Author Archives: Swati

NCERT MCQ ON Introduction to Macroeconomics and its Concepts:

Question1 :  Which of the following is not concerned with the problem of choice ?

• a) Excessive income 
• b) Alternative use of resources
• c) Unlimited wants 
• d) Limited (scarce) resources

Answer :  Excessive income 

Question2 :  Example of micro economic variable is:

• a) Wholesale price index
• b) National income
• c) Market demand 
• d) Aggregate demand

Answer :  Market demand 

Question3 :  Who controls economic activities under centrally planned economics ?

• a) Industrialists           
• b) Private firms
• c) Government        
• d) Consumers

Answer :  Government        

Question4 :  Slope of production curve is:

• a) a straight line 
• b) convex to the point of origin ‘O’
• c) concave to the point of ‘O’ 
• d) none of these

Answer :  concave to the point of ‘O’ 

Question5 :  The problem of ‘what to produce’ relates to:

• a) The choice of technique 
• b) Distribution of income
• c) Market value of the goods and services 
• d) The choice of goods and services

Answer :  The choice of goods and services

Question 6:  Increase (growth) of resources implies that production possibility curve :

• a) Shifts to the Right 
• b) Shifts to the left
• c) Rotates to the right 
• d) None of these

Answer :  Shifts to the Right 

Question7 :  The following table show the production of cricket bats and sarres of an imaginary economy :

If the production of cricket bats is increased from 3 thousand to 4 thousand, how much production of sarees will he to be sacrificed by the economy ?

• a) Zero
• b) 8 lakh sarees
• c) 30 lakh sarees 
• d) 20 lakh sarees

Answer :  20 lakh sarees

Question 8:  What satisfying power of commodity is called :

• a) Consumption        
• b) Utility
• c) Production
• d) Value addiction

Answer :  Utility

Question9 :  Consuming two goods, consumer attains equilibrium when :

• a) MU1 > MU2
• b) MU2> MU1
• c) MU1 = MU2 
• d) TU1 = TU2

Answer :  MU1 = MU2 

Question 10:  When marginal utility is negative, total utility is :

• a) Zero
• b) Diminishing 
• c) Maximum 
• d) Minimum

Answer :  Diminishing 

 

NCERT MCQ ON Consumer Protection:

Question1:  To provide protection to the consumers against the improper behaviour of the Producers and sellers is called .

(a) Consumers Protection Act

(b) Consumer Protection

(c) Consumer Welfare

(d) Consumer Education

Answer: B

Question2: Don’t purchase in haste’, this is an important of the consumer.

(a) Responsibility

(b) Right

(c) Act

(d) All the above

Answer: A

Question3:  The consumer organisations collect the samples of the products for .

(a) Sell them

(b) Check them

(c) Get bribe from the sellers

(d) Distribute them among the poor

Answer: B

Question4: Disputes of amount are settled at the level of District Forum?

(a) Up to rupees ten lakh

(b) Up to rupees thirty lakh

(c) Up to rupees fifty lakh

(d) Up to rupees twenty lakh

Answer: D

Question5:  Which of the following Acts is related to the Consumer ‘s protection’?

(a) Consumer Protection Act,1986

(b) Indian Companies Act,1956

(c) Indian Partnership Act

(d) Indian Contract Act

Answer: A

Question6: Who, of the following, cannot be considered a consumer?

(a) A person who buys things to further sell them consideration.

(b) A person who gets things without consideration.

(c) A person who uses things without the permission of the purchasers.

(d) All the above

Answer: D

Question7: Who of the following cannot file a complaint?

(a) Individual consumer

(b) Consumer association that has not been recognised

(c) Central government

(d) State government

Answer: B

Question8: Which of the following is a consumer organization?

(a) Common Cause, New Delhi

(b) Voice, New Delhi

(c) Consumer Forum, Udipi

(d) All of these

Answer: D

Question9: When a single consumer fails to get his rights protected, he seeks the help of .

(a) Trade Union

(b) Consumer Association

(c) Labour Union

(d) None of the above

Answer: B

 

NCERT MCQ ON Marketing Management:

Question1: Point of view lays stress upon customer’s welfare.

(a) Production

(b) Product

(c) Marketing

(d) Social Marketing

Answer: D

Question2: Sales promotion is helpful in making effective.

(a) Advertisement

(b) Personal selling

(c) Both the above

(d) Publicity

Answer: C

Question3: Which of the following is a sales promotion activity?

