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NCERT MCQ ON Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues:

Question1 : The formula to calculate workforce participation ratio is:
(a) (workforce /Total population) X 100 Telegram: @commmmerce12
(b) (Number of unemployed persons/Labour force) X 100
(c) Workforce+ number of people who are willing to work but are unemployed
(d) (workforce/ labour force) X 100

Answer :  C

Question2 :  Work force refers to that part of
(a) Labour force which is employed
(b) Population which is unemployed
(c) Population which is forced to work
(d) Labour force which is when employed

Answer :  A

Question 3:  Workers who are on permanent pay-roll of their employer are called:
(a) Self- employed workers
(b) Casual workers
(c) Regular workers
(d) None of the above

Answer :  C

Question4 :  ____________ unemployment may result some workers are temporarily out of work while hanging job.
(a) Cyclical
(b) Voluntary
(c) Fictional
(d) Seasonal

Answer :  C

Question5 :  Men get opportunity to work in:
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Service sector
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer :  D

Question6 :  Sum total of final goods and services produced in domestic territory of an economy during a year is called __________.
(a) GDP
(b) NDP
(c) NNP
(d) GNP

Answer :  A

Question7 :  Agriculture labourers, farmers, owners of small enterprise which emply less than 20 workers fall in the category of :
(a) Formal sector
(b) Informal sector
(c) Casual workers
(d) Regular workers

Answer :  B

Question8 :  __________ is a common form of unemployment in rural India.
(a) Disguised unemployment
(b) Structural unemployment
(c) Educated unemployment
(d) None of these

Answer :  A

Question9 :  Due to the recent efforts of which international body the Indian government, initiated the modernization of informal sector?
(a) World Bank
(b) WTO
(c) International Labour Organisation
(d) G-20

Answer :  C

Question10 :  Find the odd one out.
(a) A private school teacher in a school with only 25 teachers
(b) A nurse in a government hospital
(c) Cycle-rickshaw puller
(d) A civil engineer working in a construction company which has 10 workers

Answer :  C

Question11 :  Unemployment common in urban areas
(a) Seasonal unemployment
(b) Disguised unemployment
(c) Open unemployment
(d) None of these

Answer :  C

Question12 :  Measure of reduce unemployment in very short period of time
(a) Reducing growth rate of population
(b) Reducing inequalities in the distribution of income and wealth
(c) Increasing investment in private and public sectors
(d) None of these

Answer :  C

Question13 :  Unemployment is defined as:
(a) The section of the population that is not capable of being employed
(b) The section of population willing to work but unable to find employment
(c) The section of population that is waiting to be employed
(d) The section of population that are without the skills needed by employers

Answer :  B

Question14 : Most of the unemployment in India is
(a) Voluntary
(b) Structural
(c) Frictional
(d) Technical

Answer :  B

Question15 : Data on unemployment in India can be obtained from which source?
(a) Reports of Census of India
(b) National sample survey organisation(NSSO)
(c) Directorate general of employment
(d) All the above

Answer :  D

Question16 : Those who work in their own establishment using their own resources are called _______.
(a) Hired workers
(b) Casual workers
(c) Regular workers
(d) Self-employed

Answer :  D

Question17 : About ___________ of the total population in the country is engaged in various economic activities.
(a) Three-fifth
(b) Four-fifth
(c) Two-fifth
(d) None of the above

Answer :  C

Question 18: When more persons are working in a job than actually required, it is known as ________.
(a) Disguised unemployment
(b) Seasonal unemployment
(c) Educated unemployment
(d) Open unemployment

Answer :  A

Question 19: The newly emerging jobs are found mostly in the _____________ sector.
(a) Service
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Agriculture
(d) None of the above

Answer :  A

Question 20: Electricity, gas and water supply belong to ___________ sector.
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) All the above

Answer :  B

Question21 : After the workers lost their jobs in 1980’s, which city experienced an economy recession and communal riots?
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Bombay
(c) Allahabad
(d) Bangalore

Answer :  A

Question22 : An establishment with four hired workers is known as _____________ sector establishment.
(a) Formal
(b) Informal
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer :  B

Question 23: The newly emerging jobs are found mostly in ___________ sector.
(a) Manufacturing
(b) Primary
(c) Service
(d) None of these

Answer :  C

Question24 :  When due to introduction of new machinery, some workers tend to be replaced by machines, their unemployment is termed as
(a) Structural
(b) Technological
(c) Mechanical
(d) Seasonal

Answer :  B

Question25 : Formal sector includes all those enterprises which employ
(a) More than 10 workers
(b) 10 workers
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer :  C

Question26 : Unemployed person is one who is not able to get employment of even one hour in half a day.
This definition is given by:
(a) Economists
(b) National Sample Survey Organisation
(c) Census of India
(d) Directorate general of Employment and Training

Answer :  A

Question 27: Unemployment is a situation in which all those who, owing to lack of work, are not working but either seek work though employment exchanges, intermediaries, friends or relatives or by making applications to prospective employers or express their willingness or availability for work under the prevailing condition of work and remunerations. This definition is given by:
(a) Economists
(b) National Sample Survey Organisation
(c) Census of India
(d) Directorate general of Employment and Training

Answer :  B

Question28 : Find the odd man out:
(a) A clerk in the electricity office
(b) Computer operator in the state government office working on a temporary basis
(c) Worker in a hotel which has seven hired workers and three family workers.

Answer :  C

Question 29: Which of the following is working in the informal sector?
(a) A private school teacher In a school which has 25 teachers.
(b) The owner of a textile shop employing nine workers.
(c) Driver of a bus company which has more than 10 buses with 20 drivers, conductors and others workers.
(d) Civil engineer working in a construction company which has 10 workers.

Answer :  B

Question30 : ___________ is a major source of livelihood for both men and women as this category accounts for more than 50 per cent of India’s workforce.
(a) Self-employment
(b) Casual wage labour
(c) Regular salaried employment
(d) None of these

Answer :  Self-employment

NCERT MCQ ON Rural Development:

Question1 :  The institutional aource of credit whose area of operation is the one where banking facilities and cooperatives are absent and which operate at the district level is:
(A) Regional rural bank
(B) Commercial bank
(C) Self-help group
(D) NABARD

Answer :   A

Question2 :  Diversification in agriculture activities means finding alternate employment in
(A) Non-farm sectors
(B) Urban sectors
(C) Rural sectors
(D) None of these

Answer :   A

Question3 :  The sector providing alternate livelihood options to 70 million small and marginal farmers is:
(A) Livestock
(B) Agro-processing
(C) Apni Mandi
(D) Fisheries

Answer :   A

Question4 :  Production of a diverse variety of crops rather than one specialised crop is called:
(A) Diversification of production activity
(B) Diversification of crop production
(C) Diversification of employment
(D) All the above

Answer :   B

Question5:  The farming which relies on naturally occurring ecological process and biodiversity:
(A) Organic farming
(B) Conventional agriculture
(C) (a) and (b)
(D) None of the above

