) Pulmonary vein

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Question 8.
The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the category of
(a) Columnar epithelium
(b) Connective tissue
(c) Smooth muscle tissue
(d) Squamous epithelium

Answer: (d) Squamous epithelium

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Question 9.
Heart failure occurs due to
(a) heart stops beating
(b) damage of heart muscles
(c) congestion of lungs
(d) all of the above

Answer: (c) congestion of lungs
Explanation:
Heart failure occurs when heart stops pumping blood effectively enough to meet the body needs.
It occurs mainly due to congestion of lungs.

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Question 10.
Artificial pace maker is transplanted in
(a) Inter auricular septum
(b) Below the collar bone
(c) Inter ventricular septum
(d) Right auricle

Answer: (b) Below the collar bone

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Question 11.
Which of the following statement/statements can be related to erythroblastosis foetalis?
(a) Severe anemia and jaundice to the baby.
(b) Can be avoided by giving anti-Rh antibodies to mother immediately after delivery of the first child.
(c) Rh-antibodies from the Rh -ve mother destroys foetal RBCs.
(d) All of the above

Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation:
Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs if Rh-antibodies from the Rh -ve mother destroys foetal RBCs of Rh +ve foetus.

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Question 12.
Among the following stem cells, which are found in the umbilical cord?
(a) Cord blood stem cells
(b) Adult stem cells
(c) Embryonic stem cells
(d) All of the above

Answer: (a) Cord blood stem cells

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Question 13.
If vagus nerve is cut the heart beat
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) will not be affected
(d) will stop immediately

Answer: (a) increases

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Question 14.
If due to some injury the chordae tendinea of the tricuspid valve of the human heart is partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect?
(a) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced
(b) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down
(c) The pacemaker will stop working
(d) The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium

Answer: (a) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced

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Question 15.
Heparin is
(a) Anti-allergic
(b) Blood diluter
(c) Anticoagulant
(d) Antiseptic

Answer: (c) Anticoagulant

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES

Question 1 : When CO₂ concentration in blood increases, breathing becomes

• a) faster and deeper
• b) slow and deep
• c) there is no effect on breathing
• d) shallower and slow

Answer : faster and deeper

Question 2 : The largest quantity of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiratory effort is called

• a) vital capacity
• b) residual volume
• c) tidal volume
• d) total lung volume

Answer : vital capacity

Question 3 : Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?

• a) In insects, circulating body fluids serve to distribute oxygen to tissues
• b) The principle of counter current flow facilitates efficient respiration in gills of fishes
• c) The residual air in lungs slightly decreases the efficiency of respriration in mammals.
• d) None of these

Answer : In insects, circulating body fluids serve to distribute oxygen to tissues

Question 4 : Emphysema develops mainly because of

• a) Spasm of the smooth muscles of bronchioles
• b) Cigarette smoking
• c) Inflammation of the alveoli
• d) Allergy or hypersensitisation

Answer : Spasm of the smooth muscles of bronchioles

Question 5 : During inspiration the diaphragm

• a) contracts and flattens
• b) relaxes to become dome-shaped
• c) shows no change
• d) None of these

Answer : contracts and flattens

Question 6 : The volume of air breathed in and out during normal breathing is called

• a) Tidal volume
• b) Explratory reserve volume
• c) Vital capacity
• d) None of these

Answer : Tidal volume

Question 7 : What would happen if human blood becomes acidic (low pH)

• a) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin decreases
• b) RBCs count increases
• c) RBCs count decreases
• d) Oxygen carying capacity of haemoglobin increases

Answer : Oxygen carrying capacity of hemoglobin decreases

Question 8 : Even when there is no air in it, human trachea does not collapse due to presence of

• a) Cartilaginous rings
• b) Turgid pressure
• c) Bony rings
• d) Chitinous rings

Answer : Cartilaginous rings

Question 9 : The structure which does not contribute to the breathing movements in mammals is

• a) Larynx
• b) Diaphragm
• c) Ribs
• d) Intercostal muscles

Answer : Larynx

Question 10 : In emphysema

• a) Gas exchange area of lungs is reduced
• b) Gas exchange area of lungs is increased
• c) Trachea gets narrowed
• d) Larynx is permanently closed

Answer : Gas exchange area of lungs is reduced

Question 11 : Which of the following changes occur in diaphragm and intercostal muscles when expiration of air takes place?

