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CHAPTER -11 Light Shadows and Reflection | CLASS 6TH | NCERT SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQs | EDUGROWN

Here students can get info about NCERT Important Questions & MCQs for Class 6 Science so that they can get to know the answers to the questions in case they are not able to find it. You can find the best Class 6th Science NCERT Solutions explained in conformance with the CBSE curriculum for Class 6.

Chapter 11 Light Shadows and Reflection Class 6th Science

MCQs

Question 1.
Light travels in
(a) straight line
(b) curved line
(c) zig-zag line
(d) randomly

Answer

Answer: (a) straight line
Explanation:
Light travels in straight line.

Question 2.
When an opaque object comes in the path of light it forms
(a) an image with colours
(b) shadow
(c) black and white image
(d) depends on the colour of the light

Answer

Answer: (b) shadow
Explanation:
A shadow is formed when an opaque object comes in the way of light.

Question 3.
Which types of objects do not allow light to pass through them?
(a) Translucent
(b) Opaque
(c) Transparent
(d) Penumbra

Answer

Answer: (b) Opaque
Explanation:
Opaque objects do not allow the light to pass through them while translucent objects allow only a part of light to pass through them.

Question 4.
Which is an example of a translucent object?
(a) A thin sheet of paper
(b) A thin glass slab
(c) A thin iron sheet
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) A thin sheet of paper
Explanation:
A thin sheet of paper is transparent.

Question 5.
Bouncing back of light from shining surfaces is called
(a) Reflection
(b) Refraction
(c) Bending
(d) Dispersion

Answer

Answer: (a) Reflection
Explanation:
When a ray of light falls on a smooth and polished surface, whole of light is returned back in the same medium. It is called reflection of light.

Question 6.
What is lateral inversion?
(a) Image becomes inverted
(b) Image bends laterally
(c) Right of the object appears left of the image
(d) All of these happen

Answer

Answer: (c) Right of the object appears left of the image
Explanation:
Right side of the object appears as left side in the image formed by a plane mirror.

Question 7.
Which letters of English alphabet will not show lateral inversion?
(a) I, O, U
(b) N, Z, X
(c) I, X, E
(d) A, E, I

Answer

Answer: (a) I, O, U
Explanation:
I, O, U will not show lateral inversion.

Question 8.
Which is a device to image the sun?
(a) Plane mirror
(b) Pinhole camera
(c) A straight pipe
(d) Glass slab

Answer

Answer: (b) Pinhole camera
Explanation:
Sun can be imaged by using a pinhole camera.

Question 9.
Which of the following is a cold source of light?
(a) Firefly (Jugnu)
(b) Tube light
(c) The sun
(d) Electric bulb

Answer

Answer: (a) Firefly (Jugnu)
Explanation:
Firefly (Jugnu) emits short bursts of light.

Question 10.
Out of these, which one is not a man-made luminous body?
(a) Electric bulb
(b) Burning candle
(c) Firefly (Jugnu)
(d) Oil lamp

Answer

Answer: (c) Firefly (Jugnu)
Explanation:
Firefly (Jugnu) is a natural luminous body.

Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column B:

Column A	Column B
(a) Transparent	(i) Region of absence of light
(b) Opaque	(ii) Scattering back of the light by shining surface
(c) Translucent	(iii) Object through which one can see clearly
(d) Luminous body	(iv) Object through which one cannot see at all
(e) Shadow	(v) Formed due to reflection by mirrors
(f) Image	(vi) Object through which we cannot see clearly
(g) Reflection	(vi) Phenomenon of changing left to right
(h) Lateral inversion	(vii) Produces light of its own

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) Transparent	(iii) Object through which one can see clearly
(b) Opaque	(iv) Object through which one cannot see at all
(c) Translucent	(vi) Object through which we cannot see clearly
(d) Luminous body	(viii) Produces light of its own
(e) Shadow	(i) Region of absence of light
(f) Image	(v) Formed due to reflection by mirrors
(g) Reflection	(ii) Scattering back of the light by shining surface
(h) Lateral inversion	(vii) Phenomenon of changing left to right

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. An object or material could be opaque, transparent, translucent or ……………….. .

Answer

Answer: luminous

2. This is a …………… on which the shadow is formed.

Answer

Answer: screen

3. A …………….. is a dark outline of an opaque object that blocks light coming from a source.

Answer

Answer: shadow

4. Image formed by a pinhole camera is ……………….. .

Answer

Answer: upside down

5. Image formed by a plane mirror is …………….. .

Answer

Answer: erect

6. In a plane mirror, our left hand looks like right hand. This phenomenon is called ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: lateral inversion

Important Questions

Question 1.
Define luminous body.
Answer:
The objects which emit light of their own are called luminous bodies, e.g., the sun, the stars, etc.

Question 2.
What are luminous and non-luminous objects?
Answer:
Luminous objects: Objects that give out or emit light of their own, e.g., sun, torch, light, bulbs, etc.
Non-luminous objects: Objects that do not give out light of their own, e.g., the moon, chair, shoe, pen, etc.

Question 3.
Define opaque objects with example.
Answer:
Those materials which do not allow light to pass through them, are called opaque objects. Examples wood, stone, etc.

Question 4.
What are translucent objects?
Answer:
Those objects which allow only a small part of the light rays to pass through them are called translucent objects. These are the objects through which one cannot see properly.

Question 5.
What are transparent objects?
Answer:
Those objects which allow light rays to pass through them completely are called transparent objects. One can see clearly through these objects.

Question 6.
Classify the following into transparent, opaque and translucent objects:
Wax, spectacles, a heap of salt, a stone, dense smoke, wood, skin, balloon, rubber, membrane of a tabla, blood and milk.
Answer:
Transparent objects are Spectacles.
Opaque objects are A stone, wood, a heap of salt, dense smoke, and membrane of tabla.
Translucent objects are Blood, milk, wax, skin, balloon, rubber.

Question 7.
Close your eyes while looking towards bright sunshine. Now, cover the eyes with your palm still keeping them closed. Do you notice any difference? On the basis of this experience, state whether your eyelids are transparent, translucent or opaque.
Answer:
On the basis of the experience, we observe our eyelids are opaque.

Question 8.
Sometimes, you are able to see the Sun or the Moon behind the clouds. What can you say about the ability of such clouds to transmit light? ‘
Answer:
We may say that clouds behave as translucent object.

Question 9.
How will you convert a transparent glass sheet into a translucent sheet? Suggest any two ways to do it.
Answer:

By smearing a thin layer of oil we may convert a transparent glass sheet into a translucent sheet.
By covering one side of the glass sheet by butter paper.

Question 10.
Name sources of light that are not hot.
Answer:
Tube light, jugnu.

Question 11.
List four natural sources of light.
Answer:

Sun
Stars
Fire
Jugnu (Firefly).

Question 12.
Write down four man-made sources of light.
Answer:

Candle
Oil lamp
Electric bulb
Torch.

Question 13.
Does the fire emit light?
Answer:
Yes, fire emits light.

Question 14.
On what factor does the proportion of light that enters an object depend?
Answer:
Optical nature of the object.

What Exactly Are Shadows?

Question 1.
What is an obstacle?
Answer:
An object which comes to the path of light is called an obstacle.

Question 2.
Give examples of two substances through which light does not pass?
Answer:
Wood and bricks are the substances through which light does not pass.

Question 3.
Whether a shadow is two-dimensional or three-dimensional?
Answer:
Shadow is not just the two-dimensional outline that you see on the ground. All the space behind the opaque object up to some distance behind it seems to be filled with the shadow
Light Shadows and Reflection Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11-1

Question 4.
What do we need in order to see a shadow?
Answer:
We need

a source of light,
an opaque object in the way of light, and
a screen;

Question 5.
Does the direction of shadow change during the day? Does the length of shadow also change from season to season?
Answer:
Yes, the direction of shadow changes as the sun changes its position during the day. The length of the shadow also changes from season to season.

Question 6.
What is a shadow? How is it formed? How does the colour of an opaque object affect the colour of the shadow?
Answer:
A shadow is a dark outline or image cast by an opaque object that blocks light coming from a source of light. It is formed when light hits the opaque object which does not let the light pass through. Everywhere else around the opaque object, the light continues in a straight path until it bounces off the ground or wall behind the object. The wall or ground behind the opaque object is the screen. On this screen is a dark patch, or shadow, with the same outline as the object surrounded by light. The colour of the opaque object does not affect the colour of the shadow that is formed.

Question 7.
What is the difference between image and shadow?
Answer:

Image	Shadow
1. Image is formed due to reflection or refraction of light	1. Shadow is formed when light falls on the opaque body.
2. Image is seen when light coming from the object after reflection or refraction enters the observes’s eye.	2. No light enters the eye from the shadow of the object.
3. Image gives more information such as colour, structure, etc., about the object	3. Shadow does not provide any detail about the object, it gives an idea about the shape of the object.

Question 8.
Define screen.
Answer:
Screen is a surface on which images are formed.

Question 9.
What is umbra and penumbra?
Answer:
Umbra is the dark region behind object facing light which does not receive light at all.
Penumbra is the less dark part of shadow. It is the outer part of shadow.

Activity 4
Place a chair in the school ground on a sunny day. What do you observe from the shadow of the chair?
Does the shadow give an accurate picture of the shape of the chair? If the chair is turned around a little, how does the shape of the shadow change?
No, accurate shape of chair is not shown by the shadow. When turned around a little, the shape of the shadow will change because now different portions of the chair will obstruct light and make shadow.

Take a thin notebook and look at its shadow. Then, take a rectangular box and look at its shadow. Do the two shadows seem to have a similar shape?
Yes, the two shadows seem to have a similar shape.

Take flowers or other objects of different colours and look at their shadows. A red rose and a yellow rose, for instance. Do the shadows look different in colour, when the colours of the objects are different?
No, the shadows of the different coloured objects are not different.

Take a long box and look at its shadow on the ground. When you move the box around, you may see that the size of the shadow changes. When is the shadow of the box the shortest, when the long side of the box is pointed towards the Sun or when the short side is pointing towards the Sun?
Shadow of the box is the shortest when the short side is pinting towards the Sun.

A Pinhole Camera

Question 1.
Define pinhole camera.
Answer:
It is a device which forms a photograph like image of a bright object on a screen.

Question 2.
Can you think of a situation where we can see the path of the light?
Answer:
In a dark room, we can see with torch light which goes straight. Similarly, dust particles become visible when light enters the room through fine hole.
All these examples indicate that light travels in straight line.

Question 3.
Why is the image formed in a pinhole camera inverted?
Answer:
In a pinhole camera, image formed is inverted because the object is between radius of curvature and focus.

Question 4.
What is the path of light?
Answer:
Straight line.

Mirrors and Reflections

Question 1.
What is reflection?
Answer:
When a ray of light falls on a smooth and shiny surface, the whole of light is sent back in the same medium. It is called reflection. Mirrors do not allow even a small amount of light to pass through them. Mirrors show regular and complete reflection.

Question 2.
Define ‘Mirror’.
Answer:
A smooth shining surface, which rebounds the light back in same or in different direction is called a mirror.

Question 3.
Why is silvered glass used as a mirror?
Answer:
The silvered glass has a smooth surface and the smoothness helps in forming clear image. Silvering makes it shiny and the shiny surface helps in reducing the absorption.

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CHAPTER -10 Motion and Measurement of Distances | CLASS 6TH | NCERT SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQs | EDUGROWN

Chapter 10 Motion and Measurement of Distances Class 6th Science

MCQs

Question 1.
Which is a standard unit of measurement?
(a) Angul (finger)
(b) Mutthi (fist)
(c) Step
(d) Inch

Answer

Answer: (d) Inch
Explanation:
All other units vary from person to person

Question 2.
What is the SI unit of length?
(a) Metre
(b) Centimetre
(c) Kilometre
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Metre
Explanation:
All other are multiples of metre.

Question 3.
4 kilometres are equal to
(a) 4,00,000 metre
(b) 40,000 metre
(c) 4,00p metre
(d) 400 metre

Answer

Answer: (c) 4,00p metre
Explanation:
1 km = 1000 m, 4 km = 4000 m

Question 4.
15 cm are equal to
(a) 150 mm
(b) 15 mm
(c) 1.5 mm
(d) 0.15 mm

Answer

Answer: (a) 150 mm
Explanation:
1 cm = 10 mm, 15 cm = 150 mm

Question 5.
Which is a correct relationship?
(a) 1 m = 100 cm
(b) 1 cm = 100 mm
(c) 1 km = 100 m
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these
Explanation: 1 m = 100 cm.

