NCERT MCQ ON International Business-I :

Q.1 Which one of the following is not amongst India’s major trading partners?

(a) Germany
(b) New Zealand
(c) the UK
(d) the USA

Answer

(b) New Zealand

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Q.2 A receipt issued by the commanding officer of the ship when the cargo is loaded on the ship is known as

(a) Cargo receipt
(b) Mate receipt
(c) Shipping receipt
(d) Charter receipt

Answer

(b) Mate receipt

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Q.3 Which one of the following is not a document related to fulfilling the customs formalities

(a) Letter of insurance
(b) Shipping bill
(c) Export license
(d) Proforma invoice

Answer

(d) Proforma invoice

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Q.4 Which one of the following is not a part of export documents?

(a) Commercial invoice
(b) Mate’s receipt
(c) Certificate of origin
(d) Bill of entry

Answer

(d) Bill of entry

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Q.5 The document containing the guarantee of a bank to honour drafts drawn on it by an exporter is

(a) Letter of hypothecation
(b) Letter of credit
(c) Bill of exchange
(d) Bill of lading

Answer

(b) Letter of credit

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Q.6 Which one of the following is not amongst India’s major export items?

(a) Textiles and garments
(b) Gems and jewellery
(c) Oil and petroleum products
(d) Basmati rice

Answer

(c) Oil and petroleum products

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Q.7 Which one of the following modes of entry permits greatest degree of control over overseas operations?

(a) Licensing/franchising
(b) Wholly owned subsidiary
(c) Contract manufacturing
(d) Joint venture

Answer

(b) Wholly owned subsidiary

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Q.8 Which of the following is not an advantage of exporting?

(a) Easier way to enter into international markets
(b) Comparatively lower risks
(c) Limited presence in foreign markets
(d) Less investment requirements

Answer

(c) Limited presence in foreign markets

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Q.9 Outsourcing a part of or entire production and concentrating on marketing operations in international business is known as

(a) Licensing
(b) Franchising
(c) Contract manufacturing
(d) Joint venture

Answer

(c) Contract manufacturing

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Q.10 The OECD stands for:

(a) Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development
(b) Organization for Economic Coordination and Development
(c) Organization for Environmental Cooperation and Development
(d) Organization for Environmental Control and Development

Answer

(a) Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development

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Q.11 Which of the following documents are not required for obtaining an export license?

(a) IEC number
(b) Registration cum membership certificate
(c) Letter of credit
(d) Bank account number

Answer

(c) Letter of credit

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Q.12 Which of the following documents is not required in connection with an import transaction?

(a) Certificate of origin
(b) Bill of lading
(c) Shipping bill
(d) Shipment advice

Answer

(c) Shipping bill

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Q.13 W.T.O is the only organization dealing with the:

(a) Home trade rules
(b) Entrepot trade rules
(c) Global trade rules
(d) None of the above

Answer

(c) Global trade rules

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Q.14 Import trade procedure starts with

(a) Obtaining quota
(b) Arranging L.C
(c) Trade enquiry
(d) Placing Indent

Answer

(c) Trade enquiry

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Q.15 When two or more firms come together to create a new business entity that is legally separate and distinct from its parents it is known as

(a) Franchising
(b) Contract manufacturing
(c) Joint Ventures
(d) Licensing

Answer

(c) Joint Ventures

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Q.16 Select example of Indian Multinational Company

(a) Hindusthan Unilever
(b) Videocon
(c) Cargill
(d) Tesco

Answer

(b) Videocon

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Q.17 ________is the payment method most often used in International Trade which offers the exporter best assurance of being paid for the products sold internationally.

(a) Bill of Lading
(b) Letter of Credit
(c) Open Account
(d) Drafts

Answer

(b) Letter of Credit

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Q.18 Which of the following is not a force in the Porter Five Forces model?

(a) Buyers
(b) Suppliers
(c) Complementary products
(d) Industry rivalry

Answer

(c) Complementary products

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Q.19 Which is not an Indian Multinational Company?

(a) Unilever
(b) Asian Paints
(c) Piramal
(d) Wipro

Answer

(a) Unilever

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Q.20 ___________is the application of knowledge which redefines the boundaries of global business

(a) Cultural Values
(b) Society
(c) Technology
(d) Economy

Answer

(c) Technology

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Q.21 The Theory of Relative Factor Endowments is given by

(a) David Ricardo
(b) Adam Smith
(c) F W Taussig
(d) Ohlin and Hecksher

Answer

(d) Ohlin and Heckshery

NCERT MCQ ON Internal Trade :

Q.1 Small scale Fixed retailers includes __________

(a) Hawkers
(b) Pedlars
(c) Cheap Jacks
(d) General stores

Answer

(d) General stores

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Q.2 __________ are agents who merely bring the buyer and the seller into contact.

(a) Selling agent
(b) Commission agent
(c) Stockist
(d) Broker

Answer

(d) Broker

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Q.3 Wholesalers deals in ___________quantity of goods

(a) Small
(b) Limited
(c) Large
(d) Medium

Answer

(c) Large

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Q.4 The purchase of goods from a foreign country is called ____________

(a) Entreport
(b) Import
(c) Re-Export
(d) Export

Answer

(b) Import

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Q.5 The risk of bad debts in this business is eliminated particularly when payment is received through V.P.P.

