CHAPTER 3 : Private, Public and Global Enterprises NCERT MCQ CLASS 11TH BUSINESS STUDIES | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON Private, Public and Global Enterprises:

Q.1 Reconstruction of sick public sector units is taken up by :

(a) MOFA
(b) MOU
(c) BIFR
(d) NRF

Answer

(b) MOU


Q.2 Indian railway is which form of organization :

(a) Public corporation
(b) Department organization
(c) Government company
(d) None of these

Answer

(b) Department organization


Q.3 Which is not the profit of MNC’s :

(a) Increase in foreign investment
(b) Increase in Employment
(c) Danger to domestic industries
(d) Loss of controlShow Answer

(c) Danger to domestic industries


Q.4 Indian food corporation comes under which form of organization :

(a) Department
(b) Government company
(c) Private
(d) None of these

Answer

(c) Private


Q.5 When two Business undertaking get united in order to share profit and common objective, then it is called :

(a) MNC’s
(b) Company
(c) Partnership
(d) Joint venture

Answer

(d) Joint venture


Q.6 How many industries are reserved for public sectors :

(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 17
(d) 3

Answer

(d) 3


Q.7 Indian economy is _

(a) Closed Economy
(b) Private Economy
(c) Mixed Economy
(d) Fully Developed Economy

Answer

(c) Mixed Economy


Q.8 Preliminary Contracts are signed

(a) After commencement of business business
(b) After incorporation but before the capital subscription
(c) Before the incorporation
(d) After incorporation but before

Answer

(c) Before the incorporation


Q.9 Statutory corporations are __

(a) Private enterprises
(b) Sole Proprietorship
(c) Public enterprises
(d) None of the above

Answer

(c) Public enterprises


Q.10 Which of the following comes under the private sector?

(a) Joint Hindu Family
(b) Partnership
(c) Sole Proprietorship
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above


Q.11 Application for approval of name of a company is to be made to

(a) Government of the State in which Company is to be registered
(b) Registrar of Companies
(c) SEBI
(d) Government of India

Answer

(b) Registrar of Companies


Q.12 Which one of the following is the disadvantage of MNCs?

(a) Disregard national Priorities
(b) Bringing foreign exchange
(c) Improved standard of living
(d) Bringing Advanced Technology

Answer

(a) Disregard national Priorities


Q.13 Steel Authority Of India Limited is a public enterprise. Identify this form of public enterprises

(a) Government Company
(b) Statutory Corporation
(c) Departmental Undertaking
(d) Multinational Company

Answer

(a) Government Company


Q.14 Reconstruction of sick public sector units is taken up by

(a) MOFA
(b) MOU
(c) BIFR
(d) NRF

Answer

(c) BIFR


Q.15 Centralised control in MNC’s implies control exercised by

(a) Branches
(b) Subsidiaries
(c) Headquarters
(d) Parliament

Answer

(c) Headquarters


Q.16 Departmental Undertakings are suitable in case of

(a) National security
(b) Commercial undertakings
(c) Industrial undertakings
(d) Infrastructural Facilities

Answer

(a) National security


Q.17 Which one of the following is NOT a public sector undertaking?

(a) Partnership
(b) Departmental undertaking
(c) Government companies
(d) Statutory corporation

Answer

(a) Partnership


Q.18 In the industrial policy resolution _, the Government of India has specified the approach towards the development of the industrial sector.

(a) 1956
(b) 1948
(c) 1932
(d) 2009

Answer

(a) 1956


Q.19 Which industry is not reserved for public sector :

(a) Sugar industry
(b) Nuclear energy
(c) Weapons
(d) Rail transport

Answer

(a) Sugar industry


Q.20 Canara Bank is example of which sector:

(a) Mixed
(b) Public
(c) Private
(d) None of these

Answer

(b) Public


Q.21 Which bank is related to private sector :

(a) Allahabad Bank
(b) Punjab Sindh Bank
(c) Canara Bank
(d) Oriental Bank of Commerce

Answer

(b) Punjab Sindh Bank

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CHAPTER 2 : Forms of Business Organisation NCERT MCQ CLASS 11TH BUSINESS STUDIES | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON Forms of Business Organisation:

Q.1 The karta in Joint Hindu Family business has :

(a) Limited liability
(b) Unlimited liability
(c) No liability for debts
(d) Joint liability

Answer

(b) Unlimited liability


Q.2 The board of directors of a joint stock company is elected by :