Question 6.
In the following figure, the proper way of reading scale is

(a) C
(b) B
(c) A
(d) Any way can be choosen

Answer

Answer: (c) A
Explanation:
B and C are incorrect positions.

Question 7.
An example of rectilinear motion is
(a) apple falling from a tree
(b) motion of a car on road
(c) a spinning top
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) both (a) and (b)
Explanation:
Apple falling from a tree and motion of a car on road are the examples of rectilinear motion.

Question 8.
Which is an example of a periodic motion?
(a) Oscillation of a pendulum
(b) Motion of a bus on road
(c) A spinning top
(d) A stone dropped from a certain height

Answer

Answer: (a) Oscillation of a pendulum
Explanation:
Oscillation of a pendulum is an example of periodic motion.

Question 9.
What kind of motion is executed by a pendulum of a wall clock?
(a) Oscillatory motion
(b) Vibratory motion
(c) Circular motion
(d) Linear motion

Answer

Answer: (a) Oscillatory motion
Explanation:
The to-and-fro motion of a body along the same path is called oscillatory motion.

Question 10.
One metre is equal to ………….. millimetre.
(a) 10
(b) 1000
(c) 100
(d) 10000

Answer

Answer: (b) 1000
Explanation:
1 metre = 1000 millimetre.

Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column B:

Column A	Column B
(a) Metre	(i) Unit used to measure very small distances.
(b) Yard	(ii) Unit used to measure large distances.
(c) Hand span	(iii) SI unit of length.
(d) LeaSt count	(iv) Non-standard unit of length.
(e) Millimetre	(v) Standard unit of length.
(f) Kilometre	(vi) Apple falling from a tree.
(g) Rest	(vii) Motion of the tip of the blade of a fan.
(h) Motion	(viii) Motion of a pendulum.
(i) Circular motion	(ix)Motion of a top.
(j) Rectilinear motion	(x) State of moving objects.
(k) Rotational motion	(xi) State of stationary objects.
(l) Periodic motion	(xii) Minimum amount that can be measured by a device.

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) Metre	(iii) SI unit of length.
(b) Yard	(v) Standard unit of length.
(c) Hand span	(iv) Non-standard unit of length.
(d) LeaSt count	(xii) Minimum amount that can be measured by a device.
(e) Millimetre	(i) Unit used to measure very small distances.
(f) Kilometre	(ii) Unit used to measure large distances.
(g) Rest	(xi) State of stationary objects.
(h) Motion	(x) State of moving objects.
(i) Circular motion	(vii) Motion of the tip of the blade of a fan.
(j) Rectilinear motion	(vi) Apple falling from a tree.
(k) Rotational motion	(ix)Motion of a top.
(l)Periodic motion	(viii) Motion of a pendulum.

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. Striker in the game of carroms moves in a …………. .

Answer

Answer: straight line

2. Powerful shot by a batsman makes the ball move in ………….. motion.

Answer

Answer: rectilinear

3. Moving ceiling fan is an example of …………… motion.

Answer

Answer: circular

4. Rotational motion is known as ………….. motion also.

Answer

Answer: periodic

5. …………….. motion is also a periodic motion.

Answer

Answer: Oscillatory

Important Questions

Question 1.
Name the invention which made a great change in modes of transport.
Answer:
Invention of wheel.

Question 2.
Which power was used to pull vehicles in ancient times?
Answer:
Animals were used to pull vehicles in ancient times.

Question 3.
Define rest and motion.
Answer:
An object that does not change its positions with time is said to be at rest.
An object that changes its positions with time is said to be in motion.

How far have you travelled? How wide is this desk?

Question 1.
Why is it important to know how far a place is?
Answer:
It is important to know how far a place is, so that we can have an idfea how we are going to reach that place – walk, take a bus or train, a ship, an aeroplane or even a spacecraft. ‘

Question 2.
What does your P.T. teacher use to measure the length of the playground?
Answer:
My P.T. teacher has plastic made tape scale to measure the length. Its total length is 100 metre. It can be rounded up in round box.

Question 3.
What is estimation?
Answer:
To guess the dimensions of an object without actual measuring is known as estimation. It is difficult to make near about correct estimate. It needs a lot of experience.

Question 4.
Explore and find out what kind of scale is used by cloth merchants, tailors, carpenters and mechanics to measure length.
Answer:
Cloth merchants use iron/steel metre scale.
Tailors use plastic metre scale tape.
Carpenters use plastic metre tape and iron metre scale both.

Question 5.
Differentiate between distance and displacement.
Answer:
Distance: The total length travelled from one point to another.
Displacement: It is the shortest distance travelled from one point to another.

Some measurements

Question 1.
What is measurement?
Answer:
Measurement is the technique developed for correct judgement of dimensions of various objects.

Question 2.
What do you understand by unit?
Answer:
A quantity adopted as a standard of measurement of a physical quantity is called unit.

Question 3.
Name the two parts which must be mentioned to state the results of a measurement.
Answer:
Magnitude and unit are the two parts which must be mentioned to state the results of a measurement.

Question 4.
What type of measuring device would you use to measure the girth of a tree?
Answer:
Measuring tape is suitable to measure the girth of a tree.

Standard units of measurements

Question 1.
What is the system used for measurements nowadays?
Answer:
S.I. system.

Question 2.
Name the unit of length, which should be used to express the thickness of a coin.
Answer:
Millimetre (mm).

Question 3.
Name the unit of length, which you would like to use while expressing the distance between Delhi and Lucknow.
Answer:
Kilometre (km).

Question 4.
Name the SI unit of length.
Answer:
Metre (m).

Question 5.
What is the convenient unit to measure the distance between two cities or villages?
Answer:
Kilometre (1 km = 1000 m).

Question 6.
Which unit should be used to express thickness of coin or wire?
Answer:
Very small length like thickness of coin or wire is expressed in millimetres (mm).
1 mm = 10^-3 m or 10³ mm = 1 m.

Question 7.
Why a cubit cannot be used as the standard unit of length?
Answer:
Length of hand and cubit are not same for all the people. So these cannot be used as the standard unit of length.

Question 8.
Define cubit and foot.
Answer:
Cubit is the length between the tip of the elbow and the middle finger.
The length of the foot of a person is called foot.

Question 9.
Fill in the blanks:
(a) 1 cm = …………… mm.
(ft) 1 dm = ………….. metre.
(c) 1 kilometre = …………… metre.
(d) 1 metre =……………….. centimetre.
Answer:
(a) 10
(b) 1/10
(c) 1000
(d) 100

Question 10.
Fill in the blanks with < or > sign.
(a) 1 decametre ………………1 decimetre.
(b) 1 millimetre ………………1 centimetre.
(c) 1 hectometre ………………1 kilometre.
(d) 1 decimetre ………………1 centimetre.
Answer:
(a) 1 decametre > 1 decimetre.
(b) 1 millimetre < 1 centimetre.
(c) 1 hectometre < 1 kilometre.
(d) 1 decimetre > 1 centimetre.

Correct measurement of length

Question 1.
List three uses of metre.
Answer:
Metre can be used as a unit to measure

the length of a room
the height of a tree or a building or
the length and breadth of a playground.

Question 2.
Can you measure the length of a pencil with metre-scale?
Answer:
No, length of pencil cannot be measured with metre scale. To measure the length of a pencil, a small scale, like six inches plastic scale should be used. This length should be expressed in centimetres.

Question 3.
A 30 cm scale has one end broken. The mark at the broken end is 2.6 cm. How would you use it to measure the length of your pencil?
Answer:
Put one end of the pencil at nearest full mark say 3.0 cm in this case. Take the reading of the other end. Now subtract 3 from the previous reading and this will be the required length of pencil.

Question 4.
State two precautions, which should be taken while using a metre scale to measure the length of an object.
Answer:
Two precautions are:

Place the scale in contact with the object along its length.
Most important, eye should be correctly positioned above the point to be measured to make a correct measurement.

Question 5.
Describe the method you would use to find the thickness of a sheet of paper of your science book.
Answer:
It is not easy to measure the thickness of a single sheet of paper by using metre scale. The method used to find the thickness of a single sheet is as follows:

Take 100 sheets of paper together. Find their combined thickness by using a centimetre scale. Divide the total thickness by the number of sheets. It is the thickness of a single sheet.
For example: If the thickness of 100 sheets = 1.5 cm.

Thickness of a single sheet

= 0.015 cm.

Question 6.
What precaution should be taken while buying something?
Answer:
While buying clothes, pipes, laces, it should be checked whether the scale is correct or not. A correct metre has signs (⟷) on both the ends in addition to the stamp of the weight and measure department. The metre scale may have been cut off. In such a case short measurement is resulted.

Question 7.
Can you measure the diameter of a ball with the help of metre scale?
Answer:
Yes, the diameter of a ball can be measured correctly with the help of metre scale. It is one of the ways in which diameters of spherical surface can be measured easily. In this method, the two wooden blocks A and B must be exactly parallel to each other (Fig. 10.11).

Question 8.
How will you find the thickness of a thin wire?
Answer:
Take a round pencil and wrap the given wire round the pencil making 25 turns forming a coil. Measure the length of the so formed coil. Divide the total length of the coil by number of turns. This is the thickness of the wire.

Question 9.
How would you measure the thickness of a coin?
Answer:
Take ten coins and put them one over another. Find the total thickness of ten coins with the help of a scale. Divide the total thickness by the number of coins (Fig. 10.13).

=0.24 cm

Measuring the length of a curved one

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CHAPTER -9 The Living Organisms and Their Surroundings | CLASS 6TH | NCERT SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQs | EDUGROWN

Chapter 9 The Living Organisms and Their Surroundings Class 6th Science

MCQs

uestion 1.
Which is an example of a shrub?
(a) Spinach
(b) Mango tree
(c) Tomato plant
(d) Lemon

Answer

Answer: (d) Lemon
Explanation:
Spinach and tomato are herbs while mango is a tree. So lemon is a shrub.

Question 2.
Which of the following type of plants has thick, hard and woody stem?
(a) Tree
(b) Shrub
(c) Herb
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Tree
Explanation:
Herb has a soft stem while shrubs have thin stem.

Question 3.
Which is not a part of a leaf?
(a) Petiole
(b) Lamina
(c) Veins
(d) Nodes

Answer

Answer: (d) Nodes
Explanation:
Nodes are found on stem.

Question 4.
parallel venation is not found in
(a) sugarcane
(b) peepal
(c) maize
(d) wheat

Answer

Answer: (b) peepal
Explanation:
In peepal, reticulate venation

Question 5.
Which one of the following is a function of leaves?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Transpiration
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Support fruits

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation:
Leaves perform both functions.

Question 6.
Leaf venation and type of root is correctly paired in
(a) parallel venation, fibrous roots
(b) parallel venation, taproot
(c) no relation exists in leaf venation and type of roots
(d) reticulate venation, fibrous roots

Answer

Answer: (a) parallel venation, fibrous roots
Explanation:
Plants with parallel leaf venation have fibrous roots while plants with reticulate leaf venation have taproots.

Question 7.
Male reproductive part of flower is
(a) sepals
(b) petals
(c) stamens
(d) pistil

Answer

Answer: (c) stamens
Explanation:
Stamen is male reproductive part.

Question 8.
Which is a correct set of parts of a pistil?
(a) Ovary, style and filament
(b) Ovary style and stigma
(c) Ovary, anther and filament
(d) Filament and anther

Answer

Answer: (b) Ovary style and stigma

Question 9.
Which of the following has fibrous root?
(a) Peas
(b) Wheat
(c) Radish
(d) Neem

Answer

Answer: (b) Wheat
Explanation:
Wheat roots spread out in the soil.

Question 10.
The process of loss of water by a plant through leaves is called
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation
(c) photosynthesis
(d) transpiration

Answer

Answer: (d) transpiration
Explanation:
The process of losing water by leaves is called transpiration.

Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column B:

Column A	Column B
(a) Creeper	(i) Absorption of mineral and water.
(b) Herb	(ii) Manufacture food.
(c) Shrub	(iii) Transport food, water and mineral.
(d) Tree	(iv) Reproduction.
(e) Root	(v) Need support to stand up.
(f) Stem	(vi) Hard and thick stem.
(g) Leaf	(vii) Green and tender stem.
(h) Flower	(viii) Hard but thin stem.

Answer

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. Water Havels up the stem through …………. inside the stem.

