Author Archives: Swati

Question And Answer:

Q.1 Which average would be suitable in the following cases?
(i) Average size of readymade garments.
(ii) Average intelligence of students in a class.
(iii) Average production in a factory per shift.
(iv) Average wages in an industrial concern.
(v) When the sum of absolute deviations from average is least.
(vi) When quantities of the variable are in ratios.
(vii) In case of open-ended frequency distribution.
ANSWER:
(i) Mode Average size of any ready made garments should be the size for which demand is the maximum. Hence, the modal value which represents the value with the highest frequency should be taken as the average size to be produced.
(ii) Median It is the value that divides the series into two equal parts. Therefore, Median will be the best measure for calculating the average intelligence of students in a class as it will give the average intelligence such that there are equal number of students above and below this average. It will not be affected by extreme values.
(iii) Arithmetic Mean The average production in a factory per shift is best calculated by Arithmetic Mean as it will capture all types of fluctuations in production during the shifts.
(iv) Arithmetic Mean Arithmetic Mean will be the most suitable measure. It is calculated by dividing the sum of wages of all the workers by the total number of workers in the industrial concern. It gives a fair idea of average wage bill taking into account all the workers.
(v) Arithmetic Mean The algebraic sum of the deviations of values about Arithmetic Mean is zero. Hence, when the sum of absolute deviations from average is the least, then mean could be used to calculate the average.
(vi) Median Median will be the most suitable measure in case the variables are in ratios as it is least affected by the extreme values.
(vii) Median Median is the most suitable measure as it can be easily computed even in case of open ended frequency distribution and will not get affected by extreme values.

Q.2 Indicate the most appropriate alternative from the multiple choices provided against each question.
(i) The most suitable average for qualitative measurement is
(a) Arithmetic mean
(b) Median
(c) Mode
(d) Geometric mean
(e) None of these
ANSWER:
(b) Median is the most suitable average for qualitative measurement because Median divides a series in two equal parts thus representing the average qualitative measure without being affected by extreme values.

(ii) Which average is affected most by the presence of extreme items?
(a) Median
(b) Mode
(c) Arithmetic Mean
(d) Geometric Mean
(e) Harmonic Mean
ANSWER:
(c) It is defined as the sum of the values of all observations divided by the number of observations and therefore it is. affected the most by extreme values

(iii) The algebraic sum of deviation of a set of n values from AM is
(a) n
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) None of these
ANSWER:
(b) This is one of the mathematical properties of arithmetic mean that the algebraic sum of deviation of a set of n values from AM is zero.

Q.3 Comment whether the following statements are true or false.
(i) The sum of deviation of items from median is zero.
(ii) An average alone is not enough to compare series.
(iii) Arithmetic mean is a positional value.
(iv) Upper quartile is the lowest value of top 25% of items.
(v) Median is unduly affected by extreme observations.
ANSWER:
(i) False
This mathematical property applies to the arithmetic mean and not to median.
(ii) True
Average is not enough to compare the series as it does not explain the extent of deviation of different items from the central tendency and the difference in the frequency of values. These are measured by measures of dispersion and kurtosis.
(iii) False
Median is a positional value.
(iv) True
The upper quartile also called the third quartile, has 75 % of the items below it and 25 % of items above it.
(v) False
Arithmetic mean is unduly affected by extreme observations.

Q.4If the arithmetic mean of the data given below is 28, find (a) the missing frequency and (b) the median of the series

ANSWER:
(a) Let the missing frequency br f₁.
Arithmetic Mean = 28

or 2240 -2100 = 35f₁ = 28f₁
or 140 = 7f₁
f₁ = 20
Hence, the missing frequency is 20.
(b)

So, the Median class = Size of (N2)th item = 50th term.
50th item lies in the 57th cumulative frequency and the corresponding class interval is 20-30.

Q.5The following table gives the daily income of ten workers in a factory. Find the arithmetic mean.

ANSWER:

N = 10
X¯¯¯¯=ΣXN=240010=240
Arithmetic Mean = ₹ 240

Q.6 Following information pertains to the daily income of 150 families. Calculate the arithmetic mean.

ANSWER:

Q.7 The size of land holdings of 380 families in a village is given below. Find the median size of land holdings.

ANSWER:

So, the median class = Size of (N2) th item = 190 item
190th lies in the 129 th cumulative frequency and the corresponding class interval is 200-300.

Median size of land holdings = 241.22 acres

Q.8The following series relates to the daily income of workers employed in a firm. Compute (a) highest income of lowest 50% workers, (b) minimum income earned by the top 25% workers and (c) maximum income earned by lowest 25% workers.

ANSWER:

(a) Highest income of lowest 50% workers will be given by the median. Σf = N = 65
Median class = Size of (N2)th item = Size of (652)th item=325 th item
32.5th item lies in the 50th cumulative frequency and the corresponding class interval is 24.5 – 29.5.

(b) Minimum income earned by top 25% workers will be given by the lower quartile Q₁.
Class interval of Q₁ = (N4)th item
= (654)th item = 1625th item
16.25th item lies in the 30th cumulative frequency and the corresponding class interval is 19.5 – 24.5

(c) Maximum income earned by lowest 25% workers will be given by the upper quartile Q₃.
Class interval of Q₃ = (N4)th item
= 3(654)th item
= 3 × 1625th item
= 48.75th item
48.75th item lines in 50th item and the corresponding class interval is 24.5-29.5

Q.9The following table gives production yield in kg per hectare of wheat of 150 farms in a village. Calculate the mean, median and mode production yield.

ANSWER:
(i) Mean

(ii) Median

(iii) Mode
Grouping Table

Analysis Table

(i) Mean

(ii) Median

(iii) Mode
Grouping Table

Analysis Table

Question And Answer:

Q.1Bar diagram is a
(a) one-dimensional diagram
(b) two-dimensional diagram
(c) diagram with no dimension
(d) None of these
ANSWER:
(a) Bar diagrams are one-dimensional diagrams. Though these are represented on a plane of two axis in form of rectangular bars, the width is of no consequence and only the length depicts the frequency.

Q.2 Data represented through a histogram can help in finding graphically the
(a) mean
(b) mode
(c) median
(d) All of these
ANSWER:
(b) Histogram gives value of mode of the frequency distribution graphically through the highest rectangle.

Q.3 Ogives can be helpful in locating graphically the
(a) mode
(b) mean
(c) median
(d) None of these
ANSWER:
(c) Intersection point of the less than and more than ogives gives the median.

Q.4 Data represented through arithmetic line graph help in understanding
(a) long term trend
(b) cyclicity in data
(c) seasonality in data
(d) All of the above
ANSWER:
(a) Arithmetic line graph helps in understanding the trend, periodicity, etc in a long term time series data.

Q.5 Width of bars in a bar diagram need not be equal. (True/False)
ANSWER:
False
Bar diagram comprises a group of equispaced and equiwidth rectangular bars for each class or category of data.

Q.6 Width of rectangles in a histogram should essentially be equal. (True/False)
ANSWER:
False
If the class intervals are of equal width, the area of the rectangles are proportional to their respective frequencies and width of rectangles will be equal. However, sometimes it is convenient or necessary to use varying width of class intervals and hence unequal width of rectangles.

Q.7 Histogram can only be formed with continuous classification of data. (True/False)
ANSWER:
True
A histogram is never drawn for a discrete variable/data. If the classes are not continuous they are first converted into continuous classes.

Q.8 Histogram and column diagram are the same method of presentation of data. (True/False)
ANSWER:
False
Histogram is a two dimensional diagram drawn for continuous data and the rectangles do not have spaces in between while column diagram is one dimensional with space in between every column (bar).

Q.9 Mode of a frequency distribution can be known graphically with the help of histogram. (True/False)
ANSWER:
True
Histogram gives value of mode of the frequency distribution graphically through the highest rectangle.

Q.10 Median of a frequency distribution cannot be known from the ogives. (True/False)
ANSWER:
False
Intersection-point of the less than and more than ogives gives the median.

Q.11What kind of diagrams are more effective in representing the following?
(a) Monthly rainfall in a year
(b) Composition of the population of Delhi by religion
(c) Components of cost in a factory
ANSWER:
(a) The monthly rainfall in a year can be best represented by a bar diagram as only one variable i.e., monthly rainfall is to be presented diagrammatically. The rainfall is plotted on Y-axis in the corresponding month that is plotted on the X-axis.
(b) Composition of the population of Delhi by religion can be represented by a component bar diagram. A component bar diagram shows the bar and its sub-divisions into two or more components. Thus, the total population can be sub divided in terms of religion and presented through a component bar diagram.
(c) Different components of cost in a factory can most effectively be depicted through a pie chart. The circle represents the total cost and various components of costs are shown by different portions of the circle drawn according to percentage of total cost each component covers.

Q.12 Suppose you want to emphasise the increase in the share of urban non-workers and lower level of urbanisation in India as shown in Example 4.2. How would you do it in the tabular form?
ANSWER:
Share of urban workers and non workers in India

	Location
Sex	Worker in urban (in crore)	Non-worker in urban (in crore)	Total
Male	50	70	120
Femal	25	50	75
Total	75	120	195

Q.13 How does the procedure of drawing a histogram differ when class intervals are unequal in comparison to equal class intervals in a frequency table?
ANSWER:
A histogram is a set of rectangles with bases as the intervals between class boundaries (along X-axis) and with areas proportional to the class frequency. If the class intervals are of equal width, the area of the rectangles are proportional to their respective frequencies.

However, sometimes it is convenient or at times necessary, to use varying width of class intervals. For graphical representation of such data, height for area of a rectangle is the quotient of height i.e., frequency and base i.e., width of the class interval. When intervals are equal, all rectangles have the same base and area can conveniently be represented by the frequency of the interval.

But, when bases vary in their width, the heights of rectangles are to be adjusted to yield comparable measurements by dividing class frequency by width of the class interval instead of absolute frequency. This gives us the frequency density for the purpose of comparison.
Thus  Frequency density ( Height of rectangle )= Class Frequency  Width of the class interval 

Q.14 The Indian Sugar Mills Association reported that, ‘sugar production during the first fortnight of December, 2001 was about 3,87,000 tonnes, as against 3,78,000 tonnes during the same fortnight last year (2000). The off-take of sugar from factories during the first fortnight of December, 2001 was 2,83,000 tonnes for internal consumption and 41,000 tonnes for exports as against 1,54,000 tonnes for internal consumption and nil for exports during the same fortnight last season.’
(i) Present the data in tabular form.
(ii) Suppose you were to present these data in diagrammatic form which of the diagrams would you use and why?
(iii) Present these data diagrammatically.
ANSWER:
(i) Data in tabular form.
Sugar Production in India

	Total Production (tonnes)	Off-take for Internal Consumption (tonnes)	Off-take for Exports (tonnes)
December 2000	378000	154000	—
December 2001	387000	283000	41000

(ii) The data can effectively be presented diagrammatically using the multiple bar diagram. This is because multiple bar diagrams are used for comparing two or more sets of data for different years or classes, etc.