Answer :   A

Question6 :  Which of the following is true about organic farming?
(A) Organically grown food is more healthier and tastier
(B) Yields in organic farming are lower than in chemical farming
(C) It adversely effects the fertility of the soil
(D) It is quite expensive method of farming

Answer :   A

Question7 :  Credit needs related to constructing fences and digging wells are fulfilled by:
(A) Short term credit
(B) Medium term credit
(C) Long term credit
(D) None of the above

Answer :   B

Question8 :  Credit taken for a period of 15 years is
(A) Short term credit
(B) Medium term credit
(C) Long term credit
(D) All of these

Answer :   C

Question 9: Organic farming uses
(A) Organic manure
(B) Bio-fertilisers
(C) Organic pesticides
(D) All of these

Answer :   D

Question10 :  Traditional sources of rural credit in India are :
(A) Money lenders
(B) Relatives and friends
(C) Traders
(D) All of these

Answer :   D

Question11 :  Non farm areas of employment :
(A) Animal husbandary
(B) Fisheries
(C) Horticulture
(D) All of these

Answer :   D

Question 12:  AMUL stands for :
(A) Anand Multiple Union Ltd.
(B) Agriculture and Milk Union Ltd.
(C) Anand Mil Union Ltd.
(D) Anand Manufacturing Union Ltd.

Answer :   C

Question13 :  The ‘Golden Revolution’ was a period of very high productivity in:
(A) Foodgrain production
(B) Horticulture
(C) Organic farming
(D) Piscicultre

Answer :   B

Question14 :  Which is related to microfinance:
(A) Self Help Group
(B) NABARD
(C) Both
(D) None

Answer :   C

Question15 :  Institutional sources of agricultural credit are :
(A) Land development banks
(B) NABARD
(C) Self-help group
(D) All of these

Answer :   D

Question16 :  NABARD is ____________ source of rural credit
(A) Institutional
(B) Non-institutional
(C) Cooperative society
(D) Regional

Answer :   A

Question 17:  Growth in rural marketing relates to
(A) Provision of physical infrastructure
(B) Regulation of markets
(C) Cooperative farming
(D) All of these

Answer :   D

Question18 :  Short term credit is needed for
(A) Period of 15 months
(B) Period 5 years
(C) Period of 15 years
(D) Period of 20 years

Answer :   A

Question19 : From the following which is not a non-institutional source of credit in India.
(A) Money lenders
(B) Traders
(C) Commission agents
(D) Commercial banks

Answer :   D

Question20 :  Father of ‘Green Revolution’ In India
(A) M.S. Swaminathan
(B) Norman Borlong
(C) Chidambaram Subramaniam
(D) None of the above

Answer :   A

Question21 :  Government has assured the farmers of some minimum income from the sale of their crop by introducing:
(A) Warehousing facilities
(B) Regulated markets
(C) Minimum support price policy
(D) Co-operative agriculture marketing societies

Answer :   C

Question 22:  SHG stands for :
(A) Self Human Group
(B) Sufficient Humidity Growth
(C) Self Help Group
(D) Self Human Growth

Answer :   A

Question23 :  Organic farming is needed because it
(A) Maintains and enhances the ecological balance
(B) is free from chemical based fertilizers
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer :   C

Question 24:  National Bank of Agriculture and Rural Development was set up in ________ as an apex body to coordinate the activities of all institutions in the rural financing system.
(A) 1969
(B) 1982 
(C) 1949
(D) 1991  

Answer :   B

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 7 MASS MEDIA AND COMMUNICATIONSNCERT MCQ for Class 12 SOCIOLOGY PART B which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON MASS MEDIA AND COMMUNICATIONS

Question 1.
Modulation index of an AM signal:
(a) depends upon the peak amplitude of the modulating signal and the carrier.
(b) depends upon the peak amplitude of modulating signal.
(c) is a function of carrier frequency.
(d) None of these.

Answer: (a) depends upon the peak amplitude of the modulating signal and the carrier.

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Question 2.
In amplitude modulation
(a) the amplitude of the carrier remains constant.
(b) the amplitude of the carrier varies in accordance with the amplitude of the modulating signal.
(c) the amplitude of carrier varies in accordance with the frequency of the modulating signal.
(d) None of these.

Answer: (b) the amplitude of the carrier varies in accordance with the amplitude of the modulating signal.

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Question 3.
In modulation process, radio frequency wave is termed as
(a) modulating wave
(b) modulated wave
(c) carrier wave
(d) none

Answer: (c) carrier wave

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Question 4.
Digital signals:
(a) represent values as discrete steps.
(b) utilise binary code system.
(c) do not provide a continuous set of values.
(d) All of these.

Answer: (d) All of these.

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Question 5.
Modulation index in an FM signal:
(a) Varies directly as the modulating frequency.
(b) Varies directly as frequency deviation and inversely as the modulating frequency.
(c) varies inversely as the frequency deviation. ‘
(d) None of these.

Answer: (b) Varies directly as frequency deviation and inversely as the modulating frequency.

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Question 6.
The most commonly employed analog modulation technique in satellite communication is the
(a) amplitude modulation
(b) frequency modulation
(c) phase modulation
(d) All of the above

Answer: (b) frequency modulation

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Question 7.
Satellite transponders
(a) use a high frequency for reception and a lower frequency for retransmission of information to and from earth
(b) use a lower frequency for reception and a higher frequency for retransmission of information to and from earth.
(c) Use a single frequency for reception and retransmission of information to and from earth.
(d) none of the above.

Answer: (a) use a high frequency for reception and a lower frequency for retransmission of information to and from earth

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Question 8.
For television transmission, the frequency employed is normally in the range
(a) 30-300 Hz
(b) 30-300 kHz
(c) 30-300 MHz
(d) 30-300 GHz.

Answer: (c) 30-300 MHz

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Question 9.
Which one of the following can happen to the electromagnetic waves travelling in free space:
(a) Reflection
(b) Refraction
(c) absorption
(d) attenuation

Answer: (d) attenuation

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Question 10.
High frequency waves are
(a) reflected by E layer.
(b) absorbed by F layer.
(c) affected by the solar cycle.
(d) capable of use for long-distance transmission.

Answer: (a) and (c).

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Question 11.
Which of the following is invariably found on all communication satellites as a payload
(a) transponder
(b) photographic camera
(c) optical telescope
(d) None of these

Answer: (a) transponder

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Question 12.
An antenna is
(a) capacitive
(b) reactive
(c) inductive above its resonance frequency.
(d) None of these

Answer: (c) inductive above its resonance frequency.

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Question 13.
Microwave link repeaters are typically 50 km apart,
(a) because of atmospheric attenuation.
(b) because of the earth’s curvature.
(c) to ensure that signal voltage may not harm the repeater.
(d) None of these.

Answer: (b) because of the earth’s curvature.

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Question 14.
Optical communication uses the frequency range of
(a) 10⁹ to 10¹⁰ Hz
(b) 10⁵ to 10⁶ Hz
(c) 10¹⁴ to 10¹⁵ Hz
(d) 10¹⁶ to 10¹⁷ Hz.