Answer

Answer: narrow tubes

2. Thick vein in the centre of leaf is called ………….. .

Answer

Answer: midrib

3. Design made by ……………. in a leaf is called venation.

Answer

Answer: veins

4. Leaves Bicchu (Meltles) give you …………. on touching.

Answer

Answer: rashes and itching

5. Leaves have ……………. shapes, sizes, edges, tips, etc.

Answer

Answer: different

6. Water comes out of leaves in the form of vapour by a process called ………………. .

Answer

Answer: transpiration

Important Questions

Question 1.
Visit a pond and make a list of animals found inside the water.
Answer:
The animals like frogs, fish, molluscs and certain insects are found inside the water. Protozoans like amoeba and turtles, water spiders, water skaters, dragon flies, king fishers, ducks and many other types of animals are inhabiting the ponds.

Question 2.
Name some plants which live in dry areas.
Answer:
Plants like cactus, munj, kaner, accacia (keekar), seesam, etc., live in dry areas.

Question 3.
Mention a few aquatic plants found in a pond.
Answer:
Water hyacinth, hydrilla, spirogyra, water lily, lotus, lemna, etc.

Question 4.
Name the places of living of following plants:

Cactus
Hydrilla

Answer:

Cactus: Desert
Hydrilla: Pond.

Habitat and adaptation

Question 1.
What is adaptation?
Answer:
The change in specific features or certain habits, which enables a plant or an animal to live in its surroundings is called adaptation.

Question 2.
What is habitat?
Answer:
The surrounding where organisms survive, flourish and reproduce is called a habitat.

Question 3.
What are aquatic habitats?
Answer:
Habitats of plants and animals that live in water are called aquatic habitat. ‘

Question 4.
What are terrestrial habitats? Give examples.
Answer:
The plants and animals that live on land are said to five in terrestrial habitats. ‘
For example, forests, grasslands, deserts, coastal and mountain region.

Question 5.
What are biotic components?
Answer:
The living things such as plants and animals in a habitat are its biotic components.

Question 6.
Explain abiotic components.
Answer:
Various non-living things such as rocks, soil, air and water in a habitat constitute its abiotic components.

Question 7.
Define ecology.
Answer:
The study of relationship between living organisms and their surroundings is called ecology.

Question 8.
Why does a fish have slippery scales on its body?
Answer:
A fish has slippery scales on its body. These scales protect the fish and also help in easy movement through water.

A journey through different habitats

Question 1.
Out of desert and aquatic plants, whose roots are almost absent?
Answer:
Aquatic plants.

Question 2.
Give three main adaptive features in desert plant.
Answer:

Well-developed root systems.
Leaves are either very small or converted to spines.
Stem is green and fleshy in some plants.

Question 3.
What adaptation of desert animals protect themselves from deficiency of water?
Answer:
Animals living in hot places such as desert, for example, snakes, desert rats and lizards are not able to get sufficient water. So these animals have thick skin, which prevents evaporation. Since they do not sweat, they can survive without water for longer period.

Question 4.
What is the ultimate source of energy for every ecosystem? Which biotic component can trap solar energy and how?
Answer:
Sun is the ultimate source of energy. Green plants are capable to trap solar energy by leaves in the process called photosynthesis, using water and C02 in the presence of sunlight.

Question 5.
Mountain is special terrestrial habitat where temperature is very low and most of the areas are covered with snow. What is flora and fauna of this habitat at higher altitudes?
Answer:
Flora: Grasses, mosses and lichens.
Fauna: Snow bear, fox, water fowl, musk deer, wolf.
Snow leopards, yak and mountain goats.

Question 6.
Why do camels have long legs?
Answer:
Long legs of camels help them to lift their body above the ground. Thus, they are able to avoid direct contact with the hot ground.

Question 7.
What are nocturnal animals? Give two examples of nocturnal animals.
Answer:
Some animals are active during night time. These are called nocturnal animals. e.g., bats, cockroaches and owls.

Question 8.
If strong winds blow only in one direction, what will be the effect on trees?
Answer:
Trees will bend in direction of wind and attain typical shape.

Question 9.
Why head and snout of snake is tapering?
Answer:
It is adapted to burrowing and digging habit.

Question 10.
Which plants have leaves without pores?
Answer:
Underwater plants.

Question 11.
Plants in hilly areas have to bear high speed winds and cold. Which adaptation best helps them to face such conditions?
Answer:
Tall, thin and straight trunk with needle-shaped leaves.

Question 12.
Give one example of

free floating plant
plants without root.

Answer:

Lotus
Ceratophyllum.

Question 13.
Name the respiratory organ in

terrestrial animals
aquatic animals (fish)

Answer:

Lungs
Gills.

Question 14.
How do the skins of animals living in cold places protect them from cold conditions?
Answer:
The skin of animals like walrus, seals and penguins are thick and protect them from cold. Another way of protection from cold is by having thick fur.

Question 15.
How is a fish adapted to live in water?
Answer:
Fish has the following adaptations to live in water:

In all the fish, the head and tail portions are smaller than the middle portion, that is, the body tapers at both the ends. This shape of the body provides least resistance to the fish when they swim in water.
Skin of fish is covered with scales. These scales are slippery, the slippery scales help the fish in swimming.
We have lungs, which is an organ for respiration. Similarly, fish has gills for respiration. It utilises oxygen dissolved in water and releases carbon dioxide into the water.

Question 16.
What is the adaptation mechanism of chameleon?
Answer:
It changes its colours to suit with its surroundings.

Question 17.
What do you mean by camouflage?
Answer:
Camouflage is the ability of an organism to blend in with its surroundings.

Question 18.
What is known as ‘Lungs of the world’?
Answer: Amazon Rainforest is known as ‘Lungs of the world’.

Question 19.
What are blowholes?
Answer:
The organs by which dolphin or whales breathe are called blowholes or nostrils.

Question 20.
Differentiate between diurnal and nocturnal animals.
Answer:
Diurnal animals: Animals which are active during the day time.
Nocturnal animals: Some animals like earthworms and cockroaches are active at night.

Question 21.
Define predators and prey.
Answer:
Predators: The animals which kill other animals for their food are called predators. Prey: The animals which’ are killed by predators for their food are called prey.

Characteristics of the living beings

Question 1.
What is life?
Answer:
It is easy to say that this object is living and this is non-living, but it is difficult to say what is life. Life is the sum total of all the activities shown by a living object and the activities taking place inside its body.

Thus life is the process seen only in living objects in the form of growth, movement, feeding or eating, sensitivity, respiration, excretion and reproduction.

Question 2.
List the important characteristics of living things, which differentiate them from non-living things.
Answer:

living things	Non-living things
1. Living things need food, air and water.	1. Non-living things do not need food, air or water.
2. Living things grow.	2. Non-living things do not grow.
3. Living things can move on their own.	3. Non-living things cannot move on their own.
4. Living things Eire sensitive. They respond to changes around them.	4. Non-living things are not sensitive. They do not respond to changes around them.
5. Living things reproduce themselves.	5. Non-living things do not reproduce.
6. Living things respire. They release energy from food.	6. Non-living things do not respire.
7. Living things excrete. They get rid of waste materials from their body.	7. Non-living things do not excrete.
8. Living things have a definite life span.	8. Non-living things exist for ever.
9. Living things Eire made up of living cells.	9. Non-living things are made up of molecules.

Question 3.
What are the main characteristics of living objects?
Answer:

Living objects need water, air and food for their survival.
They show feeding, movement, respiration, excretion, growth, sensitiveness and reproduction.
They have a definite life span.
All living things are made up of cells.

Question 4.
Indicate which of the following are living and which are non-living: buffalo, grass, grasshopper, table, aeroplane, pencil, bicycle, crow, banyan tree.
Answer:
Living things:

Buffalo
Grass
Grasshopper
Crow
Banyan

Non-living things:

Table
Aeroplane
Pencil
Bicycle
tree

Question 5.
Name any four single-celled living organisms.
Answer:

Amoeba
Paramecium
Bacteria and
Yeast.

Question 6.
What is reproduction?
Answer:
It is a process by which living organism gives birth to the next generation of its own kind. ‘

Question 7.
What are the different types of reproduction?
Answer:

Asexual reproduction.
Sexual reproduction.

Question 8.
What do you mean by vegetative propagation in plants?
Answer:
It is a process of growing plants from any vegetative part of plant like leaf, stem, root, etc.

Question 9.
What do you understand by life cycle and life span of a living thing?
Answer:
Life cycle: Life cycle is the series of changes in the life of an organism including reproduction. All the living things have a life cycle. The single cell or unicellular organisms, change into multicellular organism. The multicellular organisms also start their life from a single cell.

Life span: All the living things start their lives from birth. These living things grow into adults, remain alive for a certain period of time and finally die. The time period for which living things remain alive is called its life span. All the living things have a definite life span (Fig. 9.5).
The Living Organisms and Their Surroundings Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 9 - 1
Question 10.
Name the organs which are used by following animals for walking:
Birds, Fish, Horse
Answer:

Names of the animal	Organ used for locomotion
1. Birds	Wings
2. Fish	Fins
3. Horse	Limbs

Question 11.
Name the type of locomotion in following animals:
fish, earthworm, cow, birds, frog
Answer:

Names of the animal	Type of locomotion
1. Fish	Swimming
2. Earthworm	Crawling
3. Cow	Walking
4. Birds	Flying
5. Frog	Jumping

Question 12.
Why bacteria and viruses are considered as ‘Immortal’?
Answer:
Bacteria and viruses neither grow old nor die. Their growth remains continued for ever. They may survive a million years or even more if frozen or buried under salt. If they are buried in non-living environment, they stop growing but do not die. Whenever they get favourable conditions, they start growing again. Hence they are considered as ‘immortal’.

Question 13.
What is stimulus?
Answer:
The change in environment that makes an organism to react or produce a change in its activities is called stimulus.

Question 14.
What is the role of decomposers?
Answer:
Decomposers maintain the balance of nutrients in the soil by decomposing dead plants and animals present in the soil. Hence, it is clear that the biotic and abiotic components of nature are interdependent.

Question 15.
Write the differences between respiration and breathing.
Answer:
Respiration: It is the process through which living things utilise oxygen to release the energy stored in food they eat.
Breathing: During breathing, when we inhale, air rich in oxygen moves from outside of our body to inside. When we breathe out, the air rich in carbon dioxide moves from inside of our body to outside.

Question 16.
Differentiate between locomotion and movement.
Answer:
Locomotion: It is the movement of an organism, bodily from one place to another. It involves the whole body as in walking, running, etc.
Movement: It is the change in the position of any part of the body with respect to its axis, e.g., shaking of head.

Question 17.
What do you mean by acclimatisation?
Answer:
Acclimatisation refers to the small changes in an organism over a short period to adjust to a new surrounding.

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CHAPTER -8 Body Movements Plants | CLASS 6TH | NCERT SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQs | EDUGROWN

Chapter 8 Body Movements Class 6th Science

MCQs

Question 1.
Skeleton of human body is made up of
(a) bones
(b) cartilage
(c) both bones and cartilage
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) both bones and cartilage
Explanation:
Bones and cartilage form the skeleton of human body.

Question 2.
Human skeleton comprises
(a) skull and backbone
(b) ribs and breast bone
(c) shoulder and hip bones

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these
Explanation:
All are the part of human skeleton.

Question 3.
Fixed joints are found in
(a) lower jaw
(b) skull
(c) hands
(d) hip bone

Answer

Answer: (b) skull
Explanation:
Joints in skull are immovable.

Question 4.
Knee joints are
(a) hinge joints
(b) ball and socket joints
(c) pivotal joints
(d) fixed joints

Answer

Answer: (a) hinge joints
Explanation:
Knee joints are very similar to the hinges of a door.

Question 5.
Fish swims by
(a) forming loops alternately on two sides of the body
(b) forming loops on single side
(c) somersalting
(d) alternate dipping and coming up

Answer

Answer: (a) forming loops alternately on two sides of the body
Explanation:
During swimming, the front part and the tail part of the body curve in opposite directions. This makes a jerk and pushes the body forward. So fish forms loops alternately on two sides of the body.

Question 6.
Which one of the following is the characteristics of birds?
(a) Strong muscles
(b) Light bones
(c) Hollow bones
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these
Explanation:
These are the adaptations of birds for flying.

Question 7.
In cockroaches, the body parts helping in movement are
(a) three pairs of legs and two pairs of wings
(b) two pairs of legs and two pairs of wings
(c) two pairs of legs and three pairs of wings
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) three pairs of legs and two pairs of wings
Explanation:
Three pairs of legs are the characteristics of insects.

