NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION CLASS – 12 | POLITICAL SCIENCE PART-B POLITICS IN INDIA NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION | CHAPTER- 10 | CHALLENGES IN NATION BUILDING | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 10 CHALLENGES IN NATION BUILDINGNCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 12 POLITICAL SCIENCE PART-B POLITICS IN INDIA SINCE INDEPENDENCE which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON CHALLENGES IN NATION BUILDING

Question 1.
Describe how the princely states of Manipur and Junagadh acceded to India.
Answer:

Accession of Manipur After the independence in 1947, MAllaraja of Manipur Bodhachandra Singh, signed the Instrument of Accession with Indian Union on the assurance that the internal autonomy of Manipur would be maintained. Under the pressure of people of Manipur, MAllaraja held the election in June, 1948 and state became a constitutional monarchy.

Thus, Manipur was the first state to hold an election on the basis of adult franchise. The legislators of the regional parties of Manipur did not want to merge with India but state Congress wanted to.

Government of India pressurised the Manipur MAllaraja and succeeded to do so. MAllaraja accepted the agreement and signed it without consulting the Legislative Assembly. This led to lot of anger and resentment in Manipur, the repercussions of which are still being felt.

Accession of Junagadh In case of Junagadh, the Nawab of Junagadh wanted to merge with Pakistan or wanted to remain independent. The people of Junagadh wanted to merge with Indian Union. This lead to several events and also a plebiscits which resulted in the integration of Junagadh into India.

The successful negotiations brought many states to sign Instrument of Accession which means that states wanted to accept the sovereignty of India.

Question 2.
Analyse any six consequences of the partition of India in 1947.
Answer
:
Muslim League advanced ‘Two-Nation Theory’ which advocated India consisted of not one but two ‘people’, Hindus and Muslims. That is why Muslim League demanded Pakistan, a separate country for the Muslims. The two main causes of partition in 1947 were as follows :

  • Political competition between the Congress and the Muslim League.
  • The role of Britishers in dividing the Hindus and Muslims by their policy of ‘divide and rule’.

The consequences of partition of India in 1947 are as follows:
1. Division of provinces according to majority The implementation of partition was very difficult because there was no single belt of Muslims majority in British India. The concentration of Muslims were in Punjab which was in the West and Bengal which was in East. The problems lied in these areas as concentration of non-Muslims were more. Therefore, it was decided that these two provinces would be bifurcated according to the majority at the district or even lower level.

2. Exploitation of minorities Further there were problems with the minorities on both side of the borders, they were easily targeted and there was no option except to leave their own land and homes and go across the border.

This transfer is said to be most abrupt, largest and unplanned transfer known in the human history. There were killings and atrocities on both sides of border in the name of religion. The minorities on both sides fled from their homes and often secured temporary shelter in refugee camps. Even they were not safe in refugee camps so, they travelled to the other side by all means railways, roads and by foot.

3. Exploitation of women During this journey, women were oftf n attacked and killed. Women were abdi cted and raped and also forcefully conve :ted to other religion. Therefore, family members killed their girls and women. 80 lakh people migrated across the new border and between 5 to 10 lakh people were killed during partition. Thus, partition of India established the deep trauma within minds of the citizens.

4. Problem with refugee Those who did manage to cross the border found that they had no home. For lakhs of these ‘refugees’ the country’s freedom meant life in ‘refugees camps’, for months and sometimes for years.

5. Administrative failure There were competing political interests behind communal conflicts. The Muslim league was formed to protect the interests of the Muslims in colonial India. It was in the forefront of the demand for a separate Muslim nation. Similarly there were organisations, which were trying to organise the Hindus in order to turn India into a Hindu nation. This situation led to administrative failure in the country.

6. Distribution of financial assets The financial assets and things like tables, chairs, typewriters, paper-clips, books and also musical instruments of the police band were divided. The employees of the government and the railways were also ‘divided’. It was a violent separation of communities who had hitherto to lived together as neighbours.

Question 3.
“The accommodation of regional demands and the formation of linguistic states were also seen as more democratic.” Justify the statement with any three suitable arguments.
Answer:

This statement can be justified by following three arguments:

  1. Regional aspirations are very much a part of democratic politics. Expression of regional issues is not an aberration or an abnormal phenomenon. A large and diverse democracy like India must deal with regional aspirations on a regular basis.
  2. The best way to respond to regional aspirations is through democratic negotiations rather than through suppression.
  3. Regional imbalance in economic development contributes to the feeling of regional discrimination. Regional imbalance is a fact of India’s development experience.

Question 4.
How did the reorganisation of states take place in India after its independence? Explain.
Answer:

State Reorganisation Commission The formation of Andhra Pradesh spurred the struggle for making of other states on linguistic basis in other parts of the country. These struggle forced the Central Government into appointing a States Reorganisation Commission in 1953 to look into

Recommendations of State Reorganisation Commission were :

  1. To look into the question of redrawing of the boundaries of states.
  2. This commission in its report accepted that the boundaries of the state should reflect the boundaries different languages. On the basis of its report the States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956.

Process and the basis of Reorganisation of States of Indian Union After partition the challenge was to draw the internal boundaries of the Indian states. The boundaries had to be drawn in a way so that the linguistic and cultural plurality of the country could be reflected without affecting the unity of the nation. Indian National Congress and many leaders recognised the linguistic principle as reorganisation of new states’ boundaries.

But our leader further felt that carving out states on the basis of language might lead to disruption and disintegration and would draw attention away from other social and economic challenges that the country faced.

Thus, protests began in the Telugu speaking areas of the old Madras province. The Vishalandhra Movement (the movement for a separate Andhra) demanded that the Telugu speaking areas should be separated from the Madras province and be made into a separate Andhra province.

The movement gathered momentum. Potti Sriramulu, a Congress leader and a Veteran Gandhian, went on an indefinite fast that led to his death after 56 days. This caused great unrest and resulted in violent outbursts in Andhra region. Finally, the Prime Minister announced the formation of a separate Andhra State in December 1952.

New States formed after 1956 were :

  1. This commission led to the creation of 14 states and six union territories. Maharashtra, Gujarat, Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Tripura, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand are the new states formed after 1956.
  2. Uttarakhand from Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh from Madhya Pradesh and Jharkhand from Bihar all of these created in 2000.
  3. In 2014, another state is created after bifurcation of Andhra Pradesh, namely Telangana. As a result Gujarat was formed out by Bombay. Haryana was from Punjab, Himachal Pradesh was formed out from Punjab. Tripura, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh were created from AssAnswer:

Question 5.
Explain any three challenges faced by India at the time of its independence.
OR
Explain any three challenges that India faced at the time of her independence.
Answer:

The major challenges faced by India at the time of its independence are as follows:

1. To shape a United Nation Immediately after independence, there was a challenge to make India an unified nation. There were diversities of cultures, languages, religions etc increased the questions on India’s future.

2. To establish democracy However, India is seventh largest country in the world and has different values, cultures norms etc. According to the Constitution, India has adopted the democratic government on the basis of adult franchise. The challenge was how to maintain democracy.

3. To ensure the development and well-being The Constitution laid down in Fundamental Rights that all citizens are equal and all of them are free to practise their own religion. In DPSP laid down welfare state. Although the Preamble of the Constitution laid down that the Principles of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity were adopted to develop the society. However, the challenges were how to overcome the poverty and how to develop economy of India through the peoples’ participation.

4. Integration of princely states After independence, there were 565 Princely States. The Independence Act, 1947 says that British India divided into two nations India and Pakistan. And Princely States may be merged with both the countries or stayed independent. The British left India with multiple problems. This was certain and very serious challenge raised in front of India.

Question 6.
What were the major challenges of building democracy in India?
Answer:

There were three major challenges of building democracy in India. These were as follows :
1. Communalism Indian polity is secular in nature, but communalism is thriving in the country and now it constitutes a serious problem of Indian states. India respects all religions and the major religious communities are Hindus, Muslims, Jains, Buddhists, Parsis, Christians and Anglo-Indians The Muslims constitute the largest minority community. The Hindus constitute more than 80 per cent of population of the country. Most of Hindu leaders believed that India does not have diverse communities.

2. Caste This is the biggest threat to India as political parties candidates are of the same caste as that of the majority voters, who favour him on caste basis although politics has moved towards casteism. It has brought a balance in caste equation, because not only the advanced castes but other castes also are eligible for participation in a representative democracy. The association of politics with caste has led democracy to a greater rationality vis-a-vis the caste system. The political parties while selecting the candidates, see whether the candidate will be able to get the support of voters of his caste or not.

3. Multi-party system After independence, many regional parties have formed, whether on religious basis or caste basis or any other basis. These multi-party systems further lead to coalition government this is also big threat to Indian democracy.

Question 7.
Discuss the problem related to Kashmir between India and Pakistan.
Answer:

The Congress party has evolved its politics on Kashmir on the basis of major global and domestic developments.

Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru repeated his commitment to find the will of the people of Kashmir in the Constituent Assembly of India. The problems of Kashmir between Indian and Pakistan are :
1. Accession to India India was satisfied that the most important political leader and party of Kashmir had accepted accession to India. The leader like Sheikh AbdullAll of National Conference represented the democratic will of the people of Kashmir and they were unambiguously acceeded to India. The Congress party also assured internal autonomy to the people of Jammu and Kashmir through the Constitution of India.

2. Article 370 and political consensus The Article 370 of Constitution can be altered in favour of the centre. Many other parties have supported this article, but Bharatiya Jan Sangh (now BJP) rejected every premise and every policy of the Congress and wanted to omit Article 370. Two extremely polarised position on Kashmir are represented by Congress and the BJP and it is impossible to evolve any minimal national consensus on Kashmir in India.

3. Emergence of terrorism Further the emergence of terrorism in the valley has accentuated polarisation among political parties in India because Pakistan is directly involved in terrorist activities.

4. Inter-regional dispute Another dimensions that Kashmir valley, Jammu and Ladakh have involved is, inter-regional disputes and competition. Ladakh’s political parties say that Kashmir discriminated them. But after the entry of centre all the movements were discontinued. If Jammu and Kashmir valley are separated from each other, then another two-nation theory could be faced by Indian Union. That’s why the political parties have to maintain legitimacy and democracy with all.

Question 8.
What were the main consideration for bringing princely states with Indian Union? Who played the historic role in this task?
Answer:
The British paramountacy was over on the princely States after independence and these states may go with India or Pakistan or stay independent. There were 565 princely states.

Problem started because of following reasons:

  1. The decision was totally upto the ruler not on the people this was a serious problem and big threat on the existence of a united India.
  2. After Independence ruler of Travancore declared himself ‘ independent after a few days Hyderabad made same declaration.
  3. Nawab of Bhopal was averse to join Constituent Assembly. This kind of differences might futher divide India into small states or countries.

Government Approaches Government took forward step and negotiated with the Princely State ruler and saw that the people of these states wanted to become a part of the Indian Union. Then government adopted flexible diplomacy and gave autonomy to some states. India held plebiscite and acceded the Princely States into Indian Union and operations which government operationalised accessed the Princely States, e.g., in Junagadh Government held plebiscite, operation Vijay in Goa and operation Polo in Hyderabad. Therefore, after all these efforts integrated Princely States.