(a) Rebate

(b) Discount

(c) Product Combination

(d) All the above

Answer: D

Question4: Develop relationship.

(a) Publicity

(b) Advertisement

(c) Sales Promotion

(d) Public relation

Answer: D

Question5:  Customer’s satisfaction alone can ensure success. Which marketing concept holds this view?

(a) Production concept

(b) Product concept

(c) Marketing concept

(d) Selling concept

Answer: C

Question6:  Which of the following is a factor of marketing mix?

(a) Product

(b) Price

(c) Promotion

(d) All the above

Answer: D

Question7:  Under which philosophy of marketing, efforts are made to bring down the cost of production to the minimum?

(a) Production concept

(b) Product concept

(c) Marketing concept

(d) Selling concept

Answer: A

Question8: Under which concept the companies push for the betterment of the quality of their products in their efforts for marketing?

(a) Production concept

(b) Product concept

(c) Marketing concept

(d) Selling concept

Answer: B

Question9:  Is objection to advertisement.

(a) Undermines social values

(b) Decrease in price

(c) Knowledge on various products

(d) Improvement in Quality of Product

Answer: A 

Question10:  Which of the following is the example of Dunlop?

(a) Branding

(b) Brand

(c) Brand Name

(d) Brand Mark

Answer: C

Question11:  ‘Products are not purchased but sold’, with which point of view is this statement associated?

(a) Product

(b) Sale

(c) Production

(d) Marketing

Answer: B

Question12:  The collection of utilities is known as .

(a) Purchaser

(b) Seller

(c) Product

(d) Market

Answer: C

Question13:  Which of the following is the function of marketing?

(a) Promotion

(b) Physical Distribution

(c) Transport

(d) All the above

Answer: D

Question14:  Cardbox of Shaving Cream is the example of?

(a) Primary Packaging

(b) Secondary Packaging

 c) Transport Packaging

(d) None of the above

Answer: B

Question15:  Selling goods by producer to consumer involves which channel?

(a) One level

(b) Two level

(c) Three level

(d) Zero level

Answer: D

Question16:  Marketing mix does not include

(a) Product

(b) Place

(c) Promotion

(d) People

Answer: D

Question17:  Nisha, a school bag manufacturer decided to improve the product for profit maximization and thus added a water bottle holder to the existing design. Identify the marketing management philosophy adopted by Nisha.

(a) Product concept

(b) Production concept.

(c) Selling concept

(d) Marketing concept

Answer: A

Question18:  Vasvi purchased a bottle of pickle from the local grocery shop. The information provided on the bottle was not clear. She fell sick on consuming it. She filed a case in the District forum under the Consumer Protection Act and got the relief. Identify the important aspect neglected by the marketer in the above case.

(a) Packaging

(b) Branding

(c) labelling

(d) Pricing

Answer: C

Question19:  Mr. Rajiv, the sales executive of ABC Ltd. possess good marketing techniques, his techniques involve oral presentation of message, convincing the customer with face to face interaction, etc. Name the element of marketing mix under which the above technique fall:

(a) Promotion

(b) Product

(c) Price

(d) Place

Answer: A

Question20:  Mansi, a shoe manufacturer for school students, decided to maximize profits by producing and distributing shoes on a large-scale and thus reducing the average cost of production. Identify the marketing management philosophy adopted by Mansi.

(a) Product concept

(b) Production concept

(c) Selling concept

(d) Marketing concept

Answer: B

NCERT MCQ ON Financial Markets:

Question1: Primary and Secondary Markets

a. Compete with each other

b. Complement each other

c. Function independently

d. Control each other

Answer: B

Question2: Total number of stock exchanges in India are

a. 25

b. 21

c. 22

d. 23

Answer: A

Question3: The settlement cycle in NSE is

a. T+5

b. T+3

c. T+2

d. T+1

Answer: C

Question4: National Stock Exchange in India was recognized as stock exchange in the year.

a. 1992

b. 1993

c. 1994

d. 1995

Answer: B

Question5: Treasury Bills are basically

a. An instrument to borrow short term funds

b. An instrument to borrow long term funds

c. An instrument of capital market

d. None of the above.

Answer: A

Question6: Certain instruments of money market is short self-liquidating & used to finance credit sales name the instruments:

a. Call Money

b. Certificate of Deposit

c. Commercial Bill

d. Treasury Bill

Answer: C

Question7: Educating the investor is the ____________ function of SEBI.

a. Protective

b. Regulatory

c. Both the a and b

d. Developmental.