Question 8.
Muscular foot is a locomotary organ in
(a) snakes
(b) earthworm
(c) housefly
(d) snails

Answer

Answer: (a) snakes
Explanation:
With the help of muscles, ribs, and scales, snake moves from place to place.

Question 9.
The organ that protects the main nerve cord is
(a) skull
(b) backbone
(c) breast bone
(d) chest bone

Answer

Answer: (a) skull
Explanation:
Skull has 22 bones in cranium and 14 on the face. These protect the brain and sensory organs.

Question 10.
The number of cervical vertebrae in man is
(a) ten
(b) five
(c) seven
(d) eight

Answer

Answer: (c) seven
Explanation:
Seven cervical vertebrae are found in neck region.

Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column B:

Column A	Column B
(a) Snails	(i) Breast is connected with 3 pairs of legs and 2 pairs of wings.
(b) Earthworm	(ii) Crawl on the ground by alternately looping sideways.
(c) Insects	(iii) Swims with the help of muscles.
(d) Pish	(iv) Joins bones to muscles.
(e) Snakes	(v) Swim by forming loops alternately on two sides of body.
(f) Birds	(vi) Joins bone to bone.
(g) Leech	(vii) A place where two bones meet together.
(h) Ligament	(viii) Move by the muscular foot.
(i) Tendon	(ix) Produces RBCs.
(j) Joint	(x) Fly by flapping its wings.
(k) Bone marrow	(xi) Move by alternate extension and contraction of the body.

Answer

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. The body parts which are specialized to do important body activities eye called ……………. .

Answer

Answer: organs

2. The organs are made of many kinds of ……………… .

Answer

Answer: cells and tissues

3. A group of similar …………….. with same kind of function is called a tissue.

Answer

Answer: cells

4. An organ though composed of different kinds of tissues, works as a …………….. .

Answer

Answer: unit

5. Organs which can be seen from ……………. are called external organs.

Answer

Answer: Out side

6. Organs inside our body are called ………………….. organs.

Answer

Answer: internal

Important Questions

Question 1.
How many types of joints are there in our body? Name them.
Answer:
There are five types of joints in our body:

Ball and socket joints
Hinge joints
Gliding joints
Pivotal joints
Fixed joints.

Question 2.
Name the three components of skeleton.
Answer:
Skeleton is made up of different bones, joints and cartilage.

Question 3.
Name various parts of skeletal system.
Answer:
The skeletal system can be divided into following main parts:

Skull
Back bone
Limb bones
Chest bones
Shoulder bones
Hip bones.

Question 4.
What is the function of skeleton?
Answer:
The function of skeleton is:

It forms the framework of body,
It gives shape and structure to the body.
It protects the internal organs.
It helps in the movement and keeping body erect.
Ribs of chest help in breathing.

Question 5.
At which point does the arm rotate?
Answer:
The arm rotates on the round pit like structure.

Question 6.
Which is the longest bone in your body? Measure it with your scale.
Answer:
Femur is the longest bone in our body. It is a thigh bone.

Question 7.
Name the bones which protect the heart from all sides.
Answer:
Breastbone from front and the backbone at the back make a type of box to protect the heart.

Question 8.
Does the shoulder bone also move when you move your arm?
Answer:
The shoulder bone does not move when we move our arm. Only arm moves, the shoulder bone remains fixed.

Question 9.
Keeping your arm straight, move it forwards and backwards, up and down. Can the arm move freely in all directions?
Answer:
Yes, the arm can move forward, backward down and up.

Question 10.
Do the bones of the upper jaw move?
Answer:
The bones of the upper jaw are joined with fixed joints. So they do not move.

Question 11.
Which important organ is fully protected inside the bones of the skull (head)?
Answer:
The bones of the skull form the structure similar to a box. The bones are joined with strong joints. It is not easy to break them. The bones of the skull protect the most important organ, i.e., the brain.

Question 12.
Do the bones on top of the skull move?
Answer:
The bones on top of the skull form the structure similar to the structure of teeth. They are joined strongly with one another. So these bones are also fixed. These bones do not move.

Question 13.
Try to eat your food without moving the lower jaw. Do you find this difficult to do?
Answer:
Without moving the lower jaw, we cannot chew the food. Without chewing, we cannot engulf the food into food pipe. It would be difficult to digest unchewed food.

Question 14.
Draw a labelled diagram of a ball and socket joint.
Answer:
Body Movements Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 8 Q 14

Question 15.
Identify and label the different bones in the skeleton shown in the figure.
Answer:
Body Movements Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 8 Q 15

Question 16.
What is exoskeleton? Explain giving examples.
Answer:
The bodies of crabs, insects and spiders are covered and protected by hard coverings. These hard parts outside are called exoskeleton (ekso-skel-e-ton). Nails and hair are also exoskeleton found in our body. Similarly the scales of cockroach, fish, outer shell of snails and oyster are also exoskeleton of these animals.

Question 17.
How can we get photograph of a bone? What is the use of such photographs?
Answer:
We can get photograph of a bone by a machine called X-ray machine. Doctors use these photographs to examine the dislocations and fractures in the bone.
Body Movements Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 8 Q 17

Question 18.
Why are bones in the foot normally set in an arch? What is a flat-foot?
Answer:
The bones in the foot are normally set in an arch (Fig. 8.12). The feet arches give good support to the body. They also bend and spring back each time one steps out. The smaller toe bones also help in walking and running. In some cases, the foot is flat instead of being arched and are called flat-foot. Not all flat-feet cause trouble, but sometimes they give trouble or cause pain. Then it may need special care.
Body Movements Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 8 Q 18
Question 19.
Do all animals have bones?
Answer:
No, all animals do not have bones. Bones are present only in the backboned animals. Even among the backboned animals, the skeleton of sharks are made entirely of cartilage.
The jellyfish, leeches and worms have no hard structure to support their bodies.

Question 20.
What is dislocation and fracture of a bone? What precaution should one take when one gets a fracture?
Answer:
Dislocation and fracture: Any careless, sudden movement—a jump, fall or knock—may cause an injury to the skeleton. It may be a dislocation or a fracture. In case of dislocation the bones at the joint are dislodged from their normal position. The ligaments may be torn apart or injured causing pain and swelling.
Body Movements Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 8 Q 20
A fracture is a break in the bone. The break may be of a hair line crack or serious break in one or more points (Fig. 8.13). Fracture also causes pain and swelling. In all these cases, the patient should soon be taken to a doctor or a hospital.

Never try to reset the bones.
Place the injured part in a comfortable position.
Care should be taken to avoid jerk or movement of the injured part.

Question 21.
How a bone is formed? What kind of food should we take for proper growth and upkeep of bones?
Answer:
Before our birth, the skeleton forms as soft and elastic pieces of cartilage. Some of these cartilages, not all, are changed to bones. With the deposition of a substance containing calcium and phosphorus, the bones become hard and strong. When a baby is born its skeleton is soft. At old age, the bones become hard and brittle.

For proper growth and upkeep of bones, we need to take food which are rich in calcium, phosphorus, vitamins and proteins. Milk, curd, fruits, vegetables and eggs ^contain the needed nutrient.

Question 22.
What is a bone marrow? Give its main function.
Answer:
The long bones such as the thigh bone, upper arm bones have hollow spaces inside which contains bone marrow (Fig. 8.14). The bone marrow produces red blood cells. They also form some kinds of white blood cells.
Body Movements Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 8 Q 22
Question 23.
Discuss the mechanism of bone movement. What is the role of muscles in the movement of bones?
Answer:
Two muscles work for the movement of a bone. When one muscle contracts, it becomes shorter, stiffer and thicker. It pulls the bone in that direction. The other muscle of the pair relaxes. A muscle can only pull. It cannot push. Hence to move the bone in opposite direction, the relaxed muscle contracts to pull the bone towards its original position, while the first relaxes.
Body Movements Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 8 Q 23

Question 24.
Differentiate between bone and cartilage with examples.
Answer:
Bone: They are hard and rigid structure in our body that cannot be bent but give shape to our body, e.g. pelvic bone, shoulder bone, etc.

Cartilage: They are semi-hard structures that are elastic tissue and present in an animal body.
e.g., upper part of ear, etc.

Question 25.
What are floating ribs?
Answer:
The last two pairs of ribs that are not joined in front of the breast bone/sternum. So, they are called floating ribs.

Question 26.
Differentiate between ligament and tendon.
Answer:
Ligament joins bone to bone together, whereas the tendon joins muscles to bone.

Question 27.
Differentiate between exoskeleton and endoskeleton.
Answer:
Exoskeleton: The skeleton, if it covers the body from the outside, or is situated in the skin, is known as exoskeleton. For example, insects.

Endoskeleton: The skeleton, if it lies inside the body and is covered by soft parts like flesh, is known as endoskeleton. For example, animals.

Question 28.
What is cartilage? Give one example.
Answer:
These are some additional parts of the skeleton that are not as hard as the bones and which can be bent. For example, the upper part of our ear has cartilage.
Body Movements Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 8 Q 28

Question 29.
What is a bone joint? Describe various kinds of joints found in our body.
Joints: The place where two or more bones meet together is called a joint. There are five main types of joints in our body.
(i) Fixed joints: Some attachments of bones do not allow movement. They are fixed joints. Joint of the cranium is a fixed joint.
Body Movements Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 8 Q 29
(ii) Ball and socket joints: The rounded end of one bone fits into the hollow space of the other bone (Fig. 8.18). Such a kind of joint allows movements in all directions and is called ball and socket joint. For example, the joint between the upper arm and the shoulder; the thigh and the hip.
Body Movements Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 8 Q 29(i)
(fit) Pivotal joints: The skull is joined to the first two vertebrae of the backbone like a ball to a stick. This type of joints allows movements in many planes—up and down, to the side and all other planes.
iv) Hinge joints: These joints allow movement only in one plane like a door hinge and not more than 180 degree. For example, the fingers, the knee. The wrist is a double hinge joint (Fig. 8.19).
Body Movements Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 8 Q 29(ii)
(v) Gliding joints: These joints allow only a limited amount of movement of sliding nature of cartilages (Fig. 8.20). For example, the joints in backbone.

Question 30.
Write short notes on the following.

skull
chest bones
Backbone
Hip bone
The shoulder bone
limb bone

Answer:
1. The skull: The skull has two main parts. They are the cranium (cra-ni-um) or the brain case and the facial bones. The bones of the cranium are flat. They are held firmly like a zipper. The cranium covers and protects the brain. The facial bones comprise of the upper and lower jaws and a few other bones. The lower jaw is movable. The movement of the lower jaw enables us to eat, talk, and sing. The skull also includes a pair of eye sockets. These form a safe pocket for the eyes.

2. The chest bones: The chest is a cone-shaped cage (Fig. 8.21). It encloses the heart and the lungs. At the back are the vertebrae, 12 pairs of ribs curve surround the sides. Ribs are attached to the sides of each vertebrate. Ten of them are also attached by cartilage to the breast bone at the front. Two ribs are free. These are called floating ribs.
Body Movements Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 8 Q 30
The ribs are joined in such a way that they allow the necessary movement of the chest during breathing.

3. Backbone: Vertebral column or backbone is composed of 33 small, ring-like vertebrae joined end to end. Thus it forms a hollow bony tube. The main nerve cord passes through it. The backbone has five regions from top to bottom, they are the neck, chest, belly, hip and tail. Five vertebrae of the hip and four vertebrae of tail are fused to form 1 bone [turn 26 bones of vertebrae in an adult (Fig. 8.2)].

4. Hip bone: The hip bone is formed by the fusion of three bones (Fig. 8.5). The hip bones together with the last two parts of the backbone form a large bony bowl. It is called the pelvis (pel-vis). It is the lowest and strongest part on which we sit on. The thigh bones are attached to the hip bones.

5. Shoulder bones: The shoulder bone is formed by the collar bone and the shoulder blades (Fig. 8.4). It connects the upper part of the chest and the bones of the hand. The bones of the upper arm attach with the shoulder bones.

6. Limb bones: The hand comprises of the upper arm, fore arm, wrist, palm and fingers. The leg includes the thigh, lower leg, ankle, feet, and the toes. The bones in hand and leg are in same pattern and are called limb bones, upper arm and thigh has one long bone. The thigh bone is strongest and longest bone in the body. In the fore arm and lower leg, there are two long bones. Wrist and ankle are made up of several small bones. Palm and foot have five longer bones. Each finger and toe are made up of three small bones, except thumb, which has two bones.