(a) General public
(b) Government bodies
(c) Shareholders
(d) Employees

Answer

(c) Shareholders


Q.3 Profits do not have to be shared. This statement refers to :

(a) Partnership
(b) Joint Hindu Family business
(c) Sole proprietorship
(d) Company

Answer

(c) Sole proprietorship


Q.4 The Head of the Joint Hindu Family business is called :

(a) Proprietor
(b) Director
(c) Karta
(d) Manager

Answer

(c) Karta


Q.5 A partner whose association with the firm is unknown to the general public is called:

(a) Active partner
(b) Sleeping partner
(c) Nominal partner
(d) Secret partner

Answer

(d) Secret partner

Q.6 The maximum number of partners allowed in the banking business are

(a) Ten
(b) No limit
(c) Twenty
(d) Two

Answer

(a) Ten


Q.7 At least 10 adults, no maximum limit in case of __

(a) Joint Hindu Family
(b) Cooperative Society
(c) Company
(d) PartnershipShow Answer

Answer

(b) Cooperative Society


Q.8 It is a form of business organization which is owned, managed, and controlled by an individual who is the recipient of all profits and bearer of all risks. Identify the concept.

(a) Sole Proprietorship
(b) Cooperative Society
(c) Joint Hindu family business
(d) Partnership

Answer

(a) Sole Proprietorship


Q.9 What do you understand by the term unlimited liability?

(a) The personal assets of the owner can be sold when the assets of the business are not enough to
(b) The personal assets of the owner cannot be sold at all
(c) The personal assets of the owner can be sold, according to the wish of the creditors
(d) The personal assets of the owner can be sold, only to a limited extent

Answer

(a) The personal assets of the owner can be sold when the assets of the business are not enough to


Q.10 Provision of residential accommodation to the members at reasonable rates is the objective of:

(a) Housing Cooperative
(b) Producers Cooperative
(c) Sleeping Partner
(d) Credit Cooperative

Answer

(a) Housing Cooperative


Q.11 Hindu Succession Act was passed in _

(a) 1960
(b) 1956
(c) 1952
(d) 1932

Answer

(b) 1956


Q.12 A prospectus is issued by

(a) Public company
(b) Private company
(c) Statutory Corporation
(d) Departmental undertaking

Answer

(a) Public company


Q.13 A partner whose association with the firm is unknown to the general public is called

(a) Active partner
(b) Nominal partner
(c) Secret partner
(d) Sleeping partner

Answer

(c) Secret partner


Q.14 What is the limit of members in case of a Private Company?

(a) 2
(b) 7
(c) 10
(d) 50

Answer

(d) 50


Q.15 The life of sole proprietorship business is _

(a) Unstable
(b) Stable
(c) Very short life
(d) Long life

Answer

(a) Unstable


Q.16 Provision of residential accommodation to the members at reasonable rates is the objective of

(a) Consumers cooperative
(b) Credit cooperative
(c) Housing cooperative
(d) Producers cooperative

Answer

(c) Housing cooperative


Q.17 The maximum number of partners allowed in the banking business are :

(a) Twenty
(b) Ten
(c) No limit
(d) Two

Answer

(b) Ten


Q.18 The capital of a company is divided into number of parts each one of which are called:

(a) Dividend
(b) Profit
(c) Interest
(d) Share

Answer

(d) Share


Q.19 In a cooperative society the principle followed is

(a) One share one vote
(b) One man one vote
(c) No vote
(d) Multiple votes

Answer

(b) One man one vote


Q.20 A company cannot come into existence without

(a) Issuing prospectus
(b) Electing directors
(c) Certificate of incorporation
(d) All of the above

Answer

(c) Certificate of incorporation


Q.21 Every partner is both an agent and a principal. Identify the characteristic of the partnership being referred here.

(a) Mutual Agency
(b) Risk Bearing
(c) Membership
(d) Formation

Answer

(a) Mutual Agency

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CHAPTER 1 : Business, Trade and Commerce NCERT MCQ CLASS 11TH BUSINESS STUDIES | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON Business, Trade and Commerce:

Q.1 The term business is derived from the word ______

(a) Buy and selling
(b) Financial markets
(c) Proprietorship
(d) BusyShow

Answer

(d) Busy

Q.2 Which of the following is an economic activity?

(a) Social Activities
(b) Patriotic Activities
(c) Profession
(d) Religious ActivitiesShow

Answer

(c) Profession



Q.3 Which of the following is not a characteristic of business activity?