Answer: (c) 10¹⁴ to 10¹⁵ Hz

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Question 15.
Audio signals have frequency range.
(a) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
(b) 20 kHz to 20 MHz
(c) 20 MHz to 20 GHz
(d) All of these.

Answer: (a) 20 Hz to 20 kHz

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NCERT MCQ ON Human Capital Formation In India:

Question1 : Which of the following is not an indicator of education level?
a) Years of schooling
b) Life expectancy
c) Teacher-pupil ratio
d) Enrollment rate

Answer :   B

Question2 :  Which programme started in 1994
a) District Primary Education Programme
b) Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya
c) Sarva Siksha Abhiyan
d) Mid-day meal

Answer :   A

Question3 :  What percent of GDP was invested in education in the year 1952?
a) 7.92 percent
b) 11.7 percent
c) 0.64 percent
d) 3.31 percent

Answer :   C

Question4 :  Human capital consists of
a) Enterpreneurs
b) Both workers and entrepreneurs
c) Workers
d) Entire population

Answer :   D

Question5 :  GER stands for
a) General Enrolment Ratio
b) Gross Enrolment Ratio
c) General Estimated Ratio
d) Gross Education Ratio

Answer :   B

Question6 :  Human capital can be increased by incurring expenditure on
a) All of these
b) Improvement in technology
c) Increase in GDP
d) Improvement of health

Answer :   D

Question 7:  SSA started in
a) 2005
b) 2000
c) 2006
d) 2004

Answer :   B

Question 8:  Human Development refers to
a) None
b) Both
c) Development of the individuals by acquiring good education
d) Consists of skills as used in the process of production

Answer :   C

Question9:  How much India spend on education?
a) 2% Of GDP
b) 4% of GDP
c) 6% of GDP
d) 5% Of GDP

Answer :   B

Question10 .What percent of GDP was invested in education in the year 1952?
a) 7.92 percent
b) 11.7 percent
c) 0.64 percent
d) 3.31 percent

Answer :   C

Question11 :  The most important indicator of the status of education of a country is the
a) Death rate
b) Population rate
c) Birth rate
d) Literacy rate

Answer :   D

Question12 :  Human capital is similar to physical capital because
a) Both
b) none
c) They are factors of production
d) Raise nation’s ability to produce goods and services

Answer:   A

Question13 : The objective of midday meal scheme is __________
a) to boost universalisation of primary education
b) to boost the nutritional status of children in schools
c) to increase enrolment attendance and retention, and also improving the nutritional status of children in school
d) to boost universalisation of upper primary level of education

Answer:   C

Question 14:  Which of the following is not an indicator of education level?
a) Years of schooling
b) Life expectancy
c) Teacher-pupil ratio
d) Enrollment rate

Answer :   B

Question15 :  The most important indicator of education status of a country is the
a) Literacy rate
b) Death rate
c) Population rate
d) Birth rate

Answer:   A

Question 16:  Educational attainment is measured by the two-third weighted average of the _____and one-third weight ______
a) literacy rate, mean years of primary schooling
b) adult literacy rate, mean years of secondary schooling
c) adult gross literacy rate, mean years of schooling
d) adult literacy rate, mean years of schooling

Answer:   C

Question 17: Which of the following is not the role of on-the-job training?
a) Eradicates inequality
b) Encourages innovation
c) Promotes modern methods
d) Enhances productivity

Answer :   D

Question18 :  The government has levied –% of education cess on all union taxes?
a) 3%
b) 4%
c) 2%
d) 10%

Answer. C

Question19 :   In which state the per capita expenditure on elementary education is highest?
a) Maharashtra
b) Kerala
c) Karnataka
d) Himachal Pradesh

Answer :   D

Question 20:  Machines and buildings are
a) Human capital
b) None of these
c) Physical capital
d) Natural capital

Answer :   B

Question21 :  Which of the following is not the feature of India Vision 2020 Report
a) 90% of literacy in India
b) If we double the investments in education it will increase the country’s GDP per capita by four times
c) 100 % enrolment of all children of age group 6-14 years
d) Importance of technical education

Answer:   A

Question 22:  Literacy refers to
a) All urban people
b) All educated people
c) All rural educated people
d) The ability to read and write

Answer :   D

Question 23:  If ____ capital represents production capacity of a nation, _____ capital is the cause that designs machines.
a) Human, Physical
b) Financial, Human
c) Physical, Human
d) Physical, Financial

Answer :   C

Question 24:  It controls and guides higher education
a) IGNOU
b) None
c) NCERT
d) UGC

Answer :   D

Question 25:  Secondary level education for age group
a) 13-15
b) 18-40
c) 15-18
d) 14-18

Answer :   D

Question26 :  What is the reason for rural-urban migration in India?
a) Marriage
b) Disease
c) Unemployment
d) None

Answer :   C

Question27 :  Navodaya Vidyalaya started in
a) 1988-89
b) 1985-86
c) 1989-90
d) 1986-1987

Answer :   B

Question28 :  Which of the following is not the role of on-the-job training?
a) Eradicates inequality
b) Encourages innovation
c) Promotes modern methods
d) Enhances productivity

Answer :   D

Question29 :  In how many stages of education are there in India
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 3.0

Answer :   D

Question30 :  Which Five Year Plan stressed upon the importance of human capital
a) 7th
b) 8th
c) 6th
d) 5th

Answer :   A

Question31 :  In 1950-51 India literacy rate was
a) 0.16
b) 0.12
c) 0.15
d) 0.18

Answer :   D

Question32 :  Which one of the following is a reason for poor human capital formation in India?
a) Brain drain
b) Insufficient resources
c) High growth of population
d) All of these

Answer :   D

Question 33:   considers education & health as a means to increase labour productivity?
a) Human capital
b) Human development
c) Physical capital
d) A&B Both

Answer :   A

Question34 :  How do human capital formation contributes towards economic growth?
a) By stimulating innovations & inventions
b) Human capital formation is inversely related with economic growth 
c) By enabling human resource to understand changes in scientific advancement
d) Both A & C

Answer :   D

Question35 :  Which of the following are indicators of HDI are
a) Educational attainment
b) All of these
c) Standard of living
d) Longevity

Answer :   B

NCERT MCQ ON Poverty :

Question1 : JGSY programme of poverty alleviation was submerged into _____:
a) SGRY
b) NFFWP
c) PMGSY
d) All of above

Answer : D

Question2 :  Mid day meal, Public distribution system, integrated child development scheme etc.
a) Poverty alleviation approach
b) Growth oriented approach
c) None
d) Minimum basic needs approach

Answer : D

Question3 :  Economists identify the poor on the basis of their ________________and ownership of assets
a) Income
b) Occupation
c) Expenditure
d) Living standard

Answer :  B

Question4 :  The food work programme was renamed as
a) Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme
b) Jawaharlal Rural Yojna
c) National Rural Employment Programme (NREP)
d) Integrated Rural Development Programme

Answer : C

Question 5:  Which programme has the government adopted to help the elderly people and poor and destitute women
a) National Social Assistance Programme
b) None
c) National Social Awas Programme
d) National Social Awas Product

