Human Resources MCQ Questions Class 8 Social Science with Answers

Q1- Union Human Resource Development Ministry was created in 
(a) 1987
(b) 1985
(c) 1990
(d) 1986

Answer : B

Question. Land covers only about ____ percent of the total area of the earth’s surface
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 35

Answer : C

Question. A few factors on which the productivity of a nation’s human resources depends are given below. Pick out the one that is not a factor.
(a) Health
(b) Census
(c) Literacy
(d) Possession of technical skills

Answer : B

Question. When was Human Resource Development Ministry formed in India at central level of Government?
(a) In 1990
(b) In 1985correct
(c) In 2004
(d) In 2009

Answer : B

Question. Human resources differ from one another in respect of 
(a) educational level
(b) age
(c) sex
(d) all of these

Answer : D

Question- ___ per cent of the global population resides in 10 countries.
(a) 75
(b) 60
(c) 65
(d) 80

Answer : B

Question. How have USA and Australia gained in respect of population growth?
(a) By immigrationcorrect
(b) By tourism
(c) By both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question. Life expectancy refer to
(a) The number of working people in the country
(b) The number of literate people in the country
(c) The number of years that an average person can expect to live
(d) The number of illiterate and uneducated people in the country

Answer : C

Question- Chang Jiang plains in ____ is one of the most densely populated regions across the globe.
(a) Taiwan
(b) China
(c) Japan
(d) Vietnam

Answer : B

Question- _____ is a country whose population growth declined because of low birth and death rates.
(a) Indonesia
(b) United Kingdom
(c) South Africa
(d) Russia

Answer : B

Question. Using resources carefully, judicially & giving them time to get renewed is called _________

(a) Resource Development

(b) Sustainable Conservation

(c) Sustainable Development

(d) Resource Conservation

Answer : D

Question- _____ has reported an annual rate of natural increase of population at 3% per annum.
(a) Mexico
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Israel
(d) US

Answer : B

Question- Population increases when the _____ is higher.
(a) Emigration
(b) Death Rate
(c) Birth rate
(d) water availability

Answer : C

Question. When a person leaves a country it is known as:
(a) immigration
(b) integration
(c) emigrant
(d) emigration

Answer : B

Question. Which one from the following refers to Census?
(a) The process of counting the number of states in a country
(b) The process of taking a count of total number of people in a country
(c) The process of counting the land area in a country
(d) The process of counting the mountains and hilly terrains in a country

Answer : B

Question. Land covers only about ____ percent of the total area of the earth’s surface
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 35

Answer : C

Question. Which of the following is not the region where very few people live?
(a) High altitudes areas
(b) Plainscorrect
(c) High mountains
(d) Equatorial forest area

Answer : B

Question. Which is densely populated area?
(a) Ganga plain
(b) Andes
(c) Alps
(d) Himalayan

Answer : A

Question. More than 90% of World’s population lives in about of land surface?
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 50%
(d) 35%

Answer : B

Question. What is the average population density of the world?
(a) 51 persons per sq. km
(b) 300 persons per sq. km
(c) 100 persons per sq. km.
(d) 14 persons per sq. km

Answer : A

Question. The population of the world is
(a) 77 billions
(b) 7.0 billions
(c) 0.77 billions
(d) 0.077 billions

Answer : B

Question. Which country has high population growth rate?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Kenya
(c) India
(d) China

Answer : B

Question. A population pyramid
(a) Shows the difference between the birth rate and death rate
(b) Shows the percent of males and females in a country with there are groups
(c) The number of years that an average person can expect to live
(d) Shows the structure of population with respect to their age

Answer : D

Question. Which of the following countries has slow growth rate of population?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) United Kingdomcorrect
(d) Brazil

Answer : C

Question. When was Human Resource Development Ministry formed in India at central level of Government?
(a) In 1990
(b) In 1985correct
(c) In 2004
(d) In 2009

Answer : B

Question. The movement of people in and out of an area is referred to as
(a) Death rate
(b) Migration
(c) Population density
(d) Birth Rate

Answer : B

Question. On what criterions do the human resources all over the world differ?
(a) Basis of sex
(b) Basis of age
(c) Basis of education
(d) All of the above

Answer : D

Question. The highest density of the population in the world is in
(a) Europe
(b) South America
(c) South central Asiacorrect
(d) none of these

Answer : C

Question. The number of deaths per 1,000 people refer to
(a) Migration
(b) Birth Rate
(c) Death rate
(d) Population change

Answer : C

Question. If the birth rate is high and the death rate is low in a country then the population pyramid will
(a) Narrow at the base
(b) Not narrow at the base
(c) Not narrow rapidly towards the top
(d) Narrow rapidly towards the top

Answer : C

Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions

1. In what respects do different human beings differ?
Answer: Human beings differ from each other in age, sex, education, ethnicity, culture, physical and mental strength, etc.

2. With the help of figures, describe how population varies across continents.
Answer: Around 61% of the world’s population lives in Asia, 12% in Europe, 13% in Africa, 8% in Central/South America, 5% in North America and 1% in Oceania.

3. If 600 people live in your colony, and the area of your colony is 2 sq km, what is the population density of your colony?
Answer: If 600 people live in a 2 sq km area, on an average, 300 people live in 1 sq km. So density of population is 300 persons per sq km.

4. Compare the population density of the world with that of India.
Answer: The population density of the world is around 45 persons per sq km, whereas that of India is over 320 persons per sq km.

5. How does climate affect the population distribution of an area?
Answer: People prefer to live in regions with a moderate climate, and not places of extreme cold and hot climate. So moderate climate regions are densely populated.

6. What is life expectancy?
Answer: Life expectancy is the number of years an average person can expect to live, based on data.

7. What is the general trend of migrations from one country to another? Why is it so?
Answer: Generally, people migrate from less developed countries to more developed ones. This is done for better employment opportunities and other facilities.

8. What is an age-sex pyramid?
Answer: An age-sex pyramid is a graph showing the number of males and females under certain defined age groups.

9. Which of these countries is more densely populated: one with a small population in a large area, or one with a large population in a large area?
Answer: A country with a large population in a small area is more densely populated out of the two.

Short Answer Type Questions

1. Describe how various factors affect population distribution.

Answer: Topography, favourable climate, fertility of soils, availability of fresh water, minerals are major geographical factors affecting population density of a region.
People prefer to live on plains more than mountains or plateaus and they live more in moderate climates than extreme hot or cold. From the agriculture point of view, fertile lands are preferred. Areas with mineral deposits are more populated. Some social factors that boost the density of population in a region are better housing, education and health facilities. Places with cultural or historical significance are usually populated. Employment opportunities are another attraction for large chunks of population.

2. Describe how the population of the world has grown in history. What has caused the population explosion?

Answer: The world population grew steadily initially. It reached a billion in the year 1820. But the next two billion were added in just a hundred and fifty years. By 1970 the population was 3 billion. In the next 29 years, i.e. by the year 1999, the population had
doubled to 6 billion. The population explosion has been mainly caused by the growth in medical facilities, which has decreased the death rate by a large extent.

3. What are the factors affecting the population change in a region? [Imp.]

Answer: Factors affecting the population change in a region are birth rate, death rate and migrations. Birth rate is a statistic that measures the number of live births per 1000 people. Death rate is a statistic that measures the number of deaths per 1000 people. Along with birth and death rate, another factor affecting population change is migration. Migration refers to the movement of people from one area to another. People leaving a country are called emigrants and the phenomenon is called emigration. People arriving in a country are called immigrants and the phenomenon is called immigration.

Long Answer Type Questions

1. What is a population pyramid? What is its significance and what information can it give?

Answer: A population pyramid is a pictorial way to describe the population composition. An age-sex pyramid gives information about the distribution of different age groups of people based on gender. The shape of the age-sex pyramid of a country is indicative of a lot of information about the country. The size towards the bottom may be used to estimate the birth rate, while the size towards the top to estimate the death rate.

A population pyramid in which the base is broad and the top part is narrow means that although a large amount of births take place, not all grow up to be adults and old; it means many die before reaching these ages. This indicates a large death rate and Kenya shows such a pyramid. This means a high population growth rate.
In countries like India, the death rate is decreasing, so the pyramid is broad in the younger age groups, and the size of the pyramid decreases steadily.

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Industries MCQ Questions Class 8 Social Science with Answers

Question. Which metal is often called the backbone of modern industry?
(a) Steelcorrect
(b) Gold
(c) Silver
(d) Aluminium

Answer :   A

Question . With limited capital, a food processing unit is set up in a particular village in Gujarat. This unit generates employment to that particular village. Name the type of classification of industry under which this food processing unit will come under.
(a) Forest based industry
(b) Agro based industry
(c) Small Scale industry
(d) Large Scale industry

Answer :   C

Question. TISCO was started in 1907 at
(a) Sakchi
(b) Mandakni
(c) Godavari
(d) Nagpur

Answer :   A

Question. Why is steel called the backbone of modern industries?
(a) Everything we use is related with steel
(b) Steel is cheaper
(c) Steel is available everywhere in the world
(d) None of the above

Answer :   A

Question. Which factors affect the location of industry ?
(a) Land
(b) Labour
(c) Capital
(d) All of these

Answer :   D

Question. Basket weaving falls in the category of
(a) Small-scale industry
(b) Cottage industry
(c) Large-scale industry
(d) None of these

Answer :   B

Question . Where were the iron and steel industry located before 1850?
(a) Availability of raw material
(b) Availability of power supply
(c) Availability of running water
(d) All of the above

Answer :   D

Question. Major IT hub of India is
(a) Mumbai
(b) Nagpur
(c) Patna
(d) Bengaluru

Answer :   D

Question .Processing sea food and manufacturing fish oil can be considered as examples of :
(a) Agro based industries
(b) Marine based industries
(c) Mineral based industries
(d) Forest based industries

Answer :   B

Question .Name the important Northern industrial region in India
(a) Delhi ,Gurgaon- Meerut region
(b) Bangalore- Tamil Nadu region
(c) Ahmedabad- Vadodara region
(d) Damodar Valley belt

Answer :   A

Question. Anand Milk Union Limited is a type of:
(a) State Owned
(b) Joint Owned
(c) Cooperative Sector
(d) Private Owned

Answer :   C

Question. Which one of the following is a Private Sector Industry?
(a) Maruti Udyog Limited
(b) Anand Milk Union Limited
(c) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
(d) Tata Iron and Steel Industry

Answer :   D

Question . Which of the following best describes an agro based industry?
(a) Industries depending on ores like Cement, iron and steel etc.
(b) Industries that depend upon the primary products from forests for their raw materials
(c) Industries depending on agricultural products ie plant and animal products
(d) Industries that use products from the sea and oceans as raw materials

Answer :   C

Question. Marine-based industries are based on
(a) Minerals
(b) Forest products
(c) Agricultural products
(d) Oceanic products

Answer :   D

Question. Which of the following is a secondary activity?
(a) Coal mining industry
(b) Tourism industrycorrect
(c) Fishing
(d) Agriculture

Answer :   B

Question. Joint sector Industries are owned and operated by the state and individuals or a group of individuals. From the given list fo industries, which one can be called a Joint sEctor industry ?
(a) Iron and Steel industry
(b) Tata Group of Companies
(c) Reliance Industries
(d) Maruti Udyog Limited

Answer :   D

Question. Which one of the following is a natural fiber?
(a) Nylon
(b) Jute
(c) Acrylics
(d) Rayon

Answer :   B

Question. ITI is the full form of –
(a) Indian Training Institute
(b) Institute of Technology of India
(c) Indian Telephone Industrycorrect
(d) Industrial Technology Institute

Answer :   C

Question. In the light of various factors that influence industrial location, some industries have a tendency to grow close to each other. Name such areas.
(a) Industrial Structures
(b) Industrial Regions
(c) Industrial Systems
(d) Industrial Organisms

Answer :   B

Question. Which of the following can be considered as an example of the economic activity extraction of minerals from the industry sector?
(a) Tourism industry
(b) Iron and Steel industry
(c) Banking industry
(d) Coal mining industry

Answer :   D

Question. Fish is a product of the
(a) mineral-based industries
(b) agro-based industries
(c) marine-based industriescorrect
(d) forest-based industries

Answer :   C

Question.What is referred to as an economic activity that is concerned with production of goods, extraction of minerals or the provision of services?
(a) Industry
(b) Agriculture
(c) Private industry
(d) None of the above

Answer :   A

Question. Which of the following can be considered as an example of the economic activity service provider from the industry sector?
(a) Textile industry
(b) Banking industry
(c) Iron and Steel industry
(d) Coal mining industry

Answer :   B

Question. What does an industrial system consists of?
(a) Inputs
(b) Processes
(c) Output
(d) All of these

Answer :   D

Question. ____________ sector industries are owned, managed and controlled by the state or central government .
(a) Cooperative
(b) Public
(c) Joint
(d) Private

Answer :   B

Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions

1. Define industry.
Answer: Industry refers to an economic activity that is concerned with production of goods, extraction of minerals or provision of services.

2. Name three common methods of classifying industries.
Answer: Industries are classified according to raw material used, size and ownership.

3. Expand the abbreviation AMUL. Where are its headquarters?
Answer: Anand Milk Union Limited. Its headquarters are in Anand, Gujarat.

4. Name four common processes involved in a textile industry.
Answer: Ginning, spinning, weaving, dyeing are processes involved in a textile industry.

5. Name an industrial region in northern India.
Answer: The Gurgaon-Delhi-Meerut region is an industrial region in northern India.

6. Name some elements alloyed with steel.
Answer: Aluminium, nickel and copper are elements that are alloyed with steel.

7. What products do industrial plants in Jamshedpur produce?
Answer: Industrial plants produce chemicals, locomotive parts, agricultural equipment, machinery, tinplate, etc.

8. What is the link between the mines and the industry in Pittsburgh?
Answer: The Great Lakes of North America lie between the mines and industrial plant in Pittsburgh.

9. Name two natural fibres and two human-made fibres.
Answer: Two natural fibres: wool, silk. Two human-made fibres: nylon, polyester.

10. Give a reason for the fact that cotton textile industry in India could not compete with that in the West initially.
Answer: The production of hand woven cotton textile in India was expensive and time-consuming, so it could not compete with the Western standards.

11. What industries have started replacing the textile industry in Osaka?
Answer: Iron and steel, machinery, shipbuilding, automobiles, electrical equipment and cement industry have begun to replace the textile industry in Osaka.

