CHAPTER – 9 Life in the Temperate Grasslands | CLASS 7TH | NCERT GEOGRAPHY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQS | EDUGROWN

Chapter - 9 Life in the Temperate Grasslands

MCQs

 

Question 1.
Approximately how much area of earth is covered with grasslands?
(a) 40%
(b) 25%
(c) 10%
(d) 33%

Answer

Answer: (b) 25%


Question 2.
What are the Temperate Grasslands of North America called?
(a) Prairies
(b) Sahara
(c) Nile
(d) Tropical region

Answer

Answer: (a) Prairies


Question 3.
Which is the Latin word that means meadow?
(a) Priata
(b) Susu
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Priata


Question 4.
Which country does the river Mississippi drain?
(a) Africa
(b) USA
(c) Amazon
(d) Canada

Answer

Answer: (b) USA


Question 5.
Rocky mountains are bounded by which of the grasslands on their east?
(a) Pampos
(b) Prairies
(c) Velds
(d) Sheep

Answer

Answer: (b) Prairies


Question 6.
Due to the absence of the north-south barriers a local wind blows in USA which is called
(a) loo
(b) cool breeze
(c) chinook
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) chinook


Question 7.
How much lowest temperature has been recorded during winter in North America?
(a) 20°C
(b) -20°C
(c) 10°C
(d) -10°C

Answer

Answer: (b) -20°C


Question 8.
What are the cattle farms in North America called?
(a) Velds
(b) Arches
(c) Sheds
(d) Ranches

Answer

Answer: (d) Ranches


Question 9.
What is the second major industry of Canada?
(a) Dairy farming
(b) Coal mining
(c) Gold mining
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Dairy farming


Question 10.
The important cities in American Prairies are
(a) Chicago
(b) Minneapolis
(c) Kansas
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 11.
What lies to the west of veld grasslands?
(a) Drakensburg
(b) River Orange
(c) Kalahari desert
(d) Nothing

Answer

Answer: (c) Kalahari desert


Question 12.
Which is the coldest month in the Veld grasslands?
(a) January
(b) July
(c) June
(d) October

Answer

Answer: (b) July


Question 13.
Which of these animal is not found in the Velds?
(a) Leopard
(b) Cheetah
(c) Kudu
(d) Dodo

Answer

Answer: (d) Dodo


Question 14.
What is Kimberley famous for?
(a) Gold
(b) Diamonds
(c) Silver
(d) Platinum

Answer

Answer: (b) Diamonds


Match the contents of Column A with that of Column B

Column AColumn B
1. Veld(a) Tribes
2. Apache, cree(b) Local wind in prairies
3. Coyotes, gophers(c) Ranches
4. Chinook(d) Dutch people
5. Bison(e) Animals
Answer

Answer:

Column AColumn B
1. Veld(d) Dutch people
2. Apache, cree(a) Tribes
3. Coyotes, gophers(e) Animals
4. Chinook(b) Local wind in prairies
5. Bison(c) Ranches

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. Areas with little rainfall have short ……………

Answer

Answer: grasses


2. Velds are drained by the rivers …………. and ……………

Answer

Answer: orange, Limpopo


3. A machine called …………… can do the tasks of threshing, sowing and ploughing.

Answer

Answer: combine


4. Prairies have large mineral deposits of coal and ……………..

Answer

Answer: iron

Question 1.
Define forests and grasslands.
Answer:
Forests:
Forests are defined as the places where trees are the main type of vegetation.

Grasslands:
Grasslands are defined as regions where grasses form the dominant type of plant life.

Question 2.
Give the main features of Grasslands.
Answer:
Main Features of Grasslands:

  • Grasslands spread almost over 25% of the total land surface.
  • The type of plants that grow in grasslands greatly depend on the type of climate and the type of soil.
  • Climate plays an important role in the formation of grasslands.
  • Hence it is generally used as a basis to divide the World’s Grasslands.
  • They are classified into two broad categories:
  • Temperate Grasslands: They grow in the temperate regions.
  • Tropical Grasslands: They occur in the tropical regions.