Answer : A

Question 6:  When poverty is taken in relative term and is related to the distribution of income consumption expenditure its called:
a) Law line poverty
b) Absolute poverty
c) Relative poverty
a) None

Answer : C

Question7 :  What do you mean by Gross National Product?
a) The total value of goods and services produced in the country
b) The total value of all the transactions in the country
c) The depreciation in the total value of goods and services produced in the country
d) The total value of goods and services produced in the country and the net factor income from abroad

Answer : D

Question8 :  Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yojna being implemented on a cost sharing ratio of ____ between the centre and states
a) it is 25:75
b) it is 75:25
c) it is 50:50
d) it is 75:28

Answer : B

Question9 :  Who was the first person to define poverty in terms of Jail Cost of Living?
a) Dadabai Naroji
b) V.K.R.V. Rao
c) Willian Digby
d) R.c) Desai

Answer :  A

Question 10:  Who is considered as poor?
a) A rich farmer
b) Businessman.
c) Landlords
d) Landless labourer

Answer :  D

Question11 :  Which of the following is the poverty determination measure?
a) Head Count Ratio
b) Sen Index
c) Poverty Gap Index
d) All of these

Answer :  D

Question 12:  Integrated rural development programme, Development of women and children in rural areas , Million wells scheme etc. all these amalgamated into a single self-employment programme known as
a) REGP
b) PMRY
c) SGSY
d) SISRY

Answer :  C

Question13 :  The average calories required per person in urban area is
a) 2400
b) 2100
c) 2500
d) 2150

Answer :  B

Question14 :  Who was the first to use the concept of poverty line in India
a) Jawahar lal Nehru
b) b)R.Ambedkar
c) Dadabhai Naroji
d) Mahatma Gandhi

Answer :  C

Question15 :  Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojne was launched in
a) 2005
b) 2000
c) 2004
d) 2001

Answer :  D

Question 16:  According to UNO those countries are considered relative poor where per capita income is less than
a) One dollar
b) Four dollar
c) Two dollar
d) Three dollar

Answer :  A

Question 17:  In April 1999 which programme launched
a) SISRY
b) JGSY
c) REGP
d) PMRY

Answer :  B

Question18 :  The approach to reduce poverty through specific poverty alleviation programmes has been initiated from the
a) Second Five Year plan
b) Third Five Year plan
c) Fifth Five Year plan
d) Seventh Five Year plan

Answer :  B

Question19 :   The approach to addressing poverty through public expenditure in providing minimum basic amenities to the people has been initiated from the ___________
a) Second Five Year plan
b) Third Five Year plan
c) Fifth Five Year plan
d) Seventh Five Year plan

Answer :  C

Question20 :  Those who regularly move in and out of poverty are called
a) Chronically poor
b) Churning poor
c) Occasionally poor
d) Transient poor

Answer :  B

Question21 : The poverty line defined for urban areas as consumption worth rs ____ per person a month
a) 454
b) 428
c) 228
d) 328

Answer :  A

Question 22:  NFFWP was launched in:
a) December 2000
b) April 1999
c) November 2005
d) April 2002

Answer :  C

Question23 :  Which of the following programmed was launched in the year of 2000?
a) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.
b) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana
c) Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
d) Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana

Answer :  B

Question24 :  In which programme people were encouraged to form SHG
a) SGSY
b) REGP
c) SISRY
d) PMRY

Answer :  A

NCERT MCQ ON Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation: An Appraisal:

Question 1: Which of the following is the feature of New Economic Reforms ?
(a) Globalization
(b) Liberalization
(c) Privatization
(d) All of the above

Answer :   D

Question2 : MUDRA Bank was set up to meet the credit needs of the _
(a) farmers
(b) small enterprises
(c) large enterprises
(d) exporters

Answer :   B

Question 3:  Why there was a need for economic reforms in India?
(a) Due to fiscal deficit
(b) Due to adverse BOP
(c) Rise in prices
(d) All of the above

Answer :   D

Question4 :  How many industries are entirely reserved for the public sector?
(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 2
(d) 4

Answer :   C

Question5 :  Who is the Chairman of the GST Council?
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Finance Secretary
(d) Deputy Chairman of NITI Aayog

Answer :   A

Question6 : New Economic Policy was introduced in the year___________.
(a) 1980
(b) 1991
(c) 2013
(d) 2015

Answer :   B

Question7 :  Special Economic Zones (SEZ) developed by the Government of India aim
(a) to attract foreign companies to invest in India
(b) to encourage small investors
(c) to encourage regional development
(d) none of the above

Answer :    A

Question8 :  Where is the headquarters of WTO located?
(a) Italy
(b) Geneva
(c) New York
(d) Washington

Answer :   B

Question9 :  Freedom of the producing units from direct or physical control imposed by the government is called____
(a) Privatization
(b) Globalization
(c) Liberalization
(d) None of the above

Answer :   C

Question10 :  FDI (Foreign Direct Investment) attracted by globalisation in India belongs to the
(a) World Bank
(b) multinationals
(c) foreign governments
(d) none of the above

Answer :   B

Question11 :  When was WTO established?
(a) 1996
(b) 1998
(c) 2000
(d) 1995

Answer :   D

Question12 :  If a country liberalises its trade, it will make the country more attractive for
(a) inward investment
(b) exchange reserve
(c) consumption
(d) price

Answer :   A

Question13 : Globalisation has improved the living structure of which of the following?
(a) All the people
(B) Workers in developing countries
(C) People in developed countries
(D) None of the above

Answer :   B

Question 14:  Where is the headquarters of WTO located?
(a) Italy
(b) Geneva
(c) New York
(d) Washington

Answer :   B

Question15 :  Economic reforms were introduced in India in the year _________
(a) 1991
(b) 1992
(c) 2001
(d) 2005

Answer :   A

Question16 :  Tax on imports is an example of:
(a) Terms of Trade
(b) Collateral
(c) Trade Barriers
(d) Foreign Trade

Answer :   C

Question17 :  For how many industries, licensing is still necessary?
(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 10

Answer :   B

Question18 :  Which one of the following is a major benefit of joint production between a local company and a Multi-National Company?
(a) MNC can bring latest technology in the production
(b) MNC can control the increase in the price
(c) MNC can buy the local company
(d) MNC can sell the products under their brand name

Answer :   A

Question19 :  Which of the following replaced MRTP Act?
(a) Competition Act
(b) Foreign Exchange Management Act
(c) New Companies Act
(d) None of these

Answer :   A

Question20 :  When did the Gulf Crisis take place?
(a) 1985
(b) 1990-91
(c) 1995
(d) 1975

Answer :   B

Question21 :  The removal of tariff barriers can lead to lower prices for
(a) suppliers
(b) consumers
(c) competitors
(d) none of these

Answer :   B

Question22 :  The New Economic Policy was introduced in India in _____________.
(a) 1991
(b) 1998
(c) 1997
(d) None of these

Answer :   A

Question23 :  New economic policy is also known as___
(a) New economic reforms
(b) New economic region
(c) New economic law
(d) None of the above