(a) Wages
(b) Sale of product
(c) The factor of risk
(d) Manufacturing goods and servicesShow

Answer

(a) Wages


Q.4 _______ is an economic activity

(a) Non-employment
(b) Employment
(c) Non profit organisation
(d) None of the aboveShow

Answer

(b) Employment


Q.5 Bad debts due to non-payment of debts by debtors is an example of which type of business risk?

(a) Human
(b) Natural
(c) Physical
(d) EconomicShow

Answer

(a) Human


Q.6 Which has the large scope :

(a) Trade
(b) Commerce
(c) Industry
(d) BusinessShow

Answer

(b) Commerce


Q.7 Which of the following cannot be classified as an auxiliary to trade :

(a) Mining
(b) Insurance
(c) Warehousing
(d) TransportShow

Answer

(a) Mining


Q.8 Which of the broad categories of industries covers oil refinery and sugar mills :

(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) None of these

Answer

(b) Secondary


Q.9 The occupation in which people work for others and get remunerated in return is known as :

(a) Business
(b) Employment
(c) Profession
(d) None of themShow

Answer

(b) Employment


Q.10 Free Guidance by a teacher to his son is :

(a) An economic activity
(b) Profession
(c) Employment
(d) A non-economic activity

Answer

(d) A non-economic activity


Q.11 Capital is not an essential element in :

(a) Employment
(b) Profession
(c) Business
(d) None of theseShow

Answer

(a) Employment


Q.12 Economic activity = ……….. + ………. :

(a) Business + Profession
(b) Profession + Employment
(c) Business + Employment
(d) Business + Profession + Employment

Answer

(d) Business + Profession + Employment


Q.13 Business is :

(a) Art
(b) Science
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of theseShow

Answer

(c) Both (a) and (b)


Q.14 Which one of the following may not be a factor behind starting a business?

(a) Routine workload
(b) size of the firm
(c) finance
(d) location of the business

Answer

(a) Routine workload


Q.15 Which of the following cannot be classified as an objective of business?

(a) Investment
(b) Productivity
(c) Innovation
(d) Profit earningShow

Answer

(a) Investment


Q.16 Which of the following cannot be classified as an auxiliary to trade?

(a) Mining
(b) Insurance
(c) Warehousing
(d) Transport

Answer

(a) Mining


Q.17 Which of the broad categories of industries covers oil refinery and sugar mills?

(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) None of theseShow

Answer

(b) Secondary


Q.18 Which of the following is not an example of non-economic activity?

(a) Patriotism
(b) teaching
(c) sentiment
(d) sympathy

Answer

(b) teaching


Q.19 Transfer of interest exists in the case of

(a) Profession
(b) employment
(c) business
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) business


Q.20 ‘Earning of profit is considered to be the subsidiary objective of the business.’ The given statement is

(a) True
(b) false
(c) cannot say
(d) None

Answer

(b) false


Q.21 Name the two broad categories of business activities.

(a) Trade and commerce
(b) trade and industry
(c) industry and commerce
(d) none of theseShow

Answer

(c) industry and commerce

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CHAPTER 13 : Computerised Accounting System NCERT MCQ CLASS 11TH ACCOUNTS | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON Computerised Accounting System:

Question 1.
In a computerised accounting system, operating environment consists of:

(a) Hardware
(b) Software
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of themAnswer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 2.
Among the below-mentioned options, which option does not specifies the advantage of computerised accounting
system :
(a) High speed
(b) Reliability
(c) Accuracy
(d) Ill-effect on healthAnswer

Answer: (d) Ill-effect on health


Question 3.
When any manual accounting system is transformed into a computerised accounting system, what do the employees
of an organisation undertake?
(a) Resist the change
(b) Accept the change
(c) Do nothing
(d) Take trainingAnswer

Answer: (d) Take training


Question 4.
Which among the accounting packages, level of secrecy is lowest?

(a) Tailored
(b) Customised
(c) Ready-to-use
(d) None of the aboveAnswer

Answer: (c) Ready-to-use


Question 5.
The basic requirement of a computerised accounting system is/are:

(a) Accounting framework
(b) Operating procedure
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the aboveAnswer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 6.
Which among these, cannot be treated as limitation of computerised accounting system?