Answer: A

Question8: Which of the following falls in the category of Zero Coupon Bond?

a. Treasury Bill

b. Commercial Paper

c. Certificate of Deposit

d. Commercial Bill

Answer: A

Question9: Which of the following is the method of collecting capital?

a. Public offer

b. Offer for sale

c. Private Placement

d. All of the above

Answer: C

Question10:  Which of the following takes advantage of the internal trading?

a. All shareholders

b. All Debenture holders

c. People having secret information of the company

d. All the employees

Answer: C

 

NCERT MCQ ON Financial Management :

Question1:  The Cheapest source of finance is:.

a. Debenture

b. Equity share capital

c. Preference share

d. Retained earnings

Answer: D

Question2: A decision to acquire a new and modern plant to upgrade an old one is a

a. Financing decision

b. Working capital decision

c. Investment decision

d. None of the above

Answer: C

Question3: Other things remaining the same, an increase in the tax rate on corporate profit will

a. Make the debt relatively cheaper

b. Make the debt relatively the dearer

c. Have no impact on the cost of debt

d. We can’t say

Answer: A

Question4: Companies with a higher growth potential are likely to

a. Pay lower dividends

b. Pay higher Dividends

c. Dividends are not affected

d. None of the above

Answer: A

Question5: Financial leverage is called favourable if:

a. Return on investment is lower than the cost of debt.

b. ROI is higher than the cost of Debt

c. Debt is easily available.

d. If the degree of existing financial leverage is low.

Answer: B

Question6: Higher debt – equity ratio results in:

a. Lower financial risk

b. Higher degree of operating risk

c. Higher degree of financial risk

d. Higher EPS.

Answer: C

Question7: Higher Working capital usually results in:

a. Higher current ratio, higher risk and higher profits

b. Lower current ratio, higher risk and profits

c. Higher equity, lower risk and lower profits

d. Lower equity, lower risk and higher profits.

Answer: A

Question8: Current assets are those assets which get converted into cash:

a. Within six months

b. Within one year

c. Between one year and three years

d. Between three and five years.

Answer: B

Question9: A fixed asset should be financed through:

a. A Long-term liability

b. A Short-term liability

c. A Medium-term liability

d. A Mix of long- and short-term liabilities

Answer: A

Question10: Current assets of a business firm should be financed through:

a. Current liability only

b. Long term liability only

c. Fixed liabilities only

d. Both types (i.e., long- and short-term liabilities)

Answer: A

 

NCERT MCQ ON Controlling:

Question1: An efficient control system helps to:

(a) Accomplishes organizational objectives

(b) Boosts employee morale

(c) Judges accuracy of standards

(d) All of the above

Answer: D

Question2: Controlling function of an organization is

(a) Forward looking

(b) Backward looking

(c) Forward as well as backward looking

(d) None of the above

Answer: C

Question3: Management audit is a technique to keep a check on the performance of

(a) Company

(b) Management of the company

(c) Shareholders

(d) Customers

Answer: B

Question4: Budgetary control requires the preparation of

(a) Training schedule

(b) Budgets

(c) Network diagram

(d) Responsibility centres

Answer: B

Question5: Controlling is needed at which level of management?

(a) Top level

(b) Middle level

(c) Lower level

(d) All level

Answer: D

Question6: Controlling is related to:

(a) Results

(b) Individuals

(c)Things

(d) Managers

Answer: A

Question7: First step in controlling process is:

(a) Taking corrective action

(b) Analysing the deviations

(c) Determining standards

(d) Measurement of actual performance.

Answer: C

Question8: Cost at Rs. 100 per unit is an example of which standard?

(a) Quantitative

(b) Qualitative

(c) Both

(d) None of these

Answer: A

Question9: Which standard is associated with production?

(a) Quality

(b) Quantity

(c) Quality and Quantity

(d) Labour

Answer: C

Question10: Strike is which type of cause of deviation?

(a) Uncertain conditions

(b) Human cause

(c) Various hindrances

(d) Defective standards

Answer: B

Question11: Which function of management is controlling?

(a) First

(b) Second

(c) Third

(d) Last

Answer: D

Question12:  ‘Planning in the absence of controlling is meaningless’. What does this statement indicate in respect of both?