Answer :   A

Question 24:  Which of these institutes supports investments and foreign trade in India?
(a)  International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(b) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
(c) World Bank
(d) International Labour Organisation (ILO)

Answer:  B

Question25 :  What is the investment limit in small scale industries?
(a) 50 lakh
(b) 1 crore
(c) 25 lakh
(d) 75 crore

Answer :  B

Question 26:  LPG stands for
(a) Liberalization, Privatization, Globalization
(b) Liquidity, Publicity, Government
(c) Liberalization, Privatization,Government
(d) None of the above

Answer :   A

Question27 :  How many countries are the members of WTO?
(a) 164
(b) 120
(c) 96
(d) 48

Answer :   A

Question 28:  Globalisation results in
(a) inflow of labour from abroad
(b) inflow of capital from abroad
(c) inflow of tourists from abroad
(d) all the above

Answer :   B

Question29 :  Opening the doors of economy for foreign companies , technology, capital, human resource et(c) is called___
(a) Globalization
(b) Liberalization
(c) Privatization
(d) None of the above

Answer :   A

Question30 :  Which one of the following Indian indus¬tries has been hit hard by globalisation?
(a) Information Technology (IT)
(b) Toy making
(c) Jute
(d) Cement

Answer :   B

Question31 :  is the result of New Industrial Policy which abolished the ‘License System’.
(a) Globalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Liberalisation
(d) None of these

Answer :   B

Question32 :  Globalisation has led to improvement in
(a) choice to consumers
(b) quality of goods and services
(c) foreign investment
(d) all the above

Answer :   D

Question33 :  Globalisation so far has been more in favour of:
(a) developed countries
(b) developing countries
(c) poor countries
(d) none of the above

Answer :   A

Question 34:  Globalisation has led to higher standards of living of:
(a) well-off consumers
(b) poor consumers
(c) big producers

Answer :   A

Question 35:  What is happening with the import of Chinese toys in India ? 
(a) Indian toys are selling more
(b) Indian consumers are buying less
(c) Indian consumers are getting more choice at cheaper rates
(d) Chinese consumers are falling short of choice

Answer :   C

Question 35:  Which out of the following is an example of a trade barrier? 
(a) Foreign investment
(b) Delay or damage of goods
(c) Tax on imports
(d) None of these

Answer :    C

Question 36:  Globalisation has posed major challenges for:
(a) big producers
(b) small producers
(c) rural poor
(d) none of these

Answer :    B

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 8 SOCIAL MOVEMENT NCERT MCQ for Class 12 SOCIOLOGY PART B which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON SOCIAL MOVEMENT

1.Because of a socio-cultural phenomenon, death rate registers a sharp fall at times but, ________________ does not.
(a) Birth rate

(b) Maternal mortality rate

(c) Life expectancy

(d) Dependency ratio
Answer: (a) Birth rate

2.Which of the following is incorrect in the context of the Caste system’s imposed rules?

a) Endogamous Caste groups

b) A hierarchical system

c) Open occupational choices

d) Restrictions on food sharing
Answer:c) Open occupational choices

3.How did the British understand the caste system’s complexity?

a) Interview

b) Survey

c) Participant Observation

d) Interview and Participant Observation
Answer:b) Survey

4.What are the two broad sets of issues that have been most important in giving rise to tribal

movements?

a) control over vital economic resources and issues relating to matters of ethnic-cultural identity

b) control over vital economic resources and globalisation

c) control over vital economic resources and colonialism

d) control over vital economic resources and secularisation
Answer: a) control over vital economic resources and issues relating to matters of ethnic-cultural identity

5.How can be the ideas of inclusive nationalism can be built to be effective?

a) Constitution

b) Parliament

c) Supreme Court

d) Legislature
Answer: a) Constitution

6.Minority in the sociological sense can be defined by:

a) Privilege

b) Only numerical distinction

c) Solidarity due to experience of disadvantage

d) Individualism
Answer:c) Solidarity due to experience of disadvantage

7.What is the type of governance/rule, that often limit or abolish civil liberties?

a) Authoritarian

b) Democratic

c) Civil Society

d) Libertarian
Answer: a) Authoritarian

8.Who wrote Stree Purush Tulane?
a) Tarabai Shinde

b) Savitri Phule

c) Annie Beasant

d) Anita Ghai
Answer: a) Tarabai Shinde
9.Inequalities between men and women according to the Scholars are not ______ but ______

a) Natural, Social

b) Social, Natural

c) Desirable, undesirable

d) Economic, racial
Answer: b) Social, Natural
10.Which of the following is not a factor related to low child sex ratio?
a) Illiteracy

b) Socio-cultural beliefs

c) Economic condition

d) Preference for girl child
Answer: d) Preference for girl child

11.What are the two sets of principles of the Caste system?
a) Wholism-hierarchy and difference and separation

b) Segmental division and hereditary occupation

c) Exogamy and endogamy

d) Purity and Pollution
Answer: a) Wholism-hierarchy and difference and separation
12.Which among the following is a process involving our significant others is important in

developing a sense of community identity:

a) Socialisation

b) Secularisation

c) Globalisation

d) Marketisation
Answer: a) Socialisation

13.What does the population reach, when the growth rate is 0?
a) Replacement level

b) Negative growth

c) Positive growth

d) High birth rate

Answer: a) Replacement level
14.The demographic indicators not used to calculate the total fertility rate is:

a) Number of live births in the reproductive age group

b) Age-specific fertility rate

c) Sex ratio

d) Number of women in the child-bearing age group
Answer: c) Sex ratio

15.Which of the following is true in the context of Kerala, beginning to acquire an age structure like that of the developed countries?

a) High birth rate and high death rate

b) Low birth rate and low death rate

c) High birth rate and low death rate

d) Low birth rate and high death rate
Answer: b) Low birth rate and low death rate

NCERT MCQ ON Indian Economy 1950-1990:

Question1 : Land ceiling refers to __
A. fixing rural landholding at the existing level
B. fixing the quantum of land held by an individual
C. fixing urban landholdings at the existing level
D. fixing land area for irrigation purposes

Answer : B

Question2: In 1955, Karve Committee (Village & Small scale committee) was constituted for –
A. Using SSI for rural development
B. Using SSI for urban development
C. Using large scale industries for development\
D. Both A & B

Answer : A

Question 3:  What is needed to provide protection against natural calamities like floods, drought, locusts, thunderstorms, etc.?
A. Multiple cropping
B. Green Revolution
C. Crop insurance
D. HYV

Answer : C

Question 4: When was the National Development Council (NDC. set up as an adjunct to the Planning Commission?
A. 1950
B. 1969
C. 1952
D. 1979

Answer : C

Question5 : All the state government imposed land ceiling in 1960 except
A. South-western
B. North-western
C. South-eastern
D. North-eastern

Answer : B

Question7 : How many industries have been reserved for the public sector under Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956?
A. 17
B. 21
C. 15
D. 2

Answer : A

Question7 : It is a conscious design to shape the socio-economic processes in order to achieve an objective
A. Economic infrastructure
B. Economic development
C. Economic planning
D. Economic growth