Sardar Patel who was the Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister that time, played an important role in negotiating with Princely States rulers and brought them into the Indian Union.

Question 9.
Read the paragraph given below carefully and answer the following questions.


We have a Muslim minority who are so large in numbers that they cannot, even if they want, go anywhere else. That is a basic fact about which there can be no argument. Whatever the provocation from Pakistan and whatever the indignities and horrors inflicted on non-Muslims there, we have got to deal with this minority in a civilised manner. We must give them security and the rights of citizens in a democratic state. If we fail to do so, we shall have a festering sore which will eventually poison the whole body politic and probably destroy it. Jawaharlal Nehru, Letter to Chief Minister, 15th October, 1947 :
(i) In spite of indignities and horrors inflicted on Non-Muslims by Pakistan, why Jawaharlal Nehru wanted to deal with the Muslim minority in a civilised way?
(ii) Why this minority should be given the security and rights on the same footing as to all others in a democratic system?
(iii) If this minority was not provided security and rights what kind of scenario is envisaged?
Answer:
(i) At the time of partition Pakistan inflicted horrors on non-Muslims. Despite this fact Nehru wanted to deal with the Muslim minority in a civilised way because out of the then minority communities in India Muslims were large in numbers. They had no option to go anywhere.
(ii) India is a democratic and secular country, where all religions are treated equally. Because of this factor the Muslim minority should be given security and rights on the same footings in India.
(iii) If this minority was not provided security and rights it will poison the whole Indian political system and the Indian democratic set-up would come to an end.

Question 10.
Sardar Patel in a letter to princely rulers in 1947 said, “I hope the Indian states shall realise fully that if we do not cooperate and work together in general interest, anarchy and chaos will overwhelm us all, great and small, and lead us to total ruin.”
Answer the following questions
(i) What general interest has been referred to?
(ii) What situation would lead to total ruin?
Answer:

(i) The general interest referred to raise the country to new greatness. Lack of unity will expose India to unexpected calamities.
(ii) Sardar Patel said that Indian states should realise fully that if they do not cooperate and work together in general interest, anarchy and chaos will lead the nation to total ruin.

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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION CLASS – 12 | POLITICAL SCIENCE PART-B POLITICS IN INDIA NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION | CHAPTER- 11 | ERA OF ONE PARTY DOMINANCE | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 11 ERA OF ONE PARTY DOMINANCE NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 12 POLITICAL SCIENCE PART-B POLITICS IN INDIA SINCE INDEPENDENCE which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON ERA OF ONE PARTY DOMINANCE

Question 1.
Analyze the reasons for the dominance of the Congress Party in the first three general elections.
Answer:

After Independence, the Congress Party dominated the political scene at the center as well as in states before 1967. The Congress secured 364, 371, 361, and 283 seats in the elections of 1952, 1957, 1962, and 1967 respectively. The dominance of Congress was due to many reasons:
1. The Congress Party was established in 1885 and it played a very important role in the national movement. In fact, the history of the national movement is almost the history of the Congress Party. Congress Party wholeheartedly fought for India’s independence and did not worry about sacrifices.

2. Congress provided able leadership to the Indian masses from 1885 to 1947. The Congress Party was led by such great personalities as Mahatma Gandhi, Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Mrs. Indira Gandhi.

3. The Congress Party was a well-organized party and no other political party had such a well-knit organization.

4. After Independence, The Congress Party not only tried to solve the problems of the masses but also faced the challenges before the nation.

Moreover, the Congress Party represents a mixture of almost all shades of opinion. It is, in fact, a ‘Grand Coalition’. It was rather a privileged party to harbor all sorts of political ideologies under the garb of freedom struggle.

Question 2.
Highlight the political ideology of the Communist Party of India.
Answer:

Following are the Political Programme of the Communist Party of India-
1. The C.P.I. attaches the utmost priority to safeguarding the integrity, security, and sovereignty of India.

2. The C.P.I. favors the preservation and strengthening of the secular democratic set up of the country in the struggle against all types of divisive forces.

3. The manifesto calls for 10 percent job reservation for the economically weaker sections of forwarding castes in addition to the implementation of the Mandal Commission report. The party is for the implementation of a 30 percent job reservation for women.

4. The party is for the speedy implementation of comprehensive measures for social justice.

5. The party has demanded a restructuring of Centre-State relations in the true spirit of federalism. The state should be given more powers as recommended by the Sarkaria Commission.

6. The Party called for the abrogation of Article 356 of the Constitution and enlarging the democratic and civil rights of the people.

7. The fate of the state government is to be decided on the floor of the house.

8. The Party has demanded real decentralization to be carried out by conferring more power and financial resources to elected bodies district, block, and Panchayat levels.

9. The party favors effective steps f0r the elimination of corruption. Lok Pal Bill which includes within its scope, legislators, and also the Prime Minister should be adopted. Transfers and postings which are a fertile source of corruption should be done by a committee of senior officials.

10. All legislators, MPs, MLAs, ministers, and high officials must disclose their assets and place them before parliament and assemblies.

11. It has demanded the repeal of all undemocratic statutes including ESMA and NSA and enlarging democratic and civil rights of the people.

12. The Party is committed to strengthening the parliamentary democratic system.

Question 3.
Describe the difficulties that the Elections Commission of India faced in holding the first general elections after Independence.
Answer:

Indian Constitution came into effect on 26 January 1950. Under the Indian Constitution, democracy was established in India. The election commission of India was set up in January 1950. Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India. The country’s first general elections were held in 1952. The first general election of 1952 is considered as a landmark in the history of democracy in the whole world.

  1. The first general election was a landmark in the history of democracy because there were more than 17 crore voters, which was a record in itself in the whole world.
  2. The strength of the Lok Sabha was 489 and about 3,200 MLAs of all the Legislative Assemblies of India. These members were to be directly elected by the voters on the basis of single-member constituencies.
  3. More than 3 lakh officers and polling staff were trained to conduct the first general elections.
  4. The first general election was also the first big test of democracy in a poor and illiterate country. Before that, elections were conducted in prosperous and literate countries of Europe and North America.
  5. First general elections were conducted on the basis of the Universal Adult Franchise whereas in many countries of Europe women did not enjoy the right to vote. In India, all adult citizens were given the right to vote.

Thus, the first general elections of 1952 was a grand landmark in the history of democracy in the whole world. It was really a great achievement for India.

Question 4.
“Congress had remained a social and ideological coalition for a long period.” Justify
Answer:

Ideologically, the Congress took root and came to political power not as a party but as a movement for independence and reform. The Congress party was” established in 1885 by higher middle class from English speaking persons. But with both the Non-cooperation Movement and the Civil Disobedience Movement, the social base of the Congress party widened. All types of people with diverse interests became members of the Congress party. Peasants and landlords, industrialists and workers, urban elites and villagers, capitalists and poor, upper caste and lower castes persons, etc., all were within the Congress.

Congress party was in fact, an ideological coalition. Rajni Kothari has rightly pointed out that “The Congress represents all shades of opinion, all major interest groups in the society and indeed all other parties as well. The Congress represented India’s diversity in terms of classes and castes, religions and languages, and various interests. Maximum opposition political parties are the dissenting elites of the Congress party, who share two common social and intellectual backgrounds as of the Congressmen.”

Question 5.
Describe the changing methods of voting in India from 1952 to today.
Answer:

India is the largest democratic country in the world. Therefore regular election is going on by the election commission of India. For the passage of time, there is a change in the voting method of election.

In the general elections of 2019 Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) was used to record voters’ preference whereas in the first general election, in each polling booth, a box for each candidate with the election symbol of that candidate was placed. Each voter was given a blank ballot paper which they had to drop into a box of the candidate they want to vote for.

But it was a very time consuming and expensive method. Booth capturing was another drawback of the ballot paper system, therefore, the government of India and election commission of India decided to go with EVM as a pilot project in the general election held in 2004, in 2019 Loksabha election the entire election held with EVM and V.V.PAT (Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail).

Question 6.
Describe the role of opposition parties in the first phase of democratic politics in our country which was quite unique.
Answer:

The role of opposition parties in the first phase of democratic politics in our country was quite unique. Even then India had a large number of diverse and vibrant opposition parties than many other multi-party democracies.

After independence, the Congress party dominated Indian politics. In the first three elections, the Congress party secured more than two-third of seats in the Lok Sabha. Even then many opposition parties emerged in the Lok Sabha. Though there was no official and recognized opposition in the Lok Sabha, yet there were many small opposition parties who played an important role in maintaining the democratic character of the system.

The roots of almost all the non-Congress parties of today can be traced to one or the other of the opposition parties of the 1950s. Though opposition parties had a token representation in the Lok Sabha, yet opposition leaders were very effective due to their status and personality. The opposition parties criticized the policies of the Congress party and kept the ruling party under control. The opposition parties believe in healthy and positive criticism. Thus, opposition parties played a very important role in maintaining the democratic character of the system.

Question 7.
How did the dominance of The Congress party affect the democratic nature of Indian politics? Explain.
Answer:

In India, the multi-party system exists. Several political parties participate in elections. But Indian National Congress dominated at the centre as well as the states till 1967. The prevalence of ‘one-party dominant system’ has adversely affected the democratic nature of Indian politics. In fact, the dominance of a single party is opposed to democracy as other political parties cannot flourish. Due to a lack of organized opposition, the Congress party never fulfilled the promises made to the people. Congress remained in power for a long period and hence no other party got a chance to rule.

Its administration has become virtually inefficient leading to widespread corruption. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru himself accepted the fact that “The Congress has developed into a monolithic organization making it virtually impossible for the growth of a sound party system in the country”. According to R.A. Gopalaswami “The party system which has emerged in our country is not only incompatible with the particular democratic institutions we have adopted but constitutes a clear danger to the survival of democracy of India.”

Question 8.

Political Science Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 2 Era of One Party Dominance im-1

In the Outline political map of India given above, five States have been: marked as A, B, C, D and E. With the j help of the Information given below, I identify them and write their correct: names in your answer book along with j the serial number of the information j used and the related alphabet in the j map.
(i) The State to which C. Raja-: Gopala Chari, the first Indian Governor-General of India, belonged.
Answer:
D-Tamil Nadu

(ii) The State where the first non-Congress Government was formed by E.M.S. Namboodiripad.
Answer:
E-Kerala

(iii) The State to which Rafi Ahmed Kidwai, the Union Minister for Food and Agriculture (1952-54) belonged.
Answer:
B-Uttar Pradesh

(iv) The State which faced the most acute food crisis in 1965-1967.
Answer:
A-Bihar

(v) The State which led the country: to White Revolution through Dairy Cooperative Movement.
Answer:
C-Gujarat.

Question 9.
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following questions:

The congress evolved from its origins in 1885 as a pressure group for the newly educated professional and commercial classes to a mass movement in the twentieth century. This laid the basis for its eventual transformation into a mass political party and its subsequent domination of the political system, Thus the Congress began as a party dominated by the English speaking, upper caste, upper-middle-class, and urban elite. But with every Civil Disobedience Movement, it launched, its social base widened.
(а) What is meant by a pressure group?
Answer:
In the ordinary sense of the word, pressure groups consist of the groups of people with vested interests and they get support in favor of their interests and objectives by influencing the legislators. These groups are neither political parties nor political organizations rather they are unlike the political parties.