(a) Security breach
(b) Staff opposition
(c) Automated document production
(d) Cost of trainingAnswer

Answer: (c) Automated document production


Question 7.
Liveware of the computer system are

(a) System analysts
(b) Programmers
(c) Operators
(d) All of the aboveAnswer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 8.
The criterion fulfilled by an effective accounting report is
(a) Relevance, Timeliness, Accuracy, Completeness and Summarisation
(b) Relevance, Timeliness, Accuracy, Completeness and Globalisation
(c) Relevance, Legibility, Speed, Automation
(d) Reliability, Accuracy, Scalability, Efficiency and QualityAnswer

Answer: (a) Relevance, Timeliness, Accuracy, Completeness and Summarisation


Question 9.
Which among these is not an example of operating system?
(a) Unix
(b) Tally
(c) Linux
(d) MS-DosAnswer

Answer: (b) Tally


Question 10.
The data storage system which remains hidden from the user and responds to the requirement of the user to the extent the user is authorised to access is known as:

(a) Back-end database
(b) Front-end database
(c) Data processing
(d) Reporting systemAnswer

Answer: (a) Back-end database


Question 11.
Modern computerised accounting system is based on the concept of database w hich is implemented using
(a) Management Information System
(b) Database Management System
(c) Marketing Information System
(d) Accounting Information SystemAnswer

Answer: (b) Database Management System


Question 12.
An accounting information system processes the financial transactions and events based on

(a) Governing Principles
(b) Management Principles
(c) Accepted Principles
(d) Generally Accepted Accounting PrinciplesAnswer

Answer: (d) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles


Question 13.
Among the following, which ready-to-use accounting software package is available in today’s market?
(a) Tally
(b) E.X.
(c) Busy
(d) The Professional Accountant
(e) All of the AboveAnswer

Answer: (e) All of the Above


Question 14.
Which among these, is not an example of system utility software?

(a) Anti-virus utility to scan computer for viruses
(b) Microsoft-office Package
(c) Disk compression utility to compress contents of a disk for increasing the capacity of a disk
(d) Disk partitioning to divide a single drive into multiple logical drivesAnswer

Answer: (b) Microsoft-office package


Question 15.
COBOL, BASIC, FORTRAN, C, C++, JAVA are examples of:
(a) High-level programming languages
(b) Low-level machine language
(c) Assembly language
(d) Application softwareAnswer

Answer: (a) High-level programming languages


Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The framework of storage and processing of data is called as …………….Answer

Answer: Operating Environment


Question 2.
Database is implemented using ……………..Answer

Answer: DBMS


Question 3.
A sequence of actions taken to transform the data into decision useful information is called ……………….Answer

Answer: Data Processing


Question 4.
An appropriate accounting software for a small business organisation having only one user and single office location would be ……………..Answer

Answer: Ready to use


Point out the statements are True or False.

Question 1.
Every computerised accounting system has two basic requirements.Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
in computerised accounting system transaction data duplicity is done.Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
System failure cannot be avoided by any arrangement.Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
Accounting records are updated automatically in computerised accounting system.Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
Accounting software can be customised to meet the special requirement of the user.Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
Tailored software is best suited for organisations whose business is geographically not scattered.Answer

Answer: False


Question 7.
Expenses under a particular head can be an example of responsibility report.Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
Language processor cannot check the language system.Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
There are four types of accounting packages.Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
Accounting data is processed slower by using a computerised accounting system than it is achieved through manual efforts.Answer

Answer: False

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CHAPTER 12 : Applications of Computers in Accounting NCERT MCQ CLASS 11TH ACCOUNTS | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON Applications of Computers in Accounting:

Question 1.
SQL is:

(a) Structured Query Language
(b) Sequential Query Language
(c) Structural Quantum LanguageAnswer

Answer: (a) Structured Query Language


Question 2.
Visual Display Unit is

(a) Hardware
(b) Software
(c) TimewareAnswer

Answer: (a) Hardware


Question 3.
Random Access Memory is a type of:

(a) Secondary Storage Device
(b) Processor
(c) Primary Storage Memory
(d) MotherboardAnswer

Answer: (c) Primary Storage Memory


Question 4.
The persons who design data processing systems are known as:

(a) Operators
(b) System Analysts
(c) Programmers
(d) UsersAnswer

Answer: (c) Programmers


Question 5.
Microsoft Word is a type of:

(a) Application Software
(b) Operating System
(c) Hardware
(d) Output DeviceAnswer

Answer: (a) Application Software


Question 6.
Which of the following is not a part of a computer terminal?