(a) Tele-shopping
(b) mail order trading house
(c) Departmental store
(d) co-operative store

Answer

(b) mail order trading house

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Q.6 It is a network of a number of branches situated at different localities in the city or in the different parts of the country.

(a) Multiple shop
(b) Consumers? co-operative store
(c) Hire purchase system
(d) Internet marketing

Answer

(a) Multiple shop

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Q.7 An agent is appointed by the _________

(a) Principal
(b) Manufacturer
(c) Wholesaler
(d) Retailer

Answer

(a) Principal

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Q.8 The persons who come in between the primary producer and the final consumer to promote trade is called as ________

(a) Trader
(b) Middleman
(c) Auctioneer
(d) Agent

Answer

(b) Middleman

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Q.9 A warehouse keeper accepts goods for the purpose of _________

(a) Selling
(b) Packaging
(c) Export
(d) Storage

Answer

(d) Storage

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Q.10 When goods are imported for the purpose of export is called as ________

(a) Foreign trade
(b) Entrepot
(c) Home trade
(d) Trade

Answer

(b) Entrepot

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Q.11 It helps disabled and elderly people.

(a) Tele-shopping
(b) E-commerce
(c) multiple shop
(d) installment system

Answer

(a) Tele-shopping

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Q.12 ___________ are mobile traders who deal in low priced articles with no fixed place of business.

(a) Street stalls
(b) Retailers
(c) Itinerant traders
(d) Agents

Answer

(c) Itinerant traders

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Q.13 __________can check the price fluctuations in the market by holding back the goods when prices fall and releasing the goods when prices raise.

(a) Wholesaler
(b) Agent
(c) Retailer
(d) Mercantile agent

Answer

(a) Wholesaler

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Q.14 This retail business acts as a universal supplier of a wide variety of products.

(a) Departmental store
(b) Multiple shop
(c) Mail order Business
(d) Tele-shopping

Answer

(a) Departmental store

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Q.15 The aim is to economies by buying in common and to retain their profits by selling in common.

(a) multiple shop
(b) web marketing
(c) teleshopping
(d) consumers co-operative store

Answer

(d) consumers co-operative store

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NCERT MCQ ON  Small Business:

Q.1 ISO 9000 is concerned with

(a) Export
(b) Quantity
(c) Quality
(d) Import

Answer

(c) Quality

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Q.2 Which of the following comes under the Modern Small Industries?

(a) Coir
(b) Powerlooms
(c) Handicrafts
(d) Khadi

Answer

(b) Powerlooms

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Q.3 Small industries contribute _ of gross industrial value.

(a) 49 percent
(b) 45 percent
(c) 48 percent
(d) 40 percent

Answer

(d) 40 percent

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Q.4 Expand EOUs

(a) Essential Operating units
(b) Export Order Units
(c) Export Oriented units
(d) Essential order units

Answer

(c) Export Oriented units

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Q.5 Which of the following is organised by individuals?

(a) Cottage Industries
(b) Railway industry
(c) None of these
(d) Chemical industry

Answer

(a) Cottage Industries

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Q.6 Any industry located in a rural area which produces any goods, renders any service with or without the use of power is known as _____________

(a) City Industry
(b) Town Industry
(c) Village Industry
(d) District Industry

Answer

(c) Village Industry

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Q.7 The small scale industry can enjoy the status of ___________unit if it exports more than 50% of its production.

(a) Import oriented units
(b) Export Oriented units
(c) Small scale unit
(d) Domestic unit

Answer

(b) Export Oriented units

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Q.8 NSIC was setup in

(a) 1982
(b) 1975
(c) 1965
(d) 1955

Answer

(d) 1955

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Q.9 ___________are also known as Rural industries or Traditional industries

(a) Agricultural industry
(b) Food industry
(c) Cottage Industries
(d) None of the above

Answer

(c) Cottage Industries

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Q.10 Small scale industries owned and managed by women entrepreneurs have a share capital of not less than ____________

(a) 20 percent
(b) 51 percent
(c) 25 percent
(d) 50 percent

Answer

(b) 51 percent

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Q.11 Expand DIC

(a) Directorate of Industry corporation
(b) Directorate of Indian Corporation
(c) District Industries Centers
(d) None of the above

Answer

(c) District Industries Centers

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Q.12 Which of the following is part of the small-scale sector?

(a) Paper Products and Printing
(b) Food Products
(c) Cotton Textiles
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

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Q.13 Exemption from paying taxes for 5 ot 10 years is known as ____________

(a) Tax Deduction
(b) TDS
(c) Value Added Tax
(d) Tax Holiday

Answer

(d) Tax Holiday

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Q.14 Which of the following is part of Village and Small Industries Sector?

(a) Handicrafts
(b) Sericulture
(c) Handlooms
(d) All of these

Answer

(d) All of these

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Q.15 In India, the Village and Small Industries. Sector consists of both traditional and modern small industries. This sector has ___________sub groups.

(a) Eleven
(b) Five
(c) Ten
(d) Eight

Answer

(d) Eight

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Q.16 Limit of investment in small scale industry is ____________

(a) one crore
(b) two crore
(c) five crore
(d) Ten crore

Answer

(a) one crore

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Q.17 __________ is defined as one in which the investment in fixed assets of plant and machinery does not exceed rupees one crore.