Question 3.
Name various grasslands along with their areas.
Answer:
Various grasslands along with their areas are:
Tropical grasslands:

  • Savannah – East Africa
  • Campos – Brazil
  • Linos – Venezuela

Temperate grasslands:

  • Pampas – Argentina
  • Prairie – North America
  • Veld – South Africa
  • Steppe – Central Asia
  • Down – Australia.

The Prairies

Question 1.
Explain the main features of Prairie Grasslands.
Answer:
Major Features of Prairie Grasslands:
The temperate grasslands of North America are termed as Prairies.

  • It is region of flat, gently sloping or hilly land,
  • They are covered chiefly by grasses.

Prairies are treeless but, woodlands can be found near the low lying plains, flanked by river valleys.

  • Trees are few and far between.
  • They are actually a “sea of grass.”

Question 2.
Where are the Prairies situated? Which rivers drain them?
Answer:

  • The prairies are bound by the Rocky Mountains in West and the Great Lakes in the East.
  • They cover parts of United States of America and parts of Canada.
  • In the U.S.A., the area is drained by the tributaries of Mississippi.
  • The Canadian Prairies are drained by the tributaries of Saskatchewan Rivers.

Question 3.
Name the various tribes living in the prairies.
Answer:
Various tribes living in prairies—native Americans called ‘Red Indians’, and the other tribes like the Apache, the crow, the cree and the pawnee.

Climate

Question 1.
Describe the climate of Prairies.
Answer:
Climate of Prairies:

  • The prairies are located in the heart of North American Continent.
  • The climate is of continental type with extremities of temperatures.
  • Summers are warm with temperatures of around 20°C.
  • In winter temperatures of -20°C are recorded in Winnipeg, Canada. During this season thick blanket of snow covers the region.
  • The annual rainfall is moderate.
  • It is ideal for the growth of grass.
  • Due to the absence of the north-south barter, a local wind “chinook” blows here. It is hot and raises the temperature in winter in a short time.

Question 2.
What is “Chinook”?
Answer:
Chinook is a hot wind that blows in winter and raises the temperature within a short period of time.

  • This increase in temperature results in melting of snow.making pasture Jiand available for grazing.

Flora and Fauna

Question 1.
Give an account of flora and fauna of the Prairie Grasslands.
Answer:
Flora and Fauna of the Prairie Grasslands:

  • Prairies are practically treeless.
  • With the availability of winter, trees like willows, alders and poplars grow here and there.

Places that receive rainfall of over 50 cm. are suitable for farming due to fertile soil.

  • Major crop of this area is maize.
  • Potatoes, soyabean, cotton and alfa-alfa are also grown in this region.

Areas where rainfall is very less or unreliable, grasses are short and sparse.

  • These areas are suitable for cattle rearing.
  • Large cattle farms called ranches are looked after by sturdy men called cowboys.
  • Bison or the American buffalo is the most important animal of this region.
  • Bison nearly got extinct due to its indiscriminate hunting.
  • It is now a protected species.
  • The other animals found in this region include rabbits, coyotes, gophers and Prairie dogs.

People

Question 1.
Describe the life of the people in the Prairie Grasslands.
Answer:
Life of the people in the Prairie Grasslands:

  • People of the prairie grasslands are very hardworking.
  • They have successfully used technology to utilise their rich natural resources.
  • There are two most developed countries in the world.
  • They are USA and Canada.
  • Prairie region spreads in both the countries.
  • Scientific methods of cultivation and use of tractors, harvesters and combines have made North America a surplus food producer.
  • The prairies are also known as “Granaries of the World” due to the huge surplus of wheat production.
  • Dairy farming is another major industry.
  • The dairy belt extends from the Great Lakes region to the Atlantic coast in the east.
  • Dairy farming and extensive agriculture both promote setting up of food processing industries in this region. People are engaged in their activities in large numbers.
  • Large mineral deposits particularly coal and iron ore found in abundance here.
  • There is a good network of roads, railways and canals in this region.
  • Both these have made it the most industrialised region in the world.