Answer : C

Question8 : IADP stands for
A. Integrated Agriculture Development Product
B. Intensive Area Development Programme
C. Integrated Area Development Product
D. Intensive Area Development Product

Answer : B

Question9 : Which of the following statements are not true?
A. SSI were given protection from big industries
B. Concessions were given to SSI
C. Govt. allowed SSI & large industries to produce any type of goods
D. None

Answer : C

Question10 : Agriculture education ,health and infrastructure were the priority areas in which five year plan.
A. 11th
B. 12th
C. 9th
D. 10th

Answer : A

Question11 : The policy makers of independent India tried to bring in growth and equity in the agriculture sector through:
i) Bringing in land Reforms
ii) Without using any ‘High Yielding Variety’ (HYV) seeds
Which of the above are correct?
A. Only i
B. Only ii
C. Both i and ii
D. Neither i nor ii

Answer :  C

Question 12: When was Twelfth five year plan started
A. 2007-2012
B. 1997-2002
C. 2012-2017
D. 2002-2007

Answer : C

Question13 : Agriculture education ,health and infrastructure were the priority areas in the
A. 12th
B. 9th
C. 11th
D. 10th

Answer : C

Question14 : Initially HYVP was implemented in about
A. 76 million hectares area
B. 75 million hectares area
C. 3 million hectares area
D. 2 million hectares area

Answer :  D

Question15 : Legally stipulated maximum size beyond which no individual farmer can hold any land
A. Tenancy reforms
B. Abolition of intermediaries
C. Land consolidation
D. Land Ceiling

Answer : D

Question 16: Who is the architect of Indian planning?
A. K.N. Raj
B. PC. Mahalanobis
C. R.C. Desai
D. Dadabhai Navoroji

Answer : B

Question 17: SEBI stands for
A. Science and Engineering Board of India
B. Securities and Exchange Board of India
C. Social Equity Bureau of India
D. Science and Educational Board of India

Answer : B

Question 18: What prevented firms from becoming efficient?
A. Tarrifs
B. Quotas
C. Permit License Raj
D. New Economic Policy

Answer : C

Question 19: Schedule________ comprise of industries which would be exclusively owned by the state:
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. None of these

Answer : A

Question20 : When was Planning commission established
A. 20th March 1951
B. 5th March 1951
C. 15th March 1951
D. 25th March 1951

Answer : C

Question 21: The economy of India is based on planning through the ___ Year Plan develop executed and monitored by the planning Commission
A. Six
B. Five
C. Three
D. Four

Answer : B

Question 22: Industrial sector and agricultural sector are
A. Have no economic relations with each other
B. Complementary to each other
C. Are substitute of each other
D. Compete with each other

Answer : B

Question 23: At the time of independence the government of India adopted which of the following for the future economic development
A. Free market forces
B. Planning by inducement
C. Planning by direction
D. Free market forces + planning by inducement

Answer : D

Question24 : Which of the following industries were exclusively reserved for public sector in IPR 1956
A. Arms & Ammunition
B. Atomic energy
C. Air craft
D. All of the above

Answer : D

Question 25: In which type of economic system goods are produced on purchasing power?
A. Socialist Economy
B. Mixed Economy
C. Capitalist Economy
D. None of the above

Answer : C

Question26 : Consider the below statements with reference to Abolition of zamindari system.
i) It brought some 200 lakh tenants into direct contact with the government.
ii) The ownership conferred on tenants gave them the incentive to increase output and this contributed to growth in agriculture.
iii) In some areas like Kerala and West Bengal, the former zamindars continued to own large areas of land by making use of some loopholes in the legislation.
Select the appropriate combination:
A. Only (i) correct
B. Only (i) and (ii) correct
C. Only (ii) and (iii) correct
D. All are correct

Answer : B

Question27 : Which of the following organizations looks after the credit needs of agriculture and rural development in India?
A. FCI
B. IDBI
C. NABARD
D. ICAR

Answer : C

Question 28: Following are the external factors responsible for industrial sickness except
A. Diversion of funds
B. Government policies related with production, distribution and prices
C. Shortage of power and raw materials
D. Change in investment pattern

Answer : A

Question 29: The basic problem the Indian economy is facing is shortage of
A. Entrepreneurial abilities
B. Natural resources
C. Man made resources
D. Human resources

Answer : C

Question30 : Land ceiling refers to _________
A. fixing rural landholding at the existing level
B. fixing the quantum of land held by an individual
C. fixing urban landholdings at the existing level
D. fixing land area for irrigation purposes

Answer : B

Question31 : First time the objective of self-reliance was incorporated in the ____ Five year plan
A. First
B. Fifth
C. Second
D. Third

Answer : D

Question 32: Define GDP
A. Factor value of all the final goods and services produced within a domestic territory
B. Market value of all the final goods and services produced within a domestic territory
C. Market value of all the final goods and services produced by the residents
D. Factor value of all the final goods and services produced produced by the residents

Answer : B

Question 33: Who developed HYV seeds
A. Normal Jones
B. Normal Borlaug
C. Norah Jones
D. Norten Borlaug

Answer : B

Question 34: Which of the following is not a goal of five year plan ?
A. Growth
B. Equity
C. Land reforms
D. Modernisation

Answer : C

Question 35: Which industry employs the largest number of women in India?
A. tea
B. textile
C. jute
D. coal

Answer : A

Question 36: Subsidies are
A. Grants taken by government so that commodities sold at prices above the market price
B. Grants taken by government so that commodities sold at prices below the market price
C. Grants given by government so that commodities sold at prices above the market price
D. Grants given by government so that commodities sold at prices below the market price

Answer : D

Question 37: Refers to an increase in the country’s capacity to produce the output of goods and services within the country.
A. Equity
B. Growth
C. Self-reliance
D. Modernization

Answer : B

Question 38: Tenancy reforms refers to
A. Bringing together all plots of land of a cultivator into one compact block
B. Dividing the land into small plots
C. Those who take cultivable land on rent and pay either in terms of money or a part of produce
D. None

Answer : C

Question39 : With reference to outcomes of the green revolution, evaluate the following:
1. The low income groups did not get any benefit from it.
2. The HYV crops were more prone to attack by pests.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : A

Question40 : Infant mortality rate fall due to
A. Better health facilities
B. All of these
C. Poor health facilities
D. No change in health facilities

Answer : A

Question41 : Which two crops were benefitted when green revolution was introduced?
A. Tea & coffee
B. Jowar & Bajra
C. Cotton & Jute
D. Rice & Wheat

Answer : D

Question 42: Planning commission was set up in
A. 5th March 1951
B. 15th March 1951
C. 25th March 1951
D. 20th March 1951

Answer : B

Question43 : The economy of India is based on planning through the ___ Year Plan develop executed and monitored by the planning Commission
A. Three
B. Four
C. Six
D. Five

Answer : D

Question44 : To protect goods produced in India from imports, Government made use of:
A. Quotas
B. Tariffs
C. both A. and B.
D. neitherA. norB.