(a) Small Scale Industry
(b) Limited Companies
(c) Large Scale industry
(d) None of the above

Answer

(a) Small Scale Industry

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Q.18 Micro enterprises are those whose investment in plant and machinery does not exceed rupees____________

(a) 5 Lakh
(b) 3 Lakh
(c) 1 Lakh
(d) 2 Lakh

Answer

(c) 1 Lakh

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Q.19 The small scale industry can enjoy the status of ___________ if it supplies not less than 50% of its production to another industry, referred to as the parent unit.

(a) Village industries
(b) Micro Business industry
(c) Export oriented unit
(d) Ancillary small industry

Answer

(d) Ancillary small industry

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Q.20 Expand KVIC

(a) Khadi and Village Industries Commission
(b) Khadi and Village industries core
(c) King of Village Industries Commission
(d) King of Village Investment culture

Answer

(a) Khadi and Village Industries Commission

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Q.21 Expand SIDBI

(a) Society Industrial development bank of India
(b) Small Industries development bank of India
(c) Super Industrial development bank of India
(d) Small Indian Development bank of India

Answer

(b) Small Industries development bank of India

NCERT MCQ ON  Sources of Business Finance :

Q.1 Hindu Succession Act was passed in_______

(a) 1960
(b) 1956
(c) 1952
(d) 1932

Answer

(b) 1956

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Q.2 A prospectus is issued by

(a) Public company
(b) Private company
(c) Statutory Corporation
(d) Departmental undertaking

Answer

(a) Public company

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Q.3 A partner whose association with the firm is unknown to the general public is called

(a) Active partner
(b) Nominal partner
(c) Secret partner
(d) Sleeping partner

Answer

(c) Secret partner

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Q.4 Unit Trust of India was established by ________

(a) ICICI
(b) State Bank Group
(c) Indian Government
(d) HDFC Bank

Answer

(c) Indian Government

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Q.5 ICICI was established in ________

(a) 1975
(b) 1955
(c) 1985
(d) 1965

Answer

(b) 1955

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Q.6 Expand ICICI

(a) None of these
(b) International Credit and Investment Corporation of India
(c) Indian Credit and Investment Corporation of India
(d) Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India

Answer

(d) Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India

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Q.7 Which of the following forms of business enterprises suffer from a lack of public confidence because they are not required to publish their accounts legally?

(a) Partnership
(b) Cooperative Society
(c) Company
(d) None of the above

Answer

(a) Partnership

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Q.8 A company cannot come into existence without

(a) Issuing prospectus
(b) Electing directors
(c) Certificate of incorporation
(d) All of the above

Answer

(c) Certificate of incorporation

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Q.9 Every partner is both an agent and a principal. Identify the characteristic of the partnership being referred here.

(a) Mutual Agency
(b) Risk Bearing
(c) Membership
(d) Formation

Answer

(a) Mutual Agency

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Q.10 Which of the following is not a feature of a Joint Stock Company?

(a) Artificial person
(b) Separate legal entity
(c) Formation
(d) Lack of business continuity

Answer

(d) Lack of business continuity

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Q.11 The life of sole proprietorship business is ________

(a) Very short life
(b) Stable
(c) Long life
(d) Unstable

Answer

(d) Unstable

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Q.12 The partnership deed generally includes the following

(a) Name of firm
(b) Nature of business
(c) Location of business
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

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Q.13 Which of the following contract is signed by the promoters with the third party on behalf of the proposed company?

(a) Preliminary contracts
(b) Provisional contract
(c) Prospectus
(d) Memorandum of association

Answer

(a) Preliminary contracts

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Q.14 Which one of the following is the CORRECT sequence of stages in the formation of a company?

(a) Promotion, incorporation, capital subscription, the commencement of business
(b) Incorporation, capital subscription, promotion, the commencement of business
(c) Promotion, the commencement of business, incorporation, capital subscription
(d) Promotion, Incorporation, Certificate of commencement, capital subscription

Answer

(a) Promotion, incorporation, capital subscription, the commencement of business

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Q.15 Which of the following business enterprises does not have a separate legal entity?

(a) Sole Proprietorship
(b) Partnership
(c) Company
(d) Cooperative Society

Answer

(a) Sole Proprietorship

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Q.16 _________ company does not invite the public to subscribe to its share capital.

(a) Both Private and Public Company
(b) Public Company
(c) Private Company
(d) None of the above

Answer

(c) Private Company

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Q.17 ADRs are issued in

(a) Canada
(b) China
(c) India
(d) USA

Answer

(d) USA

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Q.18 The term ‘redeemable’ is used for

(a) Preference shares
(b) Commercial paper
(c) Equity shares
(d) Public deposits

Answer

(b) Commercial paper

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Q.19 Which of the following cooperative society is established to help small producers in selling their products?