• a) External intercostal muscles and diaphargm relax
• b) External intercostal muscles and diaphargm contract
• c) External intercostal muscles contract and diaphargm relaxes
• d) External intercostal muscles relax and diaphargm contracts

Answer : External intercostal muscles and diaphragm relax

Question 12 : When you exhale, the diaphragm

• a) relaxes and arches
• b) relaxes and flattens.
• c) contracts and arches
• d) contracts and flattens

Answer : relaxes and arches

Question 13 : Smoking destroys the cilia in the respiratory passageways. This

• a) makes it harder to keep the lungs clean
• b) slows blood flow through lung blood vessels
• c) decreases the surface area for respiration.
• d) makes it harder to move air in and out of the lungs

Answer : makes it harder to keep the lungs clean

Question 14: Gas flows into the lungs of mammals during inspiration because

• a) The pressure in the lungs falls below atmospheric pressure
• b) The pressure in the lungs rises above atmospheric pressure.
• c) The volume of the lungs decreases
• d) The diaphragm moves upward toward the lungs

Answer : The pressure in the lungs falls below atmospheric pressure

Question 15 : The function of the mucus elevator in the mammalian respiratory system is to

• a) trap and remove particulate matter that has entered the respiratory system.
• b) stimulate contraction of rib musculature during forcible exhalation
• c) produce negative pressure during inhalation
• d) move surfactant from the bronchi to the alveoli

Answer : trap and remove particulate matter that has entered the respiratory system.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-16 Digestion and Absorption NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON DIGESTION AND ABSORPTION

Question 1 : Jaundice is a disorder of

• a) Digestive system
• b) Excretory system
• c) Skin and eyes
• d) Circulatory system

Answer : Digestive system

Question 2 : Which one of the following pairs of food components in humans reaches the stomach totally undigested ?

• a) Fat and cellulose
• b) Protein and starch
• c) Starch and cellulose
• d) Starch and fat

Answer : Fat and cellulose

Question 3 : Which of following teeth are lophodont?

• a) Premolar and molar
• b) Premolar and incisor
• c) Incisor and canine
• d) Canine and premolar

Answer : Premolar and molar

Question 4 : Oxyntic cells are located in

• a) Gastric epithelium and secrete HCl
• b) Kidneys and secrete renin
• c) Gastric epithelium and secrete pepsin
• d) Islets of Langerhans

Answer : Gastric epithelium and secrete HCl

Question 5 : Continued consumption of a diet rich in butter, red meat and eggs for a long period may lead to

• a) hypercholesterolemia
• b) urine laden with ketone bodies
• c) kidney stones
• d) vitamin A toxicity

Answer : hypercholesterolemia

Question 6 : Which one of the following is a matching pair of a substrate and its particular digestive enzyme?

• a) Starch — maltase
• b) Maltose — steapsin
• c) Lactose — rennin
• d) Casein — chymotrypsin

Answer : Starch — maltase

Question 7 : Which one of the following is a matching pair of a vitamin and the deficiency disease related with it ?

• a) Niacin — pellagra
• b) Calciferol — scurvy
• c) Thiamine — xerophthalmia
• d) Riboflavin — beri beri

Answer : Niacin — pellagra

Question 8 : Which one of the following pairs of the cells with their secretion is correctly matched?

• a) Oxyntic cells – A secretion with pH between 2.0 and 3.0.
• b) Alpha cells of Islets of Langerhans -Secretion that decreases blood sugar level.
• c) Kupffer cells – A digestive enzyme that hydrolysis nucleic acids.
• d) None of these

Answer : Oxyntic cells – A secretion with pH between 2.0 and 3.0.