(a) Screen
(b) Disk Drive
(c) Floppy
(d) Power ButtonAnswer

Answer: (c) Floppy


Question 7.
A floppy is used

(a) like a printer
(b) to store data
(c) to input data into computerAnswer

Answer: (b) to store data


Question 8.
Software package is a

(a) Machine
(b) Programme
(c) Set of standard programmesAnswer

Answer: (c) Set of standard programmes


Question 9.
Which of the following is used as hardware?
(a) Spreadsheet
(b) Database
(c) NoneAnswer

Answer: (c) None


Question 10.
MICR is basically
(a) Output Device
(b) Storage Device
(c) Input DeviceAnswer

Answer: (c) Input Device


Fill in the blanks with suitable word or words

Question 1.
CPU is said to be the …………….. of a computer.Answer

Answer: brain


Question 2.
Accounting Information System processes the data and transforms it into …………….Answer

Answer: information


Question 3.
The function of Accounting Software is to perform ………………….Answer

Answer: accounting


Question 4.
Accounting softwares may be classified into (a) readymade software, (b) and (c) ………………Answer

Answer: customised and tailor-made softwares


Question 5.
Computers are dumb devices with ……………… Intelligence Quotient.Answer

Answer: Zero


Question 6.
Hardware of computer consists of ……………… components such as keyboard, mouse, monitor and processor.Answer

Answer: physical


Question 7.
The people who write programmes to implement the data processing system design are known as ……………….Answer

Answer: programmers


Question 8.
The ……………….. means a series of operations in a certain order or manner to achieve desired results.Answer

Answer: procedure


Question 9.
The report on cash position, to be submitted by the Head of Finance & Accounts Department is an example of ………………… Report.Answer

Answer: Responsibility


Question 10.
An example of Summary Reports is ………………….Answer

Answer: Profit & Loss Account


Question 11.
……………….. and ………………. are the criterion to be fulfilled by every accounting report.Answer

Answer: Relevance and Timelines


Question 12.
……………….. software are a set of programmes which create and control a connection between a computer and a server to communicate and sharing of resources.Answer

Answer: Connectivity


State whether each of the following statement is ‘True’ or ‘False’

Question 1.
Computer is like an electronic calculator.Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
Printer is used to store data.Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
Computer can receive information only through terminals.Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
Printer is an input device.Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
Memory is like a store house of the computer.Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
Computer is an automation tool.Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
Advent of computer have complicated the accounting functions.Answer

Answer: False


Question 8.
Computer machine is popularly called as software.Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
The Central Processing Unit consists of control unit, arithmetic logic unit and memory unit.Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
Keyboard is the most used piece of hardware in the input phase of a computer-based information system.Answer

Answer: True


Question 11.
In tire output phase of a computer-based information system, information is produced in hard copy and/or soft copy.Answer

Answer: True


Question 12.
Information is the product of data processing.Answer

Answer: True


Question 13.
Data items grasped together for storage purpose are called a record.Answer

Answer: True


Question 14.
AIS is the sub-system of MIS.Answer

Answer: True


Question 15.
Computer has zero IQ.Answer

Answer: True


Match the following

Column AColumn B
(i) Operating Software(a) Monitor
(ii) Output Device(b) Dot Matrix Printer
(iii) Secondary Storage Device(c) Keyboard
(iv) Input Device(d) Pen Drive
(v) AIS(e) RAM
(vi) Printer(f) MS-DOS
(vii) Memory(g) Accounting Information Systems
(viii) Capabilities of Computer(h) Management Information Systems
(ix) Element of Computer(i) connectivity
(x) MIS(j) Accuracy

Answer:

Column AColumn B
(i) Operating Software(f) MS-DOS
(ii) Output Device(a) Monitor
(iii) Secondary Storage Device(d) Pen Drive
(iv) Input Device(c) Keyboard
(v) AIS(g) Accounting Information Systems
(vi) Printer(b) Dot Matrix Printer
(vii) Memory(e) RAM
(viii) Capabilities of Computer(j) Accuracy
(ix) Element of Computer(i) connectivity
(x) MIS(h) Management Information Systems

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CHAPTER 11 : Accounts from Incomplete Records NCERT MCQ CLASS 11TH ACCOUNTS | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON Accounts from Incomplete Records:

Question 1.
Incomplete record mechanism of book keeping is

(a) Scientific
(b) Unscientific
(c) Unsystematic
(d) Both (b) and (c)Answer

Answer: (b) Unscientific


Question 2.
Opening capital is ascertained by preparing

(a) Total debtor’s account
(b) Total creditor’s account
(c) Cash account
(d) Opening statement of affairsAnswer

Answer: (d) Opening statement of affairs


Question 3.
Credit purchase, during the year is ascertained by preparing :

(a) Total creditor’s account
(b) Total debtor’s account
(c) Cash account
(d) Opening statement of affairsAnswer

Answer: (a) Total creditors account


Question 4.
If Opening capital is Rs. 60,000, drawings Rs. 5,000, capital introduced during the period Rs. 10,000, closing capital Rs. 90,000. The value of profit earned during the period will be:

(a) Rs. 20,000
(b) Rs. 25,000
(c) Rs. 30,000
(d) Rs. 40,000Answer

Answer: (b) Rs. 25,000.