Q.15 The following table shows the estimated sectoral real growth rates (percentage change over the previous year) in GDP at factor cost.

Represent the data as multiple time-series graphs.
ANSWER:

Question And Answer:

Q.1Which of the following alternatives is true?
(i) The class mid-point is equal to
(a) the average of the upper class limit and the lower class limit
(b) the product of upper class limit and the lower class limit
(c) the ratio of the upper class limit and the lower class limit
(d) None of the above
ANSWER:
(a) The class mid-point is the middle value of a class. It lies halfway between the lower class limit and the upper class limit of a class and is calculated as
Class Mid-Point or Class Mark =  (Upper Class Limit + Lower Class Limit) 2

(ii) The frequency distribution of two variables is known as
(a) Univariate Distribution
(b) Bivariate Distribution
(c) Multivariate Distribution
(d) None of the above
ANSWER:
(b) Bi means two and hence the frequency distribution of two variables is known as Bivariate Distribution.

(iii) Statistical calculation in classified data are based on
(a) the actual values of observations
(b) the upper class limits
(c) the lower class limits
(d) the class mid-points
ANSWER:
(d) The class mid-points of each class is used to represent the class and therefore, it is used in further calculations after the raw data are grouped into classes

(iv) Under exclusive method,
(a) the upper class limit of a class is excluded in the class interval
(b) the upper class limit of a class is included in the class interval
(c) the lower class limit of a class is excluded in the class interval
(d) the lower class limit of a class is included in the class interval
ANSWER:
(a) Under the exclusive method we form classes in such a way that the lower limit of a class coincides with the upper class limit of the previous class. Under the method, the upper class limit is excluded but the lower class limit of a class is included in the interval.

(v) Range is the
(a) difference between the largest and the smallest observations
(b) difference between the smallest and the largest observations
(c) average of the largest and the smallest observations
(d) ratio of the largest to the smallest observation
ANSWER:
(a) The variation in variable’s value are captured by its range. The range is the difference between the largest and the smallest values of the variable. A large range indicates that the values of the variable are widely spead.

Q.2 Can there be any advantage in classifying things? Explain with an example from your daily life.
ANSWER:
Classification refers to arranging or organising similar things into groups or classes. Classification of objects or things saves our valuable time and effort. Classification is done to group things in such a way that each group consists of similar items, e.g., we classify our wardrobe into different types of clothes or dresses according to the occasions on which they are to be worn. We put party wears, school uniform, casual daily wears and night wears separately. This helps us in an orderly arrangement of clothes and we can easily fetch the clothes we want at a particular time without searching through the whole wardrobe. Thus, it is evident that classification saves time and labour and helps to produce the desired results.

Q.3 What is a variable? Distinguish between a discrete and a continuous variable.
ANSWER:
A measurable characteristic which takes different values at different points of time and in different circumstance is called a variable as it keeps varying. Different varibles vary differently and depending on the way they vary, they are broadly classified into two types

S.N.	Discrete Variable	Continuous Variable
(i)	A discrete variable can take only whole numbers.	A continuous variable can take any numerical value.
(ii)	Discrete varibles increase in finite jumps from one value to another and cannot take any intermediate value between them.	Continuous variables can take any conceivable value and can be broken into infinite gradations.
(iii)	Examples-number of workers in a factory, number of residents in a colony, etc.	Examples-height, weight, distance, etc.

Q.4 Explain the ‘exclusive’ and ‘inclusive’ methods used in classification of data.
ANSWER:
Exclusive Method In this method, the classes are formed in such a way that the upper class limit of one class becomes the lower class limit of the next class. Continuity of the data is maintained in this method. Under this method, the upper class limit is excluded but the lower class limit of a class is included in the interval.

According to this method, an observation that is exactly equal to the upper class limit would not be included in that class but would be included in the next class. On the other hand, if it were equal to the lower class limit then it would be included in that class, e.g., if the class intervals are 0-5, 5-10, 15¬20 and so on, a value of 10 would be included in the 10-15 and not in the interval 5-10.

Inclusive Method The inclusive method does not exclude the upper class limit in a class interval. It inlcludes the upper class in a class. Thus, both class limits are parts of the class interval, e.g., the class intervals of 0-5, 6-10, 11-15, and so on are inclusive.

Q.5 Use the data in Table 3.2 that relate to monthly household expenditure (in ₹) on food of 50 households and
(i) Obtain the range of monthly household expenditure on food.
(ii) Divide the range into appropriate number of class intervals and obtain the frequency distribution of expenditure.
(iii) Find the number of households whose monthly expenditure on food is

• less than ₹ 2,000
• more than ₹ 3,000
• between ₹ 1,500 and ₹ 2,500

ANSWER:
(i) Range = Largest Value – Smallest Value
Highest Value = 5090
Lowest Value = 1007
So, Range = 5090 – 1007 = 4083

(iii) (a) Number of households whose monthly expenditure on food is less than ₹ 2000
= 20 + 13 = 33
(b) Number of hoseholds whose monthly expenditure on food is more than ₹ 3000
= 2 + 1 + 2 + 0 + 1 = 6
(c) Number of households whose expenditure on food is between ₹ 1500 and ₹ 2500
= 13 + 6= 19

Q.6 In a city, 45 families were surveyed for the number of domestic appliances they used. Prepare a frequency array based on their replies as recorded below.
1 3 2 2 2 2 1 2 1 2 2 3 3 3 3
3 3 2 3 2 2 6 1 6 2 1 5 1 5 3
2 4 2 7 4 2 4 3 4 2 0 3 1 4 3
ANSWER:

No. of Domestic Appliances	No. of Households
0	1
1	7
2	15
3	12
4	5
5	2
6	2
7	1
Total	45

Q.7 What is loss of information’ in classified data?
ANSWER:
Classification of data as a frequency distribution summarises the raw data making it concise and comprehensible but it does not show the details that are found in raw data. Once, the data are grouped into classes, an individual observation has no significance in further statistical calculations.

All values in a class interval are assumed to be equal to the middle value of the class interval instead of their actual value which causes considerable loss of information. It not only save our time but also our energy, which would otherwise be utilised in searching from entire things.

Q.8 Do you agree that classified data is better than raw data?
ANSWER:
The raw data is usually large and fragmented and it is very difficult to draw any meaningful conclusion from them. Classification makes the raw data comprehensible by summarising them into groups. When facts of similar characteristics are placed in the same class, it enables one to locate them easily, analyse them, make comparison and draw inferences.

Q.9 Distinguish between univariate and bivariate frequency distribution.
ANSWER:
The term “uni” stands for one and thus the frequency distribution of a single variable is called a Univariate Distribution, e.g., the fequency distribution of age of students in a class is univariate as its gives the distribution of a single variable i.e., age. On the other hand “bi” means two and a Bivariate Frequency Distribution is the frequency distribution of two variables, e.g., the frequency distribution of two varibles, e.g., like price of good and sales of the good is a bivariate distribution.

Q.10 Prepare a frequency distribution by inclusive method taking class interval of 7 from the following data

ANSWER:

Question And Answer:

Q.1 Frame at least four appropriate multiple choice options for following questions
(i) Which of the following is the most important when you buy a new dress?
(ii) How often do you use computers?
(iii) Which of the newspapers do you read regularly?
(iv) Rise in the price of petrol is justified.
(v) What is the monthly income of your family?
ANSWER:
(i) Which of the following is the most important when you buy a new dress?

• Price of the dress
• Fabric of the dress
• Colour of the dress
• Brand of the dress

(ii) How often do you use computers?

• At least once a day
• At least once a week
• At least once in fortnight
• Occasionally

(iii) Which of the newspapers do you read regularly?

• Times of India
• Hindustan Times
• Indian Express
• The Hindu

(iv) Rise in the price of petrol is justified.

• Strongly agree
• Strongly disagree
• Neither agree nor disagree
• Somewhat agree

(v) What is the monthly income of your family?

• Less than ₹ 10,000
• More than ₹ 10,000 but less than ₹ 25,000
• More than ₹ 25,000 but less than ₹ 50,000
• More than ₹ 50,000

Q.2 Frame five two-way questions (with Tes’ or ‘No’).
ANSWER:

• Are you an Indian? (Yes/No)
• Do you live in Delhi? (Yes/No)
• Are you graduate? (Yes/No)
• Do you know swimming? (Yes/No)
• Have you ever been convicted by a court of law? (Yes/No)

Q.3 State whether the following statement are true or false.
(i) There are many sources of data. (True/False)
ANSWER:
False
There are mainly two sources of data : Primary and Secondary.

(ii) Telephone survey is the most suitable method of collecting data, when the population is literate and spread over a large area. (True/False)
Answer:
False
Mailing questionnaires would be more suitable as the population is literate. Telephonic survey is most suitable in case of illiterate population spread over a large area.

(iii) Data collected by investigator is called the secondary data. (True/False)
Answer:
False
Investigator may collect the data by conducting an enquiry or an investigation. Such data are called primary data, as they are based on first hand information.

(iv) There is a certain bias involved in the non-random selection of samples. (True/False)
Answer:
True
In a non-random sampling method all the units of the population do not have an equal chance of being selected and convenience or judgement of the investigator may create a bias

(v) Non-sampling errors can be minimised by taking large samples. (True/False)
Answer:
False
It is difficult to minimise non-sampling error even by taking a large sample as they include Errors in Data Acquisition, Non-Response Errors and Sampling bias.

Q.4 What do you think about the following questions. Do you find any problem with these questions? If yes, how?
(i) How far do you live from the closest market?
ANSWER:
This question is ambiguous people will not be able to answer this question as the different measures of distance like meters, kilometers, yards etc will complicate the analysis. It should be made specific as Flow many kilometers away is your home from the closest market?

• Less than 5 km
• Between 5-10 km
• More than 10 km

(ii) If plastic bags are only 5 per cent of our garbage, should it be banned?
Answer:
This question is a leading question, which gives a clue about how the respondent should answer by trying to point that 5% is a small percentage which can be tolerated. Better question would be Do you think plastic bags should be banned? (Yes)

(iii) Wouldn’t you be opposed to increase in price of petrol?
Answer:
This question comprises of two negatives which creates confusion to the respondents and may lead to biased response. Better question would be Would you opposed the increase in price of petrol?

(iv)
(a) Do you agree with the use of chemical fertilizers?
(b) Do you use fertilizers in your fields?
(c) What is the yield per hectare in your field?
Answer:
The order or sequence of questions is incorrect. The series of questions should move from general to specific. The correct order would be
(a) What is the yield per hectare in your field?
(b) Do you use fertilizers in your fields?
(c) Do you agree with the use of chemical fertilizers?