12. Why is Bangalore called “Silicon Plateau”?
Answer: Bangalore is called Silicon Plateau because of the IT industry there, and the word “plateau” refers to the Deccan Plateau where it is located.

Short Answer Type Questions

1. Describe briefly the classification of industries on basis of raw material used.

Answer: On the basis of raw material used, industries are classified into agro, mineral, marine and forest-based. The raw material of agro-based industries consists of plant and animal based products. Some examples are food processing, cotton textile industry and leather industry. The raw material used in mineral- based industries consists of mineral ores. An example: iron and steel industry.

Marine-based industries use products obtained from the sea and oceans as raw materials. Sea food industry is one such industry.
A forest-based industry uses forest produce as raw material. Examples are paper industry and furniture.

2. Describe briefly the classification of industries on basis of ownership.

Answer: On the basis of ownership, industries are classified into private sector, state owned (public sector), joint sector and cooperative sector. Private sector industries are owned by individuals or a group of individuals. Public sector industries are owned by the government. Joint sector industries are owned and operated by the state and individuals. Maruti Udyog is an example of such an industry. Cooperative sector industries are owned and operated by the producers or-suppliers of raw materials, workers or both. AMUL is one such industry.

3. Describe the inputs, processes and outputs in an industrial system with an example.

Answer: An industrial system consists of inputs, processes and outputs. Raw materials, labour, costs, transport, power and infrastructure are inputs. In a cotton textile industry for example, inputs are cotton, human labour, transport cost, etc. Processes are activities done to convert raw material into finished products. In a cotton textile industry, ginning, spinning, weaving, dyeing, etc are processes. The finished product and all profits earned are the outputs. In a cotton textile industry, the outputs are clothes we wear.

4. Give examples of industrial regions in India and the world.

Answer: The major industrial areas of the world are eastern North America, western and central Europe, eastern Europe and eastern Asia. In India, major industrial regions are Mumbai-Pune cluster, Bangalore-Tamil Nadu region, Hugli region, Ahmedabad-Baroda region, Chhotanagpur industrial belt, Vishakhapatnam-Guntur Belt, Gurgaon-Delhi-Meerut region and the Kollam-Thiruvananthapuram industrial cluster.

5. Write the properties and significance of steel.

Answer: Steel has these properties: it is tough, it can easily be shaped (malleability), cut or made into wire (ductility). Adding certain other elements makes it harder, tougher, and rust-retention capability.

Steel is the backbone of modern industry. We use a lot of steel objects in daily life. Ships, trains and most other vehicles, tiny needles and safety pins, machinery and equipment, buildings, etc utilise steel as a main or sole constituent.

6. What factors supported Sakchi being chosen to set up the steel plant by TISCO?

Answer: Sakchi was chosen for various reasons. It was close to the Kalimati Railway Station. It was also close to iron ore, coal and manganese deposits. Kolkata, a source of large market, was not far away. Jharia coal fields, and limestone, dolomite, limestone and manganese from Orissa and Chhattisgarh were easily accessible. The nearby rivers (Kharkai and Subamarekha) provided sufficient water supply.

Long Answer Type Questions

1. Describe the cotton textile industry with special reference to its history and spread in India.

Answer: Cotton is a natural fibre crop. The cotton textile industry is the industry which involves in making clothes out of the fibre. It is one of the oldest industries of the world. India has a glorious history of producing excellent quality cotton textiles. The Muslins of Dhaka, Chintzes of Masulipatnam,

Calicos of Calicut and gold-wrought cotton of Burhanpur, Vadodara and Surat had world-famous quality and design. The traditional Indian cotton textile industry, however, could not compete with the Western textile mills, due to the high cost of the hand woven textile. The process involved, moreover, was time-consuming.

The first successful mechanised textile mill in India was established in Mumbai in 1854. The factors that led to the success were the warm and moist climate, the presence of a nearby port for importing machinery, the availability of raw material and skilled labour. Humidity was a main reason why the industry was initially limited to Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Today the industry has spread to various other parts of the country, due to the artificial production of humidity. The important cotton textile centres are in Coimbatore, Kanpur, Chennai, Ahmedabad, Mumbai, Kolkata, Ludhiana, Puducherry and Panipat.

2. Write short notes on (a) iron and steel industry in Pittsburgh and (b) cotton textile industry in Osaka.

Answer: (a) Pittsburgh is an important steel city in the USA. Most raw materials such as coal are available locally. Iron ore is brought from the iron mines in Minnesota. The shipping of ore is also a convenient pathway: the Great Lakes of North America. From the lakes to the industrial area, trains are there to carry the ore. Rivers like the Ohio, the Monogahela and the Allegheny provide adequate water supply.Finished steel is transported to the market by both land and water routes.

(b) Osaka is an important textile centre in Japan. It is called the “Manchester of Japan”. Like every important centre, geographical factors played an important role in the establishment of industry here. The plains around Osaka meant land was easily available for growth of cotton mills. Warm and humid climate is well suited to the spinning and weaving of cotton. The river Yodo provides adequate water supply. Easily available labour and location of port are also significant factors. The industry however depends completely on imports. The finished product is exported and is not very expensive.

Agriculture MCQ Questions Class 8 Social Science with Answers

Question. What is cultivation of grapes called’?
(a) Sericulture
(b) Viticulture
(c) Floriculture
(d) Horiculture

Answer : B

Question. Agriculture or farming can be looked at as a system. Which one among the following is not an important input of agriculture
(a) Profit
(b) Fertilisers
(c) Seeds
(d) Labour

Answer : A

Question. This type of farming is practiced in the arid and semi-arid regions of Sahara, Central Asia, and Rajasthan etc. Herdsmen move from place to place with their animals for fodder and water along defined routes due to climatic constraints and terrain. Which type of farming is being referred to?
(a) Plantation agriculture
(b) Shifting Cultivation
(c) Commercial Farming
(d) Nomadic Farming

Answer : D

Question. …………….. is also knowh as a paddy
(a) Wheat
(b) Jowar
(c) Rice
(d) Bajra

Answer : C

Question. Which type of soil is good for growing wheat?
(a) Desert
(b) Loamy
(c) Sandy
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question – Across the globe, more than ___% of people are engaged in agriculture
(a) 25
(b) 40
(c) 50
(d) 30

Answer : C

Question – Jhumming is practised in ____ India.
(a) North – East
(b) South
(c) West
(d) South- west\

Answer : A

Question. What is another name of shifting agriculture in Mexico?
(a) Ladang
(b) Milpa
(c) Jhumming
(d) Roca

Answer : B

Question . Which Of the following are primary activities?
(a)  Agriculture
(b)  Mining
(c) Fishing
(d) All of these

Answer : D

Question . Name the term given to the commercial rearing of silk worms to supplement the income of the farmer.
(a) Horticulture
(b) Viticulture
(c) Sericulture
(d) Pisciculture

Answer : C

Question. The word agriculture is derived from the Latin words ager or agri and Culture meaning Cultivation. What does the word agri literally mean?
(a) Natural resource
(b) Seeds
(c) Soil
(d) Product

Answer : C

Question . Which fibre requires frost free days to grow?
(a)  Cottoncorrect
(b) Jute
(c) Nylon
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question. Name the type of farming practiced to meet the needs of the farmer’s family i.e.
(a) Mixed Farming
(b) Subsistence Farming
(c) Commercial Farming
(d) Plantation agriculture

Answer : B

Question – Cultivation of grapes is defined as
(a) Horticulture
(b) Viticulture
(c) Sericulture
(d) Agriculture

Answer : B

Question . Name the type of farming practiced to meet the needs of the farmer’s family i.e.
(a) Mixed Farming
(b) Subsistence Farming
(c) Commercial Farming
(d) Plantation agriculture

Answer : B

Question – Growing flowers are identified under
(a) Horticulture
(b) Pisciculture
(c) Sericulture
(d) Viticulture

Answer : A

Question.What are tertiary activities?
(a) Provide support to only primary activities
(b) Provide support to primary and secondary activities
(c) Provide support to only secondary activities
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question . Which of these is not commercial farming?
(a) Commercial Grain
(b) Mixed
(c) Organic
(d) Plantation

Answer : C

Question – Nomadic Herding is practised in which of the following states
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Tamilnadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Telangana

Answer : A

Question – In India, wheat is grown during ____ season.
(a) Spring
(b) Autumn
(c) Winter
(d) Summer

Answer : C

Question. Commercial rearing of silk worms is known as
(a) pisciculture
(b) viticulture
(c) horticulture
(d) sericulture

Answer : D

Question. A few statements with respect to the farm in USA are given below. Pick out the one that is not True
(a) The farmer generally resides in the farm
(b) The farmer does not store the produce and sells even when the markets are not favorable to them.
(c) The average size of a farm in USA in much larger that that of an Indian farm is about 25 hectares.
(d) The farmer from time to time sends soil samples to the laboratory to check the nutrients

Answer : B

Question . Type of farming to meet family needs is known as:
(a) Subsistensecorrect
(b) Mixed
(c) Organic
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question . Pick out the approximate percentage of the world’s population engaged in agriculture
(a) 10 percent
(b) 50 percent
(c) 30 percent
(d) 70 percent

Answer : B

Question – _____ is one of the important inputs of farming.
(a) Fertilizers
(b) crops
(c) plain region
(d) fruits

Answer : A

Question – ______ is one of the crops grown under commercial farming.
(a) potato
(b) onion
(c) Wheat
(d) Tomato

Answer : C

Question – Growing ______ is a type of plantation.
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) coffee
(d) maize

Answer : C

Question. Name the term given to Growing of Vegetables flowers and fruits for commercial use.
(a) Pisciculture
(b) Horticulture
(c) Viticulture
(d) Sericulture

Answer : B

Question . Which of the following are coarse grains?
(a) Jowar
(b) Bajra
(c) Ragi
(d) All of these

Answer : D

Question . The word agriculture is derived from the Latin words ager or agri and Culture meaning Cultivation . What does the word agri literally mean?
(a) Natural resource
(b) Seeds
(c) Soil
(d) Product

Answer : C

Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions

1. What is the basic function of the three basic types of economic activities?
Answer: The three types of economic activities are involved in the transformation from a plant to a finished product.

2. What are tertiary activities?
Answer: Tertiary activities are those which provide support to primary and secondary activities.

3. In what sorts of areas are agricultural activities concentrated?
Answer: Agricultural activities are concentrated in those areas of the world which have suitable conditions of growing crops.

4. What is arable land?
Answer: The land on which crops are grown is called arable land.

5. How is subsistence farming classified?
Answer: Subsistence farming is classified into intensive and primitive subsistence agriculture.

6. In what sort of areas is nomadic herding practised?
Answer: Nomadic herding is practised in semi- arid and arid regions of Sahara, Central Asia and some parts of India.

7. Why is mixed farming called so?
Answer: In mixed farming the land is used for growing crops as well as rearing livestock.

8. What is the main feature of plantation agriculture?
Answer: In plantation agriculture only a single crop is grown.

9. What weather conditions are required in the growing and harvesting seasons of wheat?
Answer: In the growing season wheat requires moderate temperature and rainfall and in the harvesting season it needs bright sunshine.

10. Which two countries lead in the production of jute?
Answer: India and Bangladesh are the leading producers of jute.

Short Answer Type Questions

1. Write a short note on the types of economic activities. Give examples.

Answer: The three types of economic activities are primary, secondary and tertiary.

Primary Activities. Activities which involve direct extraction and production of natural resources are called primary activities. Examples: agriculture, fishing, mining.

Secondary Activities. Activities which are concerned with the processing of natural resources are called secondary activities. Examples: manufacturing of finished products.

Tertiary Activities. Activities which fall neither in the primary category nor the secondary category are called tertiary activities. They form a support to primary and secondary activities. Examples: selling goods, advertising and banking.

2. Name the inputs and outputs of agriculture in general. Also mention the various operations involved.

Answer: The inputs in agriculture are seeds, fertilisers, machinery, labour, etc. The operations involved in agriculture are ploughing, sowing, irrigation, weeding and harvesting. As outputs of the farming activity, a farmer gets crops, wool, dairy products and poultry products.

3. Explain shifting cultivation.

Answer: Shifting cultivation is a class of primitive subsistence agriculture. In this, a plot of land is cleared by the farmer. This is done by felling the trees and burning them. The ashes are then mixed with soil and crops are grown. After some time, the land is abandoned and the farmer moves to a different place. This type of farming is common in the thickly forested areas of the Amazon basin, tropical Africa, parts of south-east Asia and north-east India. It is also called “slash and burn” agriculture, because of the process of felling and burning the trees is involved.

4. Enlist the climate conditions required for the proper cultivation of rice. Mention the main regions of its production.

Answer: Rice is a major food crop in tropical and sub-tropical parts of the world. Its cultivation needs high temperature, high humidity and rainfall. Its growth is best in alluvial clayey soils, since they have water retention capacity. China and India are the leading producers in the world. In favourable climatic conditions, even two to three crops are grown in a year.

5. What do you understand by agricultural development?

Answer: Agricultural development refers to efforts made to increase production in farms so as to meet the ever growing demand of the population. The activities that come under this development are increasing the cropped area, growing more crops, improving irrigation, using fertilisers, sowing HYV (high-yielding variety) of seeds and by promoting mechanisation. Mechanisation ensures that little labour is done by the farmers; instead machines are used to provide efficiency.

Long Answer Type Questions

1. Describe subsistence farming and its types in detail.

Answer: The two main types of farming are: Subsistence farming and commercial farming.

Subsistence farming is practised solely to meet the needs of the farmer’s family. Therefore, the practices involved are usually old- fashioned. Use of modern technology is minimum and most work is done by household labour.

In intensive, subsistence agriculture, simple tools and huge labour are used by a farmer to cultivate a small plot of land. More than one crop is grown annually in favourable conditions. Rice is the major crop. This form of agriculture is seen in the thickly populated areas of the monsoon regions of south, south-east and east Asia. Shifting cultivation is a class of primitive subsistence agriculture. In this, a plot of land is cleared by felling the trees and burning them. The ashes are then mixed with soil and crops are grown. After some time, the land is abandoned and the farmers move to a different place. This type of farming is common in the thickly forested areas of the Amazon basin, tropical Africa, parts of south-east Asia and north-east India. It is also called “slash and burn” agriculture.

Nomadic herding refers to the practice in which herdsmen move from place to place with their animals for fodder and water. Animals usually reared are the yak, sheep, camel and goats.