Question 2.
Mention the important cities of the U.SA and Canada Prairies.
Answer:
Important cities in the U.S.A. are:

  • Chicago
  • Mineapolis
  • Indianapolis
  • Kansas
  • Denver

In Canadian Prairies the important cities are:

  • Edmonton
  • Saskatoon
  • Calgary
  • Winnipeg

Question 3.
Write the uses of machine ‘combine’.
Answer:
Combine is a single machine which can combine the tasks of sowing, ploughing and threshing.

The Velds

Question 1.
Explain the topography of the Velds Grasslands?
Answer:
Topography of the Velds Grasslands:

  • Velds are the temperate grasslands of South Africa.
  • They are rolling plateaus with varying heights between 600 m and 1100 m.
  • The region is bounded by the Drakensburg Mountains on the east, by the Kalahari desert on the west and by “high Velds” on the north-eastern part.
  • On the north-eastern part, the region attains a height of more than 1600 m in some places.
  • The countries that are covered by the Velds are:
  • Namibia, Botswana, South Africa, Sawaziland and Lesotho. –
  • The tributaries of River Orange and Limpopo drain the region.

Climate

Question 1.
Explain the climate of Velds Grasslands.
Answer:
Climate of Velds Grasslands:
The Velds lie under the influence of the Indian ocean. Hence their climate is mild.

Winters are cold and dry.

  • Temperatures vary between 5°C and 10°C.
  • July is the coldest month.
  • The rainfall is scanty in the winter months from June till August.
  • During the period drought may occur.

Summers are short and warm.

  • Johannesburg records about 20°C temperature in the summer.
  • The Velds receive rainfall mainly in the summer months from November to February.
  • This is mainly because of the warm rear currents that wash the shores of the Velds.

Flora and Fauna

Question 1.
Give an account of the flora and fauna found in the Velds Grasslands.
Answer:
Flora and Fauna Veld Grasslands:

  • In the Velds grasslands vegetation is sparse.
  • Grasses dominate the landscape.
  • Red grass grows in bush Velds.
  • In the high Velds acacia and maroola grow well.
  • The animals of the Velds are primarily lions, leopards, cheetah and kudu.

People

Question 1.
Describe the life of the people inhabiting the Velds Grasslands.
Answer:
Life of People inhabiting the Velds Grasslands:

  • In the Velds, people are engaged in cattle rearing and mining.
  • The soils are not very fertile in the Velds due to the presence of discontinuous grasses exposing barren surface.

In the areas where land is fertile, crops are grown.

  • Main crops of the region are maize, wheat, barley, oats and potatoes.
  • Cash crops like tobacco, sugarcane and cotton are also grown.

Sheep rearing is the most important occupation of the people.

  • Sheep is bred mainly for wool.
  • Easy availability of wool has given rise to the woollen industry in the Velds.
  • Merino sheep is a popular species.

Dairy farming is the other important occupation of the people.

  • Cattle are reared in the warmer and wetter regions.
  • Major dairy products like butter, cheese are produced for both domestic supply and also for export.

Question 2.
Describe mining as another occupation of the people of Veld region.
Answer:
Mining is yet another important occupation of the people.

  • The Velds have rich reserve of minerals.
  • Iron and steel industry has developed where coal and iron are mined.

Gold and diamond mining are major occupations of the people of this region.

  • Johannesburg is known for being the Gold Capital of the world.
  • Kimberley is famous for its diamond mines.

Mining of diamond and gold in South Africa led to the establishment of trade ties with Britain.