Q.5 You want to research on the popularity of vegetable atta noodles among children. Design a suitable questionnaire for collecting this information.
ANSWER:
Questionnaire
Name ………………………………….
Age …………………………………………
Address …………………………………
……………………………………………….
………………………………………………
Gender: Male □ Female □
Answer:
Questionnaire
Name ………………………………….
Age …………………………………………
Address …………………………………
……………………………………………….
………………………………………………
Gender: Male □ Female □
1.Do you eat noodles?
(a) Yes □
(b) No □

2.Do you like noodles more than other snacks?
(a) Yes □
(b) No □

3.How many packets do you consume in a month?
(a) Less than 2 packets □
(b) 3-5 packets □
(c) 5-8 packets □
(d) More than 8 packets □

4.Do you prefer atta noodles over maida noodles?
(a) Yes □
(b) No □

5.Do you like vegetables in your noodles?
(a) Yes □
(b) No □

6.Do you think more vegetables should be added in vegetable atta noodles?
(a) Yes □
(b) No □

Q.7 Which vegetables according to you should be added in vegetable atta noodles?
…………………………………………………

8.Do you think it should be spicier?
(a) Yes □
(b) No □

9.When do you prefer to have vegetable atta noodles?
(a) In breakfast □
(b) In lunch □
(c) As evening snacks □
(d) In dinner □

10.Do your parents also like vegetable atta noodles?
(a) Yes □
(b) No □

Q.6 In a village of 200 farms, a study was conducted to find the cropping pattern. Out of the 50 farms surveyed, 50% grew only wheat. Identify the population and the sample here.
ANSWER:
The population or the Universe in statistics means totality of the items under study. It is a group to which the results of the study are intended to apply. In this case, the population is 200 farms in the village.

A sample refers to a group or section of the population from which information is to be obtained. A good sample (representative sample) is generally smaller than the population and is capable of providing reasonably accurate information about the population. In this case, the sample is 50 farms which are surveyed.

Q.7Give two examples each of sample, population and variable.
ANSWER:
Example 1 A study was conducted to know the average weight of students of class seventh in Delhi. The total number of students in class seventh was 2860. Out of these 200 students were randomly selected and their weight was recorded.
In this example

• Population is, the no of students of class seventh in Delhi, the total number of which is equal to 2860.
• Sample is, the 200 students selected whose weight was recorded.
• Variable under study, is the weight of the students.

Example 2 A person suffering from weakness and fatigue was advised by the doctor to have his blood test done for detection of anaemia. The pathologist took 2 ml of his blood for the test and tested the haemoglobin level in the blood.
In this example

• Population is the total amount of blood in the person’s body.
• Sample is, the 2 ml blood tested.
• Variable under study, is the haemoglobin in the blood sample.

Q.8 Which of the following methods give better results and why?
(a) Census
(b) Sample
ANSWER:
(b) In terms of accuracy of results, census is better as it studies all the units of population but this method is very time consuming, expensive and sometimes not feasible to use. Hence, sampling is better due to following reasons

• Economical Sampling involves study, of a fraction of population and hence the cost involved In sampling is relatively low.
• Time Saving Huge amount of time is required to conduct a census survey while sample studies do not take that much time.
• Lesser Effort As only a part of the population is studied, it entails lesser effort on the part of the investigator than that required in census.
• Considerable Accuracy Results from sampling may not be as accurate as in case of sampling but the level of accuracy of these results can be established through statistical tests of significance and hence can be applied in general to the whole population if found significant.

Q.9 Which of the following errors is more serious and why?
(a) Sampling error
(b) Non-sampling error
ANSWER:
(b) Sampling error refers to the difference between the sample estimate and the actual value of a population characteristic. This type of error occurs when one makes an observation from the sample taken from the population. It is possible to reduce the magnitude of sampling error by taking a larger sample.

Non-sampling errors are more serious than sampling errors because a sampling error can be minimised by taking a larger sample but it is difficult to minimise non-sampling error, even by taking a large sample. Even a Census can contain non-sampling errors. These include errors in data acquisition, non-response errors and sampling bias.

Q.10 Suppose there are 10 students in your class. You want to select three out of them. How many samples are possible?
ANSWER:
In general, you use combinations to determine the number of ways you can select a sample of size n from a population of size N. The formula for the number of such combinations is
N! (n!) (N – n)!
where N! (spoken “Nfactorial”) equals N(N — 1)(N – 2)…(3)(2)(1)
(e.g., 5! = (5) (4) (3) (2) (1) = 120
In this problem, our population size is N = 10 students, and our sample size is n = 3 students. Number of samples possible can be calculated as follows
Number of samples = 10! (3!) (10 – 3)!
= 10!(3)!(7)! = 10×9×8×7!3×2×1×7!
= 120 possible random samples

Q.11Discuss how you would use the lottery method to select 3 students out of 10 in your class?
ANSWER:
A representative (random) sample of 3 students can be taken out of 10 through lottery method. The names of all the 10 students of the class are written on 10 separate pieces of paper of equal size and all the slips are folded in a similar manner. These slips are then mixed well and 3 slips with these names are selected one by one so that all the students have equal chance of being selected in the sample.

Q.12 Does the lottery method always give you a random sample? Explain.
ANSWER:
Lottery method always gives a random sample if it is used in the proper manner without any bias. If the slips are prepared properly and drawn out one by one so that all the slips have equal chance of being selected in the sample, it will definitely give a random sample. But, if the slips are not mac . of identical size and identification is possible of the names or numbers on the slips, the selection will become biased.

Similarly, if the same name or number is written on more than one slip and if some name or number is missed then also the chances of selection of different units of population in the sample will not be equal. In such cases even lottery method will not give random sample.

Q.13 Explain the procedure of selecting a random sample of 3 students out of 10 in your class, by using random number tables.
ANSWER:
Random number tables have been devised to guarantee equal probability of selection of every individual unit in the population according to their listed serial number in the sampling frame. They are available either in a published form or can be generated by using appropriate software packages.
The procedure of selecting a random sample of 3 students out of 10 in a class, by using random number tables is as follows

• Assign a specific number between 1 and 10 to all the 10 students.
• Here, the largest serial number is 10 which is a two digit number and therefore we consult two digit random numbers in sequence.
• We can start using the table from anywhere, i.e., from any page, column, row or point and select the first number randomly. We need to select a sample of 3 students out of 10 total students.
• We will select two more numbers from the table according to sequence. We will skip the random numbers greater than 10 since there is no student number greater than 10. Thus, the 3 selected students are with serial numbers.

Q.14 Do samples provide better results than surveys? Give reasons for your answer.
ANSWER:
A survey, which includes every element of the population, is known as Census or the Method of Complete Enumeration. On the other hand, when a part of the population is studied and predictions are made about the population based on this part, it is called sampling.
In terms of accuracy of results, census is better as it studies all the units of population but this method is very time consuming, expensive and sometimes not feasible to use. Hence, sampling is better due to following reasons

• Economical Sampling involves study of a fraction of population and hence the cost involved in sampling is relatively low. Census costs are high especially in case of large population with wide coverage in terms of area.
• Time Saving Huge amount of time is required to conduct a census survey if the population size is large or spread over a wide area while sample studies do not take that much time to be conducted.
• Lesser Effort As only a part of the population is studied, it entails lesser effort on the part of the investigator than that required in census.
• Inappropriateness of Census In certain case, when the population is infinite or exhaustible, census cannot be done and hence sampling is the only choice, e.g., one cannot burn all the units of coal available to know their calorific value; sample is the only means of testing it.
• Considerable Accuracy Results from sampling may not be as accurate as in case of sampling but the level of accuracy of these results can be established through statistical tests of significance and hence can be applied in general to the whole population if found significant.

Question And Answer:

Q.1Mark the following statements as true or false.
(i) Statistics can only deal with quantitative data.
(ii) Statistics solves economic problems.
(iii) Statistics is of no use to Economics without data.
ANSWER:
(i) False Statistics deals with both quantitative data as well as with qualitative data. Qualitative data describes the attributes.
(ii) True Economists use Statistics as a tool to understand and evaluate an economic problem by analysing past data. Statistical tools help economists to identify causes of an economic problem and devise policies accordingly.
(iii) True Data is the raw material for economic analysis. Statistical analysis of economic variables cannot be undertaken without having any data.

Q.2 Make a list of activities that constitute the ordinary business of life. Are these economic activities?
ANSWER:
The following are the activities that constitute the ordinary business of life

• Buying of goods and services.
• Rendering services to a company by employees and workers.
• Selling of goods and services.
• Production process carried out by a firm.

Yes, the above mentioned activities are regarded as economic activities. This is because, these activities are undertaken for monetary gain and are thus economic activities.

Q.3 The government and policy makers use statistical data to formulate suitable policies of economic development’. Illustrate with two examples.
ANSWER:
The statistical data provide the base for the government and the policy makers to formulate policies. The statistical data not only help them to analyse and evaluate the outcomes of the past policies but also assist them to take corrective measures and to formulate new policies. Statistical data also help the government to ascertain the relationship between economic variables and form policies accordingly.

For example, if Indian Government aims at increasing the national output, then it formulates its investment expenditure policy based on the capital output ratio in the past few years. Another example could be the preparation of monetary policy. The previous data of inflation and economic growth are taken into consideration for estimating the money supply required in the next period.

“Q.4 You have unlimited wants and limited resources to satisfy them.” Explain by giving two examples.
ANSWER:
The problem of scarcity is the most basic economic problem. Human wants are unlimited and resources to satisfy these wants are limited and these limited resources have alternative uses. ‘Scarcity of resources’ implies that there are unlimited wants to be fulfilled by limited resources which leads to lesser supply of resources as compared to demand for them.

The basic concern of an economy is to allocate the scarce resources to the best possible use in order to satisfy maximum wants. The limited resources have alternative uses which along with problem of scarcity makes it necessary for an economy to make a choice among various alternatives.

For example, an economy endowed with a given level of resources has to make a choice between the production of capital goods and consumer goods. The choice of the economy (i.e., what to produce and in what quantities) depends on the need of the economy. While the production of consumer goods will hamper the capital formation in the country for future production, the production of capital goods will not provide sufficient goods for consumption to the present population

The same problem of scarcity can be felt at an individual level, e.g., with a given amount of money say, ? 10,000, one cannot buy a refrigerator and a washing machine simultaneously. Thus, the individual needs to make a choice between the alternatives according to his/her priority.

Q.5 How will you choose the wants to be satisfied?
ANSWER:
An individual may have unlimited wants but these wants are in an order of priority according to their intensity. The wants of highest intensity will be fulfilled first as they provide the highest satisfaction or utility to the individual and hence, the individual attaches the top most priority to these wants.