(b) Explain the reason for Congress to be transformed into a rainbow-like social coalition by the time of Independence.
Answer:
The congress party was established in 1885 by a higher middle class from English speaking persons. But with both the Non-cooperation Movement and the Civil Disobedience Movement, the social base of the Congress party widened. All types of people with diverse interests became members of the Congress party.

(c) What made the Congress into a mass political party in the twentieth century?
Answer:
The congress evolved from its origins in 1885 as a pressure group for the newly educated professionals and commercial classes to a mass movement in the 20th century. This laid the basis for its eventual transformation into a mass political party.

Question 10.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:

India is not the only country to have experienced the dominance of one party. If we look around the world, we find many other examples of one-party dominance. But there is a crucial difference between these and the Indian experience. In the rest of the cases, the dominance of one party was ensured by compromising democracy. In some countries like China, Cuba, and Syria the constitution permits only a single party to rule the country.
(i) Which political party dominated the political scene of India after independence and how long?
Answer:
Congress party dominate the political scene of India after independence from 1952 to 1967.

(ii) How did the one-party dominance in India differ from that of China?
Answer:
One-party dominance in India was based on a democratic system, but in China, one-party dominance based on a communist (Dictatorship) system.

(iii) Highlight any two drawbacks of a single-party rule.
Answer:
Following are the two drawbacks of a single party rule:

  1. Against Democracy: The single-party system is against democratic principles because in this system the people do not enjoy the right to form associations.
  2. Election a Mere Show: In a single-party system, an election is a mere show. All the candidates belong to the same political party.

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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION CLASS – 12 | POLITICAL SCIENCE PART-B POLITICS IN INDIA NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION | CHAPTER- 12 | POLITICS IN PLANNED DEVELOPMENT | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 12 POLITICS IN PLANNED DEVELOPMENT NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 12 POLITICAL SCIENCE PART-B POLITICS IN INDIA SINCE INDEPENDENCE which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON POLITICS IN PLANNED DEVELOPMENT

Question 1.
Critically examine the major outcomes of the Indian model of a mixed economy.
Answer:

  1. The foundations of India’s future economic growth were laid.
  2. Mega dams like Bhakhra-Nangal and Hirakund for irrigation and power generation were undertaken.
  3. Abolition of the colonial system of Zamindari.
  4. The tenants who worked on someone else’s land were given greater legal security against eviction.

Question 2.
Describe the strategy adopted by the Government of India to promote the Green Revolution.
Answer:

In the 1960s, India was facing a food crisis due to many reasons. India was dependent on the U.S.A. for food which was putting many limitations on India’s policies. Indian Government decided to make India self-sufficient in food. Hence the government adopted a new strategy for agriculture in order to increase food production. Since the mid-1960s, the traditional agricultural practices were gradually replaced by modern technology.

The use of high-yielding variety seeds and the increased use of fertilizers and irrigation are simply called Green Revolution or modern agricultural technology. As a result of the Green Revolution, the area under improved seeds has gone up from about 15 million hectares during 1970-71 to nearly 75 million hectares in 1995-96. The new varieties are of a short term duration and consequently, instead of growing one crop, two crops and sometimes even three crops are grown.

Question 3.
Write a note on the mixed economy.
Answer:

The economy is generally considered of two types. One is a capitalist economy and the other is a socialist economy. A mixed economy is based on the co-existence of these two types of economy.

In most of the poor countries of the world, a mixed economy prevails. A mixed economy is an economy where there is public and private ownership of the means of production. Production is undertaken for both welfare and profit motive. Production in the private sector is a for-profit motive while in the public sector, it is for a welfare motive. Thus, the pattern of mixed economy is the co-existence of public and private sector units.

Question 4.
Examine the major outcomes of the Green Revolution.
Answer:

  1. The major achievement of the Green Revolution was to boost the production of major cereals viz wheat and rice.
  2. As a result of the Green Revolution, the crop pattern in India has undergone significant changes.
  3. The green revolution largely increased the growth of the local manufacturing sector which created new jobs and contributed to the country’s GDP.
  4. India became self-sufficient in food and India was in a position to pay back all loans it had taken from the World Bank for the purpose of the Green Revolution.

Question 5.
List any two merits and two demerits of the Green Revolution.
Answer:

Merits of Green Revolution

  1. The major achievement of the Green Revolution was to boost the production of major cereals viz wheat and rice.
  2. As a result of the Green Revolution, the crop pattern in India has undergone significant changes.
  3. The green revolution largely increased the growth of the local manufacturing sector which created new jobs and contributed to the country’s GDP.
  4. India became self-sufficient in food and India was in a position to pay back all loans it had taken from the World Bank for the purpose of the Green Revolution.

Demerits of Green Revolution

  1. Green Revolution had widened the gap between poor and small farmers and rich landlords.
  2. Green Revolution has proved beneficial to the medium category peasants because they can receive the advantage of mediation between small farmers and rich landlords.

Question 6. State any two differences between the First Five Year Plan and the Second Five Year Plan. (C.B.S.E. 2013)
Answer:

  1. In the First Five Year Plan, priority was given to the development of agriculture. The target of increased production of food grains, jute, and cotton was mainly achieved by bringing more land under cultivation. But in the Second Five Year Plan (1956-61), the top priority was accorded to the setting up of ‘Socialistic Pattern of Society’ on the basis of Industrial Policy statement 1956. In the Second Plan, the major thrust was to accelerate the process of industrialization by laying emphasis on basic and heavy industries.
  2. The success of the First Five Year Plan was primarily due to a good harvest in the last two years of the plan. During the Second Five Year Plan, prices increased by 30% against a decline of 13% during the First Plan.

Question 6.
Describe briefly the composition and four functions of the Planning Commission of India.
Or
How was the Planning Commission of India set up? Mention its scope of work.
Answer:

The Planning Commission at the center is the apex body in the planning machinery of the country. The Planning Commission was set up in March 1950 by a resolution of the Government of India. In 1950, Planning Commission was set up under the chairmanship of Prime Minister Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.

Organization of Planning Commission: The composition of the Planning Commission has kept on changing according to the requirements of the time and whims of the government. The first Planning Commission consisted of a Chairman, a Deputy Chairman and five members. The Prime Minister is the Chairman and the Planning Minister is the Deputy Chairman. First Planning Commission was essentially composed of politicians.

Later on, Pt. Nehru added certain members from the public such as administrators, economists, and technical experts. Thug, the Planning Commission came to combine the political and non-political men. In addition to Chairman and Deputy Chairman, there are ten to twelve other members. Among them, there are five to six ministers, e.g., Minister for Human Resources Development, Finance Minister, Home Minister, Minister of Agriculture, and Minister of State for Planning. Besides, there are a few more members.

The Commission is divided into three major parts:
(a) Programme Advisors
(b) General Secretariat and
(c) Technical Division.

Functions of the Planning Commission

The resolution which created the Planning Commission mentioned the following functions of the Planning Commission :

  1. Assessment of Country’s Resources. To assess the material, capital, and human resources of the country, including technical personnel, and to investigate the possibilities of augmenting such of those resources as are found to be deficient in relation to the nation’s requirements.
  2. Formulation of Plans. To formulate a plan for the most effective and balanced utilization of the country’s resources.
  3. Determine Priorities. To define the stages of the Plan and propose the allocation of resources on the determination of priorities. The Ninth Plan has given priorities to the power sector, transport, and communications.
  4. To indicate the factors which are tending to retard economic development and determine the conditions in view of the current social and political situation should be established for the successful execution of the plan.
  5. To suggest machinery for securing the successful implementation of each stage of the plan.
  6. To appraise from time to time the progress made in the execution of each stage of the plan and to recommend necessary adjustments in policy and measures as may be necessary for the light of such appraisal.
  7. To make such interim recommendations on the basis of the prevailing economic conditions, current policies, etc., as may appear to be appropriate.
  8. To examine such specific problems as may be referred to it for advice by the Central and State Governments.

Besides the above-mentioned functions, another most important task of the Planning Commission is that of formulating the plans for development and assessment of their performance. Originally, Planning Commission was set up as an expert advisory body only. But with the passage of time, the Planning Commission has built for itself a status of high prestige and commanding influence; In view of the enormous increase in the powers of the Planning Commission, it has come to be known as the Economic Cabinet.

In January 2015, NITI Aayog was established in place of the Planning Commission.

Question 7.
Elaborate any three arguments are given by the critics against the mixed model of the economy adopted by India.
Answer:

Following are the arguments given by the critics against the mixed model of the economy adopted by India.

  1. Critics argue that the planners have not provided sufficient space for the private sector to grow.
  2. Enlarge public sector have their own interests as they invested more and they create hurdles for the private small sectors.
  3. State policies also put restrictions on the export items and domestic market due to lesser competition do not have the incentive to improve their products. The state instead of helping the poor, help the private sector to make more profit and thus create a new ‘middle class’ with high salaries and perks.

Question 8.
Write a note on Niti Aayog.
Answer:

Niti Aayog with a new structure and focus on a policy is the replacement of 64 years old planning commission, which was seen as a vestige of the socialist era. The replacement of the Planning Commission with the new institution more relevant and responsive to the present economic needs and climate in the country had long been demanded and expected. Since 1990, the Government had been dismissive of the Planning Commission, because after the dismissal of licensed government this commission was working like an advisory-board only.

Former Prime minister Rajiv Gandhi had called the commission a bunch of jokers. Even Manmohan Singh and former planning commission Deputy Chairman like K.C. Pant tried some attempts to explore some changes. Former Centre-minister, Kamal Nath named this commission as ‘ArmChair Advisor’ and Parking plot for bureaucrats. Arun Maria, a member of the Planning Commission who headed the Boston Consulting Group (BCG) in India, recommended the changes in the structure, role function, and resources.

Narendra Modi, as the Chief-minister Gujrat had many times pointed the short-comings of the planning commission that is why in May 2014, Narendra Modi led the National Democratic Alliance government to announce the replacement of the 65 years old planning commission with a new institution called Niti Aayog. He called upon an important meeting of Chief-ministers in Delhi on 7 December 2014 and stressed upon greater participation of the state governments in policy-making stressing on India’s diversity and plurality, the Aayog will foster a spirit of co-operative federalism with the sole principle of developing a pro-people, pro-active and participative development agenda stressing on empowerment and equality.

Composition of Niti Aayog Niti Aayog-National Institution for transforming, India is composed to ensure greater participation of state governments in policy making-thus fostering co-operative federalism-and will be more attuned to the nation’s contemporary needs.

  1. Chairperson- Prime-minister
  2. Vice-Chair-person- Nominated by the prime- minister
  3. Chief-Executive officer (C.E.O.) – nominated by prime-minister.
  4. Governing Council-Chief ministers and Lt. Governors of Union Territories.
  5. Regional Council (formed on a need basis)- Chief Ministers and Lt. Governors of Union-Territories
  6. Full time-members- Maximum five-members.
  7. Short term members- Two ex-officio-members
  8. Ex-officio members-Four central ministers Special Invitees- Experts, specialists, practitioners with domain knowledge.