(a) Producer cooperative society
(b) Marketing cooperative society
(c) Credit cooperative society
(d) Consumers cooperative society

Answer

(a) Producer cooperative society

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Q.20 Investors who want steady income may not prefer ________

(a) None of these
(b) Debentures
(c) Equity Shares
(d) Bonds

Answer

(c) Equity Shares

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Q.21 GDRs can be converted into shares ___________

(a) At any time
(b) After 5 years
(c) After 10 years
(d) After one year

Answer

(a) At any time

NCERT MCQ ON Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics :

Q.1 Ethics is important for

(a) Non-managerial employees
(b) Middle-level managers
(c) Top management
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

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Q.2 Business people have the skill to involve

(a) Some social problems
(b) All economic problems
(c) No social problems
(d) All social problems

Answer

(a) Some social problems

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Q.3 The word ‘Ethics’ has its origin in the________

(a) Greek Word
(b) British Word
(c) Indian Word
(d) Latin Word

Answer

(a) Greek Word

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Q.4 Which of the following is capable of doing maximum good to society?

(a) Business success
(b) Laws and regulations
(c) Ethics
(d) Professional management

Answer

(c) Ethics

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Q.5 Carbon monoxide emitted by automobiles directly contributes to

(a) Water pollution
(b) Noise pollution
(c) Land pollution
(d) Air pollution

Answer

(d) Air pollution

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Q.6 That an enterprise must behave as a good citizen is an example of its responsibility towards

(a) Owners
(b) Workers
(c) Consumers
(d) Community

Answer

(d) Community

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Q.7 If business is to operate in a society which is full of diverse and complicated problems, it may have

(a) Little chance of success
(b) Great chance of success
(c) Little chance of failure
(d) No relation with success or failure

Answer

(a) Little chance of success

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Q.8 The need for social responsibility arises due to the______

(a) Firm’s interest
(b) Interest of society
(c) Both firm’s and society interest
(d) None of the above

Answer

(c) Both firm’s and society interest

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Q.9 Social responsibility is

(a) Broader than legal responsibility
(b) Same as a legal responsibility
(c) Narrower than legal responsibility
(d) None of the above

Answer

(a) Broader than legal responsibility

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Q.10 ADRs are issued in

(a) USA
(b) China
(c) India
(d) Canada

Answer

(a) USA

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Q.11 Running of factories and vehicles cause______

(a) Land pollution
(b) Water Pollution
(c) Noise Pollution
(d) None of the above

Answer

(c) Noise Pollution

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Q.12 Funds required for purchasing current assets are known as

(a) Working capital
(b) Fixed capital
(c) Lease financing
(d) Retained earnings

Answer

(a) Working capital

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Q.13 It includes the behavior of the firm expected by the society but not codified by law. Identify the category of social responsibility referred to here.

(a) Economic Responsibility
(b) Ethical Responsibility
(c) Legal Responsibility
(d) All of the above

Answer

(b) Ethical Responsibility

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Q.14 Which of the following statements about ethical standards are TRUE?

(a) The upper limits of ethical standards are set by individual standards
(b) The laws of economically developed countries generally define the lowest common denominator of acceptable behaviour
(c) The actual degree of enforcement of the law in an underdeveloped country would determine the lower limit of permissible behaviour
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

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Q.15 Which statement is true?

(a) Human values system plays a vital role in total quality management
(b) Values give the real meaning to total quality management effort
(c) Total quality management is a corporate management strategy
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

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Q.16 The national Society of Professional Engineers had a code, which requires professionals to

(a) Dissociate themselves from organizations that are of a questionable character
(b) Further the cause of public good
(c) Advise clarity, the consequences, if a technical opinion is overruled by a non-technical person
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

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Q.17 Which of the following institution provides financial assistance towards balanced regional development and development of management education in the country?

(a) Industrial development bank of India (IDBI)
(b) Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI)
(c) Life insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
(d) Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI)

Answer

(a) Industrial development bank of India (IDBI)

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Q.18 Providing charitable contributions to educational institutions is ______

(a) Legal responsibility
(b) Economic responsibility
(c) Discretionary responsibility
(d) None of the above

Answer

(c) Discretionary responsibility

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Q.19 Every business has a responsibility to operate within the laws of the land as per the _______

(a) Legal responsibility
(b) Financial responsibility
(c) Economic responsibility
(d) None of the above

Answer

(a) Legal responsibility

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Q.20 Which of the following does not contribute to the development of a manager’s standard of ethics?

(a) competitor behaviours
(b) society’s norms and values
(c) individual life experiences
(d) environmental situations

Answer

(a) competitor behaviours

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Q.21 The hand-of-government refers to the

(a) ability of the government to interfere in business negotiations
(b) role of corporations to be profitable within the law
(c) effect of national politics on business decisions
(d) impact of changing government regulations

Answer

(d) impact of changing government regulations

NCERT MCQ ON Emerging Modes of Business :

Q.1 Question Expand VPN

(a) Virtual Public Network
(b) Virtual Popular Network
(c) Virtual Private Network
(d) Virtual Personal Network

(c) Virtual Private Network

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Q.2 ________refers to contracting out some of its activities to a third party which was earlier performed by the organisation.

(a) Outsourcing
(b) BPO
(c) E-Commerce
(d) E-Banking

Answer

(a) Outsourcing

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Q.3 Factoring is _____type of outsourcing service.

(a) Financing
(b) Advertising
(c) Courier service
(d) Customer support

Answer

(a) Financing

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Q.4 Here, parties involved in the electronic transactions are from within a given business firm, hence, the name is ________

(a) Intra-C Commerce
(b) Intra-D Commerce
(c) Intra-B Commerce
(d) Intra-A Commerce

Answer

(c) Intra-B Commerce

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Q.5 Which one of the following is NOT an example of transactional risk?