Answer : C

NCERT MCQ ON Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence:

Question1 : Which of the following economist estimated per capita income during colonial period
A. William Digby
B. Findley Shirras
C. Dada Bhai Naoroji
D. All of these

Answer :   D

Question 2: Tata Airlines established in the year?
A. 1932
B. 1931
C. 1930
D. 1953

Answer :   A

Question3 : What was the condition of foreign trade under British rule
A. Net exporter of raw materials
B. Net importer of finished goods reproduced by British India
C. All of these
D. Surplus on account of foreign trade was spent on war expenses

Answer :   C

Question3 : Cotton textile mills were mainly located in
A. South
B. North
C. Western
D. Eastern

Answer :   C

Question4 : Cotton textile mills were dominated by
A. None
B. Britishers
C. Foreigners
D. Indians

Answer :   D

Question 5: _______ refers to relative distribution of a country’s workforce among various sectors of economic activity
A. Demographic structure
B. Income structure
C. Occupational structure
D. None of these

Answer :   C

Question6 : Industrial sector creates infrastructure which helps in growth of
A. Primary
B. Tertiary
C. Secondary
D. All of these

Answer :   D

Question7 : Which of the following is false regarding Positive effect of British rule was
A. Provision of post and telegraph service
B. Monopoly on foreign trade
C. Development of ports
D. Provide transport facilities

Answer :   B

Question 8: . The financial sector in India is primarily controlled by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Which of the following institutions are a part of financial sector?
1. Commercial banks
2. Money Lenders
3. Investment banks
4. Stock exchange operations
5. Insurance
6. Foreign exchange market
Code:
A. 1, 2, 3 and 6
B. 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6
C. 1, 3, 4 and 6
D. All of the above

Answer :   D

Question9 : What was the percent growth of per capita income in a year during first half of 20th century.
A. 1%
B. .5%
C. 2%
D. None

Answer :    B

Question10 : During major part of British period
A. Exports were more than imports
B. None of these
C. Imports were more than exports
D. Exports were equal to imports

Answer :   A

Question11 : When were the railways Introduced in India?
A. 1769
B. 1825
C. 1850
D. 1875

Answer :   C

Question 12: Aam Admi Bima Yojana was launched on:
A. November 14, 2011
B. March 5, 2009
C. March 10, 2008
D. October 2, 2007

Answer :   D

Question13 : When was the first census data collected during British India
A. 1882
B. 1982
C. 1881
D. 1981

Answer :   C

Question14 : Death rate and birth rate at the time of independence was
A. High birth rate and Low death rate
B. Low birth rate and low death rate
C. Low birth rate and high death rate
D. High birth rate and high death rate

Answer :   D

Question15 : India on the eve of independence was
A. Vibrant economy
B. Stagnant economy
C. None
D. Both

Answer :   B

Question16 : Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining astound and efficient accounting and financial reporting system in India?
A. The Comptroller General of Accounts
B. NITI Ayog
C. RBI
D. None of these

Answer :   A

Question 17: Iron and steel industries began coming up in
A. Twentieth century
B. Seventieth century
C. Eighteenth century
D. Nineteenth century

Answer :   A 

Question18 : TISCO stands for
A. Tata Iron and silver Company
B. Tata Iron and silver Corporation
C. Tata Iodine and silver Company
D. Tata Iron and steel Company

Answer :   D

Question 19: Consider the following statements about India’s approach in dealing with 1991 crisis.
1. India approached the international bank for reconstruction and development popularly known as IMF for loan to manage the crisis.
2. India came up with new economic policies which were based on the conditionality of international institutions.
3. Conditionality of international institutions was not as a punishment but were towards creating more competitive environment in the economy.
Select the correct ones.
A. All the above
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1 and 3

Answer :   B

Question 20: Which of the following economists made an attempt to calculate India’s national & per capita income during colonial period?

A. William Digby
B. Dadabhai Naoroji
C. VKRV Rao
D. All of the above

Answer :   D

Question21 : Life expectancy refers to
A. Both
B. Death rate of children below the age of one year
C. Average life of a person
D. None

Answer :   C

Question22 : What was the motive behind the de-industrialisation by the colonial Govt. in India?
A. Both
B. None
C. To sell British manufactured goods in Indian market at high rate prices
D. To get raw material from India at cheap rate

Answer :   A

Question23 : An important approach to addressing poverty is to provide minimum basic amenities to the people. Consider the following statements about schemes to provide basic amenities.
1. National Social Assistance Programme is a programme to give pension to elderly people who do not have anyone to take care of them.
2. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana aims to provide better connectivity in the villages by improving roads.
Select the correct statements using codes below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above

Answer :   C

Question24 : Indian economy at the time of independence was
A. None
B. Developing economy
C. Developed economy
D. Backward economy

Answer :   D

Question 25: What was the percentage of population dependent directly or indirectly on agriculture
A. 85
B. 60
C. 75
D. 65

Answer :   A

Question26 : Indian economy on the eve of independence was:
A. Developed
B. Underdeveloped
C. Stagnant
D. Both B & C

Answer :   D

Question27 : The theory of demographic transition has ____ stages.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Answer :   C

Question28 :  Which of the following was the major occupation on the eve of independence?
A. Industry
B. Services
C. Agriculture
D. None of these

Answer :   C

Question 29:  In accordance with the goal of the state controlling the commanding heights of the economy, the industrial policy resolution of 1956 was adopted consider the following statements about 1956- industrial policy resolution?
1. This resolution formed the basis of the second five year plan, the plan which tried to build the basis for a capitalist pattern of society.
2. This policy was used for promoting industries in backward regions.
3. License to expand production achieved easily.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3

Answer :   B

Question 30:   Which of the following statement is true regarding the condition of Infrastructure
A. Balanced regional development in infrastructure in all areas
B. Barter system was still prevailing
C. Development in the area of transport and communication
D. No developments in the areas of roads and railways

Answer :   C

Question31 :   Jute industries were located in
A. Maharashtra
B. Rajasthan
C. Gujarat
D. Bengal

Answer :   D

Question 32.What was the life expectancy in India during the British rule?
A. 65
B. 38
C. 32
D. 44

Answer :   D

Question 33. Per capita income means:
A. National income / population
B.  Population / national income
C. Total capital /population
D. None of these

Answer :   A

Question34 : Which year regarded as Year of great divide
A. 1931
B. 1911
C. 1921
D. 1941

Answer :   C

Question 35:  In India, which of the following is having highest share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied activities?
A. Cooperative Banks
B. Regional Rural Banks
C. Commercial Banks
D. Microfinance institutions

Answer :   C

Question36 :  India followed a planned economy from the time of independence. Consider the following statements.
1. India‘s plans were of five years and lacked a perspective approach.
2. Directive principles of Indian constitution reflect the planned outlook of India.
3. Our five year plans do not spell out how much of each and every good and service is to be produced.
Select the correct statements using codes below.
A. Only 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. All the above

Answer :    B

Question37 :  Decay of handicrafts was caused by:
A. British tarrif policy
B. Competition from man made machines
C. New demand patterns
D. All of the above