(a) Only planning is essential

(b) Only controlling is essential

(c) Both are essential

(d) Both are unnecessary

Answer: C

Question13:  Which of the following is associated with the marketing standard?

(a) Sales expenses

(b) Capital expense

(c) Quantity

(d) Dispute rate

Answer: A

Question14:  Which of the following qualities the standard should have?

(a) Achievable

(b) Measurable

(c) Flexible

(d) All of these

Answer: D

Question15: What type of nature the control has?

(a) Positive approach

(b) Negative approach

(c) Both of the above

(d) None of these

Answer: C

 

NCERT MCQ ON Directing:

Question1: Which one of the following is not an element of direction?

a. Motivation

b. Communication

c. Delegation

d. Supervision

Answer: A

Question2: The motivation theory which are classified needs in hierarchical order is developed by.

a. Fred luthans

b. Scott

c. Abraham Maslow

d. Peter sticker

Answer: C

Question3: Which of the following is a Financial incentive?

a. Promotion

b. Stock incentive

c. Job Security

d. Employee Participation

Answer: B

Question4: Which of the following is not an element of communication process?

a. Recording

b. Communication

c. Channel

d. Receiver

Answer: B

Question5: Grape vine is

a. Formal Communication

b. Barrier to Communication

c. Lateral Communication

d. Informal Communication

Answer: D

Question6: Status comes under the following type of barriers

a. Semantic barriers

b. Organizational barrier

c. Non semantic

d. Psychological barrier

Answer: B

Question7: The software company promoted by Narayana Murthyis

a. Wipro

b. Infosys

c. Satyam

d. HCL

Answer: B

Question8: The highest-level need in the need hierarchy of Abraham Maslow is

a. Safety need

b. Belongingness need

c. Self-actualization need

d. Prestige need

Answer: C

Question9: The process of converting the message into communication symbols is known

a. Media

b. Encoding

c. Recording

c. Feedback

Answer: B

Question10: Two way communication technique is used under

a. Laissez Faire

b. Democratic style

c. Autocratic style

d. None of these

Answer: B

Question11: Under which style of leadership there is no delegation of authority

a. Democratic

b. Autocratic

c. Laissez Faire

d. None of these

Answer: B

Question12: Which of the following is not a leadership style?

a. Free-rein

b. Autocratic

c. Democratic

d. Dictatorship

Answer: D

Question13: Self Actualisation Needs are concerned with

a . Autonomy status

b. Recognition

c. Growth and Self-fulfillment

d. None of these

Answer: C

Question14: Basic Physiological Needs are concerned with

a. Shelter

b. Hunger

c. Thirst

d. All of These

Answer: D

 

NCERT MCQ ON  Staffing:

Question1: Staffing is
(a) Setting goals for the organization
(b) Translation of plans into action
(c) Putting right people in right job
(d) Filling and keeping filled positions in the organizational structure
Answer: (c) Putting right people in right job

Question2: This explains the reason for increase in importance of staffing.
(a) Increase in business operations
(b) Rapid advancement of technology
(c) Complexities in human behaviour
(d) All the above
Answer: (d) All the above

Question3: This determines the number and types of personnel required to perform the jobs
(a) Workforce analysis
(b) Workload analysis
(c) Selection
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Workforce analysis

Question4: Workforce analysis is a part of
(a) Recruitment process
(b) Selection process
(c) Training and development process
(d) estimation of manpower requirement
Answer: (d) estimation of manpower requirement

Question5: This is not a part of recruitment process
(a) Estimate manpower requirement
(b) Rejects applications of unqualified candidates
(c) Invites applications from potential candidates
(d) Identifies sources to find suitable candidates
Answer: (b) Rejects applications of unqualified candidates

Question6: This results in higher responsibilities and hike in salary
(a) Transfers
(b) Job rotation
(c) Promotion
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) Promotion

Question7: It is not an internal source of recruitment
(a) Direct recruitment
(b) Transfers
(c) Promotions
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a) Direct recruitment

Question8: This source of recruitment selects fresh talent
(a) Direct recruitment
(b) Campus interview
(c) Promotions
(d) All of the above
Answer: (b) Campus interview

Question9: The advantage of using internal sources for filling positions is
(a) Inducts fresh talent
(b) Gives wider choice
(c) Motivates existing employees
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c) Motivates existing employees