(a) Hacking
(b) Default on order taking
(c) Default on payment
(d) Default on delivery

Answer

(a) Hacking

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Q.6 The annoyance in terms of some onscreen display

(a) Firms interaction with its customers
(b) Firms interaction with other business firms
(c) Firms interaction with its own departments
(d) None of the above

Answer

(a) Firms interaction with its customers

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Q.7 An important C2C area of interactive commerce can be the formation of _

(a) Consumers forum and pressure group
(b) B2B Commerce
(c) Banking
(d) Insurance

Answer

(a) Consumers forum and pressure group

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Q.8 Which method is very popular for making online transactions?

(a) Credit Card
(b) All of these
(c) Net banking
(d) Debit Card

Answer

(b) All of these

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Q.9 Under what method payment is made at the time of physical delivery of goods

(a) Cash on delivery
(b) Debit card payment
(c) Credit card payment
(d) Prepaid amount

Answer

(a) Cash on delivery

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Q.10 Which of the following is a limitation of e-business?

(a) Ethical fallouts
(b) Risk
(c) Low personal touch
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

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Q.11 It is not an application of e-business

(a) Online bidding
(b) Online procurement
(c) Online trading
(d) Contract R&D

Answer

(d) Contract R&D

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Q.12 Formation of Consumers Forum and Pressure groups is an example of

(a) C2C
(b) B2B
(c) B2C
(d) Intra B

Answer

(a) C2C

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Q.13 Principle types of outsourcing services are:

(a) Courier service
(b) Advertising
(c) Financing
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

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Q.14 It is not an application of e-business

(a) Contract R&D
(b) Online trading
(c) Online procurement
(d) Online bidding

Answer

(a) Contract R&D

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Q.15 The payment mechanism typical to e-business

(a) Credit and Debit Cards
(b) Cash on Delivery (CoD)
(c) Cheques
(d) e-Cash

Answer

(a) Credit and Debit Cards

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Q.16 e-commerce does not include

(a) A business?s interactions with its customers
(b) Interactions among the various departments within the business
(c) A business?s interactions with its suppliers
(d) Interactions among the geographically dispersed units of the business

Answer

(b) Interactions among the various departments within the business

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Q.17 India is the preferred destination for BPO because of_______

(a) Tax Free Zone for BPOs
(b) Cheap People
(c) Cheap Manpower
(d) Poor conditions

Answer

(c) Cheap Manpower

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Q.18 Online buying and selling shares and other financial instruments is known as____

(a) E-Procurement
(b) E-Auction
(c) E-Delivery
(d) E-Trading

Answer

(d) E-Trading

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Q.19 _____ transactions have business firms at one end and its customers on the other end.

(a) C2C Commerce
(b) B2B Commerce
(c) B2C Commerce
(d) C2B Commerce

Answer

(c) B2C Commerce

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Q.20 Both buyers and sellers are customers under_______ type of e-business transaction

(a) C2C Commerce
(b) B2C Commerce
(c) C2B Commerce
(c) B2B Commerce

Answer

(a) C2C Commerce

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 2 CULTURAL CHANGE NCERT MCQ for Class 12 SOCIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON CULTURAL CHANGE

1.How can be the ideas of inclusive nationalism can be built to be effective?

a) Constitution

b) Parliament

c) Supreme Court

d) Legislature
Answer: a) Constitution

2.Minority in the sociological sense can be defined by:

a) Privilege

b) Only numerical distinction

c) Solidarity due to experience of disadvantage

d) Individualism
Answer:c) Solidarity due to experience of disadvantage

3.What is the type of governance/rule, that often limit or abolish civil liberties?

a) Authoritarian

b) Democratic

c) Civil Society

d) Libertarian
Answer: a) Authoritarian

4.Who wrote Stree Purush Tulane?
a) Tarabai Shinde

b) Savitri Phule

c) Annie Beasant

d) Anita Ghai
Answer: a) Tarabai Shinde
5.Inequalities between men and women according to the Scholars are not ______ but ______

a) Natural, Social

b) Social, Natural

c) Desirable, undesirable

d) Economic, racial
Answer: b) Social, Natural
6.Which of the following is not a factor related to low child sex ratio?
a) Illiteracy

b) Socio-cultural beliefs

c) Economic condition

d) Preference for girl child
Answer: d) Preference for girl child

7.What are the two sets of principles of the Caste system?
a) Wholism-hierarchy and difference and separation

b) Segmental division and hereditary occupation

c) Exogamy and endogamy

d) Purity and Pollution
Answer: a) Wholism-hierarchy and difference and separation
8.Which among the following is a process involving our significant others is important in

developing a sense of community identity:

a) Socialisation

b) Secularisation

c) Globalisation

d) Marketisation
Answer: a) Socialisation

9.What does the population reach, when the growth rate is 0?
a) Replacement level

b) Negative growth

c) Positive growth

d) High birth rate

Answer: a) Replacement level
10.The demographic indicators not used to calculate the total fertility rate is:

a) Number of live births in the reproductive age group

b) Age-specific fertility rate

c) Sex ratio

d) Number of women in the child-bearing age group
Answer: c) Sex ratio

11.Which of the following is true in the context of Kerala, beginning to acquire an age structure like that of the developed countries?