Write the correct word(s)

Question 1.
Credit sales can be ascertained as the balancing figure in the …………….. account.Answer

Answer: total debtor’s


Question 2.
Excess of ……………. over ……………… represents loss sustained during the period.Answer

Answer: opening capital, closing capital


Question 3.
To ascertain the profit, closing capital is to be adjusted by deducting ………………. and adding …………….Answer

Answer: additional capital introduced, drawings during the year


Question 4.
Incomplete records are generally used by ……………….Answer

Answer: small traders.


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CHAPTER 10 : Financial Statements – II NCERT MCQ CLASS 11TH ACCOUNTS | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON Financial Statements – II :

Question 1.
Rahul’s trial balance provide you the following information :
Debtors – Rs. 80,000
Bad debts – Rs. 2,000
Provision for bad debts – Rs. 4,000
It is desired to maintain a provision for bad debts of Rs. 1,000. State the amount to be debited/credited in Profit & Loss A/c.
(a) Rs. 5,000 (Debit)
(b) Rs. 3,000 (Debit)
(c) Rs. 1,000 (Credit)
(d) None of theseAnswer

Answer: (c) Rs. 1,000 (Credit)


Question 2.
If the rent of one month is still to be paid the adjustment entry will be

(a) Debit outstanding rent account and Credit rent account.
(b) Debit profit and loss account and Credit rent account.
(c) Debit rent account and Credit profit and loss account.
(d) Debit rent account and Credit outstanding rent account.Answer

Answer: (d) Debit rent account and Credit outstanding rent account.


Question 3.
If the rent received in advance Rs. 2,000. The adjustment entry will be

(a) Debit profit and loss account and Credit rent account.
(b) Debit rent account Credit rent received in advance account
(c) Debit rent received in advance account and Credit rent account.
(d) None of theseAnswer

Answer: (b) Debit rent account Credit rent received in advance account.


Question 4.
If the opening capital is Rs. 50,000 as on April 1, 2005 and additional capital introduced Rs. 10,000 on January 1,2006. Interest charge on capital 10% p.a. The amount of interest on capital shown in profit and loss account as on March 31, 2006 will be:

(a) Rs. 5,250
(b) Rs. 6,000
(c) Rs. 4,000
(d) Rs. 3,000Answer

Answer: (a) Rs. 5,250


Question 5.
If the insurance premium paid Rs. 1,000 and prepaid insurance Rs. 300. The amount of insurance premium shown in profit and loss account will be

(a) Rs. 1,300
(b) Rs. 1,000
(c) Rs. 300
(d) Rs. 700Answer

Answer: (d) Rs. 700


Fill in the blanks with suitable.word/words

Question 1.
Trading and Profit & Loss Account shows the ………………. or ………………..Answer

Answer: profit, loss


Question 2.
Adjustments are necessary to show the correct ………………., and ………………. of a business concern.Answer

Answer: profit or loss, financial position


Question 3.
Items of income and expenditure which do not pertain to the accounting period should be ……………….Answer

Answer: excluded


Question 4.
Items of income and expenditure which relates to the accounting period but are left out should be ……………….Answer

Answer: accounted for


Question 5.
Expenses related to the current accounting period but have not been paid are known as ……………….Answer

Answer: outstanding expenses


Question 6.
Part of expenses paid if relates to the next accounting year, it is called ……………….Answer

Answer: prepaid expenses


Question 7.
Income earned but not received till the end of the accounting year is termed as ……………….Answer

Answer: accrued income


Question 8.
Income if received before it becomes due is called ……………….Answer

Answer: income received in advance


Question 9.
While making a provision for possible bad debts or for doubtful debts, we ………………. Reserves Debts Account.Answer

Answer: credit


Question 10.
An unexpired expenditure is shown on the ………………. side of the Balance Sheet.Answer

Answer: assets.


