NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Life Lines of National Economy

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 will help the students in learning complex topics and problems in an easy way. Class 10 Social Science NCERT Solutions will help students in understanding the topics in most simple manner and grasp it easily to perform better. You can study in an organized manner and set a good foundation for your future goals.

Page No: 92

Multiple choice questions

(i) Which two of the following extreme locations are connected by the east-west corridor?
(a) Mumbai and Nagpur
(b) Silcher and Porbandar
(c) Mumbai and Kolkata
(d) Nagpur and Siligudi
► (b) Silcher and Porbandar

(ii) Which mode of transportation reduces trans-shipment losses and delays?
(a) Railways
(b) Roadways
(c) Pipeline
(d) Waterways
► (c) Pipeline

(iii) Which one of the following states is not connected with the H.V.J. pipeline?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat
(d) Uttar Pradesh
► (b) Maharashtra

(iv) Which one of the following ports is the deepest land-locked and well-protected port along the east cost?
(a) Chennai
(b) Paradwip
(c) Tuticorin
(d) Vishakhapatnam
► (d) Vishakhapatnam

(v) Which one of the following is the most important modes of transportation in India?
(a) Pipeline
(b) Railways
(c) Roadways
(d) Airways
► (b) Railways

(vi) Which one of the following terms is used to describe trade between two or more countries?
(a) Internal trade
(b) International trade
(c) External trade
(d) Local trade► (b) International trade

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.

(i) State any three merits of roadways.

(ii) Where and why is rail transport the most convenient means of transporation?

(iii) What is the significance of the border roads?

(iv) What is meant by trade? What is the difference between international and local trade?

Answer

(i) Merits of roadways:
→ They are cheaper than railways in terms of construction costs.
→ Roads can go through dissected and undulating land areas and through steep mountains.
→ They are economical as loading costs are low and door-to-door service can be availed of.
(ii) In the northern plains, rail transport is the most convenient mode of transportation. This is because this region has vast level lands that are good for laying tracks, and huge population and high agricultural productivity, making rail transport a profitable venture.
(iii) Border roads are strategically important as they improve accessibility to areas like the northern and north eastern border areas which have a difficult terrain.
(iv) Trade is the movement of goods and services between regions for economic gain. Trade between two or more countries is termed as international trade, while trade occurring in a region within the same country is called local trade.

Page No: 93

3. Answer the following questions in about 120 words.

(i) Why are the means of transportation and communication called the lifelines of a nation and its economy?

(ii) Write a note on the changing nature of the international trade in the last fifteen years.

Answer

(i) The means of transportation and communication are called the lifelines of  a nation and its economy due to the reasons given below:
→ The means of transportation and communication help in the production and movement of goods and services.
→ Transport helps in the development of communication . Various means of communication help us in interacting with other in all the parts of the world It has brought the world closer. → Transport like railways help us in conducting various activities like business, sight seeing, pilgrimage and transportation of goods over longer distances.
→ Pipelines are used for transporting crude oil and natural gas to refineries and factories.
→ Water provide the cheapest means of transport and is useful for international trade.
→ Air transport provides the fastest, most comfortable mode of transport.
Thus, it is clear that there are many advantages of transportation and communication. These means help in the development of the country. So they are called the lifelines of a nation and its economy.

(ii) The changing nature of the international trade for India, in the last fifteen years, has been impressive. Exchange of information and knowledge has surpassed exchange of goods and commodities. Through its advanced software knowledge and excellence in the field of information technology, India has emerged as a viable contender at the international level and is earning huge amounts of foreign exchange through the same. Tourism too has added to India’s upgraded position in international trade. In 2004, there was a 23.5% increase in foreign tourist arrivals as against the number in 2003. Thus, international trade for India has undergone a cognisable change in the past fifteen years.

Quiz Drive

1. Northern terminal of the North-south corridor.
2. The name of National Highway No.2.
3. The headquarter of the southern railway zone.
4. The rail gauge with a track width of 1.676 m.
5. The southern terminal of the National Highway No.7. 6.  A Riverine Port.7.  Busiest railway junction in Northern India.Answer

1.Srinagar
2. Grand Trunk Road
3. Chennai
4. Broad gauge
5. Kanyakumari
6. Kolkata Port Trust
7. Mughalsarai

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 will help the students in learning complex topics and problems in an easy way. Class 10 Social Science NCERT Solutions will help students in understanding the topics in most simple manner and grasp it easily to perform better. You can study in an organized manner and set a good foundation for your future goals.

Page No: 79

Multiple choice questions

(i) Which one of the following industries uses limestone as a raw material.
(a) Aluminium
(b) Cement
(c) Sugar
(d) Jute
► (b) Cement

(ii) Which one of the following agencies markets steel for the public sector plants?
(a) HAIL
(b) SAIL
(c) TATA Steel
(d) MNCC
► (b) SAIL

(iii) Which one of the following industries uses bauxite as a raw material?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Cement
(c) Jute
(d) Steel
► (a) Aluminium

(iv) Which one of the following industries manufactures telephones, computer, etc?
(a) Steel
(b) Electronic
(c) Aluminium
(d) Information Technology
► (b) Electronic

Answer the following briefly in not more than 30 words.

(i) What is manufacturing?

(ii) Name any three physical factors for the location of the industry.

(iii) Name any three human factors for the location of an industry.

(iv) What are basic industries? Give an example.

(v) Name the important raw materials used in the manufacturing of cement?

Answer
(i) Manufacturing is the process in which goods are produced after processing the various raw materials.
(ii) Three physical factors for the location of the industry are:→ Availability of raw material. → Suitable climate. → Availability of water and power supply.
(iii) Three human factors for the location of an industry are→ Availability of cheap labour→ Availability of services such as consultants and financial advice→ Availability of Market
(iv) Basic industries are those which supply their raw materials to industries which manufacture other goods. An example is the iron and steel industry which supplies steel to the automobile industry.
(v) The important raw materials used in the manufacturing of cement are: limestone, silica, alumina and gypsum.
3. Write the answers of the following questions in 120 words.

(i) How are integrated steel plants different from mini steel plants? What problems does the industry face? What recent developments have led to a rise in the production capacity?