2. Describe commercial farming and its types in detail.

Answer: Commercial farming is the practice in which crops are grown exclusively for commercial purpose, i.e., for sale in the market. A large area is cultivated and huge capital is involved unlike subsistence farming. Machines are used to a large extent.

Commercial grain farming is a class of commercial farming. Crops like wheat and maize are grown for commercial purpose. The temperate grasslands of North America, Europe and Asia are some common areas where it is seen.

Mixed farming is another type of commercial farming. The land is used for growing food and fodder crops and rearing livestock. Some areas where it is followed are Europe, eastern USA, Argentina, south-east Australia, New Zealand and South Africa. Plantations are a type of commercial farming where only a single crop (like tea, coffee, sugarcane, cashew, rubber, banana or cotton) is grown. Large amount of labour and capital are required. The produce is processed in the farm itself or nearby factories.

Mineral and Power Resources MCQ Questions Class 8 Social Science with Answers

Question.Why has quarrying become a major environmental concern?
(a) Because minerals are pollutants
(b) Due to dust raised from the quarrying activities
(c) Because it is done by displacing people
(d) None of these

Answer :  B

Question. The difference between tidal energy and wave energy is that
(a) Wave energy uses the gravitational pull of the Earth and moon to generate energy
(b) Tidal energy uses the kinetic force of waves to produce energy
(c) Tidal energy uses the gravitational pull of the Earth, moon, and sun to generate energy
(d) None of the above

Answer :  C

Question. Geothermal energy is the thermal energy present________.
(a) On the surface of the earth
(b) In the interior of the earth
(c) On the surface of the ocean
(d) None of the above

Answer :  B

Question .Which among the following is a leading producer of tin in the world?
(a) Indonesia
(b) Malaysia
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) China

Answer :  D

Question.Which one of the followings is not the way of saving energy at home?
(a) Switching off lights when not in use
(b) Keeping gas off when not in use
(c) Cooking food in an open pan on low flame
(d) Switching on lights during daytime

Answer :  C

Question. What is the name of the mineral that is extracted from Bauxite?
(a) Silver
(b) Manganese
(c) Aluminium
(d) Copper

Answer :  C

Question. A naturally occuring substance that has a definite chemical composition is a
(a) ore
(b) rock
(c) mineral
(d) copper

Answer :  C

Question.Which of the following are non-conventional resources?
(a) Wind energy
(b) Solar energy
(c) Tidal energy
(d) All of these

Answer :  D

Question.Gold is an example of minerals.
(a) ferrous
(b) non-ferrous
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer :  B

Question.Which is one of the deepest gold mine of the world?
(a) Kolar
(b) Jharia
(c) Raniganj
(d) Bikaner

Answer :  A

Question. The process of taking out minerals from rocks buried under the surface of the earth is named as
(a) mining
(b) pumping
(c) extracting
(d) None of the above

Answer :  A

Question.What are the fossil fuels?
(a) Fuels used for domestic purpose
(b) Fuel found in highly area
(c) Created by buried organism
(d) None of these

Answer :  C

Question.From which mineral is silicon obtained?
(a) Coal
(b) Bauxite
(c) Thorium
(d) Quartz

Answer :  D

Question. What is the process in which minerals lying near the surface are dug?
(a) Drilling
(b) Off-shore drilling
(c) Quarrying
(d) Extraction

Answer :  C

Question. Which one of the following countries in Europe has the largest deposits of iron?
(a) Portugal
(b) Russia
(c) Germany
(d) Hungary

Answer :  B

Question. Which is the rarest diamond on this earth?
(a) Black diamond
(b) Blue diamond
(c) Red diamond
(d) Green diamond

Answer :  D

Question. Which of the following countries do not have huge reserves of Petroleum and natural gas?
(a) Iran
(b) Iraq
(c) China
(d) Saudi Arabia

Answer :  C

Question. Minerals can be identified on the basis of their physical properties. Which one among the following is not a physical property with respect to the minerals?
(a) Colour
(b) Presence of Sulphides
(c) Hardness
(d) Density

Answer :  B

Question- Minerals found in ______ are not accessible.
(a) Greenland
(b) Serbia
(c) Antarctica
(d) Japan

Answer :  C

Question- Limestone is a ____ mineral.
(a) ferrous
(b) metallic
(c) non-metallic
(d) non – ferrous

Answer :  C

Question- ___ is found in China.
(a) Gold
(b) bauxite
(c) Antimony
(d) Copper

Answer :  C

Question- _____ is the largest producer of diamond among all continents.
(a) Asia
(b) South America
(c) Africa
(d) Australia

Answer : C

Question- _____ is an example of conventional energy sources.
(a) Firewood
(b) Technology
(c) iron
(d) Silver

Answer : A

Question- Gypsum is an example of _____ mineral.
(a) metallic
(b) ferrous
(c) non-metallic
(d) non-ferrous

Answer :  C

Question. ________is the extraction of valuable minerals or other geological materials from the earth.
(a) Mining
(b) Smelting
(c) Quarrying
(d) Excavating

Answer :  A

Question- To reach mineral deposits at great depths, deep bores have to be made. This process is called _____
(a) shaft mining
(b) drilling
(c) quarrying
(d) Open cast mining

Answer :  A

Question- ______ produces more than half of the world’s tin.
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Antarctica
(d) Europe

Answer :  B

Question. The National Metallurgical Laboratory of India located at____________.
(a) Jamshedpur
(b) Dhanbad
(c) Roorkee
(d) Ranchi

Answer :  A

Question. Give two examples of non- metallic mineral fuels from the options given below:
(a) Manganese Ore, Bauxite
(b) Gold, Silver
(c) Coal, Petroleum
(d) Iron Ore, Bauxite

Answer :  C

Question. Which of the following gas is present in large quantities of biogas?
(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Methane
(d) Oxygen

Answer :  C

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions

1. Differentiate between a rock and an ore.
Answer: A rock is an aggregate of one or more minerals. An ore is a rock from which minerals are mined.

2. Define quarrying.
Answer: Quarrying is a process of extraction in which minerals lying near the surface are simply dug out.

3. Name the leading tin producers in Asia.
Answer: China, Malaysia and Indonesia are leading tin producers in Asia.

4. Name two areas in Australia, which have large deposits of gold.
Answer: Two areas in Western Australia having large deposits of gold are Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie.

5. Name two minerals in whose production India contributes a significant part.
Answer: India has vast deposits of high grade iron ore, and it is also a leading producer of salt.

6. In which industry is silicon important? From which ore is it obtained?
Answer: Silicon is important in the computer industry. It is obtained from quartz.

7. Why are minerals considered non-renewable?
Answer: Minerals take thousands of years to form. The rate of formation is much smaller than rate of consumption. So, we classify them as non-renewable.

8. Why is coal called “buried sunshine”?
Answer: Coal is called “buried sunshine” because it is found buried under the earth, and is as important a source of energy as sunshine.

9. Why are petroleum and its derivatives called “black gold”?
Answer: Petroleum and its derivatives are black in colour but as valuable as gold, so we refer to it as “black gold”.

10. What is natural gas?
Answer: Natural gas is a fossil fuel obtained with petroleum deposits in oil fields.

11. Which was the first country to develop hydroelectricity?
Answer: Norway was the first country to develop hydroelectricity.

12. Name some important hydel power stations in India.
Answer: Bhakra Nangal, Gandhi Sagar, Nagaijunasagar and Damodar Valley Projects are important hydel power stations in India.

13. Name nuclear power stations in India.
Answer: Kalpakkam, Tarapur, Ranapratap Sagar, Narora and Kaiga are the nuclear power stations in India.

14. Give one advantage of biogas over natural gas.
Answer: Biogas is a renewable source of energy whereas the amount of natural gas is limited.

Short Answer Type Questions

1. Name and describe briefly methods of extraction.

Answer: Mining, drilling and quarrying are methods of extraction. Mining is a process of extraction of taking out minerals from rocks under the earth’s surface.
Open cast mining: In this, minerals lying at shallow depths are taken out by removing the surface layer.

Shaft mining: In this, deep bores (called shafts) are made to reach mineral deposits lying at large depths. Drilling: In this, deep wells are bored to take out minerals.
Quarrying: It is the process of extraction in which minerals lying veiy close to the surface are extracted just by digging them out.

2. Where are minerals found?

Answer: Minerals are found in different types of rocks. Metallic minerals are usually found in igneous and metamorphic rocks that form large plateaus. Examples: iron ore is found in north Sweden, copper and nickel in Canada. In igneous and metamorphic rocks in South Africa, iron, nickel, chromites and platinum are found. Non-metallic minerals are found in sedimentary rock formations. Limestone deposits are found in France. Mineral fuels such as coal and petroleum are found in sedimentary strata.

3. Describe the mineral distribution in North America.

Answer: The mineral deposits in North America are found in three zones: the Canadian region in the north of the Great Lakes, the Appalachian region and the Rocky Mountains in the West. Iron ore, nickel, gold, uranium and copper are mined in the Canadian Shield Region, coal in the Appalachian region. Western Cordilleras have vast deposits of copper, lead, zinc, gold and silver.

4. Write common uses of minerals.

Answer: Minerals are important in many industries. Minerals used in gems are usually very hard. These are then set in varying styles of jewellery. Iron and copper are metals used in almost everything. Copper is present in everything from coins to pipes and electricity wires. Silicon, obtained from the mineral quartz, is the base of computer industry. Aluminium, obtained from bauxite ore, and its alloys are used in aeroplanes due to their light weight. Aluminium is also used in kitchen cookware.

5. How is hydroelectricity, produced?

Answer: Hydroelectricity is produced from the energy possessed by water falling from great heights. River water is stored in dams. When rain water or river water falls from heights, it flows over turbine blades placed at the bottom of the dam. The moving blades are connected to a generator which produces electricity from this energy. This electricity is called hydroelectricity. The water discharged after its production is used for irrigation.

Long Answer Type Questions

 1. Name and describe some non- conventional sources of energy.

Answer: Non-conventional power sources are those power sources that have come into use recently due to the depleting conventional resources and growing awareness. Solar energy, wind energy, geothermal energy, nuclear power and tidal energy are examples of non- conventional power sources.

Solar energy is the heat and light energy captured from the sun. Solar cells help to convert this energy to electricity. Solar energy is used in solar heaters, solar cookers, solar dryers, etc.

Wind energy is the energy possessed by moving air (wind). Windmills are used to convert wind energy to electricity. Wind farms having clusters of windmills located in coastal regions and mountain passes.

Nuclear power is energy possessed by the nuclei of atoms of naturally occurring radioactive elements like uranium-, thorium, etc.

Geothermal energy is the heat energy obtained from the inside of the earth. The temperature inside the earth increases as we go deeper. This heat is used to produce electricity. It is accessed in the form of hot springs. Tidal energy is the energy generated from tides. It is harnessed by building dams at narrow openings of the sea. Biogas is a gaseous fuel obtained from the decomposition of organic waste like dead plant and animal material or animal dung and kitchen waste. It is an excellent fuel for cooking and lighting, and is environment-friendly.

2. Write the advantages and disadvantages of non-conventional sources of energy.
Answer:
Advantages:

• Non-conventional sources of energy are usually inexhaustible. They do not pollute the environment.
• Nuclear power is emitted in large amounts.
• Most non-conventional sources of energy cost less.
• These forms of energy are safe to use and clean.

Disadvantages:

• Wind mills are costly to set up. So using them to harness wind energy is costly, even though the electricity generated from it is cheap.
• Setting up windmills disturbs radio and TV broadcast.
• Harnessing tidal energy destroys natural habitats of wildlife.
• Moreover, tidal energy is difficult to harness.
• Obtaining nuclear energy from radioactive material generates radioactive waste. It is expensive too.
• Biogas, although useful and renewable, contributes to greenhouse effect.

Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources MCQ Questions Class 8 Social Science with Answers

Question. In which of the following continents is Tanzania situated?
(a) Europe
(b) Asia
(c) Africa
(d) South America

Answer :   C

Question. The main reason for land degradation in Uttar Pradesh is__________.
(a) Mining
(b) Excessive irrigation
(c) Salinity
(d) Dense population

Answer :   B

Question.Large scale destruction of forests cover and arable land has occured due to the following:
(a) Growing population
(b) Ever growing demand of the population
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer :   C

Question. What is a biosphere reserve?
(a) Protected area linked through global network
(b) Land use for production
(c) Farmers Land
(d) None of these

Answer :   A

Question.Peter belongs to which country?
(a) India
(b) USA
(c) Germany
(d) New Zealand

Answer :   D

Question. Choose the correct option to complete the sentences given below: Which one is not the Atmosphere layer?
(a) The Biosphere
(b) The Troposphere
(c) The Stratosphere
(d) The Mesosphere

Answer :   A

Question.Which of the following is a famous bird sanctuary?
(a) Kaziranga National Park
(b) Tiger Park at Dudhwa
(c) Gir forest
(d) Bharatpur Sanctuary

Answer :   D

Question. The example of common property resource is
(a) community landcorrect
(b) individual building
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer :   A

Question. Which of the following is used of soil conservation?
(a) Mulching
(b) Shelter belts
(c) Contour ploughing
(d) All of these

Answer :   D

Question. Which one of the following is not a biosphere reserve?
(a) Dachigam
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Nanda Devi
(d) Sundarban

Answer :   A

Question. A few physical factors that determine the use of land are given below. Pick out the one that is not a physical factor
(a) Availability of capital
(b) Minerals and Availability of Water
(c) Topography and Soil
(d) Climate

Answer :   A

Question. is the use of land for different purposes like agriculture, forestry, mining, construction of buildings, houses, industries and road.
(a) Land degradation
(b) Land use
(c) Landfilling
(d) Land digging

Answer :   B

Question. 90% of the total world population resides in ……………… of the land area.
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%

Answer :  C

Question. What determines the thickness of the soil profile?
(a) Time
(b) Climate
(c) Relief
(d) Formation

Answer :   A

Question- How much percent of earth’s area is occupied by land?
(a) 45
(b) 30
(c) 66
(d) 70

Answer :   B

Question. Why is it necessary to increase the area under forests?
(a) To maintain ecological balance
(b) Forest absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere
(c) Forest help in raising the level of precipitation
(d) All of these

Answer :   D

Question- The type of soil is determined by
(a) landforms
(b) soil erosion
(c) water sources
(d) Globalisation

Answer :   A

Question. Natural Vegetation and wildlife exist only in the narrow zone called ………………
(a) Lithosphere
(b) Hydrosphere
(c) Atmosphere
(d) Biosphere