Mention whether the following are true or false

Question 1.
Income received in advance is written on the liabilities side of the balance sheet.Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
Prepaid expenses appearing inside the trial balance will appear on the liabilities side of the balance sheet.Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
Outstanding expenses appearing inside the trial balance are shown on the debit side of the profit & loss account.Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
Assets are to be shown in the balance sheet at the values realisable on liquidation.Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
Salary outstanding account is a personal account.Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
The provision for discount on debtors is calculated after deducting the provisions for doubtful debts from debtors.Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
Outstanding salaries appearing in the trial balance is shown in Profit & Loss Account.Answer

Answer: False


Question 8.
Goods sold on approval basis is treated as a complete sale.Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
Deferred revenue expenditure is partly debited to Profit & Loss Account and the balance is shown in the Balance Sheet.Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
Provision for bad debts is debited to sundry debtors accounts.Answer

Answer: False


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CHAPTER 9 : Financial Statements – I NCERT MCQ CLASS 11TH ACCOUNTS | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON Financial Statements – I :

Question 1.
The financial statements consist of:
(a) Trial balance
(b) Profit and Loss account
(c) Balance sheet
(d) (a) & (c)
(e) (b) & (c)Answer

Answer: (e) (b) & (c)


Question 2.
Choose the correct chronological order of ascertainment of the following profits from the profit and loss account:
(a) Operating Profit, Net Profit, Gross Profit
(b) Operating Profit, Gross Profit, Net Profit
(c) Gross Profit, Operating Profit, Net Profit
(d) Gross Profit, Net Profit, Operating ProfitAnswer

Answer: (c) Gross Profit, Operating Profit, Net Profit


Question 3.
While calculating operating profit, the following are not taken into account.
(a) Normal transactions
(b) Abnormal items
(c) Expenses of a purely financial nature
(d) (b) & (c)
(e) (a) & (c)Answer

Answer: (c) Expenses of a purely financial nature


Question 4.
Which of the following is correct:
(a) Operating profit = Operating profit – Non-operating expenses – Non-operating incomes
(b) Operating profit = Net profit + Non-operating expenses + Non-operating incomes
(c) Operating profit = Net profit + Non-operating expenses – Non-operating incomes
(d) Operating profit = Net profit – Non-operating expenses + Non-operating incomesAnswer

Answer: (c) Operating profit = Net profit + Non-operating expenses – Non-operating incomes


State True or False

Question 1.
Gross profit is total revenue.Answer

Answer: (e) (b) & (c)


Question 2.
In trading and profit and loss account, opening stock appears on the debit side because it forms the part of the cost of sales for the current accounting year.Answer

Answer: (e) (b) & (c)


Question 3.
Rent, rates and taxes is an example of direct expenses.Answer

Answer: (e) (b) & (c)


Question 4.
If the total of the credit side of the profit and loss account is more than the total of the debit side, the difference is the net profit.Answer

Answer: (e) (b) & (c)


Match the items given under ‘A’ with the correct items under ‘B’

Column AColumn B
I. Closing stock is credited to(a) Trial balance
II. Accuracy of book of account is tested by(b) Trading account
III.On returning the goods to seller, the buyer sends(c) Credit note
IV.The financial position is determined by(d) Balance sheet
V. On receiving the returned goods from the buyer, the seller sends(e) Debit note

Answer

Answer:

Column AColumn B
I. Closing stock is credited to(b) Trading account
II. Accuracy of book of account is tested by(a) Trial balance
III.On returning the goods to seller, the buyer sends(e) Debit note
IV.The financial position is determined by(d) Balance sheet
V. On receiving the returned goods from the buyer, the seller sends(c) Credit note
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CHAPTER 8 : Bills of Exchange NCERT MCQ CLASS 11TH ACCOUNTS | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON Bills of Exchange:

Question 1.
Bills receivable account is a:
(a) Nominal account
(b) Personal account
(c) Real account

Answer: (c) Real account


Question 2.
At the time of retirement of a bill, the acceptor debits:
(a) Bills payable’account
(b) Discount account
(c) Neither of twoAnswer

Answer: (a) Bills payable’account


Question 3.
At the time of endorsement of a bill, the drawee debits:
(a) Bills payable account
(b) Other party ’s account
(c) No entryAnswer

Answer: (c) No entry


Question 4.
When a bill is discharged, the acceptor debits:
(a) Creditor’s account
(b) Cash account
(c) Bills payable accountAnswer

Answer: (c) Bills payable account


Question 5.
When noting charges are paid by the bank at the time of dishonour of the bill and the drawee credits:
(a) Bank account
(b) Noting charges account
(c) Neither of the twoAnswer