a) High birth rate and high death rate

b) Low birth rate and low death rate

c) High birth rate and low death rate

d) Low birth rate and high death rate
Answer: b) Low birth rate and low death rate

12.Which of the following explains the situation of Tripura, where the tribal share of its population halved within a single

decade, reducing them to a minority?

a) heavy in-migration of non-tribals

b) accommodation of tribal identity

c) climate change

d) community-based forms of collective ownership
Answer: a) heavy in-migration of non-tribals

13.What type of families are present among the Khasis?
a) Patrilocal

b) Matrilocal

c) Avunculocal

d) neolocal
Answer: a) heavy in-migration of non-tribals

14.Khasi tribes don’t fit along one of the following statements:

a) Matrilineal generates intense role conflict for men.

b) Women possess only token authority

c) Men are more adversely affected than women

d) The system is weighted in favour of male matri-kin
Answer: c) Men are more adversely affected than women

15.Which of the following is not true:

a) Land revenue settlements, as well as related agreements and laws, provided legal protection.
Upper castes’ traditional (caste-based) rights are recognised.
b) Large-scale irrigation programmes, such as those in Punjab, were complemented by large-scale irrigation schemes by efforts to establish inhabitants there, which had a caste component to them.
c) The colonial state was not concerned with the welfare of the oppressed.
d) A direct endeavour to count caste and legally record caste status resulted in a shift in the caste system of the establishment itself.
Answer: c) Colonial states did not work for the welfare of the downtrodden.

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 1 STRUCTURAL CHANGE NCERT MCQ for Class 12 SOCIOLOGY PART B which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON STRUCTURAL CHANGE

QUESTION: 1

What is the name of an ancient social institution that has been part of Indian history and culture for thousands of years?

• A.Dalits
• B.Untouchability
• C.Brahmins
• D.Caste 

Solution:

Like any Indian, you already know that caste is the name of an ancient social institution that has been part of Indian history and culture for thousands of years. But like any Indian living in the twenty-first century, you also know that something called caste is definitely a part of Indian society today. 

QUESTION: 2

What is the word most commonly used to refer to the institution of caste in Indian languages?

• A.Jati
• B.Sakti
• C.Jaati
• D.None

Solution:

Jati is the word most commonly used to refer to the institution of caste in Indian languages. However, it is interesting to note that, increasingly, Indian language speakers are beginning to use the English word caste. The precise relationship between varna and jati has been the subject of much speculation and debate among scholars.

QUESTION: 3

How many major divisions were determined in the Varna system?

• A.Six
• B.Five
• C.Four 
• D.Three

Solution:

These divisions were not very elaborate or very rigid, and only four major divisions were not determined by birth.

QUESTION: 4

Which of the following marriage system was allowed by the caste system?

• A.Endogamous 
• B.Exogamous
• C.Both a and b
• D.None

Solution:

Caste groups are endogamous, i.e.marriage is restricted to members of the group.

QUESTION: 5

What do castes involve within themselves?

• A.Non-Divisions
• B.Sub-Divisions
• C.Subdistricts
• D.None

Solution:

Castes also involve sub-divisions within themselves, i.e., castes almost always have sub-castes, and sometimes sub-castes may also have sub-castes.

QUESTION: 6

What kind of system is the society consisting of all castes?

• A.Anarchistic
• B.Relational
• C.Hierarchical 
• D.Individualistic

Solution:

Further, this societal whole or system is a hierarchical rather than egalitarian system. Each caste occupies a distinct place, and an ordered rank a particular position in a ladder-like arrangement going from highest to lowest. The hierarchical ordering of castes is based on the distinction between purity and pollution.

QUESTION: 7

When did Indian independence occur?

• A.1950
• B.1947 
• C.1944
• D.1943

Solution:

In 1947 India got independence.

QUESTION: 8

Some scholars argue that what we know today as caste is more a product of what?

• A.Imperialism
• B.Neo-Colonialism
• C.Oppression
• D.Colonialism 

Solution:

Some scholars argue that what we know today as caste is more a product of colonialism than of ancient Indian tradition.

QUESTION: 9

Who was the director of the 1901 census?

• A.Robert
• B.Herbert Risley 
• C.William Bentik
• D.None

Solution:

The 1901 census under the direction of herbert Risley was particularly important as it sought to collect information on the social hierarchy of caste, i.e., the social order of precedence in particular regions, as to the position of each caste in the rank order.

QUESTION: 10

What brought about major changes in the institution of caste?

• A.Oppression
• B.Neo-Colonialism
• C.Colonialism 
• D.Imperialism

Solution:

Colonialism brought about major changes in the institution of caste. Perhaps it would be more accurate to say that the institution of caste underwent fundamental changes during the colonial period.

QUESTION: 11

What made it difficult for the caste-segregated patterns of social interaction to survive?

• A.Partition
• B.Industrialisation
• C.Urbanisation 
• D.None

Solution:

Urbanization and the conditions of collective living in the cities made it difficult for the caste-segregated patterns of social interaction to survive.

QUESTION: 12

Who contributed to the development of Sanskritisation and the dominant caste?