On January 5, 2015, the great economist Arvind Panagariya was appointed as Vice-chairman of the Niti Aayog and then Sindu Shree Khullar was appointed as the first CEO of the Niti Aayog. On December 29, 2015. Sh. Amitabh Kant appointed as CEO of Niti Aayog after the retirement of Sindushree Khullar on 5th August 2017. Sh Rajiv Kumar appointed as vice-chairman of Niti Aayog.

Departments

  • It works like an assembly of interstates problems and their relations etc.
  • It checks and plans long-term plans.
  • Thirdly, it deals with direct benefit, transfer, and UIDAI.

Aims of Objectives: The objectives of the new body is to evolve a shared vision of national development priorities sectors and strategies. Being an incubator of ideas for effective governance would be the core mission of NITI Aayog. following are the objectives of the new national agenda’.

  1. Recommend strategical and technical advice on elements of policy and economic matters.
  2. Develop a mechanism for village level plans and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government.
  3. Serve as a ‘think-tank’ a directional and policy dynamo for the government and will provide suggestions for the economy including the private sector.
  4. Create a knowledge, innovation, and entrepreneurial support system for national and international experts and other partners.
  5. Offer a platform for the country’s development agendas.
  6. Focus on the technology of implementation of programs and initiatives.

Working: National Institution for Transforming India is-

  1. To evolve a shared vision of national development priorities sectors and strategies with the active involvement of states in the light of national objectives.
  2. To foster co-operative feudalism through structured support initiatives and mechanisms with the states on a continuous basis, recognizing that strong states make a strong nation.
  3. To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at the higher levels of government.
  4. To ensure, on areas that are specifically referred to it, that the interest of national security are incorporated in economic strategy and policy.
  5. To pay special attention to the sections of our society that may be at risk of benefiting adequately from economic progress.

Niti Aayog will work under the supervision of chief-ministers and specialists in different fields. Aayog will ensure greater participation of state- governments in policy-making thus fostering co-operative federalism-and will be more attuned to the nation’s contemporary needs.

The first meeting of Niti-Aayog took place on 6th Feb 2015 and was attended by prime-minister, Narendra Modi, finance minister Arun Jaitly and vice-chairman Sh Arvind Panagariya. Other full-time members V.K. Saraswat, Nitin Gadkari, Thawar Chand Gehlot, G.N. Vajpayee, Rajiv Kumar, Rajiv Lal, R. Vaidyanathan Parath Sarthi Soam, Subeer Gokarn, Mukesh Burani, etc. also attended the meeting.

The second meeting of Niti Aayog took place on 15th July 2015, in which PM desired that center and states must move together to end poverty, states units should be the focus of all developments as a part of team India. The council held consultations on the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation, and Resettlement Act. The Prime-minister welcomed and thanked the chief minister for their participation and suggestions for the development of rural areas and greater prosperity for the farmers. He also asked for suggestions for the success of Betti Bachao, Betti Paradao Plan, Smartcity, Digital India, Skill India, Make in India Swach Bharat, etc. plannings.

The opposition criticized the decision to establish NITI Aayog calling it a gin mickey and renamed it as Anati ordurniti Aayog. However, the working of a new institution can be judged only after it has functioned for a sufficiently long time. The efficiency of the Niti Aayog will depend crucially on the quality of experts and how they are allowed to work, Also-the success of the ‘Niti Aayog’ lies in restoring the balance between the technical and political (federal) drivers of the planning process.

It is much too early to think on talk in terms of administrative capacities unless, it trickles down, achache din’ will hardly be felt by the common man. Niyat and Niti’ are inextricably intertwined, the best that can be said for the Aayog is that we should give it sufficient’ time to reveal itself and the out¬come contingent on it. The Aayog’s functioning could make or break the economic development of India in the future.

Question 9.
What was Green Revolution? Examine any two positives and two negative consequences of the Green Revolution.
Answer:

In the 1960s, India was facing a food crisis due to many reasons. India was dependent on the U.S.A. for food which was putting many limitations on India’s policies. Indian Government decided to make India self-sufficient in food. Hence the government adopted a new strategy for agriculture in order to increase food production. Since the mid-1960s, the traditional agricultural practices were gradually replaced by modern technology.

The use of high-yielding variety seeds and the increased use of fertilizers and irrigation are simply called Green Revolution or modern agricultural technology. As a result of the Green Revolution, the area under improved seeds has gone up from about 15 million hectares during 1970-71 to nearly 75 million hectares in 1995-96. The new varieties are of a short term duration and consequently, instead of growing one crop, two crops and sometimes even three crops are grown.

The major benefits of the Green Revolution were experienced mainly in northern and northwestern India. Unprecedented enthusiasm has prevailed among farmers in Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Rajasthan, and Western U.P. for the new wheat variety seeds and a situation developed in which the demand for seeds by farmers exceeded the supply.

Economic Results/Positive Consequences of the Green Revolution.

  1. The major achievement of the Green Revolution was to boost the production of major cereals viz wheat and rice.
  2. As a result of the Green Revolution, the crop pattern in India has undergone significant changes.
  3. The green revolution largely increased the growth of the local manufacturing sector which created new jobs and contributed to the country’s GDP.
  4. India became self-sufficient in food and India was in a position to pay back all loans it had taken from the World Bank for the purpose of the Green Revolution.
  5. Green Revolution has helped the growth of capitalist farming in India and has led to the concentration of wealth in the hands of the top 10 percent of the rural population.

Political Results of the Green Revolution.

  1. India became self-sufficient in food and thus India’s prestige increased in the world, especially in the third world.
  2. Green Revolution was a big factor in making Smt. Indira Gandhi and Congress Party more powerful.

Two Negative Consequences of Green Revolution
(i) Green Revolution led to the concentration of wealth in the hands of the top 10 percent of the rural population. The green revolution had widened the gap between poor and small farmers and rich landlords.
(ii) Green Revolution has proved beneficial to the medium category peasants because they could receive the advantage of mediation between small farmers and rich landlords.

Question 10.
Assess any six outcomes of planning in India.
Answer:

After independence, India adopted economic planning for the development of the people of India. In fact, there was a consensus on the planned development.

For planned development, Planning Commission was set up in March 1950 by a simple resolution of the Government of India. The Planning Commission opted for Five Year Plans. The First Five Year Plan was started in 1951 with the main emphasis on agriculture including investment in Dam and irrigations. The Second Five Year Plan (1956-1961) stressed mainly heavy industries. Rapid industrialization was the main aim of the Second Five Year Plan. Following are the outcomes of planning in India:

  1. Through planning the foundations of India is future economic growth were laid.
  2. Some of the heavy industries were Started.
  3. Planning enhances the economic growth of the country.
  4. Land Reforms lake place through planning.
  5. Through planning the growth of manufacturing was increasing.
  6. India becomes self-sufficient in food.

im-1

im-2

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NCERT MCQ CLASS – 12 | POLITICAL SCIENCE PART-B POLITICS IN INDIA SINCE INDEPENDENCE NCERT MCQ | CHAPTER- 12 | POLITICS IN PLANNED DEVELOPMENT | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 12 POLITICS IN PLANNED DEVELOPMENT NCERT MCQ for Class 12 POLITICAL SCIENCE PART-B POLITICS IN INDIA SINCE INDEPENDENCE which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter

NCERT MCQ ON POLITICS IN PLANNED DEVELOPMENT

Question 1 : Tripura State Planning Board was set up in
(a) 1972
(b) 1971
(c) 1978
(d) 1985

Answer :  C

Question 2: Which of the following is not a feature of Indian planning
(a) Development planning
(b) Indicative planning
(c) Democratic planning
(d) Centralized planning

Answer :  D 

Question 3 : Who amongst the following is the chairperson of NITI Aayog
(a) The president
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Union Minister
(d) The Finance Minister

Answer :  B

Question 4: Who appoints the Vice-Chairperson of NITI Aayog
(a) The Prime Minster
(b) The President
(c) The Chief Executive Officer
(d) The Union Minister

Answer :  A

Question 5: Number of part-time members in NITI Aayog is
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) Not exceeding 2
(d) 2

Answer :  C

Question 6 : A rolling plan refers to a plan which
(a) Does not change its target every year
(b) Changes its allocation every year
(c) Changes its allocation and target every year
(d) Changes only its target every year

Answer :  C

Question 7: Who amongst the following is the longest serving member of Tripura State Planning Board
(a) Sri Nripen Chakraborty
(b) Sri M.L.Debnath
(c) Sri Jiten Chowdhury
(d) Sri Sudhir Majumder

Answer :  B

Question 8 : The concept of Participatory Development was introduced in
(a) 1980s
(b) 1970s
(c) 1950s
(d) 2000s

Answer :  B

Question 9 : “GRAND INNOVATION CHALLENGE” was launched by
(a) NITI Aayog
(b) Planning Commission
(c) National Planning Committee
(d) Finance Commission

Answer :  A

Question 10 : Full form of NITI Aayog is
(a) National Institute for Transforming India
(b) National Institution for transforming India
(c) National Institute for Transmitting India
(d) None of the above

Answer :  B

Question 11 : Engagement of local people in development project refers to
(a) Economic Development
(b) Social Development
(c) Participatory Development
(d) Sustainable Development.

Answer :  C

Question 12 : The entire process of participatory development can be completed in
(a) 4 stages
(b) 5 stages
(c) 2 stage
(d) 3 stages

Answer :  A

Question 13: The form of Participation where the primary stakeholders participate in the discussion and analysis of pre-determined objectives is called
(a) Empowerment participation
(b) Participation by collaboration
(c) Participation by consultation
(d) Passive participation

Answer :  B

Question 14 : The father of Indian planning is
(a) Jawahar lal Nehru
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) B.R. Ambedkar
(d) M. Vishveshshwariah

Answer :  D 

Question 15 : Panchayati Raj is a
(a) Two tier system
(b) Three tier system
(c) Four tier system
(d) None of the above.

Answer :  B

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NCERT MCQ CLASS – 12 | POLITICAL SCIENCE PART-B POLITICS IN INDIA SINCE INDEPENDENCE NCERT MCQ | CHAPTER- 10 | CHALLENGES IN NATION BUILDING | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 10 CHALLENGES IN NATION BUILDING NCERT MCQ for Class 12 POLITICAL SCIENCE PART-B POLITICS IN INDIA SINCE INDEPENDENCE which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter

NCERT MCQ ON CHALLENGES IN NATION BUILDING

1. The States Reorganisation Commission was appointed in which year?

(a) 1950(b) 1951(c) 1953(d) 1954

► (c) 1953

2. The Cities that were divided into ‘communal zones’ during the partition violence were

(a) Lahore, Amritsar and Calcutta.(b) Kashmir, Lucknow and Allahabad.(c) Madras, Hyderabad and Mysore.(d) Delhi, Mumbai and Gwalior

.► (a) Lahore, Amritsar and Calcutta.

3. The idea of constitution by

(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.(b) M N Rao.(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.(d) Rajagopalachari.

► (b) M N Rao.