Question 31.
How do incorrect sitting postures harm us? What are the correct sitting and standing postures?
Answer:
Incorrect sitting postures cause stresses and strains on the muscles and bones [Fig. 8.22(a)].It may turn fatigue and painful

In correct position, one should sit straight and relaxed. One should not bend in front or lean backwards [Fig. 8.22 (b)]. The fore arms should be at the same level. The feet should rest flat on the floor. The lower leg should be erect making a right angle at the knee.

Similarly, one should stand straight and erect and not droop in front for a long time [Fig. 8.22 (c)]. The habit should be checked from childhood when the bones are soft. Otherwise the curvature or bend of the backbone may become permanent with age as the bones gradually harden. Body Movements Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 8 Q 31

Question 32.
Name organs that are protected by rib cage.
Answer:
heart and lungs

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CHAPTER -7 Getting to Know Plants | CLASS 6TH | NCERT SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQs | EDUGROWN

Chapter 7 Getting to Know Plants Class 6th Science

MCQs

Question 1.
Which is an example of a shrub?
(a) Spinach
(b) Mango tree
(c) Tomato plant
(d) Lemon

Answer

Answer: (d) Lemon
Explanation:
Spinach and tomato are herbs while mango is a tree. So lemon is a shrub.

Question 2.
Which of the following type of plants has thick, hard and woody stem?
(a) Tree
(b) Shrub
(c) Herb
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Tree
Explanation:
Herb has a soft stem while shrubs have thin stem.

Question 3.
Which is not a part of a leaf?
(a) Petiole
(b) Lamina
(c) Veins
(d) Nodes

Answer

Answer: (d) Nodes
Explanation:
Nodes are found on stem.

Question 4.
parallel venation is not found in
(a) sugarcane
(b) peepal
(c) maize
(d) wheat

Answer

Answer: (b) peepal
Explanation:
In peepal, reticulate venation.

Question 5.
Which one of the following is a function of leaves?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Transpiration
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Support fruits

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation:
Leaves perform both functions.

Answer

Answer: (a) parallel venation, fibrous roots
Explanation:
Plants with parallel leaf venation have fibrous roots while plants with reticulate leaf venation have taproots.

Question 7.
Male reproductive part of flower is
(a) sepals
(b) petals
(c) stamens
(d) pistil

Answer

Answer: (c) stamens
Explanation:
Stamen is male reproductive part.

Question 8.
Which is a correct set of parts of a pistil?
(a) Ovary, style and filament
(b) Ovary style and stigma
(c) Ovary, anther and filament
(d) Filament and anther

Answer

Answer: (b) Ovary style and stigma

Question 9.
Which of the following has fibrous root?
(a) Peas
(b) Wheat
(c) Radish
(d) Neem

Answer

Answer: (b) Wheat
Explanation:
Wheat roots spread out in the soil.

Question 10.
The process of loss of water by a plant through leaves is called
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation
(c) photosynthesis
(d) transpiration

Answer

Answer: (d) transpiration
Explanation:
The process of losing water by leaves is called transpiration.

Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column B:

Column A	Column B
(a) Creeper	(i) Absorption of mineral and water.
(b) Herb	(ii) Manufacture food.
(c) Shrub	(iii) Transport food, water and mineral.
(d) Tree	(iv) Reproduction.
(e) Root	(v) Need support to stand up.
(f) Stem	(vi) Hard and thick stem.
(g) Leaf	(vii) Green and tender stem.
(h) Flower	(viii) Hard but thin stem.

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) Creeper	(v) Need support to stand up.
(b) Herb	(vii) Green and tender stem.
(c) Shrub	(viii) Hard but thin stem.
(d) Tree	(vi) Hard and thick stem.
(e) Root	(i) Absorption of mineral and water.
(h) Stem	(iii) Transport food, water and mineral.
(g) Leaf	(ii) Manufacture food.
(h) Flower	(iv) Reproduction.

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. Water Havels up the stem through …………. inside the stem.

Answer

Answer: narrow tubes

2. Thick vein in the centre of leaf is called ………….. .

Answer

Answer: midrib

3. Design made by ……………. in a leaf is called venation.

Answer

Answer: veins

4. Leaves Bicchu (Meltles) give you …………. on touching.

Answer

Answer: rashes and itching

5. Leaves have ……………. shapes, sizes, edges, tips, etc.

Answer

Answer: different

Important Questions

Question 1.
What are herbs?
Answer:
The small plants with soft/tender, green, short stem are called herbs. Herbs hardly attain height more than 1.5 metres. Their stems are not woody and can be bent. A herb may or may not have branches, e.g., tomato, mint, paddy, etc.

Question 2.
With the help of diagrams, tabulate the differences between a shrub and a tree, based on the properties of the stem.
Answer:

Shrub	Tree
More branches arise from the base of stem. The stem is hard and thin.	The branches arise from the stem. The stem is hard, thick and woody.

Question 3.
Look carefully at the plants shown in Fig. 7.17 and identify their type. Are they herbs, shrubs or trees? Are they similar in shape? Which category has the biggest plants and which has the smallest?
Getting to Know Plants Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 7 - 2
Answer:
Close look of these plants make it clear that these plants are not of the same type.
Plants and are small and have soft and thin stem. These are called herbs.

Plant has many branches arising from the base and its stem is thin but hard. It is a shrub.

Plant is tall. Its stem is thick and hard, it is a tree.

Question 4.
From the members of the various groups given below, find the odd one out.

Coriander (dhania), mint (pudina), jamun, grass.
Rose, mehndi, guava, morepankh.

Answer:

Jamun (Jamun is a tree while others are herbs).
Guava (Guava is a tree while others are shrubs).

Question 5.
You are shown three branches of a rose in Fig. 7.18 one will help you best to recognize the plant?
Getting to Know Plants Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 7 - 3
Answer:
(c) A branch with leaves and flowers

Question 6.
What are climbers and creepers? Give some examples.
Answer:
In some plants like grape vines, money plant, bean stalk, gourd plants, etc., the stem is so weak that it cannot hold it straight. They either stand up with some support or they just spread on the ground. In the first condition, the plants are called climbers and in second condition, they are called creepers or runners.

Question 7.
Pitcher plant has green leaves which can prepare food by photosynthesis then why does it eat insects?
Answer:
Pitcher plant eats insects to get nitrogenous compounds which it neither synthesizes nor can absorb from the soil.

Question 8.
What are weeds?
Answer:
The unwanted plants that grow in the field with the main crops or in their surroundings are called weeds.
Weeds are the plants which are not grown by the farmers, e.g., grass.

Stem

Question 1.
What is a stem?
Answer:
The part of the plant which generally grows above the ground level and bears leaves, flowers and fruits is called a stem.

Question 2.
Do you agree that stem is like a two way street?
Answer:
Yes. Stem carries the water absorbed by the roots to the leaves and also the food prepared by the leaves to the roots

Question 3.
Look carefully on the stem arising from various plants growing around you. Based on your observation, fill the following Table 7.1:

S. No	Description of the stem	Name of the plant
1.	Green and tender stem
2.	Hard, woody, thick brown stem
3.	Hard, woody, thin stem
4.	Branches arise from the base of the stem
5.	Branches arise from the upper part of the stem

Answer:

S. No	Description of the stem	Name of the plant
1.	Green and tender stem	Pea
2.	Hard, woody, thick brown stem	Mango
3.	Hard, woody, thin stem	Ladyfinger
4.	Branches arise from the base of the stem	Rose
5.	Branches arise from the upper part of the stem	Rubber plant

Question 4.
What are the modification of stem?
Answer:
Stem is modified to perform certain special functions:

Storage of food
Storage of water
Provide support
To make food
Multiplication or reproduction.

Question 5.
What are nodes and internodes?
Answer:
Nodes: The point where the leaf arises on the stem. They are attached to the stem by a stalk.
Internodes: The portion of the stem between the two nodes.

Leaf

Question 1.
Define petiole and lamina.
Answer:
The part of leaf which is attached to the stem is called petiole and the broad green part of the leaf is called lamina.

Question 2.
Draw a labelled diagram of the external structure of a leaf.
Answer:
Getting to Know Plants Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 7 - 4

Question 3.
What are veins?
Answer:
There are some lines on the leaf called veins.

Question 4.
What is midrib?
Answer:
There is a thick vein in the middle of the leaf called midrib.

Question 5.
What do you mean by

leaf venation
reticulate venation, and
parallel venation?

Answer:

Leaf venation: The design made by veins in a leaf is called leaf venation.
Reticulate venation: If the design is net-like on both sides of midrib, the venation is called reticulate venation.
Parallel venation: In the leaves of grass, the veins are parallel to one another. This is called parallel venation.

Question 6.
Explain the main functions of leaf.
Answer:
There are following two main functions of leaf:

Transpiration: The extra water comes out of the leaves through stomata in the form of vapour. This process is called transpiration.
Photosynthesis: The process by which leaves prepare their food from water and carbon dioxide in the presence of sunlight and a green-coloured substance i.e., chlorophyll is called photosynthesis.

Question 7.
Why are leaves generally green?
Answer:
The green colour of leaves is because of the presence of chlorophyll.

Question 8.
What are the modifications seen in a pitcher plant?
Answer:
In a pitcher plant, the lamina is modified into a pitcher and apex into its lid.

Question 9.
Select leaves showing reticulate venation and those showing parallel venation from the list given below and write them in the tabular form:
Peepal, neem, grass, mustard, methi, dhania (coriander), rose, tulsi, mango, sugarcane, maize, mint, wheat, rice.
Answer:

Reticulate Venation	Parallel Venation
Peepal	Grass
Xeem	Sugarcane
Mustard	Maize
Methi	Wheat
Dhania (coriander) Rose Tulsi Mango Mint	Rice

Activity 3.
Put a leaf under a white sheet of paper or a
sheet in your notebook. Hold it in place as shown in the figure. Hold your pencil tip sideways and rub it on the portion of the paper having the leaf below it. Did you get an impression wuth some lines in it? Are they similar to those on the leaf?
Getting to Know Plants Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 7 - 5
Yes, an impression with some lines in it is on the leaf. obtained. They are similar to those

Root

Question 1.
What are lateral roots?
Answer:
The smaller roots that grow on the main taproot are called lateral roots.

Question 2.
Why roots are modified?
Answer:
Certain plants have modified roots to perform specific functions:

Storage roots, e.g., carrot, radish
Supporting roots, e.g., banyan, rubber
Climbing roots, e.g., money plant
Parasitic roots, e.g., dodder
Breathing roots, e.g., mangroves.

Question 3.
Explain the difference between taproots and fibrous roots with the help of diagrams.
Answer:

Taproots	Fibrous Roots
There is only one main and long root from which small roots grow.	There is no main root. Many roots are grown together from the base of the stem in the form of bundle.
These roots go deep into the soil to more depth.	These roots do not go very deep.
These roots cannot be separated from soil easily.	These roots are easily separated from the soil.
Found in the plants like weeds having reticulate venation in leaves.	Found in the plants like grasses having parallel venation in leaves.

Question 4.
What are the main functions of roots?
Answer:
Main functions of roots are:

Roots absorb water and minerals from soil for the other parts of the plants.
Roots hold the plant firmly to the soil.
Some roots transform to store food, e.g., radish.
Roots of leguminous plants contain symbiotic bacteria which add the fertility of soil by fixing atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates.

Question 5.
Identify the structure seen in Fig. 7.22 and write three sentences about it.
Getting to Know Plants Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 7 - 7
Answer:
This is a fibrous root. It has the following features:

Roots are grown from the base of the stem.
These roots do not go very deep into the soil.
These roots are found in the plants having parallel venation in leaves, e.g., grasses.

Question 6.
How do you identify the root system of a plant without pulling it out of soil?
Answer:
By looking at the venation of the leaves, we can identify the root system of a plants. Plants with leaves having parallel venation have fibrous root and leaves having reticulate venation have taproot.

Question 7.
Uproot few different plants around you and study them. In Table 7.2 given below note the various parts seen in the different plants.
Table 7.2
Getting to Know Plants Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 7 - 12
Answer:

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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION CLASS – 12 | HISTORY | CHAPTER- 11 | REBELS AND THE RAJ THE REVOLT OF 1857 AND ITS REPRESENTATION | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are providing CHAPTER 11 REBELS AND THE RAJ THE REVOLT OF 1857 AND ITS REPRESENTATION NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 12 HISTORY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON REBELS AND THE RAJ THE REVOLT OF 1857 AND ITS REPRESENTATION

Question 1.
Examine how Lord Dalhousie’s policy of annexation created dissatisfaction amongst the people of Awadh.
Answer:
The Nawab of Awadh had been loyal to the British East India Company from the very beginning. But, the loyalty of Awadh was of no significance to Lord Dalhousie’s imperialistic ambitions. Awadh could not be annexed on the basis of the Doctrine of Lapse as Wajid Ali Shah, as the Nawab of Awadh had several successors. So, the British especially Lord Dalhousie used a number of mischievous tricks to annex the Awadh and dispossessed the taluqdars.