Answer :   D

Question. What percentage of the total area of the earth?s surface is covered by the most important natural resource Land?
(a) About 20 %
(b) About 30 %
(c) About 40 %
(d) About 70 %

Answer :   B

Question- Mass movement of rocks down the hills could be a sign of
(a) Landslides
(b) Floods
(c) Deforestation
(d) Weathering

Answer :   A

Question. Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
(a) Intensive cultivation
(b) Deforestation
(c) Over irrigation
(d) Overgrazing

Answer :    C

Question- Overgrazing is responsible for causing
(a) soil depletion
(b) Floods
(c) earthquake
(d) andslide

Answer :   A

Question. Trees in these ……………… shed their leaves in a particular season in order to conserve loss of moisture through transpiration: (select the incorrect one)
(a) Evergreen Forests
(b) Tundra
(c) Deforestation
(d) Deciduous Forests

Answer :   D

Question. What does the term Land degradation refer to?
(a) Decline in the use of fertilizers
(b) The decline in the productivity of cultivated land or forest land
(c) Presence of rocks and minerals in the soil
(d) The slope of the land

Answer :   B

Question- The evaporation of water takes place due to
(a) Nitrogen Cycle
(b) Water Cycle
(c) Cooling of Ice
(d) Floods

Answer :   B

Question- Low-lying areas are susceptible to
(a) water logging
(b) landslides
(c) illegal mining
(d) Weathering

Answer :   A

Question- ____ is one of the ways to prevent soil erosion.
(a) Trees cutting
(b) clearing of forest for agriculture
(c) Counter ploughing
(d) building dams

Answer :   C

Question. It is the uppermost layer, Rich in humus & minerals and Consists of Sand, Silt & Clay.
(a) Sub Soil
(b) Top Soil
(c) Alluvial Soil
(d) Black Soil

Answer :   B

Question.What percentage of the total area of the earth’s surface is covered by the most important natural resource Land?
(a) About 20 %
(b) About 30 %
(c) About 40 %
(d) About 70 %

Answer :   B

Question. Name the term that can be given to Land that is suitable for crop production.
(a) Untilled Land
(b) Pasture Land
(c) Forest Land
(d) Arable Land

Answer :   D

class 8th Geography Chapter 2 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions

1. What are the possible reasons behind the uneven distribution of population around the world?
Answer: The reasons behind uneven population distribution are mainly the varied conditions of land and climate.

2. Give three common forms of land use.
Answer: Three common land use forms are: (i) As cropland (ii) Pasture (iii) Forests.

3. What human factors determine land use pattern?
Answer: Human factors affecting land use pattern are population and technology.

4. Define soil.
Answer: The thin layer of grainy substance covering the surface of the earth is called soil.

5. What is required to make soil fertile?
Answer: The right mix of minerals and organic matter is needed to make soil fertile.

6. What is parent rock?
Answer: The rock from which soil is derived is called parent rock.

7. What are the factors threatening soil as a resource?
Answer: Two factors that threaten soil as a resource are soil erosion and its depletion.

8. What method of soil conservation may be used in coastal and dry regions?
Answer: Shelter belts are used to protect the soil in coastal and dry regions.

9. Why is the earth called the “water planet”?
Answer: The earth’s surface has about three- fourths water, so it is called “water planet”.

10. In what forms is fresh water found on the earth?
Answer: Fresh water is found in the forms of groundwater, water in rivers and lakes and as water vapour.

11. What is the name given to the process involved in rain formation?
Answer: The process involved in the formation of rain is called “water cycle”.

12. Name some regions of water scarcity in the world.
Answer: Africa, West Asia, South Asia, parts of western USA, northwest Mexico, parts of South America and Australia face water scarcity.

13. Name a method to save surface run-off.
Answer: Water harvesting is a method to save surface run-off.

14. How is a bird like vulture important for the ecosystem?
Answer: A vulture feeds on dead livestock and so it cleanses the environment.

15. What is the distinguishing feature between evergreen and deciduous forests?
Answer: Evergreen forests never shed their leaves whereas deciduous forests shed their leaves once a year.

16. What is the Vanamahotsava?
Answer: The social programme of planting trees, organised at community level is called vanamahotsava.

Short Answer Type Questions

1. How is land being degraded? Suggest methods to conserve land resource.

Answer: The ever-growing population has increased demand for living space, due to which forests are being destroyed, thus causing land degradation. The rate of degradation of land resources can be checked by promoting afforestation, land reclamation, regulated use of chemical pesticide and fertilizers and checking overgrazing.

2. What is weathering?

Answer: Weathering refers to the breaking up and decay of exposed rocks. This breaking up and decay is caused by temperature fluctuations between too high and too low, frost action, plants, animals and even human activity. Weathering is the major process involved in the formation of soil. It takes millions of years to form soil by this process.

3. How is water an important resource?

Answer: Water is an indispensable resource of life. Firstly water serves the most basic purpose of drinking, without which life is impossible. It is helpful in cleaning our bodies, clothes and utensils. Farmers depend on water for irrigation. Water is also used in cooking food. Water is a source of electricity as well. Plants require water for their growth. Water is required for various industrial purposes in factories.

4. Write a short note on wildlife.

Answer: The animal kingdom, which consists of animals, birds, aquatic creatures and insects, is called wildlife. These creatures provide us various important products such as milk, meat, hides and wool. Bees give us honey and help in pollination. They play the role of decomposers in the environment. Birds like the vulture are scavengers and they help in cleansing the environment. All forms of wildlife are an integral part of our ecosystem.

5. What are the major types of vegetation in the world? Describe vegetation in different rainfall conditions.

Answer: The major types of vegetation in the world are grouped as forests, grasslands, scrubs and tundra.” In areas of heavy rain, huge trees can be found. Forests are abundant in areas of heavy rainfall. With moisture and rainfall the density of forests declines. In moderate rainfall areas, grasslands are found. In dry areas we find thorny shrubs and scrubs. Plants here have deep roots and leaves have thorny surface to reduce loss of moisture. The tundra vegetation consists of mosses and lichens.

Long Answer Type Questions:

1. Describe methods of soil conservation.

Answer: Some common methods of soil conservation are mentioned below: Mulching. Mulching is the process of covering the bare ground between plants with a layer of organic matter like straw. It contributes in retaining soil moisture.
Terrace Farming. Terrace farming is the method of farming in which broad flat steps or terraces are made on the steep slopes so that flat surfaces are available to grow crops 4 They reduce run-off and soil erosion. 

Intercropping: In intercropping, different crops are grown in alternate rows and are sown at different times to protect the soil from being washed away by rain.

Contour Ploughing: Ploughing parallel to the contours of a hill slope to form a natural barrier for water to flow down a slope is called contour ploughing.

Shelter Belts: Rows of trees that are planted in certain areas to check wind movement are called shelter belts. Contour Barriers. Stones, grass and soil are used to build barriers along contours. Trenches are made in front of the barriers to collect water.

Rock Dams: This prevents gullies and further soil loss since rocks are piled up to slow down the flow of water. 

2. What is the threat to vegetation and wildlife? What is the need to conserve them? How can we do this? [V. Imp.]

Ans. Forests and wildlife are an important resource. Climate change and human interference in the animal kingdom can cause loss of natural habitat for plants and animals. Certain species have become endangered and many have become extinct now. Poaching incidents contribute to their extinction. Plants and animals are an important part of the ecosystem. Plants provide food, oxygen and shelter to humans and animals.

Animals provide us important products such as milk, meat, honey, etc. There exists a balance in the environment if we do not disturb the natural number of species living on the earth. A single extinction can affect the ecosystem badly. So animals and plants obviously need to be conserved. The government has introduced national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserves for this purpose. Poaching should be severely dealt with. Indiscriminate killings need to be discouraged. Social awareness must be created about importance of trees, social forestry. Students should be involved in vanmahotsavas at regional and community levels. 

Resources MCQ Questions Class 8 Social Science with Answers

Question. Which of the regions in India does not produce Natural gas?
(a) Krishna Godavari delta
(b) Jaisalmer in Rajasthan
(c) Digboi in Assam
(d) b and c both

Answer :  C

Question. Which of these have economic value?
(a) Landscape
(b) Home remedies
(c) Metals
(d) None of these

Answer :  C

Question. The organic waste is decomposed by bacteria in bio-gas digesters to emit biogas, which is essentially a mixture of?
(a) Methane and Ethane
(b) Methane and Oxygen
(c) Methane and Hydrogen.
(d) Methane and Carbon Dioxide

Answer :  D

Question. Which of these have some utility?
(a) Water
(b) electricity
(c) Vegetables
(d) All of these

Answer :  D

Question. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Smelting?
(a) Smelting is the process in which metals are extracted from their ores by cooling below the boiling point.
(b) Smelting is the process in which metals are extracted from their ores by heating beyond the melting point.
(c) Smelting is the process of producing refined goods.
(d) Smelting is the major process used in Nuclear Reactors.

Answer :  B

Question. Dark soils of the Deccan plateau in Maharashtra is a good example of ____________
(a) Renewable Resources
(b) Actual Resources
(c) Potential Resources
(d) Human made Resources

Answer :  B

Question. Which of the following combinations is wrong?
(a) Petroleum – Bombay High, Basein, Digboi, Ankaleshwar
(b) Cement – Katni,Lakheri, Jabalpur, Guntur
(c) Manganese – Orissa
(d) Uranium – Bihar

Answer :  C

Question. Resources used carefully and giving them time to get renewed is called
(a) resource depletion
(b) resource conservationcorrect
(c) resource pollution
(d) none of these

Answer :  B

Question. The rich deposit of coal in Ruhr region of which country.
(a) India
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) U.S.A

Answer :  C

Question. Name the term that can collectively refer to consist of all living and nonliving things that surround an organism.
(a) Environment
(b) Stock
(c) Value
(d) Resource

Answer :   A

Question. Which of the following explains the importance of shelter belts?
(a) Shelter belts are flat steps made on the steep slopes
(b) Shelter belts are rows of trees planted in coastal or dry regions to check wind movement to protect soil cover.
(c) Shelter belts are water harvesting structures in dry areas.
(d) Shelter belts are rows of trees planted to protect the soil from rain wash.

Answer :  B

Question.The resources whose quantities are known, named as
(a) potential resources
(b) actual resources
(c) stock
(d) all of these

Answer :  B

Question. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about minerals?
(a) They are created by natural processes
(b) They have a definite chemical composition
(c) They are inexhaustible
(d) Their distribution is uneven

Answer :  C

Question. From the given list of options, which one can be considered as an example of a Natural Resource?
(a) Railway Tracks
(b) Bridges
(c) Sunlight
(d) Roads

Answer :  C

Question. Which one of the following is a human made resource?
(a) Medicines to treat cancer
(b) Spring water
(c) Tropical forest

Answer :  A

Question. Nitrogen fixation can be done by
(a) Industries
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Lightening
(d) All of the above

Answer :  D

Question. The basis of classification of resources are
(a) level of development and use
(b) origin
(c) stock and distribution
(d) all of these

Answer :  D

Question. Balancing the needs to use resources and also conserve them for future generation is called
(a) development
(b) devaluation
(c) sustainable development
(d) all of these

Answer :  C

Question. Petroleum found in the West Asian areas is a good example of ____________.
(a) Renewable Resources
(b) Actual Resources
(c) Human made Resources
(d) Potential Resources

Answer :  B

Question- The resources which can be used directly without any modification are called _____
(a) Non-renewable resources
(b) Natural resources
(c) Sustainable resources
(d) Both B and C

Answer :  B 

Question- When natural substances change form to become resources, they are called
(a) Renewable resources
(b) Non – renewable resources
(c) Human – made resources
(d) Conservative Resources

Answer :  C

Question. Find any one among the following which is considered as an important factor that can change substances into resources.
(a) Technology
(b) Stock
(c) Distribution
(d) Origin

Answer :  A

Question. Resources created by human beings are called ………………
(a) Natural Resource
(b) Useful Resource
(c) Industrial Resource
(d) Man Made Resource

Answer :  D

Question4. Resources drawn from nature and used without much modification are called
(a) human made resources
(b) natural resourcescorrect
(c) cultural resources
(d) none of these

Answer :  B

Question- Sustainable Development is
(a) A right Balance between use of resources and conservation of resources
(b) Allow the resources to be renewed
(c) Promote recycling of technological devices
(d) Allow clearing of forests to construct apartments

Answer :  A

Question- The number and ability of people is usually referred as
(a) Human resources
(b) Stock of resources
(c) Natural resources
(d) Renewable resources

Answer :  A

Question. The number of resources available for use are called
(a) Conservative resources
(b) Stock of resources
(c) Sustainable resources
(d) Man-made resources

Answer :  B

Question- Improving the quality of human lives is an example of
(a) Stock of resources
(b) Human resources
(c) Sustainable development
(d) Utility

Answer :  C

Question. Give an example of biotic resources.
(a) rocks
(b) minerals
(c) soils
(d) animals

Answer :  D

Question. Which one of the following is not a “Value”?
(a) Aesthetic Value
(b) Economic Value
(c) Artistic Value
(d) Ethical Value

Answer :  C

Question. Atmosphere maintain the temperature of earth because
(a) It contains water vapor
(b) It hold air, which is bad conductor of heat
(c) It reflects the heat rays
(d) It absorbs the heat rays

Answer :  B

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions

1: What is the condition for a substance to be called a resource?
Answer: A substance needs to have some utility to be called a resource.

2: What do you understand by the word “utility”?
Answer: If a substance can be used in any way, it is said to have a utility.

3: What are natural resources?
Answer:  Resources that are drawn directly from nature are called natural resources.

4: What is the name given to the type of resources that have limited stock?
Answer: The resources having limited stock are called non-renewable resources.

5: How are resources classified according to their distribution?
Answer: On the basis of their distribution, resources are classified into ubiquitous and localized.

6: Give three examples of abiotic resources.
Answer: Air, land, soils.

7: How are human-made resources different from natural resources?
Answer: Human-made resources have been created by human beings, whereas natural resources are provided by nature.

8: What is human resource development?
Answer: Improving the quality of human skills in order to make them more useful is called human resource development.

Short Answer Type Questions

1: Define resource conservation.

Answer: Resource conservation is the cautious use of the natural resources and giving them time to get renewed. In short, resource conservation implies saving resources for the future generation.

2: Human resources are an important entity, why?