(ii) How do industries pollute the environment?

(iii) Discuss the steps to be taken to minimise environmental degradation by industry?

Answer
(i) Integrated Steel Plants are large plants which handle everything in one complex – from putting together raw material to steel making, rolling and shaping.
Mini Steel Plants are smaller, have electric arc furnaces, use mainly steel scrap and sponge iron as inputs. They have re-rollers that use steel ingots as well. They produce mild and alloy steel of given specifications.
Problems of Steel Industry:
→ High costs and limited availability of coking coal.
→ Lower productivity of labour.
→ Irregular supply of power.
→ Poor infrastructure.

Following are some recent developments that have led to a rise in the production capacity:
→ Liberalisation
→ Foreign direct investments (FDI) with the efforts of private entrepreneurs. → Improvement in production process by the use of newer technologies.
(ii) Industries are responsible for four types of pollution – air, water, land, and noise pollution. Following are the various reasons:
→ Air pollution is caused by the presence of high proportion of undesirable gases, such as sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide.
→ Water pollution is caused by organic and inorganic industrial wastes and effluents discharged into rivers.
→ Thermal pollution of water occurs when hot water from factories and thermal plants are drained into rivers and ponds before cooling.
→ Wastes from nuclear plants cause cancer, birth defects and miscarriages.
→ Dumping of wastes especially, glass, harmful chemicals, industrial effluents, packaging, salts and other garbage render the soil useless.
→ Noise pollution is caused due to industrial and construction activities, factory equipment, generators, electric saws, drills and other machineries.

(iii) The steps to be taken to minimize environmental degradation by industry are:
→ To control water pollution, industrial effluents need to be treated on all three levels (primary, secondary and tertiary); the use of water for processing should be minimised via reuse and recycling; rainwater can be harvested to meet water requirements, and ground water usage should be regulated by law.
→ For the minimisation of air pollution, smoke stacks should be fitted to factories with electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters, scrubbers and inertial separators. Also, smoke can be reduced by using oil or gas instead of coal.
→ Noise pollution can be controlled by fitting generators with silencers, redesigning machinery to reduce noise, and using earplugs and earphones besides other noise absorbing material.

Activity

Give one word for each of the following with regard to industry. The number of letters in each word are hinted in brackets.

(i) Used to drive machinery                       (5) P………………………

(ii) People who work in a factory              (6) W……………………..

(iii) Where the product is sold                   (6) M……………………..

(iv) A person who sells goods                   (8) R………………………

(v) Thing produced                                    (7) P………………………

(vi) To make or produce                            (11) M……………………..

(vii) Land, Water and Air degraded           (9) P………………………

Answer
(i) Power (ii) Worker (iii) Market (iv) Retailer (v) Product (vi) Manufacture (vii) Pollution

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 will help the students in learning complex topics and problems in an easy way. Class 10 Social Science NCERT Solutions will help students in understanding the topics in most simple manner and grasp it easily to perform better. You can study in an organized manner and set a good foundation for your future goals.

Page No: 63

Multiple choice questions

(i) Which one of the following minerals is formed by decomposition of rocks, leaving a residual mass of weathered material?
(a) coal
(b) bauxite
(c) gold
(d) zinc
► (b) bauxite

(ii) Koderma, in Jharkhand is the leading producer of which one of the following minerals?
(a) bauxite
(b) mica
(c) iron ore
(d) copper
► (b) mica

(iii) Minerals are deposited and accumulated in the stratas of which of the following rocks?
(a) sedimentary rocks
(b) metamorphic rocks
(c) igneous rocks
(d) none of the above
► (a) sedimentary rocks

(iv) Which one of the following minerals is contained in the Monazite sand?
(a) oil
(b) uranium
(c) thorium
(d) coal
► (c) thorium
Page No: 64

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.

(i) Distinguish between the following in not more than 30 words.
(a) Ferrous and non-ferrous minerals
(b) Conventional and non-conventional sources of energy.

(ii) What is a mineral?

(iii) How are minerals formed in igneous and metamorphic rocks?

(iv) Why do we need to conserve mineral resources?
Answer

(i) (a)

Ferrous minerals	Non-ferrous minerals
Metallic minerals which contain iron are called ferrous minerals, e.g. iron ore, manganese, nickel, cobalt, etc.	Metallic minerals which do not contain iron are called non-ferrous minerals, e.g. copper, bauxite, tin, etc.

(b)

Conventional Sources of Energy	Non-conventional Sources of Energy
Conventional sources of energy are those sources which have been use since the early times.	Non-conventional sources of energy have generally been identified in the recent past.
They are exhaustible except hydro-energy.	They are inexhaustible.
They cause pollution when used as they emit smoke and ash.	Generally these are pollution-free.
Their generation and use involve huge expenditure.	Low expenditure required.
Very expensive to maintain, store, transmit as they are carried over long distances through transmission grids.	Less expensive due to local use and easy maintenance.
Examples are – coal, natural gas, water, fire-wood.	Examples are – geothermal energy, solar energy, wind energy, tidal energy, biogas energy, nuclear energy.

(ii) A mineral is a homogeneous, naturally occurring substance with a definable interior structure.

(iii) In igneous and metamorphic rocks, molten/liquid and gaseous minerals are forced upwards into the cracks. They then solidify and form veins or lodes.

(iv) It takes millions of years for the formation of minerals. Compared to the present rate of consumption, the replenishment rate of minerals is very slow. Hence, mineral resources are finite and non-renewable. Due to this, it is important that we conserve the mineral resources.

3. Answer the following questions.

(i) Describe the distribution of coal in India.

(ii) Why do you think that solar energy has a bright future in India?