Answer: (c) Neither of the two


Question 6.
The due date of bill dated 1st February, 2003 for a period of 2 months shall be:
(a) 4th April, 2003
(b) 5th April, 2003
(c) 4th May, 2003
(d) 2nd February, 1993Answer

Answer: (a) 4th April, 2003


Question 7.
The due date of bill dated 31st January, 1992 for a period of 1 month will be: (year 1992 is a leap year)
(a) 1 st October, 1993
(b) 31 st January, 1992
(c) 31st January, 1993
(d) 3rd March, 1992Answer

Answer: (d) 3rd March, 1992


Question 8.
Accommodation bills are also termed as …………. bills.
(a) Drawee bills
(b) Kite bills
(c) Payee bills
(d) Drawer billsAnswer

Answer: (b) Kite bills


Question 9.
What shall be the due date of bill dated 21st July, 1993 for a period of 60 days when 22nd September, 1993 is declared as emergency holiday?
(a) 21 st September, 1993
(b) 22nd September, 1993
(c) 23rd September, 1993
(d) None of theseAnswer

Answer: (c) 23rd September, 1993


Question 10.
B/R stands for
(a) Bank Receivable Books
(b) Bank Receipt
(c) Bank Rebate
(d) All of themAnswer

Answer: (a) Bank Receivable Books


Fill in the blanks with suitable word(s)

Question 1.
The person to whom the amount mentioned in the promissory is payable is known as ………………….Answer

Answer: Promisee


Question 2.
Transfer of a negotiable instrument to another person by signing on it, is known as ……………….Answer

Answer: Endorsement


Question 3.
In a promissory note, the person who makes the promise to pay is called as ……………..Answer

Answer: Promissor


Question 4.
A person who endorses the promissory note in favour of another is known as ………………Answer

Answer: Endorser


Question 5.
A bill of exchange is a …………….. instrument.Answer

Answer: negotiable


Question 6.
A bill of exchange is drawn by the …………….. upon his ………………Answer

Answer: drawer, drawee


Question 7.
A promissory note is drawn by ………………. in favour of his …………………Answer

Answer: debtor, creditor


Question 8.
There are ………………. parties to a bill of exchange.Answer

Answer: three


Question 9.
There are ………………… parties to a promissory note.Answer

Answer: two


Question 10.
Drawer and ………………… cannot be the same parties in case of a bill of exchange.Answer

Answer: drawee


Question 11.
Bill of exchange in Indian language is called ……………..Answer

Answer: Hundi


Question 12.
…………….. days of grace are added in terms of the bill to calculate the date of its ………………….Answer

Answer: Three, maturity


Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ against each statement regarding a bill of exchange

Question 1.
A bill of exchange must be accepted by the payee.Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
A bill of exchange is drawn by the creditor.Answer

Answer: True


Question 3.
A bill of exchange is drawn for all cash transaction.Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
A bill payable on demand is called Time bill.Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
A person to whom payment is to be made in a bill or exchange is called payee.Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
A negotiable instrument does not require the signature of its maker.Answer

Answer: False


Question 7.
The hundi payable at sight is called Darshani hundi.Answer

Answer: False


Question 8.
A negotiable instrument is not freely transferable.Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
Stamping of promissory note is not mandatory.Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
The time of payment of a-negotiable instrument need not be certain.Answer

Answer: True


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CHAPTER 7 : Depreciation, Provisions and Reserves NCERT MCQ CLASS 11TH ACCOUNTS | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON Depreciation, Provisions and Reserves:

Question 1.
Depreciation is decline in the value of ………………….Answer

Answer: Assets


Question 2.
Installation, freight and transport expenses are a part of ……………….Answer

Answer: Acquisition cost


Question 3.
Provision is a ………………. against profit.Answer

Answer: Charge


Question 4.
Reserve created for maintaining a stable.rate of dividend is termed as ………………….Answer

Answer: Dividend Equilisation Fund


State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 1.
Depreciation is a non-cash expense.Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
Depreciation is also charged on current assets.Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
Depreciation is decline in the market value of tangible fixed assets.Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
The main cause of depreciation is wear and tear caused by its usage.Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
Depreciation must be charged so as to ascertain true profit or loss of the business.Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
Depletion term is used in case of intangible assets.Answer

Answer: False


Question 7.
Depreciation provides fund for replacement.Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
When market value of an asset is higher than book value, depreciation is not charged.Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
Depreciation is charged to reduce the value of asset to its market value.Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
If adequate maintenance expenditure is incurred, depreciation need not be charged.Answer

Answer: False


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