Question 9 : “Kwashiorkor’ and ‘Beri-Beri’ are

• a) deficiency diseases
• b) infectious diseases
• c) communicable diseases
• d) None of the above

Answer : Deficiency diseases

Question 10 : First milk produced after child birth is called

• a) colostrum
• b) cerumen
• c) true milk
• d) sebum

Answer :  Colostrum

Question 11 : Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of

• a) Alcohol
• b) Tobacco (Chewing)
• c) Cocaine
• d) Opium

Answer : Alcohol

Question 12 : The sphincter of Oddi is present between

• a) Hepatopancreatic duct and duodenum
• b) Hepatic duct and cystic duct
• c) Pyloric stomach and duodenum
• d) Oesophagus and cardiac stomach

Answer : Hepatopancreatic duct and duodenum

Question 13 : Layer of cells that secrete enamel of tooth is

• a) Ameloblast
• b) Dentoblast
• c) Osteoblast
• d) Odontoblast

Answer : Ameloblast

Question 14 : Cow’s milk is slightly yellowish in colour due to the presence of

• a) Riboflavin
• b) Xanthophyll
• c) Xanthophyll and Carotene
• d) Carotene

Answer : Riboflavin

Question 15 : Accessory excretory organs of man are

• a) skin, lungs, liver and intestine
• b) only skin and lungs
• c) only skin and liver
• d) only skin

Answer : skin, lungs, liver and intestine

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-15 Plant Growth and Development NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON PLANT GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT

Question 1.

Which plant growth regulator is the derivative of carotenoids?
(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellic acid
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Abscisic acid

Answer (d) Abscisic acid

Question 2.
Intercalary meristems are of
(a) Permanent nature
(b) Temporary nature
(c) Some are permanent some temporary
(d) None of these

Answer: (b) Temporary nature

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Question 3.
Cells of fibers and tracheid’s elongate during
(a) Phase of cell division
(b) Phase of cell elongation
(c) Phase of cell maturation
(d) Phase of cell differentiation

Answer: (a) Phase of cell division

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Question 4.
Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.
(a) J-shaped
(b) S-shaped
(c) I-shaped
(d) Parabolic

Answer: (b) S-shaped
Explanation:
Typical plant growth represents sigmoid curve.

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Question 5.
Exponential growth of the plants is express as W₁ = W₀ e^rt r represents
(a) ability of the plant to produce new cells
(b) efficiency index
(c) relative growth rate
(d) all of the above

Answer: (d) all of the above
Explanation:
r is the relative growth rate and also measures the ability of the plant to produce new plant material (efficiency index).

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Question 6.
Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of:
(a) Autonomic movement of variation
(b) Autonomic movement of locomotion
(c) Autonomic movement of growth
(d) Paratonic movement of growth

Answer: (c) Autonomic movement of growth

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Question 7.
Which one is incorrect?
(a) Epiblast is presumptive ectoderm and mesoderm
(b) Hypoblast is presumptive endoderm
(c) Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm
(d) Upper layer of cells in blastoderm is epiblast

Answer: (c) Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm

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Question 8.
The stage of rapid cell division just after fertilization is
(a) Organogenesis
(b) Cleavage
(c) Gastrulation
(d) Growth

Answer: (b) Cleavage

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Question 9.
Plants grow throughout their life due to
(a) presence of meristems
(b) presence of vascular cambium
(c) presence of xylem and phloem
(d) presence of tracheid

Answer: (a) presence of meristems
Explanation:
Plants growth throughout their life due to the presence of meristems at certain locations in their body.

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Question 10.
Liver and pancreas arise from
(a) Foregut
(b) Midgut
(c) Hindgut
(d) None of these

Answer: (a) Foregut

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Question 11.
Which one of the followings is a gaseous plant hormone?
(a) Ethylene
(b) Gibberellin
(c) IAA
(d) Abscisic acid

Answer: (a) Ethylene

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Question 12.
To prevent over – ripening, bananas should be
(a) given a dip in ascorbic acid
(b) maintained at room temperature
(c) refrigerated
(d) stored at the top of refrigerator

Answer: (c) refrigerated

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Question 13.
Growth in dorsiventral leaf is measured in terms of
(a) length of leaf
(b) increase in cell number
(c) surface area increase
(d) none of these

Answer: (c) surface area increase
Explanation:
Increase in surface area denotes the growth in a dorsiventral leaf.