Answer

→ The major resources of metallurgical coal belong to the Gondwana age and are located mainly in the north eastern part of the peninsula.
→ Rich reserves of coal are found in the Damodar Valley region in the states of West Bengal and Jharkhand. Raniganj in West Bengal and Jharia and Bokaro in Jharkhand are important coalfields. One third of the total production comes from here.
→ Coal is also found in the Godavari, Mahanadi, Son and Wardha valleys. Korba in Chhattisgarh, Singrauli and Penah-kanhan valley in Madhya Pradesh, Talcher in Orissa, Kamptee and Chandrapur in Maharashtra and Singareni of Andhra Pradesh are important coal mines.
→ Tertiary coal occur in the north eastern states of Meghalaya, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland.
→ Principal lignite reserves are found in Neyveli in Tamil Nadu.
(ii) Solar energy has a bright future in India because –
→ India being a tropical country receives sunlight in abundance throughout the year.
→ Solar plants can be easily established in rural and remote areas.
→ It will minimize the dependence of rural households on firewood and dunk cakes which in turn will contribute to environmental conservation and adequate supply of manure in agriculture.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture Geography

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 will help the students in learning complex topics and problems in an easy way. Class 10 Social Science NCERT Solutions will help students in understanding the topics in most simple manner and grasp it easily to perform better. You can study in an organized manner and set a good foundation for your future goals.

Page No: 48

Multiple choice questions

(i) Which one of the following describes a system of agriculture where a single crop is grown on a large area?
(a) Shifting Agriculture
(b) Plantation Agriculture
(c) Horticulture
(d) Intensive Agriculture
► (b) Plantation Agriculture

(ii) Which one of the following is a rabi crop?
(a) Rice
(b) Gram
(c) Millets
(d) Cotton
► (b) Gram

(iii) Which one of the following is a leguminous crop?
(a) Pulses
(b) Jawar
(c) Millets
(d) Sesamum
► (a) Pulses

(iv) Which one of the following is announced by the government in support of a crop?
(a) Maximum support price
(b) Minimum support price
(c) Moderate support price
(d) Influential support price
► (b) Minimum support price

2. Answer the following questions in 30 words.

(i) Name one important beverage crop and specify the geographical conditions required for its growth.

(ii) Name one staple crop of India and the regions where it is produced.

(iii) Enlist the various institutional reform programmes introduced by the government in the interest of farmers.

(iv) The land under cultivation has got reduced day by day. Can you imagine its consequences?

Answer

(i) Tea is an important beverage crop. This plant grows well in tropical or sub tropical climates, and deep and fertile well-drained soil which is rich in humus and organic matter.

(ii) Rice is a staple food crop of India. It grows in the plains of north and north-east India, coastal areas and the deltaic regions.

(iii) The various institutional reform programmes introduced by the government for the benefit of farmers are:
→ Crop insurance against drought, flood, fire etc.
→ Minimum Support Price policy.
→ Subsidy on agricultural inputs and resources such as power and fertilisers.
→ Kissan Credit Card and Personal Accident Insurance Scheme.

(iv) A declining area of land under cultivation coupled with increasing population have many consequesnces. These are:
→ Food shortage for the rising population.
→ Rise in price of food grains.
→ Unemployment and loss of livelihood for farmers.
→ Shortage of supply of raw material for agro-industries.
→ Adverse affect on export trade as agricultural products comprise a major section of international trade.

3. Answer the following questions in about 120 words.

(i) Suggest the initiative taken by the government to ensure the increase in agricultural production.

(ii) Describe the impact of globalisation on Indian agriculture.

(iii) Describe the geographical conditions required for the growth of rice.

Answer

Various initiative taken by the government to ensure the increase in agricultural production are:
→ Collectivisation, consolidation of holdings, cooperation and abolition of Zamindari etc. were given priority to bring about institutional reforms in the country after independence.
→ Land Reform was the main focus of our ‘First Five Year Plan’.→ The Green Revolution was based on the use of package technology and the White Revolution were some of the strategies initiated to improve the lot of Indian agriculture.
→ Minimum Support Price policy, provision for crop insurance, subsidy on agricultural inputs and resources such as power and fertilizers, Grameen Banks, Kissan Credit Card and Personal Accident Insurance Scheme are also some of the reforms bought by Indian Government.

(ii) The impact of globalisation on Indian agriculture has been felt since colonial times. Raw cotton and spices were important export items from India. In 1917, Indian farmers revolted in Champaran against being forced to grow indigo in place of foodgrains, in order to supply dye to Britain’s flourishing textile industry. Thus, globalisation has had its boons and banes for Indian agriculture.
Post liberalisation, Indian farmers face new challenges in the form of competition from highly subsidised agriculture of developed nations. This prompts the need for making Indian agriculture successful and profitable by improving the conditions of small and marginal farmers, countering the negative effects of Green Revolution, developing and promoting organic farming, and diversifying cropping pattern from cereals to high-value crops.
(iii) The geographical conditions required for growth of rice are as follows :
→ It is a kharif crop and requires hot and humid climate for cultivation. Temperature above 25°C and high humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm are favourable for growth of rice.
→ Rich alluvial soils of the floodplains and deltaic areas which are renewed every years are ideal for rice cultivation.
→ Rice requires abundant rainfall or good water supply through irrigation and flooded fields during the earlier part of its growing season in June-July.
→ Plenty of cheap labour as most of the farming involves manual labour.

Project Work

2. On an outline map of India show wheat producing areas.

Answer

3. Solve the puzzle by following your search horizontally and vertically to find the hidden answers.

1. The two staple food crops of India.
2. This is the summer cropping season of India.
3. Pulses like arhar, moong, gram, urad contain…
4. It is a coarse grain.
5. The two important beverages in India are…
6. One of the four major fibers grown on black soils.
Answer

1. Rice and Wheat

2. Kharif

3. Protein

4. Jowar

5. Coffee, Tea

6. Cotton

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Water Resources Geography

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 will help the students in learning complex topics and problems in an easy way. Class 10 Social Science NCERT Solutions will help students in understanding the topics in most simple manner and grasp it easily to perform better. You can study in an organized manner and set a good foundation for your future goals.

Page No: 33

Multiple choice questions

(i) Based on the information given below classify each of the situations as ‘suffering from water scarcity’ or ‘not suffering from water scarcity’.
(a) Region with high annual rainfall.
(b) Region having high annual rainfall and large population.
(c) Region having high annual rainfall but water is highly polluted.
(d) Region having low rainfall and low population.