  • South Africa gradually became a British Colony.
  • This mineral rich area has a well-developed network of transport and communication.
Read More

CHAPTER –  8 Human Environment Interactions: The Tropical and the Subtropical Region | CLASS 7TH | NCERT GEOGRAPHY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQS | EDUGROWN

Chapter - 8 Human Environment Interactions: The Tropical and the Subtropical Region

MCQs

Read More

CHAPTER –  7 Geography Human Environment: Settlement, Transport and Communication | CLASS 7TH | NCERT GEOGRAPHY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQS | EDUGROWN

MCQs

Question 1.
Where did early man live?
(a) On trees and in caves
(b) In kuchcha houses
(c) In pucca houses
(d) In huts

Answer

Answer: (a) On trees and in caves


Question 2.
Which type of settlement is occupied for a short time?
(a) Permanent settlements
(b) Temporary settlements
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Temporary settlements


Question 3.
The natural conditions for selection of an ideal site are
(a) favourite climate
(b) availability of water
(c) suitable land
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these


Question 4.
In which environment do people build slanting roofs of their houses?
(a) Heavy rainfall
(b) Bright sun light
(c) Heavy cold
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Heavy rainfall


Question 5.
In which of the following settlements are the people engaged in activities like fishing, agriculture, craftswork etc.?
(a) Rural settlements
(b) Urban settlements
(c) Forestry settlements
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Rural settlements


Question 6.
Why do people move from one place to other?
(a) For jobs
(b) For better education
(c) For medical facilities
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 7.
Roads built underground are called
(a) subways
(b) expressways
(c) airways
(d) flyovers

Answer

Answer: (a) subways


Question 8.
Which country has the largest railway network in Asia?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Pakistan
(d) Japan

Answer

Answer: (b) India


Question 9.
Name the mode of transport used to reach an island.
(a) Train
(b) Ship
(c) Car
(d) Bus

Answer

Answer: (b) Ship


Question 10.
Which is the best means to transport to reach inaccessible areas?
(a) Airways
(b) Waterways
(c) Railways
(d) Roadways

Answer

Answer: (a) Airways


Question 11.
Which one of the following is NOT a means of communication?
(a) Table
(b) Mobile phone
(c) Newspaper
(d) Magazine

Answer

Answer: (a) Table


Match the contents of Column A with that of Column B:

Column AColumn B
1. Manali-Leh(a) Manufacturing, trading, services
2. Waterways(b) Highest rail route
3. Xining to Lhasa(c) Agriculture, fishing, forestry
4. Urban areas(d) Highest roadways
5. Rural areas(e) Cheapest mode of transport
Answer

Answer:

Column AColumn B
1. Manali-Leh(d) Highest roadways
2. Waterways(e) Cheapest mode of transport
3. Xining to Lhasa(b) Highest rail route
4. Urban areas(a) Manufacturing, trading, services
5. Rural areas(c) Agriculture, fishing, forestry

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. People of deserts or deep forests live in ………… settlements.

Answer

Answer: temporary


2. In regions of heavy rainfall houses have …………. roofs.

Answer

Answer: slanting


3. …………. are built over raised structures.

Answer

Answer: Flyovers

Question 1.
How did early human beings depend entirely on nature?
Answer:
Early human beings depended entirely on nature for food, clothing and shelter.

Question 2.
What new skills did the human beings learn in course of time?
answer:
In course of time human beings learnt new skills, like:

  • to grow food, use fire, use wheel.
  • to build homes, and
  • to develop better means of transport and communication.

In this way human beings modified the environment where they lived.

Question 3.
What are settlements? How (when/why) did human beings start to have permanent settlements?
Answer:

  • Settlements are places where people build their homes and live there.
  • Early human beings lived on trees and in caves.
  • When they started to grow crops it became necessary to have a permanent home.

Question 4.
How have the settlements changed over a period of time?
Answer:
Settlements are places where people build homes and live. They have changed over a period of time due to many other changes:

  • Early man lived in caves and under trees and with the beginning of agriculture more permanent settlements were developed.
  • The settlements grew near the river valleys due to availability of water and fertile soil.
  • With the growth of trade and industries these settlements became larger leading to development of civilization.
  • With the growth in technology these settlements further grew.