Further, the choice of want also depends on the need or priority in the given situation, availability of the goods and services which can satisfy the wants and the purchasing power to realise a particular want. Thus, depending on all these conditions, we can say that an individual having a limited budget will fulfil a particular need that would provide him/her the highest possible satisfaction in the given income and given prices of the goods and services required to satisfy the wants. satisfaction in the given income and given prices of the goods and services required to satisfy the wants.

Q.6 What are your reasons for studying Economics?
ANSWER:
Human wants are unlimited and resources to satisfy these wants are limited and these limited resources have alternative uses. The basic concern of economics is to allocate the scarce resources to the best possible use in order to derive maximum benefit from the scarce resources. Due to the scarcity of resources having alternative uses, an economy needs to allocate the scarce resources to the areas with maximum possible and optimum returns. The following are the reasons that make the study of economics important
(i) To Study the Consumer Behaviour The theory of consumer behaviour in Economics deals with the study of the behaviour of the consumers in different types of market situations. This theory helps us understand how a rational consumer makes his/her decisions to get the maximum possible satisfaction in the given income and given prices of the goods and services.

(ii) To Study the Production Theory The theory of production studies the production decisions of the producers in different types of market. The theory explains how a producer takes production decisions related to maximisation of output in given cost or the minimisation of cost for a given level of output. The theory highlights how a producer combines different inputs (given their prices) in order to minimise the cost of production and to maximise the profits.

(iii) To Study the Distribution of Income The study of Economics makes us aware about the distribution of national income. In other words, it tells us how the income arising from the total production in an economy is distributed in the form of wage, rent, interest and profit to different factor owners (like labour, land, capital and entrepreneur).

(iv) To Study the Macroeconomic Problems Faced by an Economy Economics proves to be the most powerful tool to understand and analyse the root cause of basic macroeconomic problems faced by an economy like poverty, unemployment, inflation, recession etc. Economics helps us not only in understanding the interrelationship among these problems but also to take various corrective measures.

Q.7 Statistical methods are no substitute for common sense. Comment.
ANSWER:
It is absolutely true that statistical methods are no substitute for common sense. Statistical data should not be believed blindly as they can be misinterpreted or misused. The statistical data may involve personal bias or may be subject to manipulations for one’s own selfish motive.

Statistical data and methods are subject to the errors committed by an investigator while surveying and collecting data. Thus, one should use his/her common sense while working with the statistical methods.

This point can be understand with the help of an example A person who wanted to cross a river with his family but did not know how to swim. He knew the average depth of the river to be 125 cm. His height was 175 cm, that of his wife was 152 cm and his two children measured 120 cm and 90 cm respectively in height.

He calculated the average height of his family and found it to be around 134 cm. He analysed that the average depth of the river was less than the average height of his family and concluded that they all could cross the river safely on foot. This resulted in drowning of his children. This example proves that common sense must supersede statistical methods.

Question And Answer:

Q.1Mention some examples of regional and economic groupings.
ANSWER: Every country aims to strengthen its own domestic territory. The nations are forming regional and global economic groupings such as:

1. SAARC. It has 8 countries of South Asia.
2.  EU has 25 independent states based on European Communities.
3.  ASEAN. It has 5 countries of South East Asia.
4.  G-8 (Group of Eight). It has 8 countries.
5.  G-20 (Group of Twenty). It consists of 19 world’s largest economies.

Q.2 What are the various means by which countries are trying to strengthen their own domestic economies?
ANSWER:  Countries are trying to strengthen their own domestic economies by:

1.  forming regional apd global economic groupings like SAARC, EU, ASEAN, G-8, G-20, etc.
2.  By having economic reforms.

Q.3 What similar development strategies have India and Pakistan followed for their respective developmental paths?
ANSWER: Similar developmental strategies of India and Pakistan are:

1.  India has the largest democracy of the world. Pakistan has authoritarian militarist political power structure.
2.  Both India and Pakistan followed a mixed economy approach. Both countries created a large public sector and planned to raise public expenditure on social development.

Q.4 Explain the Great Leap Forward campaign of China as initiated in 1958.
ANSWER:  Communist China or the People’s Republic of China, as it is formally known, came into being in 1949. There is only one party, i.e., the Communist Party of China that holds the power there. All the sectors of economy including various enterprises and all land owned by individuals was brought under governmental control. A programme called ‘The Great Leap Forward’ was launched in 1958. Its aim was to industrialise the country on a large scale and in as short a time as possible. For this, people were eyeji encouraged to set up industries in their backyards. In villages, village Communes or cooperatives were set up. Communes means collective cultivation of land. Around 26000 communes covered almost all the farm population in 1958.
The Great Leap Forward programme faced many problems. These were:

1.  In the earlier phase, a severe drought occurred in China and it killed some 3 crore people.
2.  Soviet Russia was a comrade to communist China, but they had border dispute. As a result, Russia withdrew its professionals who had been helping China in its industrialisation bid.

Q.5 China’s rapid industrial growth can be traced back to its reforms in 1978. Do you agree? Elucidate.
ANSWER: Starting 1978, several reforms were introduced in phases in China. First, agriculture, foreign trade and investment sectors were taken up. Commune lands were divided into small plots. These were allotted to individual households for cultivation.
The reforms were expanded to industrial sector. Private firms were allowed to set up manufacturing units. Also, local collectives or cooperatives could produce goods. This meant competition between the newly sanctioned private sector and the old state-owned enterprises.
This kind of reform in China brought in the necessity of dual pricing. This meant the farmers and industrial units were to buy and sell fixed quantities of raw material and products on the basis of prices fixed by the government. As production increased, the material transacted through the open market also rose in quantity. Special Economic Zones (SEZs) were set up in China to attract foreign investors.

Q.6 Describe the path of developmental initiatives taken by Pakistan for its economic development.
ANSWER:  The developmental initiatives taken by Pakistan were:

1.  In the late 1950s and 1960s, Pakistan introduced a variety of regulated policy framework (for import substitution industrialisation). The policy combined tariff protection for manufacturing of consumer goods together with direct import controls on competing imports.
2.  The introduction of Green Revolutioned led to mechanisation of agriculture. It finally led to a rise in the production of foodgrains. This changed the agrarian structure dramatically.
3.  In the 1970s, nationalisation of capital good industries took place.
4. In 1988, structural reforms were introduced. The thrust areas were denationalisation and en¬couragement to private sector.
5.  Pakistan received financial support from western nations and remittances from emigrants to the Middle East. It helped in raising economic growth of the country.

Q.7 What is the important implication of ‘one child norm’ in China?
ANSWER:  One-child norm introduced in China in the late 1970s is the major reason for low population growth. It is stated that this measure led to a decline in the sex ratio, that is, the proportion of females per 1000 males.

Q.8 Mention the salient demographic indicators of China, Pakistan and India.
ANSWER:  We shall compare some demographic indicators of India, China and Pakistan.

1. The population of Pakistan is very small and accounts for roughly about one-tenth of China or India.
2.  Though China is the largest nation geographically among the three, its density is the lowest.
3.  The population growth is highest in Pakistan followed by India and China. One-child norm introduced in China in the late 1970s is the major reason for low population growth. They also state that this measure led to a decline in the sex ratio, that is, the proportion of females per 1000 males.
4.  The sex ratio is low and biased against females in all the three countries. There is strong son- preference prevailing in 11 these countries.
5.  The fertility rate is low in China and very high in Pakistan.
6. Urbanisation is high in both Pakistan and China with India having 28 per cent of its people living in urban areas.

Q.9 Compare and contrast India and China’s sectoral contribution towards GDP. What does it in¬dicate?
ANSWER: Sectoral Distribution of Output and Employment:

1.  Agriculture Sector. China has more proportion of urban people than India. In China in the year 2009, with 54 per cent of its workforce engaged in agriculture, its contribution to GDP is 10 per cent. In India’s contribution of agriculture to GDP is at 17 per cent.
2.  Industry and Service Sectors. In both India and China, the industry and service sectors have less proportion of workforce but contribute more in terms of output. In China, manufacturing contributes the highest to GDP at 46 per cent whereas in India it is the service sector which contributes the highest. Thus, China’s growth is mainly contributed by the manufacturing sector and India’s growth by service sector.

Q.10 Mention the various indicators of human development.
ANSWER: Parameters of human development are:

1.  HDI— (a) Value—higher the better.
   (b) Rank—lower the better.
2.  Life expectancy—higher the better.
3. Adult literacy rate—higher the better.
4.  GDP per capita (PPP US $)—higher the better –
5.  Percentage of population below poverty line (on $1 a day)—lower the better.
6. Infant mortality rate (per 1000 live births)—lower the better.
7.  Maternal mortality rate (per 100,000 live births)—lower the better.
8.  Percentage of population having access to improved sanitation—higher the better.
9.  Percentage of population having access to improved water source—higher the better.
10.  Percentage of population which is undernourished (% of total) – lower the better.

Q.11Define the liberty indicator. Give some examples of liberty indicators.
ANSWER: Liberty indicator has actually been added as a measure of ‘the extent of democratic participation
in social and political decision-making’ but it has not been given any extra weight. Some of the
examples of liberty indicators are : literacy rate, women participation in politics, etc.

Q.12 Evaluate the various factors that led to the rapid growth in economic development in China.
ANSWER: Reforms were initiated jn China in 1978. China did not have any compulsion to introduce reforms.
1. Pre-Reform Period : Failures
(a) There was slow pace of growth and lack of modernisation in the Chinese economy under the Maoist rule.
(b) It was felt that Maoist vision of economic development which was based on decentralisation, self-sufficiency and shunning of foreign technology, goods and capital, had failed.
(c) Despite extensive land reforms, collectivisation, the Great Leap Forward and other initiatives, the per capita grain output in 1978 was the same as it was in the mid-1950s.
Pre-Reform Period: Success
(a) There was existence of infrastructure in the areas of education and health.
(b) There were land reform.
(c) There was decentralised planning and existence of small enterprises.
(d) There was extension of basic health services in rural areas.
(e) Through the commune system, there was more equitable distribution of foodgrains.
2. Post-Reform Period (after 1978): Success
(a) In agriculture, by handing over plots of land to individuals for cultivation, it brought prosperity to a vast number of poor people.
(b) It created conditions for the subsequent phenomenal growth in rural industries and built up a strong support base for more reforms.
(c) More reforms included the gradual liberalisation of prices, fiscal decentralisation, increased autonomy for state owned enterprises (SOEs), the introduction of a diversified banking system, the development of stock markets, the rapid growth of the non-state sector, and the opening to foreign trade and investment.
(d) The restructuring of the economy and resulting efficiency gains have contributed to a more than ten-fold increase in GDP since 1978. Measured on a Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) basis, China in 2005 stood as the second largest economy in the world after the US.
(e) China’s economic growth as measured in terms of GDP on an average is 10.9% per year. In economic size, China is surpassed today only by the US, Japan, Germany and France.
(f) If its present growth trend continues, China is likely to be the world’s largest economic power by any measure by the year 2025.
Comparative Development Experience of India with its Neighbours 11 .IS
(g) China had success when it enforced one-child norm in 1979. The low population growth of China can be attributed to this one factor.
Thus, China’s structural reforms introduced in 1978 in a phased manner offer various lessons from its success story.