Answer

(a) Not suffering from water scarcity
(b) Suffering from water scarcity
(c) Suffering from water scarcity
(d) Not suffering from water scarcity

(ii) Which one of the following statements is not an argument in favour of multi-purpose river projects?
(a) Multi-purpose projects bring water to those areas which suffer from water scarcity.
(b) Multi-purpose projects by regulating water flow help to control floods.
(c) Multi-purpose projects lead to large scale displacements and loss of livelihood.
(d) Multi-purpose projects generate electricity for our industries and our homes.► (c) Multi-purpose projects lead to large scale displacements and loss of livelihood.

(iii) Here are some false statements. Identify the mistakes and rewrite them correctly.
(a) Multiplying urban centres with large and dense populations and urban lifestyles have helped in proper utilisation of water resources.
(b) Regulating and damming of rivers does not affect the river’s natural flow and its sediment flow.
(c) In Gujarat, the Sabarmati basin farmers were not agitated when higher priority was given to water supply in urban areas, particularly during droughts.
(d) Today in Rajasthan, the practice of rooftop rainwater water harvesting has gained popularity despite high water availability due to the Rajasthan Canal.
Answer

(a) Multiplying urban centres with large and dense populations and urban lifestyles have caused the over exploitation of water resources.
(b) Regulating and damming of rivers affect their natural flow and causes the sediment to settle at the bottom of the reservoir.
(c) In Gujarat, the Sabarmati basin farmers were agitated when higher priority was given to water supply in urban areas, particularly during droughts.
(d) Today in Rajasthan, the practice of rooftop rainwater harvesting is on the decline due to the Rajasthan canal.
2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.

(i) Explain how water becomes a renewable resource.

(ii) What is water scarcity and what are its main causes?

(iii) Compare the advantages and disadvantages of multi-purpose river projects.
Answer

(i) Water is a renewable resource as it is renewed by water cycle itself, where three processes take place as evaporation, condensation and precipitation. This process of water cycle is never ending and hence, water is a renewable resource.

(ii) Water scarcity or water stress occurs when water availability is not enough to match the demand for water. It is caused by an increase in population, growing demand for water, and unequal access to it.

(iii) Multipurpose river projects help in irrigation, electricity production, flood control, inland navigation and fish breeding. However, the reservoirs destroy local flora and fauna. Many native villages are submerged, and people lose their livelihood, with little or no hope of rehabilitation.

3. Answer the following questions in about 120 words.

(i) Discuss how rainwater harvesting in semi-arid regions of Rajasthan is carried out.

(ii) Describe how modern adaptations of traditional rainwater harvesting methods are being carried out to conserve and store water.

Answer

(i) Houses in the semi arid regions of Rajasthan have traditionally constructed tanks for storing drinking water. They are big and are a part of the well-developed rooftop rainwater harvesting system. The tanks are constructed inside the main house or the courtyard, and are connected to the sloping roofs of the houses through a pipe. The rain falling on the rooftop travels down and is stored in the tanks. The first spell of rain is not collected as this water cleans the roof and the pipes. The rainwater from the subsequent spells is collected. This water is used till the next rainy season, and is a reliable source of water even after other sources have dried up. The tanks also help in cooling the houses as rooms built around them have generally low temperatures due to conduction.

(ii) Traditional methods of rainwater harvesting like ‘the rooftop method’ are becoming popular in India. In Gendathur village, Mysore, about 200 households have adopted the rooftop rainwater harvesting method, thereby making the village rich in rainwater. The state of Tamil Nadu has made it compulsory for all the houses to have rooftop rainwater harvesting structures. Defaulters are severely punished.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Forest and Wildlife Resources Geography

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 will help the students in learning complex topics and problems in an easy way. Class 10 Social Science NCERT Solutions will help students in understanding the topics in most simple manner and grasp it easily to perform better. You can study in an organized manner and set a good foundation for your future goals.

Page No: 22

Multiple choice questions

(i) Which of these statements is not a valid reason for the depletion of flora and fauna?
(a) Agricultural expansion
(b) Large scale developmental projects
(c) Grazing and fuel wood collection
(d) Rapid industrialisation and urbanisation
► (c) Grazing and fuel wood collection

(ii) Which of the following conservation strategies do not directly involve community participation?
(a) Joint forest management
(b) Beej Bachao Andolan
(c) Chipko Movement
(d) Demarcation of Wildlife sanctuaries
► (d) Demarcation of Wildlife sanctuaries
2. Match the following animals with their category of existence.

Animals/Plants	Category of existence
Black buck	Extinct
Asiatic elephant	Rare
Andaman wild pig	Endangered
Himalayan brown bear	Vulnerable
Pink head duck	Endemic

Answer

Animals/Plants	Category of existence
Black buck	Endangered
Asiatic elephant	Vulnerable
Andaman wild pig	Endemic
Himalayan brown bear	Rare
Pink head duck	Extinct

3. Match the following.

Reserved forests	other forests and wastelands belonging to both government and private individuals and communities
Protected forests	forests are regarded as most valuable as far as the conservation of forest and wildlife resources
Unclassed forests	forest lands are protected from any further depletion

Answer

Reserved forests	forests are regarded as most valuable as far as the conservation of forest and wildlife resources
Protected forests	forest lands are protected from any further depletion
Unclassed forests	other forests and wastelands belonging to both government and private individuals and communities

4. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.

(i) What is biodiversity? Why is biodiversity important for human lives?

(ii) How have human activities affected the depletion of flora and fauna? Explain.

Answer

(i) Biodiversity is immensely rich in wildlife and cultivated species, diverse in form and function, but closely integrated in a system through multiple networks of interdependencies.
It is important for human lives because the human beings, along with the biodiversity, form a complete web of ecological system in which we are only a part and are very much dependent on this system for our own existence.

(ii) Several human activities have affected the depletion of flora and fauna and has led to decline in India’s biodiversity. The main factors responsible for this damage are:
→ Habitat destruction, mainly due to overpopulation leading to expansion of agriculture, mining, industrialisation and urbanisation and consequent wiping out of large forest areas.
→ Hunting and poaching and illegal trade of animal skin, tusk, bones, teeth, horns, etc have lead many speices to the verge of extinction.
→ Environmental pollution, poisoning of water bodies due to discharge of industrial effluents, chemicals, wastes, etc. leading to animal deaths.
→ Forest fires often induced by shifting cultivation wiping out valuable forests and wildlife.
→ Large scale development projects and destruction of forests.
→ Grazing and fuel wood collection.
→Over-exploitation of forest products
Other important causes of environmental destruction are unequal access, inequitable consumption of forest resources and differential sharing of responsibility for environmental well-being.