Question10: A test which measures emotions, reactions and maturity of an individual
(a) Intelligence test
(b) Trade test
(c) Personality test
(d) Aptitude test
Answer: (c) Personality test

Question11: A test to measure the level of existing knowledge and skills in a potential employee
(a) Intelligence test
(b) Trade test
(c) Personality test
(d) Aptitude test
Answer: (b) Trade test

Question12: This test is not a part of selection tests
(a) Aptitude test
(b) Personality test
(c) Trade test
(d) Medical test
Answer: (d) Medical test

Question13: It helps to improve the aptitude of an employee
(a) Training
(b) Development
(c) Education
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Development

Question14: This method of training help workers learn while working with superiors
(a) Apprenticeship training
(b) induction training
(c) Job rotation
(d) Coaching
Answer: (a) Apprenticeship training

Question15: The training technique which duplicates the actual work environment
(a) Computer modeling
(b) Programmed instruction
(c) Vestibule training
(d) Internship
Answer: (c) Vestibule training

Question16:  ________ is included in Internal Source of Recruitment.
(a) Promotion
(b) Transfer
(c) Both
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Both

Question17: What do we call keeping the employee temporarily away from the person appointing him?
(a) Demotion
(b) Promotion
(c) Transfer
(d) Lay off
Answer: (d) Lay off

Question18: While selecting manpower, ________ is kept in mind.
(a) Education
(b) Experience
(c) Honesty
(d) All the above
Answer: (d) All the above

Question19: What is included in Psychological Test?
(a) Interest Test
(b) Intelligence Test
(c) Aptitude Test
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above

Question20: What is not included in the staffing?
(a) Selection
(b) Training
(c) Directing
(d) Promotion
Answer: (c) Directing

Question21: What is the relationship between human resource development and staffing?
(a) Human resource management is biggar than staffing
(b) Staffing is biggar than human resource management
(c) Both are equal
(d) There is no relationship between the two
Answer: (a) Human resource management is biggar than staffing

Question22:  ________ is that process of examining the applicants which ensures that only the most appropriate persons have been appointed.
(a) Recruitment
(b) Selection
(c) Training
(d) Management
Answer: (b) Selection

Question23: Which of the following is included in the human resource management?
(a) Recruitment
(b) Specialised services
(c) Handling grievances
(d) All the above
Answer: (d) All the above

Question24: When does the Personnel Manager act as the Line Manager?
(a) When he performs the function of staffing as a function of management
(b) When he completes the job of staffing as part of functional area of management
(c) In both the above situations
(d) He never acts as the Line Manager
Answer: (a) When he performs the function of staffing as a function of management

Question25: Which of the following is the element of staffing?
(a) Recruitment
(b) Selection
(c) Training
(d) All the above
Answer: (d) All the above

Question26: Our assets walk out of the door each evening. We have to make sure that they come back the next morning. Here the assets refer to ________ .
(a) Vehicles
(b) Goods
(c) Employees
(d) Machines
Answer: (c) Employees

Question27: Recruitment process starts with ________ .
(a) Strike
(b) Lock out
(c) Demand of employees
(d) Invitation to interested people
Answer: (c) Demand of employees

Question28: Staffing is the ________ stage of management process.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer: (c) Third

Question29: ________ is the internal source of recruitment.
(a) Transfer
(b) Promotion
(c) Lay off
(d) All the above
Answer: (d) All the above

Question30: Introducing employees to the organisation is called ________ .
(a) Recruitment
(b) Selection
(c) Orientation
(d) Placement
Answer: (c) Orientation

Question31: ________ is the merit of internal recruitment.
(a) Increase in motivation
(b) Industrial Peace
(c) Both the above
(d) Stopping the entry of young blood
Answer: (c) Both the above

Question32: With what responsibility is staffing related to?
(a) Social
(b) Political
(c) Government
(d) Individual
Answer: (a) Social

Question33: What stage does the requisition of employees occupy in the process of recruitment?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer: (a) First

Question34: ________ is helpful in finding out a competent employee.
(a) Planning
(b) Staffing
(c) Both the above
(d) Organisation
Answer: (b) Staffing

Question35: Which source of recruitment is not available to the new organisations?
(a) Internal
(b) External
(c) Both the above
(d) Direct Recruitment
Answer: (a) Internal

Question36: When a person undergoes a course in engineering, is ________ .
(a) Training
(b) Education
(c) Development
(d) All the Above
Answer: (b) Education