Q.13 Group the following features pertaining to the economies of India, China and Pakistan under three heads.

1. One-child norm
2. Low fertility rate
3. High degree of urbanisation
4. Mixed economy
5. Very high fertility rate
6. Large population
7. High density of population
8. Growth due to inanufacturing sector
9. Growth due to service sector

ANSWER:

1. China
2. China
3.  Pakistan and China
4.  India and Pakistan
5. Pakistan
6.  India and China
7.  India
8.  China
9.  India.

Q.14 Give reasons for the slow growth and re-emergence of poverty in Pakistan.
ANSWER:  Reforms were initiated in Pakistan in 1988.
1. Pre-Reform Period : Failure
(a) The proportion of poor in 1960s was more than 40 per cent.
(b) The economy started to stagnate, suffering from the drop in remittances from the Middle East.
(c) A growth rate of over 5% in the 1980s could not be sustained and the budget deficit increased steadily.
(d) At times foreign exchange reserves were as low as 2 weeks of imports.
2. Post-Reform Period (after 1988): Failure
The reform process led to worsening of all the economic indicators.
(a) The growth rate of GDP and its sectoral constituents have fallen in the 1990s.
(b) The proportion of poor declined to 25 per cent in 1980s and started rising again in 1990s. The reasons for the slow-down of growth and re-emergence of poverty in Pakistan’s economy are:
(i) Agricultural growth and food supply situation were based not on an institutionalised process of technical change but on good harvest. When there was a good harvest, the economy was in a good condition; when it was not, the economic indicators showed stagnation or negative trends.
(ii) Fall in foreign exchange earnings coming from remittances from Pakistani workers in the Middle East and the exports of highly volatile agricultural products.
(iii) There was also growing dependence on foreign loans on the one hand and increasing difficulty in paying back the loans on the other.

Q.15 Compare and contrast the development of India, China and Pakistan with respect to some
salient human development indicators.
ANSWER:  It is clear that:

1. China is moving ahead of India .and Pakistan. This is true for many indicators—income indicator such as GDP per capita, or proportion of population below poverty line or health indicators such as mortality rates, access to sanitation, literacy, life expectancy or malnourishment.
2. Pakistan is ahead of India in reducing proportion of people below the poverty line and also its performance in education, sanitation and access to water is better than that of India. Both China and Pakistan are in similar position with respect to the proportion of people below the international poverty rate of $1 a day, whereas the proportion is almost two times higher for India.
3. In China, for one lakh births, only 38 women die whereas in India it is 230 and in Pakistan it is 260.
4. India and Pakistan are ahead of China in providing improved water sources.

Q.16 Comment on the growth rate trends witnessed in China and India in the last two decades.
ANSWER: Growth of Gross Domestic Product (%), 1980-2009 In 1980s, China had remarkable growth rate of 10.3% when India was finding it difficult to maintain a growth rate of even 5%. After two decades, there was a marginal improvement in India’s and China’s growth rate.

Q.17 Fill in the blanks:

1.  First Five Year Plan of commenced in the year 1956. (Pakistan/China)
2.  Maternal mortality rate is high iri (China/Pakistan)
3. Proportion of people below poverty line is more in (India/Pakistan)
4.  Reforms in were introduced in 1978. (China/Pakistan).

ANSWER: (1) Pakistan, (2) Pakistan, (3) India, (4) China.

Question And Answer:

Q.1What is meant by environment?
ANSWER: Environment is defined as the total planetary inheritance and the totality of all resources. It includes all the biotic and abiotic factors that influence each other. Biotic elements are all living elements — the birds, ainimals and plants, forests, fisheries, etc. Abiotic elements are like air, water, land, rocks, sunlight, etc.

Q.2 What happens when the rate of resource extraction exceeds that of their regeneration?
ANSWER:  Environment includes sun, soil, water and air which are essential ingredients for the sustenance of human life. The carrying capacity of the environment implies that the resource extraction is not above the rate of regeneration of the resources and the waste generated are within the assimilating capacity of the environment. Carrying capacity of the environment helps to sustain life. Absence of carryingjcapacity of environment means absence of life

Q.3 Classify the following into renewable and non-renewable resources (i) trees (ii) fish
(iii) petroleum (iv) coal (v) iron-ore (vi) water.
ANSWER:  Trees and fish are renewable resources.
Petroleum, coal, iron-ore and water are non-renewable resources.

Q.4 Two major environmental issues facing the world today are and .
ANSWER:  Global warming and Ozone depletion.

Q.5 How do the following factors contribute to the environmental crisis in India? What problem do they pose for the government?

1.  Rising population
2.  Air pollution
3.  Water contamination
4. Affluent consumption standards.
5.  Illiteracy
6.  Industrialisation
7.  Urbanisation
8.  Reduction of forest coverage
9.  Poaching
10.  Global warming.

ANSWER: 

1.  The high rate of growth of population adversely affects the environment. It certainly leads to soil and water pollution.
2. India is one of the ten most industrialised nations of the world. It has led to unplanned
   urbanisation, pollution and the risk of accidents. The CPCB (Central Pollution Control Board) has identified 17 categories of industries which are significant pollutors.
3.  Many states in India are on the edge of famine. Whatever water is available, it is polluted or contaminated. It causes diseases like diarrhoea and hepatitis.
4.  With affluent consumption standards, people Use more air conditioners. CFCs are used as cooling agents in air condition which leads to ozone depletion.
5.  Illiteracy and ignorance about the use of non-renewable resources, alternative energy sources, lead to environmental crisis.
6.  With rise in national income or economic activity, there is rise in industrialisation and urbanisation. This raises pollution of air, water and noise. There are accidents, shortage of water, housing problems, etc. In other words, with rise in national income there is ecological degradation which reduces welfare of the people.
7.  Whenever there is large migration of population from rural to urban areas, it leads to fast growth of slum areas. There is excess of load on the existing infrastructural facilities. It causes environmental degradation and ill health.
8.  The per capita forestland in the country is only 0.08 hectare. There is an excess felling of about 15 million cubic metre forests over the permissible limit. Indiscriminate felling of trees has led to destruction of forest cover.
   Once forests haye been cut down, essential nutrients are washed out of the soil all-together. This leads to soil erosion. It leads to disastrous flooding since there is no soil to soak up the rain.
9.  Poaching leads to extinction of wildlife.
   The long-term results of global warming are:
   (a) Melting of polar ice caps with a resulting rise in the sea level and coastal flooding.
   (b) Disruption of drinking water supplies as snow melts.
   (c) Extinction of species.
   (d) Frequent tropical storms and tropical diseases.

Q.6 What are the functions of the environment?
ANSWER:  The environment performs^four vital functions:

1. Environment Supplies Resources. Resources include both renewable and non-renewable re¬sources. Renewable resources are those which can be used without the possibility of the resource becoming depleted or exhausted. In other words, a continuous supply of the resource remains available. Examples of renewable resources are trees in the forest and fish in the ocean. Non-renew¬able resources are those which get exhausted with extraction and use. Example, fossil fuels.
2.  Environment Sustains Life. Environment includes sun, soil, water and air which are essential ingredients for the sustenance of human life. The carrying capacity of the environment implies that the resource extraction is not above the rate of regeneration of the resources and the waste generated are within the assimilating capacity of the environment. Carrying capacity of the environment helps to sustain life. Absence of carrying capacity of environments means absence of life.
3.  Environment Assimilates Waste. Production and consumption activities generate waste. This occur mostly in the form of garbage. Environment absorbs garbage.
4.  Environment Enhances Quality of Life. Environment includes oceans, mountains, deserts, etc. Man enjoys these surroundings, adding to the quality of life.

Q.7 Identify six factors contributing to land degradation in India.
ANSWER:   Some of the factors responsible for land degradation are:

1. Loss of vegetation occuring due to deforestation
2.  Unsustainable fuel wood and fodder extraction .
3.  Shifting cultivation
4. Encroachment into forest lands
5. Forest fires and over grazing
6. Non-adoption of adequate soil conservation measures.

Q.8 Explain how the opportunity costs of negative environmental impact are high.
ANSWER:   Opportunity cost is the cost of alternative opportunity given up. The country has to pay huge amount for damages done to human health. The health cost due to degraded environmental quality have resulted in diseases like asthma, cholera, etc. Huge expenditure is incurred in treat¬ing the diseases.

Q.9 Outline the steps involved in attaining sustainable development in India.
ANSWER:   Steps and Strategies to Achieve Sustainable Development in India:

1.  Use of Non-Conventional Sources of Energy
2.  LPG, Gobar Gas in Rural Areas
3.  CNG in Urban Areas
4.  Wind Power
5. Solar Power through Photovoltaic Cells
6. Mini-Hydel Plants
7.  Traditional Knowledge and Practices
8.  Biocomposting
9.  Biopest Control.

Q.10 India has abundant natural r&ources—substantiate the statement.
ANSWER:  India has rich quality of natural resources in plenty. It is clear from the following points:

1.  India has rich quality of soil, hundreds of rivers and tributaries, lush green forests, abundant mineral deposits under the land surface, vast stretch of the Indian Ocean, mountain ranges, etc.
2.  The black soil of the Deccan Plateau is particularly suitable for cultivation of cotton. It has lead to concentration of textile industries in this region.
3.  The Indo-Gangetic plains — spread from the Arabian Sea to the Bay of Bengal — are one of the most fertile, intensively cultivated and densely populated regions in the world.
4.  India’s forests provide green cover for a majority of its population and natural cover for its
   wildlife.
5.  Large deposits of iron-ore, coal and natural gas are found in the country. India alone accounts for nearly 20 per cent of the world’s total iron-ore reserves.
6. Bauxite, copper, chromate, diamonds, gold, lead, lignite, manganese, zinc, uranium, etc. are also available in different parts of the country.

Q.11Is environmental crisis a recent phenomenon? If so, why?
ANSWER:  Yes, because India is suffering from population explosion. .

1.  India has approximately 20 per cent of livestock population on a mere 2.5 per cent of the world’s geographical area. The high density of population and livestock and the competing
   uses of land for forestry, agriculture, pastures, human settlements and industries exert an enormous pressure on the country’s finite land resources.
2.  The per capita forestland in the country is only 0.08 hectare. There is an excess felling of about 15 million cubic metre forests over the permissible limit. Indiscriminate felling of trees has led to destruction of forest cover.