• A.Aristotle
• B.Bendit
• C.Nehru
• D.M.N Srinivas

Solution:

Perhaps the most common of these are Sanskritisation and dominant caste, both contributed by m.n Srinivas but discussed extensively and criticized by other scholars. Sanskritisation refers to a process whereby members of a (usually middle or lower) caste attempt to raise their own social status by adopting the ritual, domestic and social practices of a caste (or castes) of higher status.

QUESTION: 13

What are tribes positively inclined towards?

• A.Judaism
• B.Hinduism 
• C.Buddhism
• D.None

Solution Hinduism

:QUESTION: 14

What type of economy has brought tribal societies into contact with the mainstream society a long time ago?

• A.Capitalist 
• B.Imperialist
• C.Neoliberal
• D.Socialist

Solution:

The capitalist economy’s drive to exploit forest resources and minerals and to recruit cheap labor brought tribal societies in contact with the mainstream society a long time ago. However, the colonial era’s early anthropological work had described tribes as isolated cohesive communities. Colonialism had already brought irrevocable changes in their world.

QUESTION: 15

The industrial areas of what state have suffered a dilution of the tribal share of the population?

• A.Bihar
• B.Jamshedpur
• C.Haryana
• D.Jharkhand 

Solution:

The industrial areas of Jharkhand have suffered a dilution of the tribal share of the population. Similar pressure is being felt in Arunachal Pradesh. Today, this interactional process is formed rather than any primordial (Orginal, ancient) characteristics peculiar to tribes. Because the interaction with the mainstream has generally been on terms unfavorable to the tribal communities, many tribal identities today are centered on ideas of resistance and opposition to the overwhelming force of the non-tribal world—the positive impact of successes. 

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 3 THE STORY OF INDIAN DEMOCRACY NCERT MCQ for Class 12 SOCIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE STORY OF INDIAN DEMOCRACY

• NCERT SOLUTIONS
• REVISION NOTES
• IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science: Ch 6 The Crisis of Democratic Order

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science: Ch 6 The Crisis of Democratic Order

1. Shah Commission was appointed to inquire

(a) abuse of authority during emergency.(b) domestic violence.(c) child labour.(d) conditions of dalits.

► (a) abuse of authority during emergency.
2. The ”state of emergency” was declared on

(a) 13th May, 1971.(b) 23rd May, 1972.(c) 25th June, 1975.(d) 11th March, 1975.

► (c) 25th June, 1975.
3. The Prime Minister of India during 1977-79 was

(a) Indira Gandhi.(b) Charan Singh.(c) Chandra Shekhar.(d) Morarji Desai

► (d) Morarji Desai
4. The Janata Party made which election into a referendum on the Emergency?

(a) 1977(b) 1980(c) 1971(d) 1984

► (a) 1977
5. Mandal Commission was set up for the issue of

(a) reservation of other backward classes.(b) temple conflict.(c) welfare of women.(d) child labour.

► (a) reservation of other backward classes.

6. The Bihar movement was led by

(a) Charu Majumdar.(b) J. P. Narayan.(c) Morarji Desai.(d) C. Natarajan.

► (b) J. P. Narayan.
7. Who left Congress party and founded Bharatiya Kranti Dal in 1967?

(a) Sanjay Gandhi(b) Jagjivan Ram(c) Chaudhary Charan Singh(d) Morarji Desai

► (c) Chaudhary Charan Singh
8. After 1977 general elections, which government which came into power?

(a) Bharatiya Jana Sangh.(b) Congress.(c) Janata Party.(d) Socialist Party.

► (c) Janata Party.
9. The Bihar Movement in 1974 was led by

(a) Charu Majumdar.(b) Jayaprakash Narayan.(c) Morarji Desai.(d) C. Natarajan.

► (b) Jayaprakash Narayan.
10. Congress was defeated in the lok sabha elections of

(a) January 1975.(b) February 1976.(c) March 1977.(d) April 1977.

► (c) March 1977.
11. When JP led a peoples’ march to the Parliament?

(a) 1975.(b) 1976.(c) 1977.(d) 1978

.► (a) 1975.
12. Find the odd one out in the context of proclamation of Emergency.

(a) The call for ‘Total Revolution’(b) The Railway Strike of 1974(c) The Naxalite Movement(d) The Allahabad High Court Verdict

► (c) The Naxalite Movement
13. Through which Article of the Constitution, government declared emergency in 1975?

(a) Article 350(b) Article 351(c) Article 352(d) Article 354

► (c) Article 352
14. Railway strike of 1974 was called by ________ led by George Fernandes.

(a) National Coordination Committee(b) National Coordination Corporation(c) National Coordination Call(d) National Coordination Association

► (a) National Coordination Committee

14.Who was the chairperson of the Mandal Commission?
(a) Bindeshwari Prasad Mandal(b) Nandeshwari Prasad Mandal(c) Chandeshwari Prasad Mandal(d) None of the Above

► (a) Bindeshwari Prasad Mandal

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15.Which alliance formed the government at the center in 1989?
(a) National Front(b) United Front(c) Super Front(d) Real Front

► (a) National Front

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In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 4 CHANGE AND DEVELOPMENT IN RURAL SOCIETY NCERT MCQ for Class 12 SOCIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON CHANGE AND DEVELOPMENT IN RURAL SOCIETY

QUESTION: 1

 What  is  rural  development

• A.economic  and  legal upliftment  of  rural  areas
• B.economic  and  social  upliftment  of  rural  areas
• C.economic  and  technical upliftment  of  rural  areas
• D.economic  and  political  upliftment  of  rural  areas

Solution:

Rural development is the process of improving the quality of life and economic well-being of people living in rural areas, often relatively isolated and sparsely populated areas. Rural development has traditionally centered on the exploitation of land-intensive natural resources such as agriculture and forestry.