5. Answer the following questions in about 120 words.

(i) Describe how communities have conserved and protected forests and wildlife in India.

(ii) Write a note on good practices towards conserving forest and wildlife.

Answer

(i) Indian forests are home to different communities. These communities have a complex relationship with their environment. The Mundas and the Santhal of Chhota Nagpur region worship Mahua and Kadamba trees; the tribals of Orissa and Bihar worship the tamarind and mango trees. Similarly, the Bishnois of Rajasthan hold the antelopes in high reverence. For these communities, particular flora and fauna are integral to their identity, so they take a number of steps to protect the same. Villagers around the Sariska Reserve have opposed mining activities in the region as these activities endanger wildlife. Villagers in the Alwar district of Rajasthan have banned hunting and lumbering activities in a 1200 hectare area they have marked as Bhairodev Dakav ‘Sonchuri’. Such activities have helped preserve patches of virgin forest land.

(ii) Good practices towards conserving forest and wildlife are plenty. Nowadays, many non-governmental organisations are working towards creating public awareness for conserving depleting forest cover and vanishing wildlife. Central and state governments in India have set up national parks and wildlife sanctuaries to protect forests and endangered species in wildlife. A recently developing practice towards conservation is the search for different conservation measures. Biodiversity is the new by-word of good practices towards conserving forest and wildlife. Various communities, especially in tribal areas, who are dependent on forests for their living are now taking an active role in this form of conservation.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resources and Development Geography

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 will help the students in learning complex topics and problems in an easy way. Class 10 Social Science NCERT Solutions will help students in understanding the topics in most simple manner and grasp it easily to perform better. You can study in an organized manner and set a good foundation for your future goals.

Page No: 12
Multiple choice questions

(i) Which one of the following type of resource is iron ore?
(a) Renewable
(b) Biotic
(c) Flow
(d) Non-renewable
► (d) Non-renewable

(ii) Under which of the following type of resource can tidal energy be put?
(a) Replenishable
(b) Human-made
(c) Abiotic
(d) Non-recyclable
► (a) Replenishable

(iii) Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
(a) Intensive cultivation
(b) Deforestation
(c) Over irrigation
(d) Overgrazing
► (c) Over irrigation

(iv) In which one of the following states is terrace cultivation practised?
(a) Punjab
(b) Plains of Uttar Pradesh
(c) Haryana
(d) Uttarakhand
► (d) Uttarakhand

(v) In which of the following states is black soil found?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Jharkhand
► (b) Maharashtra

Page No: 13

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.

(i) Name three states having black soil and the crop which is mainly grown in it.

(ii) What type of soil is found in the river deltas of the eastern coast? Give three main features of this type of soil.

(iii) What steps can be taken to control soil erosion in the hilly areas?

(iv) What are the biotic and abiotic resources? Give some examples.

Answer

(i) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh are states having black soil.
Cotton is mainly grown in black soil.

(ii) Alluvial Soil is found in the river deltas of the eastern coast.
Three features of alluvial soil:
→ Alluvial soils are very fertile.
→ They are ideal for growing sugarcane, wheat and paddy.
→ The regions of alluvial soils are intensively cultivated and densely populated.

(iii) In hilly areas, soil erosion can be controlled by ploughing across contour-lines, making use of terrace farming techniques and using strips of grasses to check soil erosion by wind and water.

(iv) Biotic Resources: The resources which are obtained from the biosphere and have life are called Biotic Resources. For example, animals and plants including human beings.
Abiotic Resources: The resources which are composed of non-living things are called Abiotic Resources. For example, water, minerals, metals, wind, solar energy etc.

3. Answer the following questions in about 120 words.
(i) Explain land use pattern in India and why has the land under forest not increased much since 1960-61?

(ii) How have technical and economic development led to more consumption of resources?

Answer

(i) Land resources in India are primarily divided into agricultural land, forest land, land meant for pasture and grazing, and waste land. Waste land includes rocky, arid and desert areas, and land used for other non-agricultural purposes such as housing, roads and industry. According to the recent data, about 54% of the total land area is cultivable or fallow, 22.78% is covered by forests, and 3.38% is used for grazing. The rest is waste land, with traces of miscellaneous cultivation.
The land under forest has not increased since 1960–61 because in the post-independence era demand for more land to expand agriculture, mainly after Green Revolution, developmental works and infrastructural facilities, led to clearance of forests areas. Industrialisation and urbanisation also decreased the forest area. Thus, land under forest has increased by only about 4% since 1960-61.

(ii) Technical and economic development have led to more consumption of resources on account of various factors such as:
→ Technological development provides sophisticated equipments. As a result, production increases ultimately leading to consumption of more resources.
→ Technological development also leads to economic development. When the economic condition of a country rises, the needs of people also rise. It again results into more consumption of resources.
→ Economic development provides favourable environment for the development of latest technologies. It helps to make or convert various materials found around us into resources. Finally, it results into the consumption of new available resources too.
Project/Activity
4.  Solve the puzzle by following your search horizontally and vertically to find the hidden answers.
(i) Natural endowments in the form of land, water, vegetation and minerals.
(ii) A type of non-renewable resource.
(iii) Soil with high water retaining capacity.
(iv) Intensively leached soils of the monsoon climate.
(v) Plantation of trees on a large scale to check soil erosion.
(vi) The Great Plains of India are made up of these soils.
Answer

(i) Resources
(ii) Minerals
(iii) Black
(iv) Laterite
(v) Afforestation
(vi) Alluvial

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 Print Culture and the Modern World

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 will help the students in learning complex topics and problems in an easy way. Class 10 Social Science NCERT Solutions will help students in understanding the topics in most simple manner and grasp it easily to perform better. You can study in an organized manner and set a good foundation for your future goals.