Answer: Human resources refer to people and their contributions. Human resources are important as they are skilled to be able to make the best use of nature in order to enhance the existing resources and also create more resources using the knowledge and technology that they possess. Hence, human resources are considered highly significant.

3: Explain the terms resource conservation and sustainable development.

Answer: Resource conservation is the concept of using resources carefully so that they do not end up quickly. The future generations also need the resources, but if we keep using them at a fast pace, they may end up, thus posing problems for the future. We should use resources in such a balanced way that we satisfy our needs as well as conserve them for future. This concept is called sustainable development.

4: Why are human being resources?

Answer: Human beings are intelligent living beings. They can use their intelligence to realize the utility of substances. Had there been no humans, the resources would not have been resources. Human beings are interdependent on each other, and they prove useful to each other. For example, a postman renders us an important service, so he is a resource.

5: Explain how resources are classified broadly.

Answer: Resources are broadly classified into natural, human-made and human. Natural resources are those that are taken from nature. They are used without modifying them, i.e., in the same form as they exist in. Rivers, lakes, air, soils, minerals, trees, mountains, etc. are natural resources. Human-made resources have not been provided to us by nature. Human beings have used their intelligence to manufacture them for their own use. Examples include vehicles, buildings, roads, telephone, etc.
Human resources include people who serve us in any way. A teacher, doctor, carpenter, cobbler, etc. are human resources.

6: Write a short note on the significance of time and technology in making a substance a resource.

Answer: Time and technology are important factors in making substances resources. With time, technology develops. As technology develops, we begin to discover new ways to make life better. In this process, certain substances which were useless to us earlier become useful. An invention and discovery gives us new resources. An example is hydroelectricity. This technology has made water a source of electricity.

7: As human beings, how can we ensure sustainable development?

Answer: Since we live on the earth, it is our duty to practice sustainable development. We can do this by ensuring that:
(a) The usage of renewable resources is sustainable,
(b) The diversity of life on earth is maintained,
(c) The damage caused to nature by our activities is as low as possible.

Long Answer Type Questions

1: What is a resource? What are the criteria (requirements) for any substance to become a resource?

Answer: All those substances which have some utility or usability are resources for us.
The different criteria required for anything to be resource for us are:
(i) Utility or usability
(ii) Economic value or any other value
(iii) Time and technology inherent, which can make the substance important for present or future requirements of the people. For example: Discovery of fire led to the practice of cooking, Invention of wheel ultimately resulted in the development of newer modes of transport etc.

2: Explain the different types of resources.

Answer: In general there are three types of resources: Natural, Human – made, and Human.

(i) Natural Resources:
Resources that are drawn from nature and used without much modification are called Natural Resources. For example: Air we breathe, Water in well, Rivers and Lakes, Soil, Minerals etc. Natural resources are further divided into various types such as Actual, Potential, Abiotic, Biotic, Renewable, Non-renewable, Ubiquitous and Localized resources.

(ii) Human – Made Resources:
Such resources which have been changed from their original form by human effort are called as Human – Made Resources. For example: Buildings, Roads, Bridges etc. Technology is also an important example of Human – Made Resources.

(iii) Human Resources:
People are the greatest resource of the nation. All other resources of nature become significant only when people extract its usefulness. It is people with their demands and abilities that turn them into resources. Hence, human resource is the ultimate resource.

4: How do we classify natural resources on the basis of their stock?

Answer: On the basis of stock natural resources are further classified or subdivided into Renewable and Non-renewable types.

Renewable Resources: These are the resources which do not depend on the human consumption. These resources get renewed with the use of Human. But there are some kind of renewable resources which are affected with human consumption such as water, soil and forest. Other examples of renewable resources are solar and wind energy.

Non-Renewable Resources: These resources have a limited stock in the nature and may take thousands of years to get renewed. Since this period is much more than human life spans, so, they are called Non-Renewable Resources. For example, coal deposits, petroleum deposits etc. 

5: What do you understand by sustainable development? Also mention its basic principles.

Answer: Balancing the need to use resources and also conserve them for the future is called sustainable development. In other words, Carefully, utilizing resources so that besides meeting the present requirements it also takes care of the need of future generation is known as sustainable development. The basic principles of sustainable development are given below:

1. Respect and care for all forms of life.
2. Improve the quality of human life.
3. Conserve the earth’s vitality and diversity.
4. Minimise the depletion of natural resources.
5. Change personal attitude and practices towards the environment.
6. Enable communities to care for their own environment.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 History: Colonialism and the City

1. Which building was made of red stone near Delhi, which was built as a palace fort in Shajahanabad, also a residence of Mughal emperors of India?

(a) Lal Darwaza

(b) Kotla Ferozabad

(c) Begampuri Masjid

(d) Red Fort

► (d) Red Fort

2. In which year did Delhi became the capital of British India ?

(a) 1911

(b) 1931

(c) 1941

(d) 1947

► (a) 1911

3. Which was the most splendid capital built by Shah Jahan?

(a) Machilpatnam

(b) Seringaptanam

(c) Shajahanabad

(d) Surat

► (c) Shajahanabad

4. Before Delhi was made the cpaital of India, which was the other city that was the capital of British India ?

(a) Madras

(b) Calcutta

(c) Kanpur

(d) Bombay

► (b) Calcutta

5. After 1857 for how many years no worship was not allowed ?

(a) 5

(b) 8

(c) 10

(d) 20

► (a) 5

6. From the following options, which one refer to De-urbanisation ?

(a) Migration of people from an urban area for economic or social reasons.

(b) The veto power of the administration in times of emergency .

(c) Introduction of English education

(d) A feeling of unity among the people

► (a) Migration of people from an urban area for economic or social reasons.

7. Long ago, how many capital cities were founded in a small area on the left bank of river Jamuna ?

(a) 10

(b) 14

(c) 25

(d) 30

► (b) 14

8. From the following list of options, what is a Street with a dead end called?

(a) Cul-de-sac

(b) Khangah

(c) Dargah

(d) Idgah

► (a) Cul-de-sac

9. A Sufi lodge often used as a rest house for travellers and a place where people come to discuss spiritual matters, get the blessings of saints and hear sufi music. What is this place called?

(a) Cul-de-sac

(b) Idgah

(c) Khangah

(d) Dargah

► (c) Khangah

10. Which were the three important Presidency regions set up by the British for administrative purposes?

(a) Bombay, Madras and Bengal

(b) Bombay, Madras and Delhi

(c) Delhi, Travancore and Seringapatnam

(d) Delhi, Bombay and Bengal

► (a) Bombay, Madras and Bengal

11. What is an open prayer place of Muslims meant for Id prayers called?

(a) Idgah

(b) Khangah

(c) Cul-de-sac

(d) Dargah

► (a) Idgah

12. From the list of options given below, which cities were de-urbanised during the 19th century?

(a) Machalipatnam, Surat, Vishakhapatnam

(b) Machalipatnam, Surat, Seringapatnam

(c) Bombay, Surat, Calcutta

(d) Vishakapatnam, Surat, Seringapatnam

► (b) Machalipatnam, Surat, Seringapatnam

13. What term from the list given bolow can be given to the rebirth of art and living. It is often described as a period of high creativity.

(a) De-urbanisation

(b) Urbanisation

(c) Globalisation

(d) Renaissance

► (d) Renaissance

14. Name the mosque converted into a bakery by the British ?

(a) Moth Ki Masjid

(b) Jama Masjid

(c) Zinat-al-Masjid

(d) Fathehpuri Masjid

► (c) Zinat-al-Masjid

15. What is the tomb of a Sufi saint called?

(a) Dargah

(b) Idgah

(c) khanqah

(d) Cul-de-sac

► (a) Dargah

16. What is the importance of Jama Masjid, situated in Delhi?

(a) The office of archeological survey of India

(b) One of the important residences of the Mughal emperors of India

(c) One of the largest and grandest mosques in India

(d) The office of the electorate of India

► (c) One of the largest and grandest mosques in India

17. Complete the following. In the late 18th century, Calcutta, Bombay and ______________ rose in importance as Presidency cities and were the centres of British power

(a) Hyderabad

(b) Nagpur

(c) Madras

(d) Kanpur

► (c) Madras

18. Where did the British exile Bahdadur Shah Zafar to ?

(a) Sril Lanka

(b) China

(c) Burma

(d) Pakistan

► (c) Burma

19. The streets of Delhi aren’t mere streets, they are the album of a painter. Name the poet who wrote these words.

(a) Mirza Ghalib

(b) Kabir Das

(c) Mir Taqi Mir

(d) Sur Das

► (c) Mir Taqi Mir

20. Complete the following. After defeating the ____________, British gained controlof Delhui in 1803.

(a) Mauryans

(b) Pandyas

(c) Marathas

(d) Cheras

► (c) Marathas

Colonialism and the City Extra Questions Class 8 History

Chapter 6 Colonialism and the City Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs):

1. Name the cities that were de-urbanised in the 19th century.

Answer

Surat, Machlipatnam and Seringapatam.

2. Why was a durbar held in Delhi in 1911?

Answer

In 1911, when King George V was crowned in England, a durbar was held in Delhi to celebrate the occasion.

3. Where did British live in the 1870s?

Answer

British lived in the sprawling Civil Lines area that came up in the north.

4. What is Kingsway known now?

Answer

It is now known as Rajpath.

5. Why were the main streets of Chandni Chowk and Faiz Bazar made broad?

Answer

They were made broad for royal processions to pass.

6. What was meant by de-urbanisation during the nineteenth century?

Answer

De-urbanisation was the process by which earlier centres of regional power collapsed with the defeat of the local leaders by the British and new centres of administration emerged.

7. What jobs did the new migrants coming to Delhi take up?

Answer

They took up jobs as hawkers, vendors, carpenters and ironsmiths.

8. What did the Census of 1931 reveal?

Answer

The Census of 1931 revealed that the Walled City area was thickly populated with as many as 90 persons per acre, while New Delhi had only about 3 persons per acre.

9. Why was the Viceroy’s Palace higher than Shah Jahan’s Jama Masjid?

Answer

The Viceroy’s Palace was higher than Shah Jahan’s Jama Masjid in order to establish British importance.

10. What were havelis?

Answer

Havelis were grand mansions in which the Mughal aristocracy in the 17th and 18th century lived.

11. Why were the Shahjahani drains closed at the end of the nineteenth century?

Answer

At the end of the 19th century, the Shahjahani drains were closed as because they could not serve the needs of the rapidly increasing population.

12. Why did Machlipatnam lose its importance as a port-town by the late 18th century?

Answer

It was because the British shifted their trade to the new ports of Bombay, Madras and Calcutta.

13. When did the city of Bombay begin to grow?

Answer

The city of Bombay began to grow when the East India Company started using Bombay as its main port in western India.

14. How did the British gain control of Delhi?

Answer

The British gained control of Delhi after defeating the Marathas in 1803.

Chapter 6 Colonialism and the City Short Answer Questions (SAQs):

1. Mention three difference in the city design of New Delhi and Shahjahanabad?

Answer

Three differences in the city design of New Delhi and Shahjahanabad were:

• Shahjahanabad was honibly-crowded with a number of mohallas and bazaars. There were several narrow streets, but New Delhi was not crowded at. There were broad, straight streets lined with sprawling mansions set in the middle of large compounds.

• Shahjahanabad was built in an unplanned manner the over crowded spaces were unhygienic and unhealthy. There was no proper arrangement for sewage disposal. Drainage facilities were also not good. But the city of New Delhi was well- planned. It was clean and healthy. It had better water supply, sewage disposal and drainage facilities than the city of Shahjahanabad.

• The environment of Shahjahanabad was to chaotic. But New Delhi represented a sense of law and order.

2.  Describe the main features of Shahjahanabad, built by Shah Jahan.

Answer

• Shahjahanabad, that was began in 1639, consisted of a fort-palace complex and the city adjoining it. Lai QUa or the Red Fort contained the palace complex. To its west lay the Walled City with 14 gates.

• The main streets of Chandni Chowk and Faiz Bazaar were broad enough for royal processions to pass. A canal ran down the centre of Chandni Chowk.

• The Jama Masjid was among the largest and grandest mosques in India. There was no place higher than this mosque within the city.

3. What happened to Delhi after 1857?

Answer

During the Revolt of 1857, the rebels gathered in the Delhi and captured it under the leadership of the Mughal emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar. Delhi remained under the control of the rebels for four months.

When the British recaptured Delhi, they embarked on a campaign of revenge and plunder. The British forces began wrecking vengeance on the streets of Delhi, massacring the rebels. To prevent another rebellion, the British exiled Bahadur Shah to Burma, dismantled his court, razed several of the places, closed down gardens and built barracks for troops in their place.

4. Why was the Delhi Improvement Trust set up?

Answer

The Delhi Improvement Trust built areas like Daryaganj south for wealthy Indians. Houses were grouped around parks within the houses, space was divided according to new rules of privacy. Instead of spaces being shared by many families or groups, now different members of the same family had their own private spaces within the home.

5. Describe the main features of the colonial bungalow.

Answer

The main features of the colonial bungalow:

• It was meant for one nuclear family.

• It was a large single-storyed structure with a pitched roof and usually set in one or two acres of open ground.

• It had separate living and dinning rooms and bedrooms and a wide verandah running in the fronts and sometimes on three sides.

• Kitchens, stables and servants’ quarters were in a separate space from the main house. The house was run by dozens of servants.

6. ‘The British wanted Delhi to forget its Mughal past’. What did they do to fulfill their wish?

Answer

The British exiled Bahadur Shah Zafar to Burma, dismantled his court, raised several of the palaces, closed down gardens and built barracks for troops in their places. They got the area around the fort completely cleared of gardens, pavilions and mosques. Mosques in particular were either destroyed, or part to other uses. No worship was allowed in the Jama Masjid for five years. One-third of the city was demolished and its canals were filled up. In the 1870s, the western walls of Shahjahanabad were broken to establish the railway and to allow the city to expand beyond the walls.

7. How did partition change the lives and occupations of the refugees?

Answer

The partition caused massive transfer of populations on both sides of the new border. Muslims left Delhi for Pakistan while their place was taken by equally large numbers of Sikh and Hindu refugees from Pakistan. Many of the Muslims who went to Pakistan were artisans, petty traders and labourers. The new migrants coming to Delhi were rural landlords, lawyers, teachers, traders and small shopkeepers. Partition changed their lives and their occupation. They had to take up new jobs as hawkers, vendors, carpenters and ironsmiths.