Q.12 Give two instances of:
(a) Overuse of environmental resources
(b) Misuse of environmental resources.
ANSWER: 

1. There is massive overuse and misuse of environmental resources. Examples of overuse of environmental resources are deforestation and land degradation.
2.  Example of misuse of environmental resources are ozone depletion and global warming.

Q.13 (a) State any four pressing environmental concerns of India.
(b) Correction for environmental damages involves opportunity costs — explain.
ANSWER:  (a) Pressing environmental concerns of India:

1.  Global Warming. Global warming is a gradual increase in the average temperature of the earth’s lower atmosphere as a result of the increase in greenhouse gases due to industrialisation in recent times.
2.  Ozone Depletion. The depletion of ozone layer has been caused by high levels of chlorine and bromine compounds in the stratosphere. It causes skin cancer, and lowers the production of acquatic organisms.
3.  Environmental Crisis. The rising population of the developing countries and the affluent • , consumption and production standards of the developed world have put a great stress on the environment in terms of its functions of supplying resources and assimilating waste.
4.  Massive Overuse and Misuse of Environmental Resources. There is massive overuse and misuse of environmental resources which results in deforestation, land degradation, ozone depletion and global warming. .

(b) The correction of environmental damages involve huge opportunity cost. It is the cost of alternative opportunity given up. The country has to pay huge amount for damages done to human health. The helath cost due to degraded environmental quality have resulted in diseases like asthma, cholera, etc. Huge expenditure is incurred on treating the diseases.

Q14 Explain the supply-demand reversal of environmental resources.
ANSWER:  Supply Demand Reversal of Environmental Resources: –
The demand for resources for both production and consumption has gone beyond the rate of regeneration of the resources increasing the pressure on the absorptive capacity of the environment. This reversal of the supply-demand relationship with demand for resources exceeding the supply has led to degeneration of the environment

Q.15Account for the current environmental crisis.
ANSWER: 

1. Land Degradation
2.  Biodiversity Loss
3.  Air Pollution
4.  Management of Fresh Water and Solid Waste.

Q.16. (a) Highlight any two serious adverse environmental consequences of development in India.
(b) India’s environmental problems pose a dichotomy — they are poverty induced and, at the same time, due to affluence in living standards—is this true?
ANSWER:   (a)

1.  Biodiversity Loss
   (i) India has approximately 20 per cent of livestock population on a mere 2.5 per cent of the world’s geographical area. The high density of population and livestock and the competing uses of land for forestry, agriculture, pastures, human settlements and industries exert an enormous pressure on the country’s finite land resources.
   (ii) The per capita forestland in the country is only 0.08 hectare. There is an excess felling of about 15 million cubic metre forests over the permissible limit. Indiscriminate felling of trees has led to destruction of forest cover.
2.  Air Pollution
   (i) In India, air pollution is widespread in urban areas where vehicles are the major contributors. Vehicular emissions are of particular concern since these are ground level sources and, thus, have the maximum impact on the general population. The number of motor vehicles has increased from about 3 lakh in 1951 to 67 crores in 2003.
   (ii) India is one of the ten most industrialised nations of the world. It has led to unplanned urbanisation, pollution and the risk of accidents.

(b) Dichotomy of the Threat to India’s Environment
The developmental activities in India have resulted in pressure on its finite natural resources, besides .creating impacts on human health and well-being. The threat to India’s environment poses a dichotomy—threat of poverty-induced environmental degradation and, at the same time, threat of pollution from affluence and a rapidly growing industrial sector. Air pollution, water contamination, soil erosion, deforestation and wildlife extinction are some of the most pressing environmental concerns of India.

Q.17What is sustainable development?
ANSWER:   Sustainable Development implies meeting the basic needs of everyone and extending to all the opportunity to satisfy their aspirations for better life, without compromising on the needs of future.

Q.18 Keeping in view your locality, describe any four strategies of sustainable development.
ANSWER:  Four strategies of sustainable development in my locality can be:

1. Solar energy should be put up.
2.  People should use less air conditioners.
3.  People should use herbal cosmetics.
4.  People should not use polythene bags, instead they must use bags made of paper.

Q.19 Explain the relevance of intergenerational equity in the definition of sustainable development.
ANSWER:  The Brundtland Commission emphasises on protecting the future generations. This is in line with the argument of the environmentalists who emphasise that we have a moral obligation to hand over the planet earth in good order to the future generations, i.e., the present generation should give better environment to the future generations, no less than what we have inherited.
According to the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) sustained development is, “Development that meets the needs of the present generation without compromising the ability of the future generation to meet their own needs.”

Question And Answer:

Q.1 Explain the term ‘infrastructure’.
ANSWER: Infrastructure refers to the basic supporting structure which is built to provide different kinds of services in an economy. Infrastructural installations do not directly produce goods but help in promoting production activities in an economy. Examples of infrastructure are: transport, communication, banking, power etc.

Q.2 Explain the two categories into which infrastructure is divided. How are both interdependent?
ANSWER:  There are two types of infrastructure: (a) economic infrastructure, (b) social infrastructure.
Economic infrastructure directly supports the economic system from inside. Examples are energy, transport and communication. Social infrastructure indirectly supports the economic system from outside. Examples are health, education and housing.
Economic and social infrastructure are complementary to each other. Economic infrastructure improves the qualityof economic resources and raises the production, but it cannot be possible until population is literate to use them efficiently. Thus, both of them are needed for the growth and development of the country.

Q.3 How do infrastructure facilities boost production?
ANSWER:  The prosperity of a country depends directly upon the development of agricultural and industrial production. Agricultural production requires power, credit, transport facilities, etc.; the deficiency of which leads to fall in productivity. Industrial production requires machinery and equipment, energy, banking and insurance facilities, marketing facilities, transport services which include railways, roads and shipping and communication facilities etc. All these facilities help in raising agricultural and industrial productivity.

Q.4 Infrastructure contributes to the economic development of a country. Do you agree? Explain.
Answer. Infrastructure contributes to the economic development of a country and it is an important determinant of its growth and development. It raises productivity, induces investment in different areas of economic activity, raises size of the market, facilitates outsourcing and employment. Thus, it is an essential support system for the economic development of the country.

Q.5 What is the state of rural infrastructure in India?
ANSWER: A majority of people live in rural areas. The state of rural infrastructure in India is as follows:

1.  Rural women are still using bio-fuels such as crop residues, dung and fuel wood to meet their energy requirement.
2.  They walk long distances to fetch fuel, water and other basic needs.
3.  The census 2001 shows that in rural India only 56 per cent households have an electricity connection and 43 per cent still use kerosene. About 90 per cent of the rural households use bio-fuels for cooking.
4.  Tap water availability is limited to only 24 per cent of rural households. About 76 per cent of the population drinks water from open sources such as wells, tanks, ponds, lakes, rivers, canals, etc.
5.  Another study conducted by the National Sample Survey Organisation noted that by 1996, access to improved sanitation in rural areas was only 6 per cent.

Q.6 What is the significance of ‘energy’? Differentiate between commercial and non-commercial sources of energy.
ANSWER: Energy is a critical aspect of development process of a nation. It is essential for industries, agriculture and related areas like transportation of finished goods. It is also used for domestic purposes like cooking, lighting, heating, etc.
Difference between Commercial and Non-commercial Sources of Energy

Q.7 What are the three basic sources of generating power?
ANSWER:  Sources of generating power are:

1.  water—it gives hydroelectricity.
2. oil, gas, coal—they give thermal electricity.
3.  radioactive elements like uranium, plutonium—they give atomic power or nuclear power.

Q.8 What do you mean by transmission and distribution losses? How can they be reduced?
ANSWER:  Transmission and Distribution (T&D) losses refer to theft of power which has not been controlled.
Nation’s average loss is 23%.
T&D losses can be reduced by having:

1.  Appropriate size of conductors
2. Proper load management
3.  Meter supply
4.  Privatisation of distribution work
5.  Introduction of energy audits. Some steps have already been initiated in this direction.

Q.9 What are the various non-commercial sources of energy?
ANSWER:  Vegetable wastes, firewood and dried dung.

Q.10 Justify that energy crisis can be overcome with the use of renewable sources of energy.
ANSWER: There is energy crises in the country. The demand for all commercial fuels is more than its supply.
Government is encouraging the use of hydel and wind energy.
Bio-gas generation programmes have been boosted up. For a tropical country like India, where sun is an abundant source, solar energy should be given highest priority.

Q.11How has the consumption pattern of energy changed over the years?
ANSWER: Pattern of energy consumption in India is as follows:

1. In India, different sources of energy are converted into a common unit ‘million tonne of oil equivalent’ (MTOE).
2. At present, commercial energy consumption is 65 per cent of total energy consumed in India.
3.  Goal has the largest share of 55 per cent, followed by oil at 31 per cent, natural gas at 11 per cent and hydro energy at 3 per cent.
4.  Non-commercial energy sources account for over 30 per cent of the total energy consumption.
5.  There is import dependence on crude and petroleum products, which is likely to grow to more than 100 per cent in the near future.
6.  Atomic energy is an important source of electric power. At present nuclear/atomic energy accounts for only 2.4 per cent of total primary energy consumption.

Q.12 How are the rates of consumption of energy and economic growth connected?
ANSWER: Energy is a critical aspect of development process of a nation. It is essential for industries, agriculture and related areas like transportation of finished goods. It is also used for domestic purposes like cooking, lighting, heating, etc. With economic growth, consumption of energy will rise.

Q.13 What problems are being faced by the power sector in India?
ANSWER: Emerging Challenges in the Power Sector:

1.  Insufficient Installed Capacity
2.  Underutilisation of Capacity
3.  Losses Incurred by SEBs
4.  Uncertain Role of Private Players
5.  Public Unrest
6.  Shortage of Raw Materials
7.  Unable to Cover up the Transmission and Distribution (T&D) Losses
8.  Operational Inefficiency
9. Incomplete Electrification
10.  Need to Conserve Energy.

Q.14 Discuss the reforms which have been initiated recently to meet the energy crisis in India.
ANSWER: The reforms to meet energy crisis in India:

1.  Improved Plant Load Factor. The Ministry of Power has launched the ‘Partnership in Excellence’ programme. In this 26 thermal stations (with PLF less than 60%) have Been taken up for improving the efficiency.
2.  Encourage Private Sector Participation. In order to overcome the problems of power sector, the government announced a policy in 1991 which allowed private sector participation in power generation and distribution schemes. It is important to resolve the problems arid difficulties and frame policies which can ensure effective participation of private sector in this sector.
3.  Promote the Use of CFLs to Conserve Energy. A new and advanced lighting technology called the Compact Fluorescent Lamp (CFL) is a more efficient alternative to domestic energy consumption. According to the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), the Compact Fluorescent Lamps (CFLs) consume 80 per cent less power as compared to ordinary bulbs.