These were:

On 13th February, 1856, Awadh was annexed to the British empire on the grounds of maladministration.
Nawab Wazid Ali Sahib was sent to Calcutta with an annual pension of ₹ 12 lakh. With the dissolution of the royal administration, large number of courtiers, officials and taluqdars became jobless.
Jagirs of taluqdars were confiscated. This upheaval was aggravated by immediate material losses.
The British were not willing to tolerate the power of the taluqdars.
With the removal of Nawab, all taluqdars of the Awadh were also dispossessed, taluqdars were disarmed and their forts were destroyed.
With a new revenue system i.e. Summary Settlement, taluqdars lost their very large share of revenue from land. Wherever possible, taluqdars were removed and settlement was done directly with peasant.
British believed that this would increase the flow of revenue to the company and peasants would also be freed from oppression of taluqdar. This annexation of Awadh meant complete break down of social order.

Question 2.
With the help of specific examples examine the nature of Indian leadership that emerged against British in the revolt of 1857.
Answer:
During the revolt few leaders participated very enthusiastically while some other participated because they had no choice. They had to participate in the revolt for the sake of their reputation.

For e.g. Bahadur Shah was reluctant to join the rebellion but due to demands of sepoys, he joined the revolt and it was fought under his name. Similarly, sepoys and people of Kanpur choose
Nana Sahib as their leader and he joined the revolt.

Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi participated because her kingdom had been annexed to empire by ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ and there was also popular pressure on her to take the leadership. In Awadh, their was deep resentment against annexation, dispossession of nawab and oppressive rule of British. People of Awadh declared Birjis Qadar, the young son of dispossessed Nawab as their leader.

Apart from the royal families, local leaders also emerged during the revolt like Kuwar Singh in Arrah, fakir in Lucknow, Shah Mai in Barout and Gonoo, a tribal cultivator in Singhbhum. Although the leaders of 1857 revolt participated in this war, but they had separate goals which made the revolt unsuccessful against British.

Question 3.
Examine the repressive measures
adopted by British to subdue the rebels of 1857.
Answer:
It was not easy for the Britishers to suppress the revolt. Even then they took various steps to crush the rebels.

These steps were as follows:

Passing of Laws to help the Troops:
The British passed several laws to help the troops before sending them to re-occupy North India. The military officers were also empowered to try and punish the rebel Indians. The ordinary process of law and trial were ignored by them.

With the help of new laws and the new reinforcements coming from Britain, the ‘ British started the process of suppressing the revolt. British thought to reconquer Delhi was most important to suppress the revolt. Therefore, in June 1857, the British attacked Delhi from two directions. Captain Hudson arrested the Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah II and Begum Zinat Mahal from the Tomb of Humayun on 21st September, 1857.

Resorting to Diplomacy:

The British while resorting to diplomacy kept away the educated Indians and zamindars from the rebels. The British created a rift between rebels and the zamindars by promising the latter to give back their estates.

Use of Military Power on a Gigantic Scale:

The British used military power on a gigantic scale. But, this held their absolute control over the means of communication. Their control over the railways enabled them to send quick military support to different parts of the country’.

Communication System:

The telegraph system helped the British to get timely information about the incidents occurring in different parts of the country. Consequently, they were successful in wrecking plans of the rebels by taking immediate action against them. Thus, the British tried their best to maintain their absolute control over the means of communication in order to suppress the revolt.

Question 4.
Examine the provisions of ‘Subsidiary Alliance System’ devised by Lord Wellesley in 1798 for India.
Answer:
The Subsidiary Alliance was introduced by Lord Wellesley in 1798. All those who entered into such an alliance with the British had to accept certain terms and conditions.

These were:

The British would be responsible for protecting their ally from external and internal threats to their power.
In the territory of the ally, a British armed contingent would be stationed.
The ally would have to provide the resources for maintaining this contingent.
The ally could enter into agreements with other rulers or engage in warfare only with the permission of the British.

Question 5.
“The relationship of the sepoys with the superior white officers underwent a significant change in the years preceding the uprising of 1857”. Support the statement with examples.
Answer:
The white officers made it a point during the 1820s till 1840s to maintain friendly relations with the sepoys.
These were as follows:

Several white officers could speak in Hindustani easily and were also familiar with the culture and traditions of the country.
The relationship of sepoys with their British officials underwent significant change. In the decade of 1820, British officers stressed on maintaining friendly relations with the sepoys.
Prior to the revolt of 1857, the relationship of the sepoys with white officers made it a point to keep friendly relationship with the sepoys. They would actively took part in their leisure activities.
Despite this in the 1840s, the balance of mutual relationship changed drastically. The white officers created a sense of superiority and started keeping the sepoys as their racial inferiors.
The equation of superior and inferior changed the whole script of mutual relationship. The elements of abuse and physical violence became routine activities. Consequently, the distance between sepoys and officers became wider. Due to this, mutual suspicion cropped up.

Question 6.
How did the rebels in 1857 try to materialise their vision of unity? Explain briefly.
Answer:
The revolt tried to garner the support of all sections of the society irrespective of their caste and creed. The rebellion was viewed as a war in which both the communities as Hindus and Muslims stood equally to gain and lose. The amicable relations which existed between the two communities were emphasised. The ishtehars brought to the forefront memories of the pre-British Hindu-Muslim past and glorified the coexistence of different communities under the Mughal Empire.

Thus, religious differences were not visible between the two communities in 1857 despite British attempts to create a wedge between them. Through this way, they tried to materialise their vision of unity.

Question 7.
“The rumours in 1857 began to make sense when seen in the context of the policies pursued by the British from late 1820s”. Support your answer with evidence.
Answer:
The rumours in 1857 that made sense in context of the policies pursued by the British from late 1820s were as follows:

During the Governor-Generalship of Lord William Bentick some specific policies were adopted in order to ‘reform’ Indian society by the introduction of Western education. Western ideas and Western institutions.
Reforms like the abolition of Sati System.
Annexation of Jhansi and Satara-British refused to recognise adoption.
Reforms like Widow re-marriage Act.
Reforming socio-religious customs like land holding, inheritance, etc.
Rumours had an impact on the minds of people under these uncertain times.

The common Indians looked at all these steps with apprehension and suspicion.
Visual images and literature as much as the writing of history have helped in keeping alive the memory of the revolt of 1857.” Assess this statement. (All India 2008)

Question 8.
Describe how the British celebrated those, 9. whom they believed saved the English and repressed the rebels during the Revolt of 1857?
Answer:
The British celebrated those whom they believed saved the English and repressed the rebels during the revolt of 1857 by the various types of paintings which were meant to provide a range of different emotions and reactions also.
In an example of this type, ‘Relief of Lucknow’, which has been painted by Thomas Jones Barker in 1859 is particularly remarkable in this regard.

Henry Lawrence, the Commissioner of Lucknow, gathered all the Christians and took refuge alongwith them in heavily fortified residency after the rebel forces besieged Lucknow.

Lawrence was killed, but the residency continued to be defended under the command of Colonel Inglis. On 25th September, James Outram and Henry Havelock arrived out through the rebel forces and reinforced the British Garrisons. Collin Campbell reached with huge reinforcements and rescued the besieged British Garrison. In British accounts, the siege of Lucknow became a story of survival heroic resistance and the ultimate triumph of British power.

The arrival of Collin Campbell has been depicted as an event of celebration in Jones Barker’s painting. Campbell, Havelock and Outram, the three British heroes have been painted in the middle of the canvas.
The victorious figures of the heroes in the middle symbolise the re-establishment of British power and control is the main objective of these paintings and was to reassure the English in the power of their government. These paintings clearly conveyed the message that crisis was over and the revolt had been quelled and the British had succeeded in re-establishment of their power and authority.

Question 9.
Visual images and literature as much as the writing of history have helped in keeping alive the memory of the revolt of 1857.” Assess this statement.
Answer:
The writing of history, art and literature contributed remarkably to immortalise the sacred memory of the struggle of 1857. The leaders of revolt were presented as heroes taking the country towards the battlefield. They were depicted as heroes inspiring the common masses to begin struggle against the oppressive colonial power.

Many heroic poems were composed narrating the bravery of Laxmi Bai, holding a sword in one hand and the reins of the horse in the other, fought for the independence of her motherland. She was usually portrayed in battle armour with a sword in hand and riding a horse symbolising the determination to resist injustice and alien rule.

Thus, it becomes clear that visual representations produced various images of the revolt. We should know that these images were not a mere expression of contemporary ideas and sentiments, but they also reflected the contemporary sensibilities.

Question 10.
“Rumours and prophecies played a part in moving the people into action during the revolt of 1857.” Examine the statement with rumours and reasons for its belief.
Answer:
It is true that rumours and prophecies played a part in moving people to action during the revolt of 1857.

These rumours were as follows:

1. During 1857 revolt, there was an apparent rumour that the Indian sepoys were intentionally given the Enfield rifles, and its bullets were coated with the fat of cows and pigs and biting those bullets would corrupt their caste and religion.

2. The British tried to explain to the sepoys that this was not the case but the rumour that the new cartridges were greased with the fat of cows and pigs which spread like wildfire across the sepoy lines of North India.

3. This is one rumour whose origin can be traced. Captain Wright, commandant of the Rifle Instruction Depot, reported that in the third week of January 1857 a ‘low-caste’ Khalasi who worked in the magazine in Dum Dum had asked a Brahmin sepoy for a drink of water from his lota. The sepoy had refused saying that the Tower caste’s’ touch would defile the lota. The Khalasi had reportedly retorted, “You will lose your caste, as ere long you will have to bite cartridges covered with the fat of cows and pigs”.

4. The truthfulness of the report had not identified but once this rumour started no amount of assurances from British officers could stop its circulation and the fear of it spread among the sepoys.

5. This was not the only rumour that was circulating in North India at the beginning of 1857. There was the rumour that the British government has hatched a gigantic conspiracy to destroy the caste and religion of Hindus and Muslims.

It is seen that rumours reflect about the minds of people who believed them, their fears and apprehensions, their faiths and convictions. Rumours circulate only when they resonate with the deeper fears and suspicions of people. The rumours in 1857 begin to make sense when seen in the context of the policies the British pursued from the late 1820s. The reasons of believing in these rumours are discussed below:

From that time under the leadership of Governor General Lord William Bentinck, the British adopted policies aimed at ‘reforming’ Indian society by introducing Western education,Western ideas and Western institutions. With the cooperation of sections of Indian society they set up English-medium schools, colleges and universities which taught Westerp sciences and the liberal arts.
The British established laws to abolish customs like sati (1829) and to permit the remarriage of Hindu widows.
The British annexed not only Awadh, but also Jhansi and Satara. Once these territories were annexed, the British introduced their own system of administration. The impact of this on the people of North India was profound.
It seemed to the people that all that they cherished and held sacred from kings and socio-religious customs to patterns of landholding and revenue payment was being destroyed and replaced by a system that was more impersonal, alien and oppressive.
This perception was aggravated by the activities of Christian missionaries. In such a situation of uncertainty, rumours spread with remarkable swiftness. And people started to believe in these rumours during the revolt of 1857.

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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION CLASS – 12 | HISTORY | CHAPTER- 10 | COLONIALISM AND THE COUNTRYSIDE: EXPLORING OFFICIAL ARCHIVES | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are providing CHAPTER 10 COLONIALISM AND THE COUNTRYSIDE: EXPLORING OFFICIAL ARCHIVES NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 12 HISTORY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON COLONIALISM AND THE COUNTRYSIDE: EXPLORING OFFICIAL ARCHIVES

Question 1.
Discuss the difficulties faced by the Zamindars in collecting revenue from the peasants (ryots). Give any two points.
Answer:
Sometimes it was very difficult for the ryots to pay their dues to the Zamindars. It can be seen from the following points:

The farmers (ryots) failed to pay the revenue when their crops were damaged or when they got less price for their harvest.
Sometimes the payments were deliberately delayed by the farmers. It led to the accumulation of unpaid balances.

Question 2.
What was the relation between ryots and under-ryots?
Answer:
Ryot is a term used to describe the peasants. It was spelt as Raiyat in the British records. They did not cultivate the land directly and leased it out to under-ryots.