8. Before 1857, developments in Delhi were somewhat different from those in other colonial cities. How?

Answer

In Presidency cities, Bombay, Madras and Calcutta, the living spaces of Indians and the British were sharply separated. Indians lived in the “black’ areas, while the British lived in well laid out “white’ areas. But in Delhi, in the first half of the 19th century, the British lived alongwith the wealthier Indians in the Walled City. The British learned to enjoy Urdu/Persian culture and poetry and took part in local festivals.

The Changing World of Visual Arts Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Nawab Mubarakuddaulah belongs to:
(a) Bombay
(b) Poona
(c) Murshidabad
(d) MysoreAnswer

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Question 2.
Abanindranath Tagore was the nephew of:
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Raja Ravi Varma
(c) Mubrakuddaulah
(d) Nand Lai BoseAnswer

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Question 3.
Damayanthi was painted by:
(a) Raja Ravi Varma
(b) Thomas Daniell
(c) William Daniell
(d) David WilkieAnswer

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Question 4.
The art of making portraits is known as:
(a) Engraving
(b) Portraiture
(c) Miniature
(d) PicturesqueAnswer

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Question 5.
The storming of Seringapatam was painted by:
(a) David Wilkie
(b) William Daniell
(c) Thomas Daniell
(d) Rober Kerr PorterAnswer

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Question 6.
In which styles the victoria Terminus was built?
(a) Gothic style
(b) Dorian style
(c) Corinthian style
(d) Classical Greek and Roman StyleAnswer

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Question 7.
From where did the style of architecture was borrowed in Calcutta?
(a) Doric
(b) Gothic
(c) Classical style of Greece and Rome
(d) CorinthianAnswer

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Question 8.
One of the first history paintings was produced by whom?
(a) Francis Hayman
(b) Johann Zoffany
(c) Tilly Kettle
(d) William DaniellAnswer

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Question 9.
What do you mean by Realism?
(a) Faithfully observe and depict the subject
(b) Faithfully observe the landscape
(c) Draw from their imagination
(d) Draw and paint landscapeAnswer

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Question 10.
What is the name of an art form where impression is printed on paper and cloth?
(a) Motif
(b) Embossing
(c) Engraving
(d) StampingAnswer

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Question 11.
Why did the Muhammad Ali khan appointed artists?
(a) Paint modern paintings
(b) Paint historical paintings
(c) Paint oil paintings
(d) None of theseAnswer

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Question 12.
What are history paintings?
(a) Painting showing Indian victories in British
(b) Painting showing Indian victory over Mughal
(c) Painting showing British victories in India
(d) None of theseAnswer

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Question 13.
Why were the paintings on Indian themes displayed in Britain?
(a) To give idea about Indian poor
(b) To give idea about new land conquer
(c) To give idea about wealth in India
(d) None of theseAnswer

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Question 14.
Why did the European portrait painters come to India?
(a) Paint for free
(b) For getting the contract
(c) To paint only for king
(d) None of theseAnswer

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Question 15.
What do you mean by Engraving?
(a) Oil painting
(b) Impression printing
(c) British printing
(d) None of theseAnswer

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Question 16.
Who was Okakura Kakuzo?
(a) Japanese research
(b) Indian research
(c) British research
(d) None of theseAnswer

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Question 17.
Where is the victoria Terminus situated?
(a) Delhi
(b) Madras
(c) Bombay
(d) None of theseAnswer

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Question 18.
who tried to create a style that was both modern and national?
(a) Francis Hayman
(b) Johann Zoffany
(c) Raja Ravi Verma
(d) None of theseAnswer

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Question 19.
Which Post Office bought the style of architecture from Greece and Rome?
(a) Delhi post office
(b) Central post office Calcutta
(c) Bombay post office
(d) None of theseAnswer

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Question 20.
In which year painting was produced by Francis Hayman?
(a) 1789
(b) 1753
(c) 1747
(d) 1762Answer

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Chapter 10 The Changing World of Visual Arts 

The Changing World of Visual Arts Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs):

1. Mention one feature of oil painting.

Answer

Oil painting enables artists to produce images that looked real.

2. What were the three categories of Imperial Art?

Answer

‘The Imperial Art’ that was prevalent in India during the British Colonial rule can be classified into three categories, namely Landscape painting, Portrait painting and History painting.

3. How did the picturesque style of painting depict India?

Answer

Picturesque style of painting depicted India as a quaint law, to be explored by travelling British artists, its landscape was rugged and wild and seemingly untamed by human hands.

4. Name the technique with which Indian artists were not very familiar.

Answer

Oil painting.

5. What was the theme of Raja Ravi Varma’s paintings?

Answer

The theme of his paintings was based on Indian mythology. He dramatised on canvas scene after scene from the Ramayana and the Mahabharata.

6. In what way were colonial portraits different from those of existing Indian tradition of painting portraits?

Answer

Unlike the existing Indian tradition of painting portraits in miniature, colonial portrait were life-size images that looked life-like and real.

7. How did the figures in scroll painting look?

Answer

The figures in scroll paintings looked flat, not rounded.

8. What subjects did European artists in India choose to paint?

Answer

Their paintings emphasised the superiority of Britain its culture, its people, its power.

9. When was the Calcutta Art Studio established? What it produce?

Answer

The Calcutta Art Studio was established in the late-nineteenth century. It produced life-like images of eminent Bengali personalities as well as mythological pictures.

10. Name the two traditions of Imperial art that became very popular in colonial India.

Answer

Picturesque landscape painting and Portrait painting.

The Changing World of Visual Arts Short Answer Questions (SAQs):

1. What were the reasons that forced the scroll painters and potters to come to Kalighat?

Answer

There were several reasons behind this:

• The city was expanding as a commercial and administrative centre at this time.

• Colonial offices were coming up, new buildings and roads were being built, markets were being established.

• The city appeared as a place of opportunity where people could come to make a new living. Scroll painters and potters too came and settled in the city in the hope of new patrons and new buyers of their art.

2. What are miniature paintings?

Answer

Miniature paintings are executed on a very small scale on perishable material such as paper and cloth. The Palas of Bengal were the pioneers of miniature painting in India. The art of miniature painting reached its glory during the Mughal period. The tradition of miniature paintings was carried forward by the painters of different Rajasthani schools.

3. What were Company Paintings?

Answer

During the 18th and 19th centuries, the British employed Indian artists to illustrate the manners and customs of India and to record scenes of monuments, deities, festivals, and occupations. These works later became known as ‘Company paintings’ because they were created by Indian artists employed by members of the British East India Company.

4. Describe European artist’s style.

Answer

The paintings done by European Artists were realistic. They painted pictures that were exactly the same in reality. The paintings looked real and lifelike. European artists introduced the technique of oil painting which was unknown to the Indian artists. Oil paintings allow artists to produce pictures that looked real. The paintings done by European Artists highlighted the culture, the power and the people of Britain.

5. Mention the themes on which the Kalighat artists of the late-nineteenth century painted.

Answer

Many of the late-nineteenth century Kalighat paintings depicted social life under British rule. Often the artists mocked at the changes they saw around, ridiculing the new tastes of those who spoke in English and adopted western habits, dressed like sahibs, smoked cigarettes, or sat on chairs. They made fun of the westernised baboo, criticised the corrupt priests and warned against women moving out of their homes. They often expressed the anger of common people against the rich, and the fear many people had about dramatic changes of social norms.

6. Describe the paintings done by Robert Ker Porter on the battle of Seringapatam.

Answer

The celebration of British military triumph can be seen in the paintings of the battle of Seringapatam by Robert Ker Porter. This work depicts “the decisive victory of the British in their series of campaigns to seize control of southern India.

In these pictures the British troops are shown storming the fort from all sides, cutting Tipu’s soldiers to pieces, climbing the walls, raising the British flag aloft on the ramparts of Tipu’s fort. The paintings are full of action and energy. The painting dramatises the event and glorifies the British triumph.

The Changing World of Visual Arts Long Answer Questions (LAQs):

1. Give a brief sketch of Thomas Daniell and his paintings.

Answer

• Thomas Daniell began his career as a landscape painter. In 1784 he came to India with his nephew William. They both remained in India for seven years. Together they executed a number of major works in engraving, oils and watercolours.

• The large oil paintings on canvas, done by them, were regularly exhibited to select audiences in Britain. Their albums of engravings were bought up by the British who wanted to know about Britain’s Empire.

• ‘Oriental Scenery’ is the title given to the monumental six-volume work of 144 hand-coloured engravings made by Thomas Daniell and his nephew William.

• The paintings by Thomas Daniell showed the ruins of local buildings that were once grand. The paintings seemed to reveal that India would change and modernise only through British governance.

• The idea of British rule bringing modern civilisation to India is powerfully emphasised in the numerous pictures of late-eighteenth-century Calcutta drawn by the Daniels.

2. How did the painters at Indian courts react to the new traditions of imperial art?

Answer

With the establishment of British power many of the local courts lost their influence and wealth. They could no longer support painters and pay them to paint for the court. As a result, many of the artists turned to the British. At the same time, British officials, who found the world in the colonies different from that back home, wanted images through which they could understand India, remember their life in Indian and depict India to the western world. So, these officials employed local painters to produce a vast number of images of local plants and animals, historical buildings and monuments, festivals and processions, trades and crafts, castes and communities.

The Making of the National Movement: 1870s -1947 MCQ Questions Class 8 Social Science with Answers

Question.Marathi newspaper ‘Kesari’ was edited by
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Balgangadhar Tilak
(C) Chitta Ranjan Das
(D) Sarojini Naidu

Answer :  B

Question. The Vernacular Press Act was enacted in
(A) 1840
(B) 1857
(C) 1878
(D) 1890

Answer :  C

Question. The capacity to act independently without outside interference is termed as.
(A) Socialist
(B) Democratic
(C) Publicist
(D) Sovereign

Answer :  D

Question. Which of the following achievements of the Moderates cannot be considered true?
(A) The Moderates helped in removing social injustices like the rigid caste structure that divided the Indian society
(B) Due to the persistent efforts of the Moderates, Indians understood the concepts of freedom, secularism and democracy.
(C) The Moderates created a sense of national consciousness
(D) This microscopic minority of leaders could change the policies and made a huge impact on British.

Answer :  D

Question.Who established Natal Congress?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Balgangadhar Tilak
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai

Answer :  B

Question.Second World War ended in
(A) 1910
(B) 1920
(C) 1945
(D) 1947

Answer :  C

Question. Marathi newspaper ‘Kesari’ was edited by
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Balgangadhar Tilak
(C) Chitta Ranjan Das
(D) Sarojini Naidu

Answer :  B

Question. Where did the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was formed?
(A) Bombay
(B) Kanpur
(C) Delhi
(D) Allahabad

Answer :  C

Question. The founder of Khudai Khidmatgars was
(A) Mohammad Ali
(B) Shaukat Ali
(C) Badshah Khan
(D) None of these

Answer :  C

Question. The fight for Purna Swaraj was fought under the presidentship of
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) C. Rajagopalachari
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Answer :  B

Question- ______ was a Indian businessman and publicist based in London.
(A) Lala Hadayal
(B) Dadabhai Naroji
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Bhagat Singh

Answer :  B

Question- ________ allowed for trial of Europeans by Indians.
(A) Ilbert Bill
(B) Vernacular Press Act
(C) Judiciary Bill
(D) Arms Bill

Answer :  A

Question. Name the movement launched following the Partition of Bengal.
(A) Quit India Movement
(B) Salt Satyagraha
(C) Swadeshi Movement
(D) First war of Independence

Answer :  C

Question- ______ was a Marathi newspaper edited by Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
(A) Muktangan
(B) Kesari
(C) Sakal
(D) Gazette

Answer :  B

Question- Gandhiji arrived in India from _____ in 1915.
(A) Japan
(B) South Africa
(C) USA
(D) China

Answer :  B

Question- ______ was one of the Congress leaders from Bengal with radical objectives.
(A) Bipin Chandra Pal
(B) Ravindranath Tagore
(C) Raja Rammohan Roy
(D) R C Mukherjee

Answer :  A

Question- Freedom is our Birthright slogan was given by ________.
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Laxmi Sehgal
(D) Mahatma Gandi

Answer :  B

Question- _______ and Muslim League signed a Historic Pact of Lucknow in 1916
(A) Communist Party
(B) British Empire
(C) Congress
(D) Socialist Party

Answer :  C

Question- Jallianwala Masscare took place in _____.
(A) 1919
(B) 1921
(C) 1924
(D) 1917

Answer :  A

Question- Gandhiji had established ______ in South Africa.
(A) Sabarmati Ashram
(B) Natal Congress
(C) Communist Party
(D) Labour Union

Answer :  B

Question. A list of leaders are given below, identify the leader who is not considered as a Moderate but a Radical.
(A) Pherozeshah Mehta
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Aurobindo Ghosh
(D) Surendranath Banerjee

Answer :  C

Question- ______ was launched in 1930.
(A) Civil Disobedience Movement
(B) Swarajya Movement
(C) Khilafat Movement
(D) Workers movement

Answer :  A

Question- ____ was a lawyer and freedom fighter from East Bengal.
(A) Jatin Das
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Chitta Ranjan Das
(D) Tagore

Answer :  C

Question- Dandi March was led by ______ in 1930.
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) S C Bose

Answer :  A

Question- Quit India Movement took place in ______.
(A) 1942
(B) 1949
(C) 1940
(D) 1939

Answer :  A

Question. Some important features of the Swadeshi Movement are given below: Pick out the one that is not applicable to the Swadeshi Movement
(A) They encouraged the ideas of self help
(B) They boycotted British institutions and goods.
(C) Swadeshi movement stressed on the use of English language with minimal use of Indian languages.
(D) The Swadeshi movement sought to oppose British rule

Answer :  C

Question- ______ was the first woman president of Congress.
(A) Annie Besant
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Laxmi Sehgal
(D) Ambabai

Answer :  B

Question. After a major split between the Moderates and Radicals, in which year did they reunite again?
(A) In December 1930
(B) In December 1940
(C) In December 1920
(D) In December 1915

Answer :  D

Question- Ahmedabad is located on the banks of _____
(A) Mahi
(B) Sabarmati
(C) Narmada
(D) Godavari

Answer :  B

Question. The modern Indian middle class owed its birth to :
(A) The struggle between the ruling class and the proletariat
(B) The political upheavals in the country on account of the disintegration of the Mughal empire
(C) European enterprise in India resulting in the growth of a new working class and urban revolution
(D) Industrialisation