Answer :    D

Question38 :  % _____ while 18% workforce were engaged in ______ sector
A. Manufacturing , Service
B. Service, Manufacturing
C. Primary, Service
D. Manufacturing , Primary

Answer :   A

Question 39:  During colonial period India’s demographic profile showed __
A. high birth rate
B. low death rate
C. low infant mortality rate
D. high literacy rate

Answer :   D 

Question40 :  Capital goods industries are those
A. None
B. Which can produce consumer goods
C. Both
D. Which can produce machine tools

Answer :   D

Question41 :  Buffer stock is the stock of foodgrains procured by the government through Food Corporation of India (FCI). Consider the following statements in relation to the FCI procurements.
1. The FCI purchases wheat and rice from the states where there is a surplus.
2. Minimum support price is the price announced by the FCI before the sowing season.
3. Issue price is the price issued by the FCI for their procurements based on the market price.
Select the correct ones.
A. 1 and 2
B. Only 2
C. Only 1
D. All the above

Answer :    C

Question42 .Who made significant estimates about calculating national income in India during the British period?
A. V.K.R.V. Rao
B. Dadabhai Naoroji
C. Findlay Shirras
D. William Digby

Answer :   A

Question43 :  In which of the following sectors is manufacturing activity included?
A. Primary
B. Tertiary
C. Secondary
D. All of these

Answer :   C

Question44 :  Which year is referred to as ‘Year of Great Divide’?
A. 1881
B. 1891
C. 1921
D. 1951

Answer :   C

Question 45:  Economy of a country is classified into various sectors based on different types of economic activity undertaken in each. Consider the following statements related to some of them.
1. All Agricultural activities are included in Primary sector
2. All Industrial activities are included in secondary sector.
3. Service sector includes only those activities that help in production of goods.
Select the incorrect statements using codes given below.
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All of the above

Answer :   C

Question 46:  Life expectancy during colonial period in India?
A. 30yrs
B. 50 yrs
C. 60 yrs
D. 63yrs

Answer :   A

Question47 :  In order to bring stability in Agriculture the Britishers introduced land settlement in 1773. Where was it first introduced?
A. fertile lands of Punjab province
B. Bombay province
C. all directly British ruled areas
D. Bengal
E. none of these.

Answer :   D

Question 48: Which of the following(s) is/are cause(s) of slow growth of private enterprises in India’s industrialization (1850-1957)?
A. Unimaginative private enterprise, short-sighted Indian industrialists.
B. complete absense of financial institutions to help transfer of savings to industrial investment.
C. Banking was not highly developed & was more concerned with commerce rather than industry.
D. Lack of support from British government
E. All of these

Answer :   E

Question49 :  RBI’s first census of India’s foreign Assets & Liability as on 30 June 1948 revealed total foreign business investments of Rs 302 cr, out of it what was the % of British investments in India?
A. 51%
B. 60%
C. 72%
D. 91%
E. 100%.

Answer :   C

Question50 :  First train on India soil was run on 1853 between?
A. Bombay to Thane.
B. Thane to Bombay.
C. Bombay to Surat.
D. None of these.

Answer :   A

NCERT MCQ ON International Business-II:

Q.1 Which one of the following is not a part of export documents?

(a) Commercial invoice
(b) Certificate of origin
(c) Bill of entry
(d) Mate’s receipt

Answer

(c) Bill of entry

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Q.2 Which of the following do not form part of duty drawback scheme?

(a) Refund of excise duties
(b) Refund of customs duties
(c) Refund of export duties
(d) Refund of income dock charges at the port of shipment

Answer

(d) Refund of income dock charges at the port of shipment

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Q.3 Which of the following documents are not required for obtaining an export license?

(a) IEC number
(b) Letter of credit
(c) Registration cum membership certificate
(d) Bank account number

Answer

(b) Letter of credit

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Q.4 The first phase of globalization started around 1870 and ended with___________

(a) World War I
(b) World War II
(c) The Establishment of GATT
(d) In 1913 when GDP was High

Answer

(a) World War I

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Q.5 Which of the following does not belong to the World Bank group?

(a) IBRD
(b) IDA
(c) MIGA
(d) IMF

Answer

(d) IMF

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Q.6 Which of the following document is prepared by the exporter and includes details of the cargo in terms of the shipper’s name, the number of packages, the shipping bill, port of destination, name of the vehicle carrying the cargo?

(a) Shipping bill
(b) Packaging list
(c) Mate’s receipt
(d) Bill of exchange

Answer

(d) Bill of exchange

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Q.7 _______ is only a legal agreement and it is not an institution, but ________ is a permanent institution.

(a) GATT, WTO
(b) WTO, GATT
(c)WTO, IMF
(d) IMF, GATT

Answer

(a) GATT, WTO

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Q.8 _________corporation produces in the home country or in a single country and focuses on marketing these products globally or vice a versa.

(a) Global
(b) International
(c) Transnational
(d) None of the above

Answer

(a) Global

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Q.9 Key controllable factors in global marketing are:

(a) Government policy and legislation
(b) social and technical changes
(c) marketing activities and plans
(d) all of the above

Answer

(c) marketing activities and plans

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Q.10 Comparative Cost Trade Theory is given by

(a) Adam Smith
(b) David Ricardo
(c) Gottfried Haberler
(d) Heckscher Ohlin

Answer

(b) David Ricardo

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Q.11 Globalization refers to:

(a) Lower incomes worldwide
(b) Less foreign trade and investment
(c) Global warming and their effects
(d) A more integrated and interdependent world

Answer

(d) A more integrated and interdependent world

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Q.12 Capitalistic, communistic and Mixed are the types of

(a) Economic System
(b) Social System
(c) Cultural Attitudes
(d) Political System

Answer

(a) Economic System

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Q.13 Which of the following documents is not required in connection with an import transaction?

(a) Bill of lading
(b) Shipping bill
(c) Certificate of origin
(d) Shipment advice

Answer

(c) Certificate of origin

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Q.14 SMEs stands for:

(a) Small and Medium Entrepreneurs
(b) Small Management of Enterprises
(c) Small and Medium-sized Enterprises
(d) Societies for Managing Exports

Answer

(c) Small and Medium-sized Enterprises

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Q.15 MNC Stands for

(a) Multi-National Cooperation
(b) Multi-National Corporation
(c) Multi-National Company
(d) Multi-National Collaboration

Answer

(b) Multi-National Corporation

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Q.16 IPR stands for

(a) Intellectual property rights
(b) International property rights
(c) Internal promotion rights
(d) Interior promotional rights

Answer

(a) Intellectual property rights

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Q.17 WTO stands for

(a) World technology association
(b) World time organization
(c) World trade organization
(d) World tourism organization

Answer

(c) World trade organization

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Q.18 Subsidiaries consider the regional environment for policy / Strategy formulation is known as

(a) Polycentric Approach
(b) Regiocentric Approach
(c) Ethnocentric Approach
(d) Geocentric Approach

Answer

(b) Regiocentric Approach