Question 5.
Do you recall the names of civilizations that grew along the banks of rivers Indus, Tigris, Nile and Hwang-Ho?
Answer:

  • Indus – Indus valley civilisation
  • Tigris – Mesopotamia civilisation
  • Nile – Egyptian civilisation
  • Hwang-Ho – Chinese civilisation

Question 6.
What is a site? Which factors help to select a site for settlement?
Answer:
The place where a building or a settlement is developed is called a site.
The factors for selecting a site for settlement are:

  • Favourable climate.
  • Availability of water, electricity.
  • Land for cultivation and construction.
  • Fertile soil.
  • Availability of other resources.

Question 7.
What are the two types of settlements on the basis of period for which they are occupied? Give some features of temporary settlements.
Answer:
Settlements are of two types on the basis of period of their occupation. They are :

  • Permanent
  • Temporary.

Features of Temporary Settlements:
Settlements which are occupied for a short time are called temporary settlements.

  • The people who live in deep forests, hot and cold deserts, and mountains often reside in temporary settlements.
  • They practise hunting, gathering, shifting cultivation and transhumance.

Question 8.
Explain major features of permanent settlements.
Answer:
Features of Permanent Settlements:

  • More and more settlements today are permanent settlements.
  • In these settlements, people build homes to live in permanently.
  • These settlements are generally found in the plains, on the uplands or near the water bodies.
  • People have agriculture and industries as their major occupations.
  • People also have engaged themselves in tertiary and quaternary activities.
  • Houses in these settlements are built of bricks, concrete, cement and steel.
  • The houses are also generally multistoreyed.

Question 9.
Define the term transhumance.
Answer:
Transhumance is the seasonal movement of people specially nomads, who shift along with their herd in search of a place according to change in climate.

Question 10.
Why was Gurpreet late for Mary’s birthday party?
Answer:
Gurpreet came late that too coughing and wheezing due to heavy traffic and related pollution.

Question 11.
What is the reason behind increased urban population?
Answer:
People come looking for jobs, better education and medical facilities.

Question 12.
How does rise in population affect the city?
Answer:
Rise in population in cities due to availability of facilities is creating problems also:

  • This leads to increase in number of vehicles and therefore traffic jams.
  • Increase in slum dwelling and squatter settlements and unhygienic conditions.
  • Shortage of water, power and other resources.
  • Pollution because of vehicles and excess of garbage.

Question 13.
What is situation of villages in comparison with cities?
Answer:
Villages do not have big cinema houses or well equipped schools and hospitals. But, they have open spaces, fresh air to breathe.

Question 14.
What are different types of settlements?
Answer:
Settlements are of the following types:

  1. Rural settlements
  2. Urban settlements
  • The villages are Rural Settlements.
  • In these settlements people are engaged in agriculture, fishing, forestry, crafts work and trading etc.

Rural settlements are of two types:

  1. Compact and
  2. Scattered.
  • A Compact settlement is a closely built area of dwellings. They are built on flat land.
  • In a scattered settlement dwellings are spaced over an extensive area. These settlements are mostly found in hilly tracts, thick forests, and regions of extreme climate.
  • In rural areas, people build houses to suit their environment.
  • In regions of heavy rainfall, they have slanting roofs.
  • In the places where water accumulates in the rainy season, the houses are constructed on a raised platform or stilts.
  • Thick mud walled houses with thatched roots are very common in areas of hot climate.
  • Local materials like stones, mud, clay, straw etc. are used to construct , houses.
  • The towns are small urban settlements and the cities are larger urban settlements.

Transport

Question 1.
What is transport? Give a brief history of transport development.
Answer:

  • Transport is the means by which people and goods move.
  • In the early days it took a great deal of time to travel long distances.
  • People had to walk and used animals to carry their goods.
  • Invention of the wheel made transport easier.

With the passage of time, different means of transport developed but even today people use animals for transport.

  • In our country, donkeys, mules, bullocks and camels are common.
  • In the Andes Mountains of South America, llamas are used.
  • Yaks are used in Tibet.
  • The early traders from other countries used to take several months to reach India.
  • They took either the sea route or the land route.
  • Aeroplanes have made travel faster.
  • Now it takes only 6-8 hours to travel from India to Europe.
  • Modern means of transport thus saves time and energy.