Answer : C

Question. The worst effect of the law, relating to sub-in-feudation of zamindari rights in British India, was
(A) The rapid increase in the value of landed property
(B) The land became an objective of speculative investment and source of profit to the moneyed class
(C) The land lost its importance as a source of production and livelihood to the cultivators
(D) Both (B) and (C) above

Answer : D

Question. In which year Meruth conspiracy took place ?
(A) 1925
(B) 1927
(C) 1929
(D) 1930

Answer : C

Question. In which year Mahatma Gandhi was born ?
(A) 1889
(B) 1875
(C) 1869
(D) 1879

Answer : C

Question. At which place Mahatma Gandhi had his first Satyagraha ?
(A) Bardoli
(B) Champaran
(C) Amritsar
(D) Sabarmati

Answer : B

Question. In which year all India Farmers Union was formed ?
(A) 1928
(B) 1936
(C) 1942
(D) 1946

Answer : B

Question. In which year ‘Workers Day’ was celebrated forthe first time in India ?
(A) 1927
(B) 1937
(C) 1947
(D) 1957

Answer : A

Question. Who ordered the firing at Jallianwala Bagh ?
(A) Dayar
(B) Sounders
(C) Rend
(D) None of the above

Answer : A

Question. Who gave the slogan’Jai Hind’ ?
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) J. L. Nehru
(D) Sardar Patel

Answer : A

Question. When did Muslim League passed the ‘Resolution for Pakistan’
(A) 1909
(B) 1930
(C) 1940
(D) 1947

Answer : C

Question. “Every blow on my body will prove to be a nail in the British coffin”. Who gave the above statement ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Pt. J.L. Nehru
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Answer : C

Question. At which place, Gandhi broke the salt law by making salt ?
(A) Sabarmati
(B) Dandi
(C) Bombay
(D) Surat

Answer : B

Question. Who headed the Interim government formed in India in 1946 ?
(A) J.L. Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Sardar Patel
(D) Jinnah

Answer : A

Question. Forwhich proposal Gandhi used the words a postdated cheque of a drowning bank ?
(A) Cripps Praposal
(B) C.R. Praposal
(C) Wavel praposal
(D) Cabinet mission praposal

Answer : C

Question. Who among the following was not a leader of the Indian National Army ?
(A) Subhash Chandra Boss
(B) Ras Bihari
(C) Mohan Singh
(D) Sukhdev

Answer : D

Question. The first session of All India Farmers Union was held at –
(A) Faizabad
(B) Lukhnow
(C) Delhi
(D) Surat

Answer : A

Question. When was the Congress Socialist Party formed?
(A) 1930
(B) 1932
(C) 1934
(D) 1936

Answer : C

Question. Against whom the Khilafat movement was launched ?
(A) Indian National Congress
(B) English Government
(C) Government of England
(D) None of the above

Answer : C

Question. Who among the following was not a part of khilafat movement ?
(A) Soukat Ali
(B) Mohammad Ali
(C) Abdul Kalam Azad
(D) Sardar Patel

Answer : D

Question. Which revolutionary was sentenced to death on the charge of the murder of Saunders ?
(A) Bhagat Singh
(B) Chandra ShekharAzad
(C) Ras Bihari
(D) Manmathnath

Answer : B

Question. Who among the following were the first to be arrested during Non-Cooperation movement ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) J.L. Nehru
(C) Ali Brothers
(D) S.C. Boss

Answer : C

Question. Who was the head of the committee formed in 1924 to recommend reforms in the Act of 1919 ?
(A) M, L. Nehru
(B) Alexsender Moodyman
(C) C.R. Das
(D) John Simmon

Answer : A

Question. Name ‘the secretary of state, who challanged the Indians to prepare a constitution ?
(A) Morle
(B) Bralenhead
(C) Montegue
(D) None of the above

Answer : B

Question. Who among the Indians denied to accept the Nehru report ?
(A) Communists
(B) Jinnah
(C) Congress
(D) None of the above

Answer : B

Question. During Lahore session in 1929 the Congress president used the following words “We have only are target -complete independence”. Who used these words ?
(A) Pt. J. N. Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Moulana Azad
(D) S.C. Boss

Answer : A

Question. ‘Hindustan Democratic Federation’ was founded by
(A)Yatindra Mukkherji
(B) Sachindra Sanyal
(C) Bhagat Singh
(D Rajnder Lahiri

Answer : B

Question. Who among the following was not a part of Kakori cons piracy ?
(A) Ram Prashad Bismilt
(B) Ranjendra Lahiri
(C) Sachindra Sanyal
(D) Kedarnath Sehgal

Answer : D

Question. ‘Death or Victory’, who gave this slogan ?
(A) Indian National Army
(B) Hindustan Democratic Socialist Party
(C) Naujawan Sabha
(D) None of the above

Answer : A

Question. Who among the following’, with Bhagat Singh threw the bomb in Central Legislative Assembly in the year 1929?
(A) Battu Keshwar Dutt
(B) Ray Guru
(C) Sukhdev
(D) Sachindra Sanyal

Answer : B

Question. Udham Singh went to England to kill –
(A) General Dayar
(B) Ex – Governor Dayar
(C) Mac – Donald
(D) None of the above

Answer : A

Question. Chandra Bose was appointed as the Chairman of the Independence League and was called ‘Netaji’. In which year this happened ?
(A) 1942
(B) 1943
(C) 1944
(D) 1945

Answer : A

Question. Who among the following INA officers was not tried of the charge of treason ?
(A) Shahnawaj Khan
(B) Prem Shehgal
(C) Gurubhaksh Singh
(D) Mohan Singh

Answer : D

Question. When Gandhi broke the salt law at Dandi, who welcomed him with the words ‘Law breaker – you’re welcomed’
(A) Pt. Nehru
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C)Anibesant
(D) None of the above

Answer : B

Question. With how many followers Gandhi completed his Dandi March ?
(A) 75
(B) 57
(C) 78
(D) 801

Answer : C

Question. Underwhose leadership the army denied to fire on freedom fighters at Peshawar in 1930 ?
(A) Mohan Singh
(B) Chandan Singh Gadhwali
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(D) None of the above

Answer : B

Question. For which incident, Dr. Rajendra prasad used the words ‘A marrige without groom’ .
(A) First Round Table Conference
(B) Second Round Table Conference
(C) Third Round Table Conference
(D) Gandhi-Irwin pact

Answer : A

Question. Who presented the August praposals ?
(A) Wavel
(B) Irwin
(C) Linlithgo
(D) Mountbatten

Answer : D

Question. The ryotwari settlement was made with the :
(A) The zamindars
(B) The cultivators
(C) The village communities
(D) The muqaddams

Answer : B

Question. The theory of the early British rulers that the Company, as the owner of agricultural land, was entitled to the whole of the’economic rent’ derived its support from :
(A) The Theory of Surplus Value
(B) The Agio Theory of Interest
(C) Keynes’ Theory of Income and Employment
(D) The Ricardian Theory of Rent

Answer : D

Question. The main reason for the permanent indebtedness of the peasantry was :
(A) False accounting
(B) Forged signatures
(C) Making the debtor sign for larger amounts than he had borrowed
(D) High rate of interest on loans

Answer : D

Question. Which of the following was not one of the reasons for the spurt in the demand for Indian cotton goods in England to such an extent that the Indian calicoes emerged as the biggest item of the Company’s imports from India ?
(A) Change in English fashions and modes of dress
(B) Improvement in the quality of goods on account of introduction of superior variety of cotton
(C) Abolition of import duties on them in England (1685)
(D) The prohibition of imports from France (1688)

Answer : B

Question. An Indian mercantile class, which almost completely vanished on account of the British economic policies and commercial practices of the Europeans in India, was :
(A) Freighttraders
(B) Sugar manufacturers
(C) Bankers
(D) Brokers

Answer : C

Question. Whom did the British monopoly over internal trade benefit the most ?
(A) The Company
(B) The employees of the Company
(C) The British government
(D) The gomashtas or the Company’s servants

Answer : B

Question. The extension of the cultivation of indigo, cotton, opium, tea, and coffee in India, besides benefiting the British planters, also benefited -.
(A) The zamindars
(B) The small merchants
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) The Indian bankers

Answer : C

Question. The root of the poverty of the people of India during the British rule was that:
(A) All economic resources of India were at the mercy of the British
(B) Indian economy had been bound to the colonial interests
(C) Agriculture remained almost the sole occupation of the masses.
(D) Foreign capital flowed into all branches of India’s economic life

Answer : C

Question. The British industrial policy in India has been rightly called as the policy of :
(A) “Stagnated Growth”
(B) “De-industrialisation
(C) “Colonisation of Economy’
(D) “Monopolised Europeanisation

Answer : B

Question. According to Karl Marx, the British economic policies “caused a social revolution in Hindustan” which was the consequence of :
(A) The destruction of co-operative living in the rural areas
(B) The western ideas of competition and market economy
(C) The emergence of a middle class which prospered on account of the British policies
(D) AIl the above

Answer : D

Question. In the ryotwari areas, the value of land declined appreciably because :
(A) All peasant cultivators were declared owners of land
(B) Instead of cultivation, sale of land was an easierway of sustenance
(C) The rate of land revenue was excessive
(D) The methods of collection of revenue were so harshas to make the ownership of land highly undesirable

Answer : D

CBSE Class 8 History Chapter 11 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions

1: What is the literal meaning of sarvajanik?
Answer: The literal meaning of sarvajanik is ‘of or for all the people’. It is made
of two words – sarva = all + janik = of the people.

2: Who was A.O. Hume? What role did he play in the history of India?
Answer: A.O. Hume was a retired British official. He played an important role in bringing Indians from the various regions together.

3: Who was the Viceroy of India at the time of the partition of Bengal
Answer: At that time Lord Curzon was the Viceroy of India.

4: What was the Swadeshi Movement known as in deltaic Andhra?
Answer: In deltaic Andhra the Swadeshi Movement was known as the Vandemataram Movement.

5: Name the three leading members of the Radical group.
Answer: Bepin Chandra Pal, Balgangadhar Tilak and Lala Lajpat Rai.

6: Why did Mahatma Gandhi along with other Indians establish the Natal Congress in South Africa?
Answer: He did so in order to fight against racial discrimination in South Africa.

7: Name three places where Gandhiji started local movements.
Answer: Champaran, Kheda and Ahmedabad.

8: Why did Rabindranath Tagore renounce his knighthood? 
Answer: Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood to express the pain and anger of the country following the Jallianwala Bagh atrocities.

9: Who were the leaders of the Khilafat agitation?
Answer: The leaders of the Khilafat agitation were Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali.

10: What does ‘Punjab wrongs’ refer to?
Answer: It refers to Jallianwalla Bagh massarcre that occurred on 13 April, 1919 in Amritsar on Baishakhi day.

11: Who was Chitta Ranjan Das?
Answer: He was a lawyer from East Bengal and was active in the Non-Cooperation Movement.

12: What does RSS stand for?
Answer: RSS stands for Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh.

13: Who was Bhagat Singh? What slogan did he raise?
Answer: Bhagat Singh was a revolutionary nationalist. His slogan was—Inquilab Zindabad.

14. What does HSRA stand for?
Answer. HSRA stands for Hindustan Socialist Republican Association.

15. Why did Mahatma Gandhi decide to break the Salt Law?
Answer: Mahatma Gandhi decided to break the Salt Law because it established the monopoly of the state on the manufacture and sale of salt

16: On what condition-were the Congress leaders ready to support the British war effort at the time of the Second World War?
Answer: The Congress leaders were ready to support the British war effort on condition that they would declare India’s independence after the war.

17: Did the British accept their condition?
Answer: No, the British did not accept their condition.

18: Who raised the slogan ‘do or die’?
Answer: Mahatma Gandhi raised this slogan.

19: Why did the Muslim League announced 16 August 1946 as ‘Direct Action Day’?
Answer: It announced 16 August, 1946 as ‘Direct Action Day’ in support of its demand for Pakistan.

20. Define nationalism?
Answer: The feeling of oneness and unity among the people of a nation or patriotic feeling, principles and policy of national independence is termed as nationalism. 

21. When was Indian National Congress formed?
Answer: The Indian National Congress was formed in December, 1885. 

22. Mention the early leaders of Indian National Congress?
Answer: The early leadership: Dadabhai Naroji, Pherozshah Mehta, Badruddhin Tyabji, W.C. Banerji, Surendranath Banerji, Romesh Chandra Dutt, S. Subramania Iyer.

23. Which British officer helped in the formation of Indian National Congress?
Answer: A retired British official, A.O. Hume helped in the formation of Indian National Congress. 

24. When was Non –Cooperation & Khilafat Movement launched?
Answer: In 1920, NCM and Khilafat Movement were launched. 

Short Answer Type Questions

1. What was Rowlatt Act?

Answer: Rowlatt Act was introduced by the British in 1919.
According to this act, any Indian could be arrested without trial in the court of law. The act curbed fundamental rights such as the freedom of expression and strengthened police powers. 

2. Why did the nationalist leader oppose Rowlett Act?
Answer: Mahatma Gandhi, Mohanmad Ali Jinnah and others felt that the government had no right to restrict people’s basic freedoms.They criticized the Act as “devilish” and tyrannical

3. What were the effects of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre?

Answer: On learning about the massacre, Rabindranah Tagore expressed the pain and anger of the country be renouncing his knighthood. During the Rowlatt Satyagraha the participants tried to ensure that Hindus and Muslims were united in the fight against British rule. 

4. What were the aims of NCM and Khilafat Movement?

Answer: The aims of NCM and Khilafat movement were:- 

• They demanded for Swaraj. 
• They wanted to reduce the ‘wrongs’ against Punjab and Turkey. 

5. Who were the revolutionaries?
Answer: The revolutionaries were a small group of people who suggested that the use of violence to make a radical change within the society would be necessary to overthrow British rule.

6. When and why was the Non –cooperation Movement withdrawn?
Answer: Mahatma Gandhi was against violent movements. He abruptly called off the Non –Cooperation Movement when in February 1922 a crowd of peasants set fire to a police station in Chauri Chaura. 

7. How did the British try to control the Quit India Movement?
Answer: 

1. The first response of the British was severe repression. 
2. By the end of 1943 over 90,000 people were arrested and around 1000 killed in police firing. 
3. In many areas orders were given to machine –gun crowds from airplanes. The rebellion, however, ultimately brought the Raj to its knees. 