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Question 14.
Mechanism of development was explained by
(a) Hans Dietrich
(b) Spemann
(c) Both a and b
(d) Haemmerling

Answer: (c) Both a and b

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Question 15.
The ability to regain or recover the lost or injured part of body is
(a) Aging
(b) Regeneration
(c) Abnormal development
(d) Primary induction

Answer: (b) Regeneration

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-14 Respiration in Plants NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON RESPIRATION IN PLANTS

Question 1 : In Krebs’s cycle, the FAD participates as electron acceptor during the conversion of

• a) succinic acid to fumaric acid
• b) fumaric acid to malic acid
• c) succinyl CoA to succinic acid
• d) None of these

Answer : succinic acid to fumaric acid

Question 2 : The major reason that glycolysis is not as energy productive as respiration is that

• a) pyruvate is more reduced than CO₂; it still contains much of the energy from glucose
• b) it does not take place in a specialized membrane-bound organelle.
• c) it is the pathway common to fermentation and respiration
• d) None of these

Answer :  pyruvate is more reduced than CO₂; it still contains much of the energy from glucose

Question 3 : Which of the following is a 4-carbon compound?

• a) Oxaloacetic acid
• b) Phosphoglyceric acid
• c) Citric acid
• d) Phosphoenol pyruvate

Answer : Oxaloacetic acid

Question 4 : Which of the following is a biological uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation ?

• a) Thermogenin
• b) 2, 4 – Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid
• c) 2, 4 – Dinitrophenol
• d) Ethylene diaminotetra acetic acid

Answer : Thermogenin

Question 5 : Which of the following is not true for oxidative phosphorylation?

• a) It uses oxygen as the initial electron donor.
• b) It involves the redox reactions of electron transport chain
• c) It involves an ATP synthase located in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
• d) It depends on chemiosmosis

Answer : It uses oxygen as the initial electron donor.

Question 6:  Final electron acceptor in oxidative phosphorylation is

• a) oxygen
• b) hydrogen
• c) cytochrome
• d) None of these

Answer : oxygen

Question 7 : Quantasomes are found in

• a) chloroplast
• b) mitochondria
• c) lysosome
• d) None of these

Answer : chloroplast

Question 8 : Which of the following is an important intermediate found in all the types of respiration ?

• a) Pyruvic acid
• b) Tricarboxylic acid
• c) Acetyl CoA
• d) Oxaloacetate

Answer : Pyruvic acid

Question 9 : Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid with several intermediate steps is known as

• a) Glycolysis
• b) Krebs cycle
• c) TCA-pathway
• d) HMS-pathway

Answer : Glycolysis

Question 10 : Common enzyme in glycolysis and pentose phosphate pathways is

• a) hexokinase
• b) fumarase
• c) aconitase
• d) dehydrogenase

Answer : hexokinase

Question 11 : One of the following is common to glycolysis as well as Krebs cycle in eukaryotes

• a) Substrate level phosphorylation
• b) Photophosphorylation
• c) Localization in mitochondria
• d) None of these

Answer : Substrate level phosphorylation

Question 12 : A mutant cell lacking mitochondria will show

• a) Inability to oxidize carbohydrates and fats
• b) Inability to synthesize glucose
• c) Inability to oxidize fats
• d) Inability to oxidize carbohydrates

Answer : Inability to oxidize carbohydrates and fats

Question 13 : During the early stages of alcoholic fermentation there is a high rate of growth of yeast. After some time the rate decreases. Which of the following conditions in the culture medium is least likely to have caused this?

• a) Depletion of oxygen
• b) Depletion of mineral salts
• c) Accumulation of waste products
• d) Depletion of glucose

Answer : Depletion of oxygen

Question 14 : Hexose monophosphate shunt does not take place when

• a) NAD is available
• b) NAD is not available due to shortage of oxygen
• c) Glucose is the substrate
• d) Oxygen is not enough

Answer : NAD is available

Question 15 : Chemiosmosis theory of ATP synthesis in the chloroplasts and mitochondria is based on

• a) proton gradient
• b) accumulation of Na ions
• c) membrane potential
• d) None of these

Answer : proton gradient