Question 3.
Why did the British decide to clear the forests and to remove the Paharis? Give any two reasons.
Answer:

The British wanted to extend the settled agriculture so that the sources of land revenue may be enlarged.
They associated forests with the wilderness. They considered the forest people as savage, unruly and primitive. They found these people difficult to govern. Therefore, they cleared the forests to tame the forest people and make them orderly and civilised.

Question 4.
Why did the Zamindars default on the payment of revenues under the British government? Give two reasons.
Answer:
The British introduced the system of Permanent Settlement in Bengal. They thought that the fixed revenue would imbibe a sense of security among the Zamindars. But contrary to this perception, the Zamindars regularly failed to pay the revenue. This resulted in the accumulation of unpaid balances.

Important Reasons: The Zamindars failed to make regular payments of revenue due to the following reasons:

1. The initial rate of revenue was very high. It was fixed for all time to come. The East India Company had thought that it would never be able to claim a share in the increased income from the land if at any stage, the prices rose and the cultivation expanded. The Company also argued that the burden on the Zamindars would slowly come down with the increase in agricultural production and the prices of agricultural products.

2. The amount of revenue was fixed during the period of economic depression. The ryots found it difficult to pay their dues to the Zamindars. As such the Zamindars were unable to pay the revenue to the East India Company.

3. The revenue was invariable. It had to be paid punctually even if the harvest was not good. There was the enforcement of Sun-Set law. If any Zamindar did not make the payment before the sun-set on a specific day, his estate was auctioned.

4. The Permanent Settlement had reduced the power of the Zamindars to collect rent from the ryot.

Question 5.
What was the policy of Paharias towards plains people and why?
Answer:

They often attacked the plains where settled agriculturists lived.
These attacks were a way of asserting power over settled groups.
Zaminddrs, lived in plains, regularly paid tribute to Paharia Chiefs to keep themselves safe and secure.
Traders also gave a small amount of money to Paharias for getting permission for using the passes controlled by them. After getting the toll, these traders were protected by Paharia chiefs and were ensured that no one could plunder their goods.

Question 6.
Explain the impact of refusal of moneylenders to extend loans to Ryots around 1865, under the colonial rule in India.
Answer:
As a boom in cotton market lasted for long, India cotton merchants began to visualise the capturing of the world market in raw cotton by permanently displacing the United States of America (U.S.A.). But this condition changed in 1865. American Civil War came to an end and America again began to produce cotton. As a result, Indian export of cotton to British steadily declined.

Under these circumstances, moneylenders and export merchants of Maharashtra were no longer keen on providing long-term loans. The refusal of moneylenders to extend loans enraged the ryots. What infuriated them was not that they had got deeper and deeper into debt, or that were utterly dependent on the moneylender for survival, but that moneylenders were not sensitive to their plight. The moneylenders were violating the customary norms of the countryside.

Question 7.
Who were the hill folk? Why were they so apprehensive of I Buchanans visit to Rajmahal hills in the 19th century? Explain.
Answer:
The Paharis were known as the hill folk. The lived in the vicinity of the Rajmahal hills. They earned their livelihood from the forest produce and also practised shifting cultivation. Buchanan reached the Rajmahal Hills in the early 19th century. He found these hills as impenetrable.

They posed a great risk and danger to the travellers like him. Buchanan also found the hilly people as hostile, apprehensive and not willing to talk to any traveller. In fact, all the Paharis looked at him with suspicion and distrust. When he arrived at a village with his army of people, he was immediately perceived as an agent of the Sarkar, i.e., the British Govt.

Question 8.
What was the Fifth Report? What was its objective? On what grounds has it been criticised?
Answer:
The Fifth Report was submitted to the British Parliament in 1813. It was called the Fifth Report as it was the fifth in a series of reports about the working of the East India Company. The core issue of the Fifth Report was the administration and activities of the East India Company. This report had 1002 pages out of which 800 pages were in the form of appendices which included the petitions of Zamindars and ryots, reports of Collectors, statistical tables on revenue returns and the official notes on the revenue and judicial administration of Bengal and Madras.

Objectives of the Report: Many groups of people in Britain were not happy with the working of East India Company in India. They opposed the monopoly enjoyed by the East India Company over trade with India and China. Many of the British traders wanted a share in Company’s trade in India. They emphasised that the Indian market should be opened for British manufacturers. Many political groups even argued that the conquest of Bengal benefitted only the East India Company and not the British nation as a whole.

They highlighted the misrule and maladministration by East India Company. As a result, the British Parliament passed several Acts in the late 18th century to regulate and control the rule of East India Company in India. It even asked the Company to submit regular reports on its administrative activities in India. The Fifth Report was such a report. It was produced by a select committee. It was concerned with the nature of the Company’s rule in India. It contained invaluable evidence against the rule of East India Company in India. It brings out the pitiable condition in rural Bengal in the late 18th century.

Basis of Criticism: The Fifth Report has been carefully examined by the critics. They find the following limitations in it:

It has many unconvincing arguments and evidence.
Its purpose was only to criticise the maladministration of the East India Company.
It exaggerated the collapse of traditional Zamindari power.
It stated in hyperbolic words that the Zamindars were losing their land. The land of most of the farmers was auctioned.
The Company did not collect revenue with punctuality.

Question 9.
Examine the circumstances that led to the passing of ‘Limitation Laws’ by the British in 1859.
Answer:

The Ryots came to see the moneylenders as devious and deceitful. They complained of money-lenders manipulating laws and forgoing accounts.
Most of the times, the money-lenders had charged over? 2000 as interest on a loan of 100 Ryots complained of the injustice of such exactions and the violation of custom.
One general norm was that the interest charged could not be more than the principal. But this norm was generally violated.

Consequently in 1859, the British passed a Limitation Law that stated that the loan bonds signed between moneylenders and ryots would have validity for only three years.

Question 10.
Why did the British want to clear forests and expand settled cultivation? Enumerate any five reasons.
Answer:
Due to the following reasons, the British wanted to clear the forests and expand the settled cultivation of land:

By adopting the settled cultivation of land, the colonial government wanted to enhance its revenue.
It could grow cash crops for export.
The British could establish an ordered and civilised society.
They associated forests with wildness. They considered the forest people as savage, unruly and primitive. They found these people difficult to govern. So they exhorted the Santhals to clear the forests and encouraged settled agriculture.
They wanted to tame, civilise and persuade the forest people to give up hunting and take up ploughing to cultivate the land.

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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION CLASS – 12 | HISTORY | CHAPTER- 9 | KING AND CHRONICLES THE MUGHAL COURT | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are providing CHAPTER 9 KING AND CHRONICLES THE MUGHAL COURT NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 12 HISTORY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON KING AND CHRONICLES THE MUGHAL COURT

Question 1.
“The granting of titles to the men of merit was an important aspect of Mughal polity”. Explain.
The granting of titles to men of merit was an important aspect of Mughal polity as:

A man’s ascent in the court hierarchy could be traced through the titles he held.
The title Asaf Khan for one of the highest ministers originated with Asaf, the legendary minister of the prophet king Sulaiman (Solomon).
The title Mirza Raja was accorded by Aurangzeb to his two highest ranking nobles, Jai singh and Jaswant Singh.
Titles could be earned or paid for. For e.g. Mir Khan offered ? 1 lakh to Aurangzeb for the letter ‘Alif’ that is ‘A’, to be added to his name to make it Amir Khan.

Question 2.
How do you think that the chronicles
commissioned by the Mughal emperors are an important source for studing Mughal history?
Answer:
Chronicles are an indispensable source for any scholar wishing to write a history of the Mughals. At one level, they were a repository of factual . information about the institutions of the Mugal state, painstakingly collected and classifed by individuals closely connected with the court (especially courtiers). They were written in order to project a vision of an enlightened kingdom to all those who came under its umbrella.

On the other hand, they were meant to convey to those who resisted the rule of the Mughals that all resistance was destired to fail. The rulers wanted to ensure that there was an account of their rule for posterity. The histories that the authors wrote focused on events centred on the ruler, his family, the court and nobles, wars and administrative arrangements.

Their titles such as the Akbar Nama, Shah Jahan Nama, Alamgir Nama i.e. the story of Akbar, Shah Jahan and Alamgir (a title of the Mughal ruler Aurangzeb), suggest that in the eyes of their authors the history of the empire and the court was synonymous with that of the emperor.

Question 3.
How do you think that Qandahar remained a bone of contention between the Mughals and the Safavids? Explain.
Answer:
The following points in this regard are discussed below:

The political and diplomatic relations between the Mughal kings and the neighbouring countries of Iran and Turan hinged on the control of the frontier defined by the Hindukush mountains that separated Afghanistan from the regions of Iran and Central Asia.
Qandahar was a bone of contention between the Safavids and the Mughals. The fortress town had initially been in the possession of Humayun, reconquered in 1595 by Akbar. While the Safavid court retained diplomatic relations with the Mughals, it continued to stake claims to Qandahar.
In 1613 Jahangir sent a diplomatic envoy to the court of Shah Abbas to plead the Mughal case for retaining Qandahar but the mission failed.
In the winter of 1622 a persian army. besieged Qandahar. The ill-prepared Mughal garrison was defeated and had to surrender the fortress and the city to the safavids.

Question 4.
“Mughal rulers efficiently assimilated heterogeneous populace within an imperial edifice”. Support the statement.
Answer:
Mughal rulers efficiently assimilated heterogeneous populace within an imperial edifice.
This statement can be justified in the following ways:

Mughal chronicles described that the Mughal empire was comprised of many different ethnic and religious communities i.e. Hindus, Jainas, Zoroastrians and Muslims.
As the emperor gathered knowledge about all religions and sects, he stood above all religious and ethnic groups, mediated among them and ensured justice and peace for all.
Akbar accepted the ideal of Sulh-i-kul i.e. all religions and schools of thought had freedom of expression, but they did not undermine the authority of the state.
Akbar abolished tax on pilgrimage and Jizya. AH Mughal emperors gave grants to support the building and maintenance of the places of worship, when temples were destroyed during war. Later grants were given to repair these at the time of Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb.

Question 5.
“The keeping of the exact and detailed record was the major concern of Mughal administration”. Support the statement with examples. HOTS
Answer:
The keeping of exact and detailed records was a major concern of the Mughal administration. This can be justified in the following ways:

The Mir Bakshi supervised the corps of court writers (Waquia navvis), who recorded all applications and documents presented to the court, and all imperial orders i.e. farman.
Agents (Wakil) of nobles and regional rulers recorded the entire proceedings of the court under the heading ‘News from the Exalted court’ with the date and time of the court session (pahar).
The akhbarat contained all kinds of information like attendance at the court, grant of offices and titles, diplomatic missions, presents received or the enquiries made by the emperor about the health of an officers.
All these informations is valuable for writing the history of the public and private lives of kings and nobles.

Question 6.
‘One important pillar of Mughal administration was the nobility’. Justify.
Answer:
One of the most important pillar of the Mughal state was its corps of officers. Historians called them as nobility. The main features of this class were:

The nobility was recruited from diverse ethnic and religious groups. It ensured that no group was large enough to challenge the authority of the king.
The nobility was described as a bouquet of flowers (guldasta) held together by loyalty to the emperor.
In Akbar’s time, Turani and Iranian nobles played a significant role in administration. Many of them accompanied Humayun, some migrated later to join the Mughal Court.
From 1560 onwards, two ruling groups of Indian origin, viz. the Rajputs and the Indian Muslims (Shaikhzadas) entered the imperial service.

Question 7.
“Abu’l Fazl has described the ideal of Sulh-i-kul of Akbar as the corner-stone of his enlightened rule”. Justify.
Answer:
The ideal of Sulh-i-kul i.e. absolute peace was described by Abu’l Fazl as the corner stone of enlightened rule.
This can be justified in the following ways:

Mughal empire had many different ethnic and religious communities like, Hindus, Jainas, Zoroastrians and Muslims. Thus, the emperor stood above all religious and ethnic groups to ensure justice and peace for all.
In Sulh-i-kul, all religions and schools of thought had freedom of expression but on one condition that they did not ignore the authority of the state or fight among themselves to capture power.
The ideal of Sulh-i-kul was implemented through state policies in which nobilities were comprising Iranis, Turanis, Afghans, Rajputs and Deccanis. All of them were given positions and awards on the basis of their service and loyalty to the emperor.
In 1563, Akbar abolished the tax on pilgrimage and in 1564 he abolished Jizya. Both of these were based on religious discrimination.
All Mughal emperors gave grants to support the building and maintenance of places of worship.