8. Mention the people who participated in the Dandi March and what was the British response towards this movement?

Answer: The people who participated in the Dandi March were: 
Peasants, tribals and women participated in large number.  The British response towards this movement was – the government tried to crush the movement through brutal action against peaceful satyagrahis. Thousands were sent to jail.

9. What was the most important feature of the government of India act of 1935 introduced by British?

Answer: Government of India Act of 1935 prescribed provincial autonomy and the government announced elections to the provincial legislatures in 1937. Congress formed governments in 7 out of 11 provinces. 

10. Why is the Indian National Congress (1919 – 1947) referred to as Gandhian Era?

Answer: From 1919 onwards Gandhi played a Major role in Indian National Movement as launched 3 great mass movements such as Non – cooperation Movement, Civil Disobedience Movement, Quit India Movement. Ultimately it was Gandhi who led the people of India towards independence in the year 1947. 

11. Write a short note on Jallianwala Bagh?

Answer: The Jallianwala Bagh atrocities inflicted by General Dyer in Amritsar on Baisakhi Day (13 April), were a part of Rowlett Act repression. On learning about the massacre, Rabindranath Tagore expressed the pain and anger of the country be renouncing his knight hood. During the Rowlatt Satyagraha the participants tried to ensure that Hindus and Muslims were in the fight against the British rule.

12: How did people participate in the Non-Cooperation Movement during 1921-22?

Answer: (a) During these years, thousands of students left government controlled schools and colleges.
(b) Many lawyers such as Motilal Nehru, C.R. Das, C. Rajagopalachari and Asaf Ali gave up their practices.
(c) British titles were surrendered and legislatures boycotted. .
(d) People lit public bonfires of foreign cloth.

13: Why was the Simon Commission sent to India? Why did Indians boycott it?

Answer: The British government in England sent a Commission headed by Lord Simon in the year 1927 to decide India’s political future. As the Commission had no Indian representative, it was boycotted by all political groups. When the Commission arrived it met with demonstrations with banners saying ‘Simon Go Back’.

14: What role did Ambabai play in the Indian freedom struggle?

Answer: Ambabai came from Karnataka. She had been married at age twelve and was widowed at sixteen. Afterwards she began participating in the Indian freedom struggle. She picketed foreign cloth and liquor shops in Udipi. She was arrested, served a sentence and was rearrested. Between prison terms she made powerful speeches, taught spinning and organised prabhat pheris.

16: Write a brief paragraph on Maulana Azad.

Answer: Maulana Azad was a great leader of the Indian freedom struggle. He was born in Mecca to a Bengali Father and an Arab Mother. He was well- versed in several languages. He was a scholar of Islam and an exponent of the notion of wahadat-i-deen, the essential oneness of all religions. He was an active participant in the movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi. He was a great advocate of Hindu-Muslim unity. He never approved Jinnah’s two-nation theory. He wanted a country in which Hindus and Muslims lived in perfect harmony.

17: Write a brief note on Khan Abdul Ghajfar Khan.

Answer: Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan was the Pashtun leader from the North-West Frontier Province. He was popularly known as Badshah Khan. He founded the Khudai Khidmatgars, which was a powerful non-violent movement among the Pattans of his province. He was a staunch supporter of Hindu-Muslim unity and was strongly opposed to the partition of India. He criticised his Congress colleagues for agreeing to the division of India in 1947.

18. How did the British expand its army during the War period?

Answer: People in village were pressurized to supply soldiers for an alien cause. A large number of soldiers were sent overseas.
Many returned after the war with an understanding of the ways in which imperialist powers were exploiting the people in Asia and Africa with a desire to oppose colonial rule in India. 

19. Mention the two demands of the Indian National Congress that it adopted in 1929?
Answer: The two demands of the Congress were:

• The Congress resolving to fight for Purna Swaraj (complete independence) in 1929 under the president ship of Jawaharlal Nehru. 
• Consequently “Independence Day” was observed on 26 January 1930 all over the country. 

20. What was the Congress demand after having won the elections?

Answer:  

• In September 1939, after two years of Congress rule in the provinces, the Second World War broke out. 
• Critical of Hitler, Congress leaders were ready to support the British war effort. 
• But in return they wanted that India be granted independence after the war. 
• The British refused to concede demand. 
• The congress ministries resigned in protest. 

India After Independence MCQ Questions Class 8 Social Science with Answers

Question. Some important features of the Indian Constitution are given below: Pick if any, statement not true.
(a) The Constitution stressed on Hindu Pakistan ideals
(b) It offered special privileges for the poorest and most disadvantaged Indians
(c) It guaranteed equality before the law to all citizens, regardless of their caste or religious affiliation
(d) All Indians above the age of 21 would be allowed to vote in state and national elections

Answer :  A

Question.When did the Constituent Assembly met in?
(a) Bombay
(b) New Delhi
(c) Calcutta
(d) Madras

Answer:  B

Question- _____ is known as the Father of Indian Constitution.
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) S C Mukherjee
(c) B R Ambedkar
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai

Answer :  C

Question. Who was Potti Sriramulu?
African leader
Gandhian leader
Congress leader
None of these

Answer:  B

Question. How many countries of the world joined the conference of Bandung in Indonesia?
(a) 29 countries
(b) Less than 20 countries
(c) More than 100 countries
(d) 100 countries

Answer :  A

Question- _____ died fasting for demand for a separate state for Telugu people.
(a) A C Rao
(b) Potti Sriramalu
(c) Maulana Azad
(d) T T Krishnamachari

Answer :  B

Question. Why was the date 26 January 1950 chosen for the new Constitution to come into force ?
(a) To coincide the Birthday of the Father of Indian Constitution , B R Ambedkar
(b) To coincide the integration of the princely states
(c) To coincide with the 20th anniversary of the celebration of the Independence day at the Lahore session of the Congress under Nehru
(d) To coincide the day on which Mahatma Gandhi was assassinated

Answer :  C

Question- ______ was formulated in 1956.
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Second Five Year Plan
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Agriculture Commission

Answer :  B

Question.How can we describe the practice of untouchability?
(a) Inhuman practice
(b) Derogatory practice
(c) Slur and blot on the Hindu society
(d) All of them

Answer :  D

Question.On which country’s model did Jawahar Lal Nehru develop the Five Year Plans?
(a) USA
(b) France
(c) Soviet Union
(d) Japan

Answer :  C

Question- ______ was the first woman Chief Minister of independent India.
(a) Sucheta Kripalani
(b) Aruna Asaf Ali
(c) Indira gandhi
(d) Vijaylakshmi Pandit

Answer :  A

Question.Name the Hindu fanatic, who shot and killed Mahatma Gandhiji.
(a) Narayan Apte
(b) Nathuram Godse
(c) Gopal Godse
(d) None of the Above

Answer :  B

Question- _____ was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India.
(a) B R Ambedkar
(b) S C Bose
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) C Rajaji

Answer :  C

Question. Apart from building dams, name the important sector that was focused strongly on the Second Five Year Plan
(a) Cement and fertilizer sector
(b) Heavy industries like steel
(c) Agriculture
(d) Transport

Answer :  B

Question. Dharavi, the largest slum of the world, is situated in
(a) Calcutta
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Mumbai

Answer :  D

Question. What promise did the Congress make in 1920s?
(a) Own nation to linguistic group
(b) Own assembly to Linguistic group
(c) Own province to Linguistic group
(d) None of these

Answer :  C

Question- _____ was against Hindi being imposed on South India.
(a) C Rajaji
(b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) T T krishnamachari
(d) S P Mukherjee

Answer :  C

Question. How many Indians formed the Constituent Assembly?
(a) One hundred
(b) Two hundred
(c) Three hundred
(d) Four hundred

Answer :  C

Question. Which Industry was set up with the help of USSR?
(a) Barauni Dairy Plant
(b) Bhilai Steel plant
(c) Tata steel plant
(d) None of these

Answer :  B

Question- ______ is the old name of Madhya Pradesh.
(a) United Province
(b) Madras
(c) Central Province
(d) Bombay

Answer :  C

Question. What is Union List?
(a) Issue related to whole nation
(b) Issue related to state
(c) Issue related to central government
(d) None of these

Answer :  A

Question. The Planning Commission designed and executed suitable policies for economic development based on a ________________ model
(a) Market economy
(b) Mixed Economy
(c) Private enterprise
(d) Public enterprise

Answer :  B

Question. Pakistan was divided into two parts because of
(a) imposition of Persian on the Bengali speaking of the east
(b) imposition of Islamic language on the Bengali speaking of the east
(c) imposition of Urdu on Bengali speaking population of the east
(d) none of the above

Answer :  D

Question- Gandhi Sagar Dam is built on ______ river.
(a) Mahi
(b) Chambal
(c) Ganga
(d) Saraswati

Answer :  B

Question. Which one of the following words/terms refer to The Right to Vote
(a) Authorisation
(b) Permission
(c) Franchise
(d) Agreement

Answer :  C

Question. Up to which date were many of the princely states retained as administrative units?
(a) Up to October 15, 1947
(b) Up to October 31, 1947
(c) Up to October 15, 1955
(d) Up to October 31, 1956

Answer :  D

Question- Bhilai Steel Plant was set up with the help of _____ in 1959.
(a) Soviet Union
(b) United States of America
(c) Britain
(d) Burma

Answer :  A

Question.Mukti Vahini was formed by the Bengali Population under the leadership of
(a) Mira Behn
(b) Muziburr Rehman
(c) Potti Sriramulu
(d) None of these

Answer :  B

Question. A series of meetings of the Constituent Assembly were held in New Delhi after Indian’s independence with different political parties for an important discussion. What was the outcome of these series of meetings?
(a) Assassination of Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Stress importance to be given for vernacular languages
(c) Importance of Western education
(d) Framing of Indian Constitution

Answer :  D

Question. Who was the first Prime Minister of independent India who hoisted the Indian flag on 15 August 1947?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Dr Rajendra Prasad

Answer :  A

CBSE Class 8 History Chapter 12 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions

1: When was the Indian Constitution adopted?
Answer: The Indian Constitution was adopted on 26 January, 1950.

2: Which step has been described as revolutionary?
Answer: All Indians above the age of 21 would be allowed to vote in state and national elections.

3: On what point did Nathuram Godse disagree with Gandhiji?
Answer: Nathuram Godse disagreed with Gandhiji’s conviction that Hindus and Muslims should live together in harmony.

4: Name two subjects of the State List.
Answer: Education and health.

5: Name two subjects of the Concurrent List.
Answer: Forests and agriculture.

6: Who was Potti Sriramulu?
Answer: He was a veteran Gandhian who went on a hunger strike demanding the formation of Andhra state to protect the interests of Telugu speakers.

7: When did the new state of Andhra Pradesh come into existence?
Answer: The new state of Andhra Pradesh came into existence on 1 October, 1953. .

8: What were the points of focus of the Second Five Year Plan?
Answer: • Development of heavy industries.
• Building of large dams.

9: How was the Bhilai Steel Plant viewed?
Answer: The Bhilai Steel Plant was viewed as an important sign of the development of modem India after Independence.

10: What was the basic objective of the foreign policy of Independent India?
Answer: The basic objective of the foreign policy of Independent India was non-alignment, i.e., the American and Soviet alliances.

11. What is meant by ‘Universal Adult Franchise’? 
Answer: Universal Adult Franchise meant that everybody above the age of 18 regardless any caste, class, religion, gender and race can have a right to vote. 

12. Who was appointed as Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution? Answer: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. 

Short Answer Type Questions

Ques 1. Mention the challenges faced by independent India. 

Answer:

• Framing a new constitution for India 
• Integration of states into the Indian union. 
• Planning for development of nation (5year plan). 
• To develop an independent foreign policy for country. 

2. After Independence why was there a reluctance to divide the country on linguistic lines? 

Answer: India had been divided on the basis of religion: despite the wishes and efforts of Gandhi, freedom had come not to one nation but to two. As a result of the partition of India, more than a million people had been killed in riots between Hindu & Muslims. 

3. What did Dr. Ambedkar mean when he said that “In politics we will have equality and in social and economic life we will have inequality?

Answer: Dr. Ambedkar meant that in politics everybody regardless gender, class and education will have right to vote and everybody will be equal but in social and economic life there would be great difference between high castes and low castes, rich and poor; Hindu communities and Indian who practiced different faiths. Rich people will live in multi –storied buildings and poor will live in villages. 

4. What were the major objectives of new nation? 

Answer:
1. Lifting India and Indians out of poverty by building a modern technical and industrial base
2. In 1950, the planning commission was set up to help design suitable politics for economic development. 
3. In 1956, the Second Five Year Plan was formulated. 
4. This focused strongly on the development of heavy industries such as steel, and on the building of large dams. 
5. These sectors would be under the control of the State. 

5: What created problems in unifying the people of India after it got independence?

Answer: The points that created problems were:
(a) At the time of independence, India’s population was large. It was divided too. There were divisions between high castes and low castes, between the majority Hindu community and Indians who practised other faiths.
(b) The citizen of this country spoke different languages, wore different kinds of dresses, ate different kinds of foods and practised different professions.

6: What was the label of development of India at the time it got independence?

Answer: At the time India got independence the label of its development was very low. A vast majority of Indians lived in the villages. Farmers and peasants depended on the monsoon for their survival. So did the non-farm sector of the rural economy, for if the crops failed, barbers, carpenters, weavers and other service groups would not get paid for their services either.
In the cities too the condition was not good. Factory workers usually lived in crowded slums. They had little access to education and health care.

7: What special privileges were offered for the poorest and most disadvantaged Indians by the constitution?

Answer: First of all the practice of untouchability was abolished. Hindu temples were thrown open to all including the former untouchables.

• A certain percentage of seats in legislatures as well as jobs in government were reserved for members of the lowest castes.
• Alongwith the former untouchables, the adivasis also known as the Scheduled Tribes were also granted reservation in seats and jobs. They too had been deprived and discriminated against like the Scheduled Castes.

8: How have powers and functions of the Central and State Governments been divided by the Constitution?

Answer: The Indian Constitution gives the division of power in the form of three lists, known as Union List, State List and Concurrent List. The Union List includes subjects such as taxes, defence and foreign affairs. On these subjects the central government makes the laws. The State List includes subjects such as education and health. It is the exclusive responsibility of the state government to take care of these subjects. In the last comes the Concurrent List which contains subjects such as forests and agriculture. On these subjects the Centre and the States have joint responsibility.