Question37: From which source of recruitment do we get Badli or casual employee?
(a) Direct Recruitment
(b) Casual Callers
(c) Media Advertisement
(d) Employment Exchange
Answer: (b) Casual Callers

Question38: Recruitment is a ________ process.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Qualitative
(d) Quantitative
Answer: (a) Positive

Question39: To which source of recruitment the direct recruitment from educational institutions is related?
(a) Employment Exchange
(b) Campus Recruitment
(c) Management Consultants
(d) Direct Recruitment
Answer: (b) Campus Recruitment

Question40: Which is not included in Internal Source of Recruitment?
(a) Transfer
(b) Trade Union
(c) Promotion
(d) Lay-off
Answer: (b) Trade Union

Question41: Which of the following training is given to the top level managers?
(a) Labour Relations
(b) Financial Management
(c) Production Management
(d) All the Above
Answer: (d) All the Above

Question42: ________ is included in External Source of Recruitment.
(a) Advertisement
(b) Employment Exchange
(c) Both
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Both

Question43: Filling up of blank application form during the selection process contains information about ________ .
(a) Qualifications
(b) Personal information
(c) Minimum Salary acceptable
(d) All the above
Answer: (d) All the above

Question44: (I) Training is job-oriented and development is career oriented.
(II) Scope of training is broad and that of development is limited.
Above both statements are:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Statement (I) is True and Statement (II) is False.
(d) Statement (I) is False and Statement (II) is True.
Answer: (c) Statement (I) is True and Statement (II) is False.

Question45: Contract of employment contains ________ information.
(a) Job Title
(b) Responsibilities
(c) Allowances
(d) All the above
Answer: (d) All the above

Question46: What type of the process selection is?
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Qualitative
(d) Quantitative
Answer: (b) Negative

Question47: What is the first step in the process of selection?
(a) Selection Tests
(b) Job Offer
(c) Preliminary Screening
(d) Selection Decision
Answer: (c) Preliminary Screening

Question48: Which of the following aims at examining the interest of the candidate?
(a) Intelligence Test
(b) Interest Test
(c) Aptitude Test
(d) All the above
Answer: (b) Interest Test

Question49: Sending an inefficient employee to a lower position is called ________ .
(a) Transfer
(b) Promotion
(c) Demotion
(d) Lay off
Answer: (c) Demotion

Question50: After crossing the bar of physical test which letter is given to the selected person?
(a) Letter of Regret
(b) Appointment Letter
(c) Both the above
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Appointment Letter

Question51: The purpose of ________ interview is to find out whether the applicant is physically and mentally fit for the position.
(a) Preliminary
(b) Employment
(c) Both the above
(d) Collective (or Group)
Answer: (a) Preliminary

Question52: Under training the employees are trained in ________ field/fields.
(a) A particular
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) All
Answer: (a) A particular

Question53: The meaning of development is to make the employees efficient in ________ field/fields.
(a) A particular
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) All
Answer: (d) All

Question54: The word development is linked or associated with ________ .
(a) Managers
(b) Workers
(c) Supervisors
(d) Workers and Supervisors
Answer: (a) Managers

Question55: The word Training is associated with ________ .
(a) Managers
(b) Workers
(c) Supervisors
(d) Workers and Supervisors
Answer: (d) Workers and Supervisors

Question56:At what level of management staffing is needed?
(a) Top level
(b) Middle level
(c) Lower level
(d) At all levels
Answer: (d) At all levels

Question57: Under which training method factory like conditions are created?
(a) Induction Training
(b) Apprenticeship Training
(c) Vestibule Training
(d) Internship Training
Answer: (c) Vestibule Training

Question58:  ________ is included in the psychological test.
(a) Interest Test
(b) Intelligence Test
(c) Both the Above
(d) General Knowledge Test
Answer: (c) Both the Above

Question59: Under which training method, both the technical institutes and the business organisations jointly impart training to their members?
(a) Induction Training
(b) Apprenticeship Training
(c) Vestibule Training
(d) Internship Training
Answer: (d) Internship Training

Question60: What does the Reference and Background test aims at knowing about the candidate?
(a) Character
(b) Social Relations
(c) Both the above
(d) Economic Condition
Answer: (c) Both the above

NCERT MCQ ON Organising:

Question1: Under what function of management the relationship between different posts (positions) is explained?