Q.15 What are the main characteristics of health of the people of our country?
ANSWER:  The main characteristics of health of people of our country:

1.  Decline in death rate to 8 per thousand in 2001.
2.  Reduction in infant mortality rate to 7 per thousand in 2001.
3.  Rise in life expectancy to 64 years in 2001.
4. Control over deadly diseases like cholera, smallpox, malaria, polio and leprosy.
5.  Fall in child mortality rate to 23 per thousand in 2001.

Q.16 What is a ‘global burden of disease’?
ANSWER:  Global Burden of Diseases (GBD) is an indicator used by experts to gauge the number of people dying prematurely, due to particular diseases as well as the number of years spent by them in a state of disability owing to the disease.

Q17 Discuss the main drawbacks of our health care system.
ANSWER:  Emerging Challenges in the Health:

1. High GBD
2.  Poor State of Primary Health Centres
3. Regional Bias—Urban-Rural Divide
4.  Income Bias—Poor-Rich Divide
5. Gender Bias—Poor Health of Women.
6.  Communicable diseases
7.  Poor Provision
8.  Privatisation

Q.18 How has women’s health become a matter of great concern?
ANSWER: Gender Bias—Poor Health of Women:

1.  There is growing incidence of female foeticide in the country. Close to 3,00,000 girls under the age of 15 are not only married but have already borne children at least once.
2.  More than 50 per cent of married women between the age group of 15 and 49 suffer from anaemia caused by iron deficiency. It has contributed to 19 per cent of maternal deaths.

Q.19 Describe the meaning of public health. Discuss the major public health measures undertaken by the state in recent years to control diseases.
ANSWER:  Public health refers to the health status of all the people of the country.
Some measures undertaken by the state in recent years to control diseases are:

1.  Success in the long-term battle against diseases depends on education and efficient health infrastructure. It is, therefore, critical to create awareness on health and hygiene systems.
2.  The role of telecom and IT sectors cannot be neglected in this process.
3.  The effectiveness of health care programmes also rests on primary centres. Efforts should be made to make PHCs more efficient.
4. Encouragement should be given to private-public partnership. They can effectively ensure reliability, quality and affordability of both drugs and medical care.

Q.20 List out the six systems of Indian medicine.
ANSWER: AYUSH means:
A : Ayurveda
Y : Yoga and Naturopathy
U : Unani
S : Siddha H : Homoeopathy.

Q.21 How can we increase the effectiveness of health care programmes?
ANSWER: Health is a vital public good and a basic human right. All citizens can get better health facilities if public health services are decentralised. Some measures that should be taken are:

1.  Success in the long-term battle against diseases depends on education and efficient health infra-structure. It is, therefore, critical to create awareness on health and hygiene systems.
2.  The role of telecom and IT sectors cannot be neglected in this process.
3.  The effectiveness of health care programmes also rests on primary centres. Efforts should be tnade to make PHCs more efficient.
4.  Encouragement should be given to private-public partnership. They can effectively ensure
   reliability, quality and affordability of both drugs and medical care. .

Question And Answer:

Q.1Who is a worker?
ANSWER: A worker is an individual who is doing some productive employment to earn a living.

Q.2 Define worker-population ratio.
ANSWER: Workforce Participation Rate (or ratio)

Participation ratio is defined as the percentage of total population which is actually participating in productive activity. It is also called workers-population ratio. It indicates the employment situation of the country. A high ratio means that more proportion of population is actively contributing to the production of goods and services of a country.

Q.3 Are the following workers — a beggar, a thief, a smuggler, a gambler? Why?
ANSWER:  No, they are not workers because they, are not doing any productive activity.

Q.4 Find the odd man out (i) owner of a saloon with more than 10 employees (ii) a cobbler
(iii) a cashier in Mother Dairy (iv) a tuition master (v) transport operator (vi) construction worker.
ANSWER: Owner of a saloon

Q.5 The newly emerging jobs are found mostly in the sector (service/manufacturing).
ANSWER: .Service.

Q.6.An establishment with four hired workers is known as (formal/informal) sector establishment.
ANSWER: Informal.

Q.7 Raj is going to school. When he is not in school, you will find him working in his farm. Can you consider him as a worker? Why?
ANSWER: .Raj is disguisedly unemployed.

Q.8 Compared to urban women, mSre rural women are found working. Why?
ANSWER: Participation rate for women is higher in rural areas compared with urban areas. It is because in rural areas, poverty forces women to seek employment. Without education, women in rural areas find only less productive jobs and get low wages.
In urban areas, men are able to earn high incomes. So they discourage female members from taking up jobs

Q.9 Meena is a housewife. Besides taking care of household chores, she works in the cloth shop which is owned and operated by her husband. Can she be considered as a worker? Why?
ANSWER: Meena is a self-employed worker. She is working in her husband’s cloth shop. She will not get salary.

Q.10 Find the odd man out (i) rickshaw puller who works under a rickshaw owner (ii) mason (iii) mechanic shop worker (iv) shoeshine boy.
ANSWER: Shoeshine boy.

Q.11The following table shows distribution of workforce in India for the year 1972-73. Analyse it and give reasons for the nature of workforce distribution. You will notice that the data is pertaining to the situation in India 30 years ago.

Place of Residence	Workforce(in millions)
	Male	Femal	Total
Rural	125	70	195
Urban	32	7	39

ANSWER: In 1972-73, out of total workforce of 234 million, 195 million was in rural areas and 39 million in urban areas. It shows 83% workforce lived in rural areas. Gender differences were also observed. In rural areas, males accounted for 125 million workforce and women 70 million of workforce. In urban areas, 32 million males formed the workforce whereas women workforce was only 7 million. In the country only 77 million female workers were there as compared to 157 million male workers. In other words, 32% of female workers were there and 68% male workers were there in the country in 1972-73. The data shows:
(a) pre dominance of agriculture.
(b) more male workers both in urban and rural areas.
(c) less female workers in both rural and urban areas. Also, female workers were much lesser in urban areas.

Q.12The following table shows the population and worker population ratio for India in 1999-2000. Can you estimate the workforce (urban and total) for India?

Region	Estimation of Population ( in crores)	Workers Population	Estimated Workers (in crores)
Rural	71.88	41.99	(71.88/100)x41.9 = 30.12
Urban	28.52	33.7	?
Total	100.40	39.5	?

ANSWER:  Estimated number of workers (in crores) for urban =28.52100 x 33.7 = 9.61 crores
Total workforce = 30.12 + 9.61 = 39.73 crores

Q.13Why are regular salaried employees more in urban areas than in rural areas?
ANSWER:  In urban areas, a considerable section is able to study in various educational institutions. Urban people have a variety of employment opportunities. They are able to look for an appropriate job to suit their qualifications and skills.J3ut in rural areas, people cannot stay at home as they are economically poor.

Q.14 Why are less women found in regular salaried employment?
ANSWER:  Female workers give preference to self-employment than to hired employment. It is because women, both in rural and urban areas, are less mobile and thus, prefer to engage themselves in self-employment.

Q.15 Analyse the recent trends in sectoral distribution of workforce in India.
ANSWER: l.The data in occupational structure is as follows (for the year 1999-2000):
(a) Industry wise the distribution is:
(i) 37.1% of workforce is engaged in primary sector.
(ii) 18.7% of workforce is engaged in secondary sector.
(iii) 44.2% of workforce is engaged in tertiary sector.
(b) Area wise the data is:
(i) In rural areas:
77% of workforce is in primary sector.
11% of workforce is in secondary sector.
12% of workforce is in tertiary sector.
(ii) In urban areas:
10% of workforce is in primary sector.
31% of workforce is in secondary sector.
59% of workforce is in tertiary sector.
2. The data reveals that:
(a) Economic backwardness in the country as 60% of workforce is engaged in agricultural activities. A large proportion of population depend on agriculture for their livelihood.
(b) In urban area, tertiary sector account for 59% of workforce. It shows development and growth in the tertiary sector and the fact that this sector is able to generate sustainable employment and provide livelihood to 59% of the workforce.
3. It can be concluded that in the urban areas, tertiary sector is the main source of livelihood for majority of workforce.

Q.16 Compared to the 1970s, ’there has hardly been any change in the distribution of workforce across various industries. Comment.
ANSWER:  It is true that no much change is observed in the distribution of workforce across various industries. It is because the plans did not emphasise the need for development of:
(a) non-agricultural rural employment industries.
(b) small scale, village and cottage industries.

Q.17 Do you think that in the last 50 years, employment generated in the country is commensurate with the growth of GDP in India? How?
ANSWER:  Jobless growth is defined as a situation in which there is an overall acceleration in the growth rate of GDP in the economy which is not accompanied by a commensurate expansion in employment opportunities.This means that in an economy, without generating additional employment we have been able to produce more goods and services. Since the starting of economic reforms in 1991, our economy is experiencing a gap between GDP growth rate and employment growth rate that is, jobless growth.

Q.18 Is it necessary to generate employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal sector? Why?
ANSWER:  With economic reforms in 1991, there has been significant rise in informalisation of workers. Since informal workers face uncertainties of making of living, it is surprising that such a high percentage of total workforce prefer to be employed in the informal sector. All necessary steps should be taken to generate employment in the formal sector, which is only 7% at present.

Q.19 Victor is able to get work only for two hours in a day. Rest of the day, he is looking for work. Is hie unemployed? Why? What kind of jobs could persons like Victor be doing?
ANSWER:  No. he is employed because Victor has work for 2 hours daily for which he gets paid. He is a casual worker.

Q.20 You are residing in a village. If you are asked to advice the village panchayat, what kinds of activities would you suggest for the improvement of your village which would also generate employment.
ANSWER:  Digging of wells, fencing, building roads and houses, etc.

Q.21 Who is a casual wage labourer?
ANSWER: Those people who are not hired by their employers on a regular/permanent basis and do not get social security benefits are said to be casual workers. Example: construction workers.

ANSWER:  Informal Sector:
(a) It is an unorganised sector of an economy which includes all those private sector enterprises which employ less than 10 workers. Example: agriculture labourers, farmers, owners of small enterprises, etc.
(b) The workers of this sector are called informal workers.
(c) The workers are not entitled to social security benefits.
(d) The workers cannot form trade union and are not protected by labour laws.

Q.1 What do you mean by rural development? Bring out the key issues in rural development.
ANSWER: Rural development is a comprehensive term which essentially focuses on action for the development of areas that are lagging behind in the overall development of the village economy.
Some of the areas which are in need of fresh initiatives for rural development are:

1.  Development of human resources like literacy, more specifically, female literacy, education and skill development.
2.  Development of human resources like health, addressing both sanitation and public health.
3.  Honest implementation of land reforms.
4.  Development of the productive resources in each locality.
5.  Infrastructure development like electricity, irrigation, credit, markseting, transport facilities including construction of village roads and feeder roads to nearby highways, facilities for agriculture research-and extension, and information dissemination.
6.  Special measures for alleviation of poverty and bringing about significant improvement in the living conditions of the weaker sections of the population.