QUESTION: 2

Agricultural  diversification means

• A.Major  proportion  of  the  decreasing labour force in the agricultural sector needs to find alternate employment  opportunities  in  other  non­farm  sectors
• B.Minor  proportion  of  the  decreasing labour force in the industrial sector needs to find alternate employment  opportunities  in  other  non­farm  sectors
• C.Major  proportion  of  the  increasing  labour force in the agricultural sector needs to find alternate employment  opportunities  in  other  non­farm  sectors
• D.None

Solution:

Agricultural diversification is an important mechanism for economic growth. It depends, however, on there being opportunities for diversification and on farmers’ responsiveness to those opportunities. Agricultural diversification can be facilitated by technological breaks-through, by changes in consumer demand or in government policy or in trade arrangements, and by development of irrigation, roads, and other infrastructures. 

QUESTION: 3

TANWA stands for

• A.Tamil Nadu Women in agriculture
• B.Tamil Nadu men in agriculture
• C.Tripura Women in industry
• D.Tripura Women in agriculture

Solution:

Tamil Nadu Women in Agriculture (TANWA) is a project initiated in Tamil Nadu to train women in latest agricultural techniques. It induces women to actively participate in raising agricultural productivity and family income.

QUESTION: 4

TANWA project initiated in

• A.Kerala
• B.Andhra Pradesh
• C.Tamil Nadu
• D.Maharashtra

Solution

:QUESTION: 5

Golden revolution is related to

• A.Pisciculture
• B.Horticulture
• C.Floriculture
• D.None

Solution:

The definition of horticulture is the art or practice of gardening and cultivating plants and trees. When you grow lilac bushes and orchids, this is an example of horticulture.

QUESTION: 6

TANWA project relates to

• A.Women
• B.Men
• C.Both
• D.None

Solution:

QUESTION: 7

Operation flood is related to

• A.Pulses co-operatives
• B.Milk co-operatives
• C.Cereals co-operatives
• D.None of these

Solution:

QUESTION: 8

The period between 1991-2003 is called

• A.Blue Revolution
• B.White Revolution
• C.Golden Revolution
• D.Green Revolution

Solution:

A significant increase in horticulture production is called Golden Revolution in India. In India, the period between 1991-2003 is termed as ‘Golden Revolution’. This period witnessed a tremendous increase in the productivity in horticulture. As a result, during this period, there was a huge increase in the production of various fruits, vegetables, spices and other horticulture products.

  QUESTION: 9

Operation flood started in

• A.1945
• B.1956
• C.1970
• D.1960

Solution:

Operation Flood was started by National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) in 1966s. The objective of this programme was to create a nationwide milk grid. The result was that India became the largest producer of Milk and Milk Products.

Operation flood is called White Revolution of India.

White Revolution followed the Green Revolution and both these revolutions contributed to a large extent to alleviate poverty from India. Gujarat-based co-operation “Anand Milk Union Limited” (Amul) was the engine behind the success of the programme.

Amul was founded by Tribhuvandas Patel and Verghese Kurien was the chairman of NDDB. Dr. Verghese Kurien, who was then 33, gave the professional management skills and necessary thrust to the cooperative, and is considered the architect of Operation Flood.

His work has been recognized by the award of a Padma Bhushan, the Ramon Magsaysay Award for Community Leadership, the Carnegie-Wateler World Peace Prize, and the World Food Prize

QUESTION: 10

During operation flood production of milk increase

• A.Five fold
• B.Three fold
• C.Four fold
• D.Two fold

Solution:

Operation Flood is the program behind “the white revolution.” It created a national milk grid linking producers throughout India with consumers in over 700 towns and cities, it transformed India from a milk-deficient nation into the world’s largest milk producer.

Question 11.
Which among the following is an initiative taken for the development of rural India?
(A) Human Capital Formation
(B) Land Reforms
(C) Poverty Alleviation
(D) All of theseAnswer

Solution: : (D) All of these

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Question 12.
What was the growth rate of agricultural output during 2007-12?
(A) 32% per annum
(B) 6% per annum
(C) 1.5% per annum
(D) 5% per annumAnswer

Solution: : (A) 32% per annum

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Question 13.
When was the National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development set up?
(A) 1962
(B) 1972
(C) 1982
(D) 1992Answer

Solution: : (C) 1982

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Question 14.
Which of the following is an institutional source of rural credit?
(A) Moneylenders
(B) Regional Rural Banks
(C) Traders
(D) LandlordsAnswer

Solution: : (B) Regional Rural Banks

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Question 15.
Which source of credit had emerged to fully integrate the formal credit system into the overall rural social and community development?
(A) Self-help Groups
(B) Regional Rural Banks
(C) Commercial Banks
(D) Land Development Banks

Solution: : (A) Self-help Groups

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