Page No: 176

Write in Brief

1.Give reasons for the following:
(a) Woodblock print only came to Europe after 1295.
(b) Martin Luther was in favour of print and spoke out in praise of it.
(c) The Roman Catholic Church began keeping an Index of Prohibited books from the mid-sixteenth century.
(d) Gandhi said the fight for Swaraj is a fight for liberty of speech, liberty of the press, and freedom of association.

Answer

(a)Woodblock print was invented around the sixth century in China. It came to Europe, along with Marco Polo, in 1295. Marco Polo returned to Italy after many years of exploration in China, and he brought the knowledge of woodblock print with him on his return.

(b) Through the publications of his protestant ideas, Martin Luther challenged the orthodox practices and rituals of the Roman Catholic Church. He wrote 95 theses criticizing many of the practices of the Roman Catholic Church. Luther’s writings were immediately reproduced in vast numbers and read widely. This led to a division within the church and to the beginning of the Protestant Reformation. He also translated the New Testament of which 5000 copies were sold within a few days. These were impossible without the printing technology. Deeply grateful to the print, Luther said, “Printing is the ultimate gift of God and the greatest one.”
This is the reason why Luther was in favour of print and spoke out in praise of it.

(c) The Roman Catholic Church had to face many dissents from mid-16th century onwards. People had written many books that interpreted the God and the creation in their own ways or as they liked. Therefore, the church banned such books and kept the record of such banned books. It was called the Index of Prohibited Books.

(d) Gandhi considered that the liberty of speech, liberty of press and freedom of association were three most powerful vehicles of expressing and cultivating public opinion. Therefore, he said the fight for Swaraj was a fight for liberty of speech, press, and freedom for association.

2. Write short notes to show what you know about:
(a) The Gutenberg Press
(b) Erasmus’s idea of the printed book
(c) The Vernacular Press Act

Answer

(a) The Gutenberg Press: The first printing press was developed by Johan Gutenberg in 1430s. It was a developed form of the olive and wine presses. By 1448 Gutenberg perfected this system. The lead moulds were used for casting the metal types for the letters of alphabet. The first book he printed was Bible. He produced 180 copies of Bible in 3 years, which was much faster by standards of the time, at the time.

(b) Erasmus’s idea of printed book: Erasmus was the Latin scholar and a Catholic reformer. He criticized the printing of books. He thought that most of the books are stupid, ignorant, scandalous, raving, irreligious and seditious. According to him such books devaluate the valuable books.

(c) The Vernacular Press Act: Modelled on the Irish Press Laws, it was passed in 1878. This law gave the government tyrannical rights to censor reports and editorials in the vernacular press. If a seditious report was published and the newspaper did not heed to an initial warning, then the press was seized and the printing machinery confiscated. This was a complete violation of the freedom of expression.

3. What did the spread of print culture in nineteenth century India mean to:
(a) Women
(b) The poor
(c) Reformers

Answer

(a) The spread of print culture in 19th century India benefitted Indian women through learning and education. The liberal families supported the education but conservative Hindus believed
that a literate girl would be widowed and Muslims feared that educated women would be corrupted by reading Urdu romances. This led to the counter reaction, as most of the oppressed women began to study and read books and learnt writing in secrecy. Some literate women started to write books and their autobiographies. Rashasundari Devi, a young married girl wrote her autobiography “Amar Jiban” which was published in 1876. Overall, the print culture in 19th century India helped in spread of the feeling of self-reliance among Indian women.

(b) The poor people benefitted from the spread of print culture because of the availability of books at a low price. The readership among them increased due to the publication of low priced books. Public libraries were also set up from the early 19th century, expanding the access to the books where all people could gain knowledge. Encouraged and inspired by the social reformers, the people like factory workers too set up their libraries and some even wrote books. Kashibaba, a Kanpur mill worker wrote and published ‘Chote aur Bade Ka Sawal’.

(c) Indian reforms of 19th century utilized print culture as the most potent means of spreading their reformist ideas and highlight the unethical issues. They began publishing various vernacular and English and Hindi newspapers and books through which they could spread their opinions against widow immolation, child marriage, monotheism, Brahmanical priesthood and idolatry to the common people of the country. In this way the spread of print culture in the 19th century provided them a space for attacking religious orthodoxy and to spread modern social and political ideas to the people of different languages across the country.

Discuss

1. Why did some people in 18th century Europe think that print culture would bring enlightenment and end despotism?

Answer

Many people in the 18th century Europe thought that the print culture has the power in it to bring enlightenment and end despotism. This would help in spreading of literacy and knowledge among all class of people. Social reformers like Louise, Sebastian Mercier, and Martin Luther felt that the print culture is the most powerful engine of progress and public opinion and hence, it would definitely bring enlightenment and an end to despotism.

2. Why did some people fear the effect of easily available printed books? Choose one example from Europe and one from India.

Answer

Some people especially from upper class and powerful class feared the effect of easily available printed books. Their cause of fear was that due to the spread of literacy among the common people they may loose their position or authorities. Some people feared that this may lead to the spread of rebellions and irreligious thoughts. For example –
→ In Europe, the Roman Catholic Church tried to curb the printed books through the Index of Prohibited Books.
→ In India, the Vernacular Press Act imposed restrictions on Indian press and various local newspapers. Also, some religious leaders and some people from upper castes expressed their fear.

4. What were the effects of the spread of print culture for poor people in nineteenth century India?
Answer

The effects of the spread of print culture for poor people in nineteenth century India were:
→ The poor people benefited from the spread of print culture in India on account of the availability of low-price books and public libraries.
→ Enlightening essays were written against caste discrimination and its inherent injustices. These were read by people across the country.
→  On the encouragement and support of social reformers, over-worked factory workers set up libraries for self-education, and some of them even published their own works, for example, Kashibaba and his “Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal”.