Q.2 Discuss the importance of credit in rural development.
  ANSWER: Farmers need money to buy additional land, implements and tools, fertilizers and seeds, paying off old debt, personal expenses like marriage, death, religious ceremonies, etc. Since the gestation period between crop sowing and realisation of income after sale of agricultural produce is very long, farmers need to take credit.

Q.3 Explain the role of micro-credit in meeting credit requirements of the poor.
  ANSWER:  SHGs (Self-Help Groups) and micro credit programmes promote thrift in small proportions by a minimum contribution from each member. From the pooled money, credit needs are fulfilled. The member have to repay the credit in small instalments at low rate of interest. The borrowings are mainly for consumption purposes.

Q.4 Explain the steps taken by the government in developing rural markets.
  ANSWER: The government has taken various steps for improving agricultural marketing system. These are:

1.  Establishment of Regulated Markets. Government has formed regulated markets to remove most of the evils of an unorganised market system.
   Functions of regulated markets are:
   (i) Enforcement of standard weights.
   (ii) Fixation of charges, fees, etc.
   (iii) Settling of disputes among the operating parties in the market.
   (iv) Prevention of unlawful deductions and control of wrong practices of middlemen.
   (v) Providing reliable market information.
2.  Provision of Infrastructural Facilities. The government has taken measures to develop ; infrastructural facilities like roads, railways, warehouses, godowns, cold storages and processing units.
3.  Co-operative Market. Co-operative marketing is a measure to ensure a fair price to fanners. Member farmers sell their surplus to the co-operative society which substitutes collective bargaining in place of individual bargaining. It links rural credit farming marketing processes to the best advantage of the farmers.
4.  Important Instruments to Safeguard the Interests of Farmers. The Government has also developed some instruments to safeguard the interests of farmers. These instruments are:
5.  Fixation of Minimum Support Price (MSP)
   (ii) Buffer Stock
   (iii) Public Distribution System (PDS).

Q.5 Why is agricultural diversification essential for sustain-able livelihoods?
  ANSWER:  Diversification into non-farm activities is important because it will:

1. reduce the risk from agriculture sector.
2.  provide sustainable livelihood options to people living in villages.
3. provide ecological balance.

Q.6 Critically evaluate the role of the rural banking system in the process of rural development in India.
  ANSWER: Since 1969, when the nationalisation of commercial banks took place, rural banking has expanded a great deal. Significant expansion of rural banking system played a positive role in:

1.  Raising farm and non-farm output by providing services and credit facilities to farmers.
2.  Providing long term loans with better repayment options. It, thus helped in eliminating moneylenders from the scene.
3.  Generating credit for self-employment schemes in rural areas.
4. Achieving food security which is clear from the abundant buffer stocks of grains.

Limitations of rural banking are:

1.  The sources of institutional finance are inadequate to meet the requirements of agricultural credit. Farmers still depend on money-lenders for their credit needs.
2.  There exist regional inequalities in the distribution of institutional credit.
3. Rural banking is suffering from the problems of large amount of overdues and default rate.
4.  Small and marginal farmers receive only a very small portion of the institutional credit. A large portion of institutional credit is taken away by the rich farmers.

Q.7 What do you mean by agricultural marketing?
  ANSWER: Agricultural Marketing is defined as a process of marketing farm produce through wholesalers and stockists to ultimate consumers.

Q.8 Mention some obstacles that hinder the mechanism of agricultural marketing.
  ANSWER:  Defects of Agricultural Marketing are :

1.  Inadequate Warehouses
2.  Multiplicity of Middlemen
3.  Malpractices in Unregulated Markets
4.  Improper Measuring for Weighing, Grading and Standardisation
5.  Lack of Adequate Finance
6.  Inadequate means of Transport and Communication
7.  Inadequate Market Information.

Q.9 What are the alternative channels available for agricultural marketing? Give some examples.
  ANSWER:  In India, alternative marketing channels are emerging. Through these channels farmers directly
sell their produce to the consumers. This system increases farmers’, share in the price paid by the consumers. Important examples of such channels are: (a) Apani Mandi (Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan), (b) Hadaspar Mandi (Pune); Rythu Bazars (Vegetable and fruit market in Andhra Pradesh) and (c) Uzhavar Sandies (Tamil Nadu), (d) Several national and international fast food chains and hotels are also entering into contracts with the farmers to supply them fresh vegetables and fruits.

Q.10 Explain the term ‘Golden Revolution’.
  ANSWER: The period between 1991-2003 is called ‘Golden Revolution’ because during this period, the planned investment in horticulture became highly productive and the sector emerged as a sustainable livelihood option. India has emerged as a world leader in producing a variety of fruits like mangoes, bananas, coconuts, cashew nuts and a number of spices and is the second largest producer of fruits and vegetables.

Q.11 Explain four measures taken by the government to improve agricultural marketing.
  ANSWER:  The government has taken various steps for improving agricultural marketing system. These are:

1.  Establishment of Regulated Markets. Government has formed regulated markets to remove most of the evils of an unorganised market system. Functions of regulated markets are:
   (i) Enforcement of standard weights.
   (ii) Fixation of charges, fees, etc.
   (iii) Settling of disputes among the operating parties in the market.
   (iv) Prevention of uMawful deductions and control of wrong practices of middlemen.
   (v) Providing reliable market information.
2.  Provision of Infrastructural Facilities. The government has taken measures to develop infrastructural facilities like roads, railways, warehouses, godowns, cold storages and processing units.
3.  Co-operative Market. Co-operative marketing is a measure to ensure a fair price to farmers. Member farmers sell their surplus to the co-operative society which substitutes collective bargaining in place of individual bargaining. It links rural credit farming marketing processes to the best advantage of the farmers.
4.  Important Instruments to Safeguard the Interests of Farmers. The Government has also developed some instruments to safeguard the interests of farmers. These instruments are:
   (i) Fixation of Minimum Support Price (MSP)
   (ii) Buffer Stock
   (iii) Public Distribution System (PDS).

Q.12 Explain the role of non-farm employment in promoting rural diversification.
  ANSWER: The non-farm sectors include agro-processing industries, food processing industries, leather industry, tourism, etc. Some other sectors which have the potential but lack infrastructure are traditional household-based industries like pottery, crafts, handlooms, etc.

Q.13 Bring out the importance of animal husbandry, fisheries and horticulture as a source of diversification.
  ANSWER:

1. Animal Husbandry
   (a) In India, the farming community uses the mixed crop-livestock farming system—cattle, goats, fowl are the widely held species.
   (b) This system provides increased stability in income, food security, transport, fuel and nutrition for the family without disrupting other food-producing activities.
   (c) Today, livestock sector alone provides alternate livelihood options to over 70 million small and marginal farmers including landless labourers.
   (d) Poultry accounts for the largest share. It is 42 per cent of total livestock in India.
   (e) Milk production in the country has increased by more than four times between 1960-2002.
   (f) Meat, eggs, wool and other by-products are also emerging as important productive sectors for diversification.
2.  Fisheries
   (a) The fishing community regards the water body as ‘mother’ or ‘provider’. The water bodies consist of sea, oceans, rivers, lakes, natural aquatic ponds, streams, etc.
   (b) Presently, fish production from inland sources contributes about 49 per cent to the total fish production and the balance 51 per cent comes from the marine sector (sea and oceans). Today total fish production accounts for 1.4 per cent of the total GDP.
   (c) Among states, Kerala, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu are the major producers of marine products.
3. Horticulture
   (a) Due to varying climate and soil conditions, India has adopted growing of diverse horticultural crops such as fruits, vegetables, tuber crops, flowers, medicinal and aromatic plants, spices and plantation crpps..
   (b) These crops play an important role in providing food, nutrition and employment.
   (c) India has emerged as a world leader in producing a variety of fruits like mangoes, bananas, coconuts, cashew, nuts and a number of spices and is the second largest producer of fruits and vegetables.
   (d) Flower harvesting, nursery maintenance, hybrid seed production and tissue culture, propagation of fruits and flowers and food processing are highly profitable employment opportunities for rural women. It has been estimated that this sector provides employment to around 19 per cent of the total labour force.

Q.14 ‘Information technology plays a very significant role in achieving sustainable development and food security’—comment.
  ANSWER:  Information technology plays a very significant role in achieving sustainable development and food security in the following ways:

1.  It can act as a tool for releasing the creative potential and knowledge embedded in our poeple.
2.  Issues like weather forecast, crop treatment, fertilizers, pesticides, storage conditions, etc. can be well administered if expert opinion is made available to the farmers.
3.  The quality and quantity of crops can be increased manifold if the farmers are made aware of the latest equipments, technologies and resources.
4.  IT has ushered in a knowledge economy.
5.  It has potential of employment generation in rural areas.

Q.15 What is organic farming and how does it promote sustainable development?
  ANSWER: Organic farming is a system of farming that maintains, enhances and restores the ecological balance.
Need for organic farming arises because:

1. In the past, modem farming methods made excessive use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides. It led to soil, water and air pollution, loss of soil fertility and too much chemical contents in foodgrains.
2.  There is urgency to conserve the environment and eco-system and promote sustainable development.
3.  Organic farming is an inexpensive farming technology. It can be purchased by small and marginal farmers.

Q.16 Identify the benefits and limitations of organic farming. .
  ANSWER: The advantages of organic farming are:

1.  Inexpensive Process. Organic agriculture offers a means to substitute costlier agricultural inputs (such as HYV seeds, chemical fertilizers, pesticides, etc.) with locally produced organic inputs that are cheaper and thereby generate more return on investment.
2.  Generates Income. It generates income through international exports as the demand for organically grown crops is on a rise.
3.  Healthier and Tastier Food. Organically grown food has more nutritional value than food grown with chemical farming. It, thus, provides us with healthy foods.
4.  Solves Unemployment Problem. Since organic farming requires more labour input than conventional farming, it will solve unemployment problem.
5.  Environment Friendly. The produce is pesticide-free and produced in an environmentally sustainable way.

Limitations of organic farming are:

1.  It has been observed that the yield from organic farming is much less than modern agricultural farming. Thus, goods produced organically command a higher price.
2. Small and marginal farmers may not adapt to this type of farming due to lack of awareness and limited choice of alternate production in off-seasons.
3.  Organic produce may have a shorter shelf life.

Q.17 Enlist some problems faced by farmers during the initial years of organic farming.
  ANSWER:

1.  Organic farming requires:
   (a) Organic Manure
   (b) Bio-fertilizers
   (c) Organic Pesticides
   Although they are cheaper to qjatain, yet farmers find it difficult to get them.
2.  The yield from organic farming is much less than modem agricultural farming.
3. The price of organic foods is high, so it is difficult to sell them.
4.  Organic produce generally has a shorter shelf life.