4. The states created in 1960 were________.

(a) Maharashtra and Gujarat(b) Orissa and West Bengal (c) Rajasthan and Gujarat(d) Punjab and Haryana

► (a) Maharashtra and Gujarat

5. Which state was not created in 2000?

(a) Jharkhand(b) Chhattisgarh(c) Uttaranchal(d) Bihar

► (d) Bihar

6. The ”communal zones” exclude

(a) Lahore.(b) Amritsar.(c) Kolkata.(d) Jammu & Kashmir.

► (d) Jammu & Kashmir.

7. Mohammed Ali Jinnah addressed the constituent assembly of Pakistan in Karachi on:

(a) 11th August, 1947(b) 12th August, 1947(c) 13th August, 1947(d) 14th August, 1947

► (a) 11th August, 1947

8. Amrita pritam was a prominent poet from

(a) Punjab.(b) Gujarat.(c) Mumbai.(d) Madras.

► (a) Punjab.

9. Name the original state from which Chattisgarh was carved out.

(a) Uttar Pradesh(b) Bihar(c) Jharkhand(d) Madhya Pradesh

► (d) Madhya Pradesh

10. Which one of the following leaders played a vital role in the integration of princely states with India?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel(c) Jawaharlal Nehru(d) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar

► (b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

11. How many princely states existed at the time of independence of India?

(a) 560(b) 562(c) 563(d) 565

► (d) 565

12. When Meghalaya was carved out of Assam?

(a) 1970(b) 1971(c) 1972(d) 1973

► (c) 1972

13. When Gujarat was carved out of Bombay?

(a) 1950(b) 1960(c) 1970(d) 1980

► (b) 1960

14. Which one of the following is a princely states of India initially resisted to join the Indian Union?

(a) Baroda(b) Hyderabad(c) Mysore(d) Gwalior

► (b) Hyderabad

15 : The interim government formed under the cabinet mission plan was headed by

(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.(b) Jawaharlal Nehru.(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.(d) Rajagopalachari. 

► (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

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NCERT MCQ CLASS – 12 | POLITICAL SCIENCE PART-B POLITICS IN INDIA SINCE INDEPENDENCE NCERT MCQ | CHAPTER- 11 | ERA OF ONE PARTY DOMINANCE | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 11 ERA OF ONE PARTY DOMINANCE NCERT MCQ for Class 12 POLITICAL SCIENCE PART-B POLITICS IN INDIA SINCE INDEPENDENCE which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter

NCERT MCQ ON ERA OF ONE PARTY DOMINANCE

1. Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) is used to record

(a) politicians’ preferences. (b) voters’ preferences.(c) senior citizens’ preferences.(d) pressure groups’ preferences.

► (b) voters’ preferences.

2. The First General Elections in India were held in the year

(a) 1951.(b) 1952.(c) 1953.(d) 1954.

► (b) 1952.

3. The Indian leader who is the first recipient of the Bharat Ratna Award is

(a) Balraj Madhok.(b) Rajagopalachari.(c) B.R. Ambedkar.(d) K.M. Munshi.

► (b) Rajagopalachari.

4. The socialists advocated ideology of

(a) Democratic Socialism.(b) Socialism.(c) Communalism.(d) Hindutva.

► (a) Democratic Socialism.

5. The constitution of India came into effect on the

(a) 26 January 1948.(b) 12 March 1948.(c) 26 November 1949.(d) 26 January 1950

.► (d) 26 January 1950.

6. One of the guiding principles of the ideology of Swatantra Party was:

(a) Interests of the working class(b) Protection of princely states(c) Economy free from state control(d) Autonomy of states within the union

► (c) Economy free from state control

7. The party that won the second largest number of Lok Sabha seats in the first General elections was the

(a) Praja Socialist Party.(b) Bhartiya Jana Sangh.(c) Communist Party of India.(d) Bhartiya Janta party.

► (c) Communist Party of India.

8. Institutional Revolutionary Party exercised power in

:(a) Mexico  (b) Finland(c) Cairo(d) Brazil

► (a) Mexico  

9. In democracy, people use their power through the

(a) political parties.(b) co-operatives.(c) elections.(d) non-governmental organizations

.► (c) elections.

10. The first three Lok Sabha elections of 1952, 1957 and 1962 were dominated by the Congress Party under the leadership of:

(a) Mahatma Gandhi  (b) Indira Gandhi  (c) Shayama Prasad Mukherjee(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru

► (d) Jawahar Lal Nehru

11. Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India?

(a) Shayama Prasad Mukherjee(b) Sukumar Sen(c) Rajagopalachari(d) Balraj Madhok.

► (b) Sukumar Sen

12. Which one of the following is a state where Congress was not in power even after huge victory in the first general elections?

(a) Bihar(b) Orissa (c) Madhya Pradesh(d) Maharashtra

► (b) Orissa 

13. Who was the founder of Bharatiya Jana Sangh?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi  (b) Indira Gandhi  (c) Shayama Prasad Mukherjee(d) Sukumar Sen

► (c) Shayama Prasad Mukherjee

14. Name the founder President of Congress Socialist Party.

(a) Acharya Narendra Dev(b) K.M. Munshi.(c) Shayama Prasad Mukherjee(d) Sukumar Sen

► (a) Acharya Narendra Dev

15.In which year first general election was held in India?

(a) 1947 (b) 1952(c) 1955(d) 1960

► (b) 1952


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CHAPTER 13 : Computerised Accounting System NCERT MCQ CLASS 11TH ACCOUNTS | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON Computerised Accounting System:

Question 1.
In a computerised accounting system, operating environment consists of:

(a) Hardware
(b) Software
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of themAnswer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 2.
Among the below-mentioned options, which option does not specifies the advantage of computerised accounting
system :
(a) High speed
(b) Reliability
(c) Accuracy
(d) Ill-effect on healthAnswer

Answer: (d) Ill-effect on health


Question 3.
When any manual accounting system is transformed into a computerised accounting system, what do the employees
of an organisation undertake?
(a) Resist the change
(b) Accept the change
(c) Do nothing
(d) Take trainingAnswer

Answer: (d) Take training


Question 4.
Which among the accounting packages, level of secrecy is lowest?

(a) Tailored
(b) Customised
(c) Ready-to-use
(d) None of the aboveAnswer

Answer: (c) Ready-to-use


Question 5.
The basic requirement of a computerised accounting system is/are:

(a) Accounting framework
(b) Operating procedure
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the aboveAnswer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 6.
Which among these, cannot be treated as limitation of computerised accounting system?

(a) Security breach
(b) Staff opposition
(c) Automated document production
(d) Cost of trainingAnswer

Answer: (c) Automated document production


Question 7.
Liveware of the computer system are

(a) System analysts
(b) Programmers
(c) Operators
(d) All of the aboveAnswer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 8.
The criterion fulfilled by an effective accounting report is
(a) Relevance, Timeliness, Accuracy, Completeness and Summarisation
(b) Relevance, Timeliness, Accuracy, Completeness and Globalisation
(c) Relevance, Legibility, Speed, Automation
(d) Reliability, Accuracy, Scalability, Efficiency and QualityAnswer

Answer: (a) Relevance, Timeliness, Accuracy, Completeness and Summarisation


Question 9.
Which among these is not an example of operating system?
(a) Unix
(b) Tally
(c) Linux
(d) MS-DosAnswer

Answer: (b) Tally


Question 10.
The data storage system which remains hidden from the user and responds to the requirement of the user to the extent the user is authorised to access is known as:

(a) Back-end database
(b) Front-end database
(c) Data processing
(d) Reporting systemAnswer

Answer: (a) Back-end database


Question 11.
Modern computerised accounting system is based on the concept of database w hich is implemented using
(a) Management Information System
(b) Database Management System
(c) Marketing Information System
(d) Accounting Information SystemAnswer

Answer: (b) Database Management System


Question 12.
An accounting information system processes the financial transactions and events based on

(a) Governing Principles
(b) Management Principles
(c) Accepted Principles
(d) Generally Accepted Accounting PrinciplesAnswer

Answer: (d) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles


Question 13.
Among the following, which ready-to-use accounting software package is available in today’s market?
(a) Tally
(b) E.X.
(c) Busy
(d) The Professional Accountant
(e) All of the AboveAnswer

Answer: (e) All of the Above


Question 14.
Which among these, is not an example of system utility software?

(a) Anti-virus utility to scan computer for viruses
(b) Microsoft-office Package
(c) Disk compression utility to compress contents of a disk for increasing the capacity of a disk
(d) Disk partitioning to divide a single drive into multiple logical drivesAnswer

Answer: (b) Microsoft-office package


Question 15.
COBOL, BASIC, FORTRAN, C, C++, JAVA are examples of:
(a) High-level programming languages
(b) Low-level machine language
(c) Assembly language
(d) Application softwareAnswer

Answer: (a) High-level programming languages


Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The framework of storage and processing of data is called as …………….Answer

Answer: Operating Environment


Question 2.
Database is implemented using ……………..Answer

Answer: DBMS


Question 3.
A sequence of actions taken to transform the data into decision useful information is called ……………….Answer

Answer: Data Processing


Question 4.
An appropriate accounting software for a small business organisation having only one user and single office location would be ……………..Answer

Answer: Ready to use


Point out the statements are True or False.

Question 1.
Every computerised accounting system has two basic requirements.Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
in computerised accounting system transaction data duplicity is done.Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
System failure cannot be avoided by any arrangement.Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
Accounting records are updated automatically in computerised accounting system.Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
Accounting software can be customised to meet the special requirement of the user.Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
Tailored software is best suited for organisations whose business is geographically not scattered.Answer

Answer: False


Question 7.
Expenses under a particular head can be an example of responsibility report.Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
Language processor cannot check the language system.Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
There are four types of accounting packages.Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
Accounting data is processed slower by using a computerised accounting system than it is achieved through manual efforts.Answer

Answer: False

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CHAPTER 12 : Applications of Computers in Accounting NCERT MCQ CLASS 11TH ACCOUNTS | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON Applications of Computers in Accounting:

Question 1.
SQL is:

(a) Structured Query Language
(b) Sequential Query Language
(c) Structural Quantum LanguageAnswer

Answer: (a) Structured Query Language


Question 2.
Visual Display Unit is

(a) Hardware
(b) Software
(c) TimewareAnswer

Answer: (a) Hardware


Question 3.
Random Access Memory is a type of:

(a) Secondary Storage Device
(b) Processor
(c) Primary Storage Memory
(d) MotherboardAnswer

Answer: (c) Primary Storage Memory


Question 4.
The persons who design data processing systems are known as:

(a) Operators
(b) System Analysts
(c) Programmers
(d) UsersAnswer

Answer: (c) Programmers


Question 5.
Microsoft Word is a type of:

(a) Application Software
(b) Operating System
(c) Hardware
(d) Output DeviceAnswer

Answer: (a) Application Software


Question 6.
Which of the following is not a part of a computer terminal?