5. Explain how print culture assisted the growth of nationalism in India.

Answer

The print culture immensely helped the growth in the growth of nationalism in India in the following ways –
→ Through vernacular press, oppressive methods of colonial rule were reported.
→ The misrule of government and its initiative on curbing the freedom of press spread the nationalist ideas that demanded freedom of press.
→ Nationalist feelings and revolutionary ideas were secretly spread by the dailies like – The Amrit Bazar Patrika, The Indian Mirror, Kesri, The Hindu, Bombay Samachar etc. Through these newspapers national leaders always tried to mobilize public opinion of Indian masses and unite them for the cause of nationalism.
→ The print culture helped in educating the people who then started to be gradually influenced by the reformist and nationalist ideas of the various Indian leaders like Raja Ram Mohun Roy, Tilak, Subhas Bose and Gandhiji etc.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Age of Industrialisation

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 will help the students in learning complex topics and problems in an easy way. Class 10 Social Science NCERT Solutions will help students in understanding the topics in most simple manner and grasp it easily to perform better. You can study in an organized manner and set a good foundation for your future goals.

Write in Brief

1. Explain the following:
(a) Women workers in Britain attacked the Spinning Jenny.
(b) In the seventeenth century merchants from towns in Europe began employing peasants and artisans within the villages.
(c) The port of Surat declined by the end of the eighteenth century.
(d) The East India Company appointed gomasthas to supervise weavers in India.

Answer

(a) Women workers in Britain attacked the Spinning Jenny because it speeded up the spinning process, and consequently, reduced labour demand. This caused a valid fear of unemployment among women working in the woollen industry. Till date, they had survived on hand spinning, but this was placed in peril by the new machine.

(b) The trade and commerce guild controlled the market, raw materials, employees, and also production of goods in the towns. This created problems for merchants who wanted to increase production by employing more men. Therefore, they turned to peasants and artisans who lived in villages.

(c) The port of Surat declined by the end of the eighteenth century on account of the growing power of European companies in trade with India. They secured many concessions from local courts as well as the monopoly rights to trade. This led to a decline of the old ports of Surat and Hoogly from where local merchants had operated. Exports slowed and local banks here went bankrupt.

(d) The English East India Company appointed Gomasthas for:
→ To eliminate the existence of traders and brokers and establish a direct control over the weavers.
→ To eliminate weavers from dealing with other buyers by means of advances and control. In this manner, weavers who took loans and fees in advance were obligated to the British.

2. Write True or False against each statement:

(a) At the end of the nineteenth century, 80 per cent of the total workforce in Europe was employed in the technologically advanced industrial sector.
► False

(b) The international market for fine textiles was dominated by India till the eighteenth century.
► True

(c) The American Civil War resulted in the reduction of cotton exports from India.
► Flase

(d) The introduction of the fly shuttle enabled handloom workers to improve their productivity.
► True

3. Explain what is meant by proto-industrialisation.

Answer

Proto-industrialisation is the phase of industrialisation that was not based on the factory system. Before the coming of factories, there was large-scale industrial production for an international market. This part of industrial history is known as proto-industrialisation.

Discuss

1. Why did some industrialists in nineteenth-century Europe prefer hand labour over machines?

Answer
Some industrialists in nineteenth-century Europe prefer hand labour over machines because:→ Machines were costly, ineffective, difficult to repair, and needed huge capital investments.
→ Labour was available at low wages at that period of time.
→ In seasonal industries only seasonal labour was required.
→ Market demands of variety of designs and colour and specific type could not be fulfilled by machine made clothes. Intricate designs and colours could be done by human-skills only.
→ In Victorian age, the aristocrats and other upper class people preferred articles made by hand only.

2. How did the East India Company procure regular supplies of cotton and silk textiles from Indian weavers?

Answer

The English East India Company used different means to procure silk and cotton from the weavers:
→ Appointment of paid supervisors called Gomasthas. They also collected supplies and examined cloth quality of the weavers.
→ Prevention of Company weavers from dealing with other buyers through a system of advances and loans.

3. Imagine that you have been asked to write an article for an encyclopaedia on Britain and the history of cotton. Write your piece using information from the entire chapter.

Answer

Britain and the History of Cotton
During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, merchants would trade with rural people in textile production. A clothier would buy wool from a wool stapler, carry it to the spinners, and then, take the yarn to the weavers, fuller and dyers for further levels of production. London was the finishing centre for these goods. This phase in British manufacturing history is known as proto-industrialisation. In this phase, factories were not an essential part of industry. What was present instead was a network of commercial exchanges.

The first symbol of the new era of factories was cotton. Its production increased rapidly in the late nineteenth century. Imports of raw cotton sky-rocketed from 2.5 million pounds in 1760 to 22 million pounds in 1787. This happened because of the invention of the cotton mill and new machines, and better management under one roof. Till 1840, cotton was the leading sector in the first stage of industrialisation.

Most inventions in the textile production sector were met with disregard and hatred by the workers because machines implied less hand labour and lower employment needs. The Spinning Jenny was one such invention. Women in the woollen industry opposed and sought to destroy it because it was taking over their place in the labour market.

Before such technological advancements, Britain imported silk and cotton goods from India in vast numbers. Fine textiles from India were in high demand in England. When the East India Company attained political power, they exploited the weavers and textile industry in India to its full potential, often by force, for the benefit of Britain. Later, Manchester became the hub of cotton production. Subsequently, India was turned into the major buyer of British cotton goods.

During the First World War, British factories were too busy providing for war needs. Hence, demand for Indian textiles rose once again. The history of cotton in Britain is replete with such fluctuations of demand and supply.

4. Why did industrial production in India increase during the First World War?

Answer

India witnessed increased industrial production during the First World War due to following reasons:
→ British industries became busy in producing and supplying war-needs. Hence, they stopped exporting British goods or clothes for colonial markets like that in India.
→ It was a good opportunity for Indian industries to fill in empty Indian markets with their products. It was done so. Therefore, industrial production in India increased.
→ Also the British colonial government asked Indian factories to supply the war needs like – jute bags, cloth or army uniforms, tents and leather boots, horse and mule saddle, etc.
→ The increased demands of variety of products led to the setting up of new factories and old ones increased their production.
→ Many new workers were employed and everyone was made to work longer hours.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 The Making of Global World

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 will help the students in learning complex topics and problems in an easy way. Class 10 Social Science NCERT Solutions will help students in understanding the topics in most simple manner and grasp it easily to perform better. You can study in an organized manner and set a good foundation for your future goals.