(a) Planning

(b) Communication

(c) Organisation

(d) Supervision

Answer: C

Question2: Where lies the need of organisation?

(a) In business organisation

(b) In non-business organisation

(c) In both (a) and (b)

(d) No where

Answer: C

Question3: Which organisation structure is consciously or deliberately established?

(a) Formal

(b) Informal

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None

Answer: A

Question4: Which organisation structure is based on rules and procedures?

(a) Informal

(b) Formal

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None

Answer: B

Question5: Which structure of organisation is helpful in locating the inefficient employees?

(a) Formal

(b) Informal

(c) Both the above

(d) None of the above

Answer: A

Question6: Which organisation structure does not have duplication of work?

(a) Formal

(b) Informal

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of these

Answer: A

Question7: Which of the following is not the disadvantage of formal organisation?

(a) Lack of initiative

(b) Delay in work

(c) Lack of favouritism

(d) Mechanical relationship

Answer: C

Question8: In which organisation structure do we find “group norms”?

(a) Formal

(b) Informal

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of these

Answer: B

Question9: Which of the following is not an element of delegation?

(a) Accountability

(b) Authority

(c) Responsibility

(d) Informal organisation

Answer: D

Question10: A network of social relationship that arises spontaneously due to interaction at work is called:

(a) Formal organisation

(b) Informal organisation

(c) Decentralisation

(d) Delegation

Answer: B

Question11: Which of the following does not follow the scalar chain?

(a) Functional structure

(b) Divisional structure

(c) Formal organisation

(d) Informal organisation.

Answer: D

Question12: A tall structure has a

(a) Narrow span of management

(b) Wide span of management

(c) No span of management

(d) Less levels of management

Answer: A

Question13: Centralisation refers to

(a) Retention of decision-making authority

(b) Dispersal of decision-making authority

(c) Creating divisions as profit centre’s

(d) Opening new centres or branches

Answer: A

Question14: For delegation to be effective it is essential that responsibility be accompanied with necessary

(a) Authority

(b) Manpower

(c) Incentives

(d) Promotions.

Answer: A

Question15: Span of management refers to

(a) Number of managers

(b) Length of term for which a manager is appointed

(c) Number of subordinates under a superior

(d) Number of members in top management

Answer: C

Question16: The form of organisation known for giving rise to rumours is called

(a) Centralised organisation

(b) Decentralised organisation

(c) Informal organisation

(d) Formal organization

Answer: B

Question17:  Grouping of activities on the basis of product lines is a part of

(a) Delegated organization

(b) Divisional organisation

(c) Functional organisation

(d) Autonomous organization

Answer: B

Question18:  Grouping of activities on the basis of functions is a part of

(a) Decentralised organisation

(b) Divisional organisation

(c) Functional organisation   

(d) Centralised organization

Answer: C

NCERT MCQ ON  Planning:

Question1: State true or false:

 Managers when plan, organise, lead and control are called decision makers.

a. True

b. False

Answer: A

Question2: Which of the following is an assumption of rationality to rationale decision making?

a. Preferences are clear

b. Final choice will maximize pay off

c. The problem is clear and unambiguous

d. All of the above

Answer: D

Question3: Is accepting solutions that are “good enough”.

a. Bounded rationality

b. Satisfying

c. Escalation of commitment

d. None of the above

Answer: B

Question4: Making decisions on the basis of experience, feelings and accumulated judgement is called as

a. Decision making

b. Structured problems

c. Intuitive decision making

d. None of the above

Answer: C

Question5: Which software provides key performance indicators to help managers monitor efficiency of projects and employees?

a. Management Information System

b. Business Performance Management

c. Enterprise Application Software

d. Online analytical Processing

Answer: B

Question6: Is a rule of thumb that managers use to simplify decision making.

a. Sunk costs

b. Framing

c. Heuristics

d. None of the above

Answer: C

Question7: State true or false.

Availability bias is when decisions makers tend to remember events that are most recent.

a. True

b. False

Answer: A

Question8: Which of the following quality a manager must possess to succeed in planning?

a. Reflective Thinking

b. Imagination

c. Farsightedness

d. All of these

Answer: D

Question9: Plan which is firstly discussed in business plan is mostly

a. Marketing plan

b. Financial planning

c. Personnel plan

d. Production plan

Answer: A

Question10:  First step in planning process is to

a. Setting an objectives

b. Evaluate alternative

c. Determine strength and weakness

d. None of the above.

Answer : A