Question 8.
Identify the distinctive features of the imperial household of the Mughal Empire.
Answer:
The distinctive features of the imperial household of the Mughal Empire can be explained in the following ways:

The household of the Mughals consisted of the emperor’s wives and concubines, his mother, step and foster mothers, sisters, daughters, daughter-in-law, aunts, children, etc and female servants and slaves.
Polygamy was practised widely by Mughal emperor. The term ‘harem’ is used to refer to the domestic world of the Mughals. Persian word ‘haram’ means sacred place. Slave eunuchs (Khwajasara) were appointed as guards or servants in the harem.
In the Mughal household, a difference was kept between wives come from royal, aristocratic families (begums) and other wives (aghas) who were not so noble by birth. The concubines (aghacha) occupied the lowest position. They all received monthly allowances and gift according to their status. The agha and aghacha could rise to the position of a begum depending on the husband’s will and in case where the husband did not already have four wives. Love and motherhood are considered here in acquiring such position for a legally wedded wives.
Apart from wives, numerous male and female slaves were there in the Mughal household. They performed various types of works from regular work to specialised work which requires skill, tact and intelligence.
Many Mughal queens and princess like Nur Jahan, Jahanara, Roshanara enjoyed significant power and financial status. Often elderly women of Mughal household played significant role in resolving tension among princes and kings.

Question 9.
“Historians have provided accounts of diplomatic relationships and conflicts with the neighbouring political powers of the Mughal Empire.” Elaborate.
Answer:
The Mughal emperors took many high-sounding titles like Shahenshah, Jahangir, Shah Jahan to reiterate their claims on territorial and political control. They had diplomatic relationships and conflicts with the neighbouring political powers. This can be explained in the following ways:

The political and diplomatic relations between the Mughal rulers and the neighbouring countries of Iran and Turan were based on the control of the boundaries marked by the Hindukush mountains that separated Afghanistan from the regions of Iran and Central Asia.
The conquerors who wanted to make their way into the Indian sub-continent had to cross the Hindukush to have access to North India. The central
objective off the Mughal policy was to ward off this potential danger. For this purpose outposts like Kabul and Qandahar were strictly regulated.
Between the Safavids and the Mughals, Qandahar became a bone of contention. First it was under Humayun’s control, later it was captured by Akbar in 1595. But the Safavids continued to stake claims to Qandahar.
Jahangir sent a diplomatic envoy to the court of Shah Abbas to plead the Mughal case for hiring Qandhar in 1613. However, the Mission failed. A Persian army captured Qandhar in 1622. The Mughal garrison which was ill-prepared was defeated. It had to surrender the fortress and the city to the Safavids.

Question 10.
Describe how the ‘Humayun Nama’ of Gulbadan Begum gives us the glimpses of the Mughal Imperial household.
Answer:
The book ‘Humayun Nama’ was written by Gulbadan Begum, the daughter of Babur. It gives us interesting glimpses of the Mughal Imperial household in the following ways:

Gtdbadan’s book was not an eulogy of the Mughal emperors. Rather she described in great detail the conflicts and tensions among the princes and kings.
Gulbadan also wrote about the significant role played by the elderly women of the Mughal household in resolving some of the conflicts of the Mughal empire.
Gulbadan Begum recorded her memories of earlier times under Babur and Humayun, which was considered as a very important document of Mughal era.

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NCERT MCQ CLASS – 12 | HISTORY | CHAPTER- 11 | REBELS AND THE RAJ THE REVOLT OF 1857 AND ITS REPRESENTATION | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are providing CHAPTER 11 REBELS AND THE RAJ THE REVOLT OF 1857 AND ITS REPRESENTATION NCERT MCQ for Class 12 HISTORY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON REBELS AND THE RAJ THE REVOLT OF 1857 AND ITS REPRESENTATION

Question 1 : Which of the following was the immediate cause of the Revolt of 1857?
(a) Mixing of bone dust of cow in the atta
(b) Banning the practice of Sati
(c) Cartridges of Enfield rifle
(d) Allowing widow remarriage

Answer : C
Question 2 : Awadh was one of the few Indian kingdoms that was not annexed by the British by the

(a) 1830s.

(b) 1840s.

(d) 1860s.

Answer : C
Question 3 : Consider the following statements:
(i) Rumours played a great role in the revolt of 1857 A.D.
(ii) Peshwa Baji Rao II adopted Nana Saheb as his son.
(iii) The British had no answer to the action of the rebels during the months of May and June in 1857 A.D.
(iv) Awadh was a major centre of revolt in 1857 A.D.
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) i, ii, iii, iv
(c) ii, iii, iv
(d) i, ii, iv

Answer : B

Question 4 : Which of these was the reason for Nana Saheb’s joining the revolt of 1857?
(а) The British refused him the pension of Peshwa Baji Rao II.
(b) The British captured Awadh
(c) The British captured Jhansi under the doctrine of Lapse
(d) Nana Saheb refused to accept Subsidiary Alliance

Answer : A
Question 5 : The artist of the painting “Relief of Lucknow” was:

(a) Thomas Jones Barker

(b) Henry Lawrance

(d) Joseph Noel

Answer : A
Question 6 : What do you understand by the term ‘Firangi’?
(a) Outcaste
(b) A type of drink
(c) Foreigner
(d) Mirror work

Answer : C
Question 7 : Delhi was finally captured by the British in

(a) June 1857

(b) July 1857

(d) September 1857

Answer : D
Question 8 : Awadh was annexed into the British empire in _________
(a) 1855
(b) 1854
(c) 1856
(d) 1853

Answer : C

Question 9 : Awadh and Satara were captured under ________
(a) Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Subsidiary Alliance
(c) Issue of Misgovernance
(d) Mahalwari System

Answer : A

Question 10 : Who was the last Nawab of Awadh?

(a) Muhammad Ali Shah

(b) Muhammad Muqim

(d) Wajid Ali Shah

Answer : D
Question 11 : Wajid Ali Shah was the Nawab of
(a) Awadh
(b) Bengal
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Karnataka

Answer : A
Question 12 : Villages whose headmen and cultivators were mobilised against the British rule by Shah Mal were

(a) Chaurasee Des.

(b) 24 parganas.

(d) Meerut.

Answer : A
Question 13 : Who among the following mobilised the villages of Pargana Barout in Uttar Pradesh in the Revolt of 1857?
(a) Maulvi Ahmadullh Shah
(b) Kunwar Singh
(c) Shah Mai
(d) Manvant Singh

Answer : C

Question 14 : Which of the following statements was not a justified reason for the annexation of Awadh by the British in 1857?
(a) Wajid Ali was the unpopular ruler.
(b) Subsidiary Alliance system was accepted by Wajid Ali Shah at ease.
(c) Mangal Pandey initiated the revolt from Awadh.
(d) Material benefits were given to the taluqdars by the British.

Answer : C
Question 15 : Lakshmi Bai, the queen of Jhansi who fought against the British, passed away in the year

(a) 1857.

(b) 1855.

(d) 1856.

Answer : C

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NCERT MCQ CLASS – 12 | HISTORY | CHAPTER- 10 | COLONIALISM AND THE COUNTRYSIDE: EXPLORING OFFICIAL ARCHIVES | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are providing CHAPTER 10 COLONIALISM AND THE COUNTRYSIDE: EXPLORING OFFICIAL ARCHIVES NCERT MCQ for Class 12 HISTORY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON COLONIALISM AND THE COUNTRYSIDE: EXPLORING OFFICIAL ARCHIVES

Q.1 Who among the following was the leader of the Santhal rebellion?

(a) Siddhu Manjhi
(b) Birsa Munda
(c) Kanu
(d) PahariasShow Answer

Answer (a) Siddhu Manjhi

Q.2 In which year did the American Civil War break out?

(a) 1857
(b) 1859
(c) 1861
(d) 1872

Answer (c) 1861

Q.3 What were the hill folks known as?

(a) Dikus
(b) Ryots
(c) Santhals
(d) Paharias

Answer (d) Paharias

Q.4 When was Fifth Report introduced in the British Parliament?

(a) 1770
(b) 1858
(c) 1813
(d) 1795

Answer (c) 1813

Q.5 Lije of Paharias of Rajmahal completely dependent upon _

(a) river
(b) permanent agriculture
(c) forests
(d) TradeShow Answer

Answer (c) forests

Q.6 Who among the following emerged as a danger for Paharis?

(a) Santhal
(b) Bhil
(e) Gujjar
(d) Bekarwal

Answer (a) Santhal

Q.7 Daniin-i-koh was formed for __

(a) Santhals
(b) Paharias
(c) British
(d) Zamindari

Answer (a) Santhals

Q.8 _ was the major source of cotton for the British till 1862.

(a) America
(b) India
(c) China
(d) Japan

Answer (a) America

Q.9 Damin-i-Koh was the area demarcated for the tribe.

(a) Ho
(b) Santhal
(c) Munda
(d) JuntoShow Answer

Answer (b) Santhal

Q.10 When was the permanent settlement introduced in Bengal?

(a) 1785
(b) 1764
(c) 1793
(d) 1905

Answer (c) 1793

Q.11 Who Introduced Permanent Settlement in Bengal?

(a) Lord Cornwallis
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) Lord William Bentick

Answer (a) Lord Cornwallis

Q.12 Which revenue system was introduced in Bombay Deccan?

(a) Permanent Settlement
(b) Kankut
(c) Batai
(d) Ryotwari

Answer (d) Ryotwari

Q.13 By which name were the jotedars called?

(a) Zamindars
(b) Ryots
(c) Haoldars
(d) Paharias

Answer (c) Haoldars

Q.14 Who introduced the Permanent Settlement in Bengal?

(a) Lord Charles Cornwallis
(b) Francis Buchanan
(c) David Ricardo
(d) Thomas Munro

Answer (a) Lord Charles Cornwallis

Q.15 Which of the following statements related to Santhals is incorrect?

(a) They lived on the peripheries of Rajmahal hills.
(b) They cleared forests and ploughed the land.
(c) They borrowed money from dikus.
(d) They practiced shifting cultivation.

Answer (d) They practiced shifting cultivation.

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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION CLASS – 12 | HISTORY | CHAPTER- 11 | REBELS AND THE RAJ THE REVOLT OF 1857 AND ITS REPRESENTATION | EDUGROWN |

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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION CLASS – 12 | HISTORY | CHAPTER- 9 | KING AND CHRONICLES THE MUGHAL COURT | EDUGROWN |

NCERT MCQ CLASS – 12 | HISTORY | CHAPTER- 11 | REBELS AND THE RAJ THE REVOLT OF 1857 AND ITS REPRESENTATION | EDUGROWN |

NCERT MCQ CLASS – 12 | HISTORY | CHAPTER- 10 | COLONIALISM AND THE COUNTRYSIDE: EXPLORING OFFICIAL ARCHIVES | EDUGROWN |

Q.1 Who among the following was the leader of the Santhal rebellion?

Q.2 In which year did the American Civil War break out?

Q.3 What were the hill folks known as?

Q.4 When was Fifth Report introduced in the British Parliament?

Q.5 Lije of Paharias of Rajmahal completely dependent upon _

Q.6 Who among the following emerged as a danger for Paharis?

Q.7 Daniin-i-koh was formed for __

Q.8 _ was the major source of cotton for the British till 1862.

Q.9 Damin-i-Koh was the area demarcated for the tribe.

Q.10 When was the permanent settlement introduced in Bengal?

Q.11 Who Introduced Permanent Settlement in Bengal?

Q.12 Which revenue system was introduced in Bombay Deccan?

Q.13 By which name were the jotedars called?

Q.14 Who introduced the Permanent Settlement in Bengal?

Q.15 Which of the following statements related to Santhals is incorrect?

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Q.1 Who among the following was the leader of the Santhal rebellion?

Q.2 In which year did the American Civil War break out?

Q.3 What were the hill folks known as?

Q.4 When was Fifth Report introduced in the British Parliament?

Q.5 Lije of Paharias of Rajmahal completely dependent upon _

Q.6 Who among the following emerged as a danger for Paharis?

Q.7 Daniin-i-koh was formed for __

Q.8 _ was the major source of cotton for the British till 1862.

Q.9 Damin-i-Koh was the area demarcated for the tribe.

Q.10 When was the permanent settlement introduced in Bengal?

Q.11 Who Introduced Permanent Settlement in Bengal?

Q.12 Which revenue system was introduced in Bombay Deccan?

Q.13 By which name were the jotedars called?

Q.14 Who introduced the Permanent Settlement in Bengal?

Q.15 Which of the following statements related to Santhals is incorrect?

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