Page No: 102

Write in Brief

1. Give two examples of different types of global exchanges which took place before the seventeenth century, choosing one example from Asia and one from the Americas.

Answer

Examples of the different types of global exchanges which took place before the seventeenth century:
• Example from the Americas: America had abundant crops, minerals and precious metals like gold and silver. The Europeans enhanced their wealth by utilising the rich resources of gold and silver.
• Example from Asia: China exported pottery and silk to India and Southeast Asia in return of textile goods and spices.

2. Explain how the global transfer of disease in the pre-modern world helped in the colonisation of the Americas.

Answer

The global transfer of disease in the pre-modern world helped in the colonisation of the Americas because the original inhabitants had no immunity against these diseases that came from Europe. Before the discovery of America, it had been cut off from regular contact with the rest of the world for millions of years. In particular, Smallpox proved a deadly killer. Once introduced, it spread deep into the continent, ahead even of any Europeans reaching there. It killed and decimated whole communities, paving the way for conquest.

3. Write a note to explain the effects of the following:
(a) The British government’s decision to abolish the Corn Laws.
(b) The coming of rinderpest to Africa.
(c) The death of men of working-age in Europe because of the World War.
(d) The Great Depression on the Indian economy.
(e) The decision of MNCs to relocate production to Asian countries.

Answer

(a) After the British government’s decision to abolish the Corn Laws, food could be imported into
Britain more cheaply than it could be produced within the country. British agriculture was unable to compete with imports. Vast areas of land were now left uncultivated, and thousands of men and women were thrown out of work. They flocked to the cities or migrated overseas. This indirectly led to global agriculture and rapid urbanisation, a prerequisite of industrial growth.

(b) Rinderpest had a terrifying impact on people’s livelihoods and the local economy. Rinderpest killed 90 percent of the cattle which destroyed African livelihoods. Planters, mine owners and colonial governments strengthen their power and forced Africans into the labour market.

(c) The death of men of working-age in Europe because of the World War reduced the able-bodied workforce in Europe. As men went to battle, women stepped in to undertake jobs that earlier only men were expected to do.

(d) The depression immediately affected Indian trade. India’s exports and imports nearly halved between 1928 and 1934. Between 1928 and 1934, wheat prices in India fell by 50 percent. Across India, peasants’ indebtedness increased. They used up their savings, mortgaged lands, and sold whatever jewellery and precious metals they had to meet their expenses. In these depression years, India became an exporter of precious metals, notably gold.

(e) The relocation of industry to low-wage countries stimulated world trade and capital flows. In the last two decades, the world’s economic geography has been transformed as countries such as India,
China and Brazil have undergone rapid economic transformation.

4. Give two examples from history to show the impact of technology on food availability.

Answer

Two examples from history to show the impact of technology on food availability were:→ Faster railways, lighter wagons and larger ships helped move food more cheaply and quickly from faraway farms to final markets.
→ Refrigerated ships, which enabled the transport of perishable foods like meat, butter and eggs over long distances.

5. What is meant by the Bretton Woods Agreement?

Answer

The Bretton Woods Agreement was signed between the world powers in July 1944 at Bretton Woods in New Hampshire, USA. It established the International Monetary Fund (IMF) to deal with external surpluses and deficits of its member nations and the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development was set up to finance post-war reconstruction.

Discuss

6. Imagine that you are an indentured Indian labourer in the Caribbean. Drawing from the details in this chapter, write a letter to your family describing your life and feelings.

Answer
Respected Family,

I hope all of you are fine there. I have been hired by the colonisers under a contract stating that I could return to India after working for five years at a plantation. However, the contract was a fraud and these are not allowing me to return. I joined this job in the hope to escape poverty and oppression but the condition of living and working is very harsh here. Most of the workers here belong to Bihar, central India and the dry regions of Tamil Nadu. There are few legal rights given to us. However, we have developed new art forms for expression.

Your Loving,
ABC

7. Explain the three types of movements or flows within international economic exchange. Find one example of each type of flow which involved India and Indians, and write a short account of it.

Answer

The three types of movements or flows within the international economic exchange are:
(i) Flow of trade: mean trade in goods such as cloth or wheat.
(ii) Flow of labour: mean the migration of people to new areas in search of work.
(iii) Flow of capital: short-term and long-term loan to and from other nations.

(i) India was involved in trade relations since ancient times. It exported textiles and spices in return for gold and silver from Europe.

(ii) In the nineteenth century, hundreds of thousands of Indian labourers went to work on plantations, in mines, and in road and railway construction projects around the world.

(iii) During British rule in India, many Europeans established their factories in India. Also, many Indian traders ventured beyond European colonies and they established flourishing emporia at busy ports worldwide, selling local and imported curios to tourists.

8. Explain the causes of the Great Depression.

Answer

The Great Depression was a result of many factors:
→ Prosperity in the USA during the 1920s created a cycle of higher employment and incomes. It led to rise in consumption and demands. More investment and more employment created tendencies of speculations which led to the Great Depression of 1929 upto the mid-1930s.
→ Stock market crashed in 1929. It created panic among investors and depositors who stopped investing and depositing. As a result, it created a cycle of depreciation.
→ Failure of the banks: Some of the banks closed down when people withdrew all their assets, leaving them unable to invest. Some banks called back loans taken from them at the same dollar rate inspite of the falling value of dollar. It was worsened by British change in policy to value pound at the pre-war value.

9. Explain what is referred to as the G-77 countries. In what ways can G-77 be seen as a reaction to the activities of the Bretton Woods twins?

Answer
G-77 countries is a group of developing countries that demanded a new international economic order (NIEO); By the NIEO they meant a system that would give them real control over their natural resources, more development assistance, fairer prices for raw materials, and better access for their
manufactured goods in developed countries’ markets.

The Bretton Woods twins i.e., the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank have been established by the developed countries. The decision-making power in these institutions is in the hands of the Western industrial powers and USA. These institutions were set up to meet the financial needs of the industrialised countries and had nothing to do with the poverty and lack of development in the former colonial countries and developing nations. G-77 was created to cater the needs of developing nations. Therefore, G-77 be seen as a reaction to the activities of the Bretton Woods twins.

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