(a) Screen
(b) Disk Drive
(c) Floppy
(d) Power ButtonAnswer

Answer: (c) Floppy


Question 7.
A floppy is used

(a) like a printer
(b) to store data
(c) to input data into computerAnswer

Answer: (b) to store data


Question 8.
Software package is a

(a) Machine
(b) Programme
(c) Set of standard programmesAnswer

Answer: (c) Set of standard programmes


Question 9.
Which of the following is used as hardware?
(a) Spreadsheet
(b) Database
(c) NoneAnswer

Answer: (c) None


Question 10.
MICR is basically
(a) Output Device
(b) Storage Device
(c) Input DeviceAnswer

Answer: (c) Input Device


Fill in the blanks with suitable word or words

Question 1.
CPU is said to be the …………….. of a computer.Answer

Answer: brain


Question 2.
Accounting Information System processes the data and transforms it into …………….Answer

Answer: information


Question 3.
The function of Accounting Software is to perform ………………….Answer

Answer: accounting


Question 4.
Accounting softwares may be classified into (a) readymade software, (b) and (c) ………………Answer

Answer: customised and tailor-made softwares


Question 5.
Computers are dumb devices with ……………… Intelligence Quotient.Answer

Answer: Zero


Question 6.
Hardware of computer consists of ……………… components such as keyboard, mouse, monitor and processor.Answer

Answer: physical


Question 7.
The people who write programmes to implement the data processing system design are known as ……………….Answer

Answer: programmers


Question 8.
The ……………….. means a series of operations in a certain order or manner to achieve desired results.Answer

Answer: procedure


Question 9.
The report on cash position, to be submitted by the Head of Finance & Accounts Department is an example of ………………… Report.Answer

Answer: Responsibility


Question 10.
An example of Summary Reports is ………………….Answer

Answer: Profit & Loss Account


Question 11.
……………….. and ………………. are the criterion to be fulfilled by every accounting report.Answer

Answer: Relevance and Timelines


Question 12.
……………….. software are a set of programmes which create and control a connection between a computer and a server to communicate and sharing of resources.Answer

Answer: Connectivity


State whether each of the following statement is ‘True’ or ‘False’

Question 1.
Computer is like an electronic calculator.Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
Printer is used to store data.Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
Computer can receive information only through terminals.Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
Printer is an input device.Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
Memory is like a store house of the computer.Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
Computer is an automation tool.Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
Advent of computer have complicated the accounting functions.Answer

Answer: False


Question 8.
Computer machine is popularly called as software.Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
The Central Processing Unit consists of control unit, arithmetic logic unit and memory unit.Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
Keyboard is the most used piece of hardware in the input phase of a computer-based information system.Answer

Answer: True


Question 11.
In tire output phase of a computer-based information system, information is produced in hard copy and/or soft copy.Answer

Answer: True


Question 12.
Information is the product of data processing.Answer

Answer: True


Question 13.
Data items grasped together for storage purpose are called a record.Answer

Answer: True


Question 14.
AIS is the sub-system of MIS.Answer

Answer: True


Question 15.
Computer has zero IQ.Answer

Answer: True


Match the following

Column AColumn B
(i) Operating Software(a) Monitor
(ii) Output Device(b) Dot Matrix Printer
(iii) Secondary Storage Device(c) Keyboard
(iv) Input Device(d) Pen Drive
(v) AIS(e) RAM
(vi) Printer(f) MS-DOS
(vii) Memory(g) Accounting Information Systems
(viii) Capabilities of Computer(h) Management Information Systems
(ix) Element of Computer(i) connectivity
(x) MIS(j) Accuracy

Answer:

Column AColumn B
(i) Operating Software(f) MS-DOS
(ii) Output Device(a) Monitor
(iii) Secondary Storage Device(d) Pen Drive
(iv) Input Device(c) Keyboard
(v) AIS(g) Accounting Information Systems
(vi) Printer(b) Dot Matrix Printer
(vii) Memory(e) RAM
(viii) Capabilities of Computer(j) Accuracy
(ix) Element of Computer(i) connectivity
(x) MIS(h) Management Information Systems

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Chapter -17 साँस-साँस में बाँस | NCERT Hindi Solutions | EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions are considered an extremely helpful resource for exam preparation. Edugrown gives its users access to a profuse supply of NCERT questions and their solutions. CBSE Class 6 Hindi NCERT Solutions are created by experts of the subject, hence, sure to prepare students to score well. The questions provided in NCERT Books are prepared in accordance with CBSE, thus holding higher chances of appearing on CBSE question papers. Not only do these NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Hindi strengthen students’ foundation in the subject, but also give them the ability to tackle different types of questions easily.

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Hindi वसंत, भाग 1

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Hindi Chapter 17 साँस-साँस में बाँस

पाठ्यपुस्तक के प्रश्न-अभ्यास

निबंध से

प्रश्न 1.
बाँस को बूढ़ा कब कहा जा सकता है? युवा बाँस में कौन सी विशेषता होती है जो बूढ़े बाँस में नहीं पाई जाती?
उत्तर-
तीन साल और उससे अधिक उम्र वाले बाँस को बूढ़ा कहा जाता है। बूढ़े बाँस सख्त होते हैं और टूट भी जाते हैं। युवा बाँस मुलायम होते हैं। उसे सामान बनाने के लिए किसी भी तरह मोड़ा जा सकता है।

प्रश्न 2.
बाँस से बनाई जाने वाली चीजों में सबसे आश्चर्यजनक चीज़ तुम्हें कौन सी लगी और क्यों?
उत्तर-
बाँस से बनाई जाने वाली चीजों में सबसे आश्चर्यजनक मुझे जो चीज़ लगी है वह है मछली पकड़ने वाला जाल ‘जकाई’ इसकी बुनावट बहुत कठिन है, लेकिन इससे मछलियाँ जिस तरह फँसाई जाती हैं, वह भी बहुत आश्चर्यजनक है।

प्रश्न 3.
बाँस की बुनाई मानव के इतिहास में कब आरंभ हुई होगी?
उत्तर-
बाँस की बुनाई मानव के इतिहास में तब आरंभ हुई होगी, जब से इंसान ने हाथ से कलात्मक चीजें बनानी आरंभ की और जब मानव घूम-घूम कर भोजन एकत्र किया करता था। भोजन के लिए उसे एक डलियानुमा वस्तु की जरूरत पड़ी होगी। तभी उसने बाँस की बुनाई से डलिया बनाई होगी। बाद में वह कलात्मक वस्तुएँ बनाने लगा होगा।

प्रश्न 4.
बाँस के विभिन्न उपयोगों से संबंधित जानकारी देश के किस भू-भाग के संदर्भ में दी गई है? एटलस में देखो।
उत्तर-
बाँस भारत के कई भागों में बहुतायत में होता है। मुख्यतः उत्तर-पूर्वी सात राज्यों में। ये राज्य हैं- अरुणाचल प्रदेश, असम, मेघालय, नागालैंड, मिजोरम, मणिपुर, त्रिपुरा। इन राज्यों का पता छात्र स्वयं एटलस में कर सकते हैं।

निबंध से आगे

प्रश्न 1.
बाँस के कई उपयोग इस पाठ में बताए गए हैं लेकिन बाँस के उपयोग का दायरा बहुत बड़ा है। नीचे दिए गए शब्दों की मदद से तुम इस दायरे को पहचान सकते हो-

  1. संगीत
  2. मच्छर
  3. फर्नीचर
  4. प्रकाशन
  5. एक नया संदर्भ

उत्तर-

  1. संगीत- बाँस से संगीत के लिए बाँसुरी एवं शहनाई बनायी जाती है।
  2. मच्छर- मच्छरदानी लगाने के लिए भी बाँसों की आवश्यकता होती है।
  3. फ़र्नीचर- बाँस से फ़र्नीचर बनाया जाता है।
  4. प्रकाशन- प्रकाशन के लिए बाँस से कागज बनाया जाता है।
  5. एक नया संदर्भ- बाँस से खिलौने, बरतन, मकान, अचार भी बनाया जाता है।

प्रश्न 2.
इस लेख में दैनिक उपयोग की चीजें बनाने के लिए बाँस का उल्लेख प्राकृतिक संसाधन के रूप में हुआ है। नीचे दिए गए प्राकृतिक संसाधनों से दैनिक उपयोग की कौन-कौन सी चीजें बनाई जाती हैं-
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Hindi Chapter 17 साँस-साँस में बाँस Q2
इनमें से किन्हीं दो प्राकृतिक संसाधनों का इस्तेमाल करते हुए कोई एक चीज़ बनाने का तरीका अपने शब्दों में लिखो।
उत्तर-

  • चमड़ा- जूता, बैग, पर्स, बेल्ट एवं बहुमूल्य वस्तुओं की कवर।
  • घास के तिनके- चटाई, खिलौना, टोकरी इत्यादि।
  • पेड़ की छाल- कागज़, अगरबत्ती, वस्त्र इत्यादि।
  • मिट्टी- बरतन, मकान, खिलौना, गुल्लक इत्यादि।
  • गोबर- उपले, घर की लिपाई-पुताई, खाद इत्यादि।

चमड़े को काटकर और घिसकर पर्स तथा थैले बनाए जा सकते हैं। हमें चमड़े को सही आकार में काटना तथा रँगना आना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 3.
जिन जगहों की साँस में बाँस बसा है, अखबार और टेलीविज़न के ज़रिए उन जगहों की कैसी तसवीर तुम्हारे मन में बनती है?
उत्तर-
‘साँस में बाँस होने’ का अर्थ है-बाँस पर पूरी तरह निर्भर होना। हम बाँस उगने व चीजें बनाने वाली जगहों की तसवीरें अखबार और टेलीविज़न में देखते हैं। उनके इलाकों में चारों तरफ़ बाँस के झुरमुट या झाड़ियाँ नज़र आती हैं। लोग बाँस के बने घरों में रहते हैं, बाँस की बनी टोपियाँ पहनते हैं। उनके फ़र्नीचर, बरतन, औज़ार और कुछ खाद्य पदार्थ भी बाँस के बने होते हैं। बाँस पर उनका व्यवसाय चलता है। बाँस की बनी सामग्री वे बाज़ार में बेचते हैं, जैसे-टोकरी, जाल, चटाई, खिलौने आदि। उनके घरों के आसपास बाँस की खपच्चियाँ बिखरी दिखाई देती हैं। वे अधिकतर अपनी आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति के लिए बाँस पर निर्भर रहते हैं।

अनुमान और कल्पना

इस पाठ में कई हिस्से हैं जहाँ किसी काम को करने का तरीका समझाया गया है; जैसेछोटी मछलियों को पकड़ने के लिए इसे पानी की सतह पर रखा जाता है या फिर धीरे-धीरे चलते हुए खींचा जाता है। बाँस की खपच्चियों को इस तरह बाँधा जाता है कि वे शंकु का आकार ले लें। इस शंकु का ऊपरी सिरा अंडाकार होता है। निचले नुकीले सिरे पर खपच्चियाँ एक-दूसरे में गॅथी हुई होती हैं।
इस वर्णन को ध्यान से पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर अनुमान लगाकर दो। यदि अंदाज लगाने में दिक्कत हो तो आपस में बातचीत करके सोचो-
प्रश्न
(क) बाँस से बनाए गए शंकु के आकार का जाल छोटी मछलियों को पकड़ने के लिए ही क्यों इस्तेमाल किया जाता है?
(ख) शंकु का ऊपरी हिस्सा अंडाकार होता है तो नीचे का हिस्सा कैसा दिखाई देता है?


(ग) इस जाल से मछली पकड़ने वालों को धीरे-धीरे क्यों चलना पड़ता है?
उत्तर-
(क) शंकु के आकार वाले अर्थात् बड़े मुँह वाले जाल में अधिक मछलियाँ आ जाती हैं इसलिए बॉस से बनाए गए शंकु के आकार के जाल का उपयोग किया जाता है।
(ख) शंकु का ऊपरी हिस्सा अंडाकार होता है और नीचे का हिस्सा बड़ी परिधिवाला वृत्ताकार दिखाई देता है।
(ग) जाल में मछलियों की संख्या बहुत होती है मछलियों के भार से जाल टूट जाने का डर रहता है इसलिए इस जाल से मछलियों को पकड़ने वालों को धीरे-धीरे चलना पड़ता है। तेज चलने से मछलियाँ जाल में टकराएँगी और वे वापस जलस्रोत की ओर जा सकती हैं।

शब्दों पर गौर

हाथों की कलाकारी घनघोर बारिश बुनाई का सफ़र आड़ा-तिरछा डलियानुमा कहे मुताबिक
इन वाक्यांशों का वाक्यों में प्रयोग करो-
उत्तर-

  • हाथों की कलाकारी – बाँस से ज़्यादातर वस्तुओं का निर्माण हाथों की कलाकारी से ही संभव होता है।
  • घनघोर बारिश – आज यहाँ सवेरे से घनघोर बारिश हो रही है।
  • बुनाई का सफ़र – बाँसों की बुनाई का सफ़र आदिमानव काल से चली आ रही है।
  • आड़ा-तिरछा – बाँसों को आड़ा-तिरछा आकार देकर ही अलग-अलग वस्तुओं का निर्माण होता है।
  • डलियानुमा – यह डलियानुमा टोकरी काफ़ी उपयोगी है।
  • कहे मुताबिक – आपके कहे मुताबिक मैंने अपना गृहकार्य स्वयं कर लिया।

व्याकरण

प्रश्न 1.
‘बनावट’ शब्द ‘बुन’ क्रिया में ‘आवट’ प्रत्यय जोड़ने से बनता है। इसी प्रकार नुकीला, दबाव, घिसाई भी मूल शब्द में विभिन्न प्रत्यय जोड़ने से बने हैं। इन चारों शब्दों में प्रत्ययों को पहचानो और उनसे तीन-तीन शब्द और बनाओ। इन शब्दों का वाक्यों में भी प्रयोग करो-
बुनावट
नुकीला
दबाव
घिसाई
उत्तर-
बुने + ओवट = बुनावट (प्रत्यय = आवट)

  • लिखावट- नेहा की लिखावट अच्छी है।
  • सजावट- तुम्हारे घर की सजावट बहुत अच्छी है।
  • रुकावट- रास्ते में रुकावट है।

नुकीला (प्रत्यय-ईला)

  • बरफ़ीला- केदारनाथ काफ़ी बरफ़ीला इलाका है।
  • जहरीला- जहरीला भोजन मत करो।
  • पथरीला- यह रास्ता पथरीला है।
  • चमकीला- उसका कमीज़ काफ़ी चमकीला है।

दबाव (दब + आव) = (प्रत्यर्य-आव)

  • बहाव- नदी के पानी का बहाव तेज है।
  • ठहराव- उसके जीवन में ठहराव आ गया है।
  • जमाव- बारिश के पानी की जमाव देखने लायक है।

पिसाई पिस + आई = (प्रत्यय आई)

  • धुनाई- पुलिस ने चोर की अच्छी धुनाई की।
  • सफ़ाई- साफ़-सफ़ाई से घर सुंदर लगता है।
  • पिसाई- गेहूँ की पिसाई करो।

प्रश्न 2.
नीचे पाठ से कुछ वाक्य दिए गए हैं-

  1. वहाँ बाँस की चीजें बनाने का चलन भी खूब है।
  2. हम यहाँ बाँस की एक-दो चीज़ों को ही जिक्र कर पाए हैं।
  3. मसलन आसन जैसी छोटी चीजें बनाने के लिए बाँस को हरेक गठान से काटा जाता है।
  4. खपच्चियों से तरह-तरह की टोपियाँ भी बनाई जाती हैं।
    रेखांकित शब्दों को ध्यान में रखते हुए इन बातों को अलग ढंग से लिखो।

उत्तर-

  1. वहाँ बाँस की चीजें बनाने की परंपरा भी खूब है।
  2. हम यहाँ बाँस की एक-दो चीज़ों की ही चर्चा कर पाए हैं।
  3. उदाहरण के लिए आसन जैसी छोटी-चीजें बनाने के लिए बाँस को हर एक गाँठ से काटा जाता है।
  4. खपच्चियों से कई प्रकार की टोपियाँ भी बनाई जाती है।

प्रश्न 3.
तर्जनी हाथ की किस उँगली को कहते हैं? बाकी उँगलियों को क्या कहते हैं? सभी उँगलियों के नाम अपनी भाषा में में पता करो और कक्षा में अपने साथियों और शिक्षक को बताओ।
उत्तर-
तर्जनी हाथ के अँगूठे के साथ वाली उँगली को कहते हैं? बाकी उँगलियों को मध्यमा, अनामिका, कनिष्का, अंगुष्ठा कहते हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
अंगुष्ठा, तर्जनी, मध्यमा, अनामिका, कनिष्ठा, ये पाँच उँगलियों के नाम हैं। इन्हें पहचानकर सही क्रम में लिखो।
उत्तर-
छात्र स्वयं करें।

अन्य पाठेतर हल प्रश्न

बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्नोत्तर

(क) भारत में बाँस किस प्रांत में अधिक पाया जाता है?
(i) नागालैंड
(ii) असम
(iii) मणिपुर व त्रिपुरा
(iv) उपर्युक्त सभी

(ख) बाँस इकट्ठा करने का मौसम कौन-सा है?
(i) जनवरी से मार्च
(ii) जुलाई से अक्टूबर
(iii) नवंबर एवं दिसंबर
(iv) अप्रैल से जून

(ग) बूढ़ा बाँस कैसा होता है?
(i) नरम
(ii) कमजोर
(iii) सख्त
(iv) लचीला

(घ) चंगकीचंगलनबा थे?
(i) वैज्ञानिक
(ii) लेखक
(iii) जादूगर
(iv) कारीगर

(ङ) ‘साँस-साँस में बाँस’ पाठ में किस राज्य की बात की जा रही है?
(i) मणिपुर
(ii) त्रिपुरा
(iii) असम
(iv) नागालैंड

उत्तर

(क) (iv)
(ख) (ii)
(ग) (iii)
(घ) (iii)
(ङ) (iv)

अतिलघु उत्तरीय प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न 1.
भारत में बाँस कहाँ-कहाँ बहुतायत से पाया जाता है?
उत्तर-
बाँस भारत के उत्तर-पूर्वी क्षेत्र के सातों राज्यों-अरुणाचल प्रदेश, असम, मेघालय, नागालैंड, मणिपुर, मिजोरम व त्रिपुरा में बहुतायत से पाया जाता है। वहाँ के लोग बाँस का भरपूर उपयोग करते हैं। यह वहाँ के लोगों के पालन-पोषण का बहुत बड़ा साधन है।

प्रश्न 2.
बाँस से क्या-क्या चीजें बनाई जाती हैं?
उत्तर-
बाँस से चटाइयाँ, टोकरियाँ, बरतन, बैलगाड़ियाँ, फ़र्नीचर, खिलौने, सजावटी सामान, जाल, मकान, पुल आदि चीजें बनाई जाती हैं?

प्रश्न 3.
खपच्चियाँ बनाने के लिए किस प्रकार के बाँसों की आवश्यकता होती है?
उत्तर-
खपच्चियाँ ऐसे बाँसों से बनायी जाती हैं जो सख्त न हों, क्योंकि सख्त बाँस टूट जाते हैं। बूढ़े बाँस सख्त होते हैं। एक से तीन वर्ष की उम्र वाले बाँस लचीले होते हैं। ऐसे बाँस खपच्चियाँ बनाने के लिए बहुत उपयोगी होते हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
बूढ़े बाँस की क्या पहचान है?
उत्तर-
तीन साल से अधिक आयु का बाँस बूढ़ा माना जाता है। बूढ़ा बाँस सख्त होता है जिसके कारण बहुत जल्दी टूट जाता है।

लघुउत्तरीय प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न 1.
जादूगर चंगकीचंगलनबा की कब्र के साथ क्या किस्सा जुड़ा है?
उत्तर-
एक जादूगर थे-चंगकीचंगलनबा। अपने जीवन में उन्होंने कई बड़े-बड़े करतब दिखलाए। जब वे मरने को हुए तो लोगों से बोले, मुझे दफ़नाए जाने के छठे दिन मेरी कब्र खोदकर देखोगे तो कुछ नया-सा पाओगे। कहा जाता है कहे मुताबिक मौत के छठे दिन उनकी कब्र खोदी गई और उसमें से निकले बाँस की टोकरियों के कई सारे डिज़ाइन। लोगों ने उन्हें देखा, पहले उनकी नकल की और फिर नई डिज़ाइने भी बनाई।

प्रश्न 2.
बाँस की बुनाई कैसे होती है?
उत्तर-
बाँस की बुनाई वैसी ही होती है जैसे कोई और बुनाई। पहले खपच्चियों को आड़ा-तिरछा रखा जाता है, फिर बाने को। बारी-बारी से ताने से ऊपर-नीचे किया जाता है। इससे चेक का डिजाइन बनता है। पलंग की निवाड़ की बुनाई की तरह। टोकरी के सिरे पर खपच्चियों को या तो चोटी की तरह गूंथ लिया जाता है या फिर कटे सिरों को नीचे की ओर मोड़कर फँसा दिया जाता है।

प्रश्न 3.
खपच्चियों को किस प्रकार से रंगा जाता है?
उत्तर-
खपच्चियों को गुड़हल के फूलों व इमली की पत्तियों आदि के रस से रंगा जाता है। काले रंग के लिए खपच्चियों को आम की छाल में लपेटकर मिट्टी में दबाकर रखा जाता है।

प्रश्न 4.
किस मौसम में लोगों के पास खाली वक्त होता है? ऐसे मौसम में वे क्या करते हैं?
उत्तर-
जुलाई से अक्टूबर के महीनों में खूब वर्षा होती है। बारिश के इस मौसम में लोगों के पास बहुत खाली समय होता है। इस समय में लोग जंगलों में बाँस इकट्ठा कर सकते हैं।

प्रश्न 5.
खपच्चियों को तैयार करने में किस बात का ध्यान रखा जाता है?
उत्तर-
खपच्चियों के लिए ऐसे बाँसों को चुना जाता है जिनमें गाँठ-गाँठ दूर-दूर होती है। दाओ यानी चौड़े चाँद जैसी फाल वाले चाकू से इन्हें छीलकर खपच्चियाँ तैयार की जाती हैं। खपच्चियों की लंबाई पहले से ही तय कर ली जाती है; जैसे-आसन जैसी छोटी चीजें बनाने के लिए बाँस को हरेक गठान से काटा जाता है। येकरी बनाने के लिए लगभग दो या तीन गठानों वाली लंबी खपच्चियाँ काटी जाती हैं। यह इस बात पर निर्भर करती है कि टोकरी की लंबाई कितनी है।

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Chapter -16 वन के मार्ग में | NCERT Hindi Solutions | EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions are considered an extremely helpful resource for exam preparation. Edugrown gives its users access to a profuse supply of NCERT questions and their solutions. CBSE Class 6 Hindi NCERT Solutions are created by experts of the subject, hence, sure to prepare students to score well. The questions provided in NCERT Books are prepared in accordance with CBSE, thus holding higher chances of appearing on CBSE question papers. Not only do these NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Hindi strengthen students’ foundation in the subject, but also give them the ability to tackle different types of questions easily.

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Hindi वसंत, भाग 1

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Hindi Chapter 16 वन के मार्ग में

पाठ्यपुस्तक के प्रश्न-अभ्यास

सवैया से

प्रश्न 1.
नगर से बाहर निकलकर दो पग चलने के बाद सीता की क्या दशा हुई?
उत्तर-
नगर से बाहर निकलकर दो पग अर्थात थोड़ी दूर चलने के बाद सीता जी के माथे पर पसीने की बूंदें झलकने लगीं। उनके कोमल ओठ सूख गए। वे शीघ्र ही थक गईं।

प्रश्न 2.
‘अब और कितनी दूर चलना है, पर्नकुटी कहाँ बनाइएगा’-किसने, किससे पूछा और क्यों ?
उत्तर-
‘अब और कितना दूर चलना है, पर्नकुटी कहाँ बनाइएगा’ ये शब्द सीता जी ने श्रीराम से पूछे क्योंकि वे बहुत अधिक थक गई थीं।

प्रश्न 3.
राम ने थकी हुई सीता की क्या सहायता की?
उत्तर-
राम ने जब देखा कि सीता थक चुकी हैं, तो वह देर तक बैठकर पैरों से काँटे निकालने का अभिनय करते रहे, जिससे सीता को कुछ देर आराम करने का मौका मिल जाए और उनकी थकान कम हो जाए।

प्रश्न 4.
दोनों सवैयों के प्रसंगों में अंतर स्पष्ट करो।
उत्तर-
पहले सवैये में वन जाते समय सीता जी की व्याकुलता एवं थकान का वर्णन है। वे अपने गंतव्य के बारे में जानना चाहती हैं। पत्नी सीता की ऐसी बेहाल अवस्था देखकर रामचंद्र जी भी दुखी हो जाते हैं। जब सीता नगर से बाहर कदम रखती हैं तो कुछ दूर जाने के बाद काफ़ी थक जाती हैं। उन्हें पसीना आने लगता है और होंठ सूखने लगते हैं। वे व्याकुलता से श्रीराम से पूछती हैं कि अभी और कितना चलना है तथा पर्णकुटी कहाँ बनाना है? इस तरह सीता जी की व्याकुलता को देखकर श्रीराम की आँखों में आँसू आ जाते हैं। दूसरे सवैये में श्रीराम और सीता की दशा का मार्मिक चित्रण है। इस प्रसंग में श्रीराम व सीता जी के प्रेम को दर्शाते हुए कहा गया है कि कैसे श्रीराम सीता के थक जाने पर अपने पैरों के काँटे निकालते हैं और सीता जी श्रीराम का अपने प्रति प्रेम देखकर पुलकित हो जाती हैं।

प्रश्न 5.
पाठ के आधार पर वन के मार्ग का वर्णन अपने शब्दों में करो।
उत्तर-
वन का मार्ग अत्यंत कठिन था। यह मार्ग काँटों से भरा था। उस पर बहुत सँभलकर चलना पड़ रहा था। रहने के लिए कोई सुरक्षित स्थान नहीं था। रास्ते में खाने की वस्तुएँ नहीं थीं। पानी मिलना भी कठिन था। चारों तरफ सुनसान तथा असुरक्षा का वातावरण था।

अनुमान और कल्पना

गरमी के दिनों में कच्ची सड़क की तपती धूल में नंगे पाँव चलने पर पाँव जलते हैं। ऐसी स्थिति में पेड़ की छाया में खड़ा होने और पाँव धो लेने पर बड़ी राहत मिलती है। ठीक वैसे ही जैसे प्यास लगने पर पानी मिल जाए और भूख लगने पर भोजन। तुम्हें भी किसी वस्तु की आवश्यकता हुई होगी और कुछ समय बाद पूरी हो गई होगी। तुम सोचकर लिखो कि आवश्यकता पूरी होने के पहले तक तुम्हारे मन की दशा कैसी थी?
उत्तर-
किसी वस्तु की आवश्यकता पूरी होने से पहले मन उसके लिए बेचैन तथा व्याकुल रहता है। हम बार-बार उस वस्तु के विषय में सोचते रहते हैं तथा उसे पाने के अनेक प्रयास करते हैं। किसी दूसरे काम में मन नहीं लगता।

भाषा की बात

प्रश्न 1.
लखि-देखकर।
धरि-रखकर।
पोंछि-पोछकर।
जानि-जानकर।
ऊपर लिखे शब्दों और उनके अर्थ को ध्यान से देखो। हिंदी में जिस उद्देश्य के लिए हम क्रिया में ‘कर’ जोड़ते हैं,
उसी के लिए अवधी में क्रिया में f (इ) को जोड़ा जाता है, जैसे-अवधी में बैठ + 1 = बैठि हिंदी में बैठ + कर = बैठकर। तुम्हारी भाषा या बोली में क्या होता है? अपनी भाषा के ऐसे छह शब्द लिखो। उन्हें ध्यान से देखो और कक्षा में बताओ।
उत्तर-
मेरी भाषा हिंदी खड़ी बोली है पर भोजपुरी में निम्नलिखित उद्देश्य के लिए अलग क्रिया के साथ ‘के’ का प्रयोग करते हैं जैसे

  1. देखकर  –  ताक के
  2. बैठकर  –  बइठ के।
  3. रुककर  –  ठहर के।
  4. सोकर  –  सुत के
  5. खाकर  –  खा के।
  6. पढ़कर  –  पढ़ के।

प्रश्न 2.
“मिट्टी का गहरा अंधकार, डूबा है उसमें एक बीज।’
उसमें एक बीज डूबा है। जब हम किसी बात को कविता में कहते हैं तो वाक्य के शब्दों के क्रम में बदलाव आता है; जैसे-“छाँह घरीक वै ठाढ़े” को गद्य में ऐसे लिखा जा सकता है। “छाया में एक घड़ी खड़ा होकर।” उदाहरण के आधार पर नीचे दी गई कविता की पंक्तियों को गद्य के शब्दक्रम में लिखो।
उत्तर-
पुर तें निकसी रघुबीर-बधू,
सीता जी नगर से बाहर वन जाने के लिए निकलीं।

  • पुट सूख गए मधुराधर वै॥

मधुर होठ सूख गए।

  • बैठि बिलंब लौं कंटक काढ़े।

कुछ समय तक श्रीराम ने आराम किए और अपने पैरों से देर तक काँटे निकालते रहे।

  • पर्नकुटी करिहौं कित है?
  • पत्तों की कुटिया अर्थात पर्णकुटी कहाँ बनाएँगे ?

अन्य पाठेतर हल प्रश्न

बहुविकल्पी प्रश्नोत्तर

(क) ‘वन के मार्ग में’ पाठ के कवि कौन हैं?
(i) विष्णु प्रभाकर
(ii) जयंत विष्णु नार्लीकर
(iii) तुलसीदास
(iv) सुमित्रानंदन पंत

(ख) रघुबीर की वधू कौन थी?
(i) गीता
(ii) सीता
(iii) द्रौपदी
(iv) कुंती

(ग) राम की आँखों में आँसू क्यों आ गए?
(i) वन के कष्टों के कारण
(ii) घर की याद आने से
(iii) सीता की व्याकुलता देखकर
(iv) अपने पिता को याद करके

(घ) पर्नकुटी किस चीज़ से बनती है?
(i) पत्थर से
(ii) पानी से
(iii) पत्तों से
(iv) इनमें से कोई नहीं

(ङ) राम और सीता के साथ कौन बन गया?
(i) लक्ष्मण
(ii) भरत
(iii) शत्रुघ्न
(iv) इनमें से कोई नहीं

उत्तर-

(क) (iii)
(ख) (ii)
(ग) (iii)
(घ) (iii)
(ङ) (i)

अतिलघु उत्तरीय प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न 1.
प्रथम सवैया में कवि ने राम-सीता के किस प्रसंग का वर्णन किया है?
उत्तर-
प्रथम सवैया में कवि ने श्रीराम व सीता के अयोध्या से निकलकर वन गमन का वर्णन किया है।

प्रश्न 2.
राम और सीता कहाँ जाने के लिए निकले थे?
उत्तर-
राम और सीता वन जाने के लिए निकले थे।

प्रश्न 3.
वन गमन के समय सीता ने राम से क्या पूछा?
उत्तर-
वन गमन के समय सीता जी ने राम जी से पूछा कि कितना और चलना है? और पर्णकुटी कहाँ बनाइएगा?

प्रश्न 4.
पर्नकुटी किस चीज़ से बनती है?
उत्तर-
पर्नकुटी पत्तों से बनती है।

प्रश्न 5.
राम ने रुककर क्या किया?
उत्तर-
राम ने रुककर थोड़ा विश्राम किया और पैरों में चुभे काँटों को देर तक निकालते रहे।

लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न 1.
वन के मार्ग में सीता को होने वाली कठिनाईयों के बारे में लिखो।
उत्तर-
सीता वन के मार्ग पर थोड़ी दूर चलने से ही थक गईं। उनके माथे पर पसीना दिखाई देने लगा। उनके होंठ सूख गए। वे बहुत बेचैन हो उठीं और पूछने लगीं कि अभी कितनी दूर जाना है। मार्ग काँटों से भरा था जिससे सीता का चलना मुश्किल हो रहा था।

प्रश्न 2.
सीता जी बेचैन होकर श्रीराम से क्या बातें कही?
उत्तर-
सीता जी अपने पति राम से पूछती हैं कि अब और हमें कितना अधिक चलना है तथा पर्नकुटी कहाँ बनाना है। अभी लक्ष्मण पानी लेने गए हैं। अतः आप किसी पेड़ की छाया में खड़े होकर उनकी प्रतीक्षा कीजिए। जब तक लक्ष्मण पानी लेकर नहीं आ जाते तब तक पेड़ की छाया में रुककर हम लोग विश्राम कर लेते हैं।

प्रश्न 3.
अपने प्रति राम का प्रेम देखकर सीता जी की क्या दशा हुई?
उत्तर-
अपने प्रति राम का प्रेम देखकर सीता जी मन-ही-मन पुलकित हो जाती हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
“धरि धीर दए’ का आशय क्या है?
उत्तर-
‘धरि धीर दए’ का आशय है-धीरज धारण करके यानी मन में हिम्मत बाँधकर कोई काम करना।

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