Question 2.
Name the means of transport.
Answer:
Four Means of Transport:

  • Roadways
  • Railways
  • Waterways
  • Airways

Roadways

Question 1.
Describe roadways as a means of transport.
Answer:
Roadways as a Means of Transport:

  • The most commonly used means of transport, especially for short distances, are roads.
  • They are of two types:
  • Metalled (Pucca) and
  • Unmetalled (Kuchcha)
  • The plains have a dense network of roads.
  • Roads have also been built in deserts, forests and even high mountains.
  • Manali-Leh highway in the Himalayan-mountains is one of the highest roadways in the world.
  • Roads built underground are called subways/under passes or paths.
  • Flyovers, are built over reused structures.

Question 2.
Can you tell why there are more roads in the plains than in the hills?
Answer:
Yes, because of the following reasons:

  • Less costly.
  • Less time consuming
  • Less needs for building bridges and culverts
  • Dense population requires more road transport
  • Agriculture and industries need roads urgently
  • Movements of goods and traffic is the need of the plains.

Question 3.
What are expressways? Give example.
Answer:
6-8 lane highways for fast moving traffic are called expressways e.g., Noida expressway.

Railways

Question 1.
Account for Railways as a means of land transport.
Answer:
Railways as a means of land transport:

  • The railways carry heavy goods and people over long distanced quickly and cheaply.
  • The invention of steam engine and the Industrial Revolution helped in speedy development of rail transport.
  • Diesel and electric engines have largely replaced the steam engines.
  • In several places superfast trains have been introduced to make the journey faster.
  • Railway network is well-developed in the plains.
  • Advanced technological skills have enabled laying of railway lines in difficult mountain terrains also. But they are much fewer in number.
  • Indian railway network is well-developed with improvement on stations, internet booking information etc.
  • It is the largest in Asia.

Waterways

Question 1.
Describe inland waterways as a means of transport.
Answer:
Inland Waterways:
In early days waterways were used for transportation.

  • Waterways are the cheapest for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances.
  • They are mainly of two types:
  • Inland waterways, and
  • Sea routes.
  • Navigable rivers and lakes are used as inland waterways.

Some of the important inland waterways are:

  • Ganga-Brahmaputra river system.
  • Great Lakes in North America.
  • River Nile in Africa.

Question 2.
Write nugor features of Sea Routes.
Answer:
Major features of Sea Routes:
Sea and oceanic routes are mostly used for transporting merchandise and goods from one country to another.

  •  The terminal points are on these ports.
  •  Some of the important ports of the world are:
  • Singapore and Mumbai in Asia.
  • New York, Los Angeles in North America.
  • Rio-de-Janerio in South America.
  • Durban and Cape Town in Africa.
  • Sydney in Australia.
  • London and Rotterdam in Europe.

Name of some more Ports of the World are:

  • New Orleans; Philadelphia, Boston, Miami
  • Hawana, Sao Paulo, Buenos Aires, Lima.
  • Kolkata, Colombo.
  • Manila, Shanghai.
  • Perth, Darwin.

Airways

Question 1.
Give an account of Airways as a means of transport.
Answer:
Airways as a means of transport:

  • Air transport is the fastest means of transport.
  • It was developed in the early twentieth century.
  • It is also the most expensive due to high cost of fuels.
  • Air traffic is adversely affected by bad weather like fog and storms.
  • It is the only mode of transport to reach the most remote and distant areas especially where there are no roads and railways.
  • Helicopters are extremely useful in most inaccessible areas.
  • In times of calamities they are extensively used for rescuing people and distributing relief supplies like food, water, clothes and medicines.
  • Some of the important airports of the world are Delhi, Mumbai, New York, London, Paris, Frankfurt, Singapore and Hongkong.

Names of a few more airports are:

  • Chennai, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Guwahati, Amritsar, Ahmedabad.
  • Tokyo, Osaka.
  • Singapore, Jakarta, Kualalumpur, Porth, Sydney, Yangoon, Bangkok.
  • Hongkong, Beijing.
  • Colombo.

Communication

Question 1.
Write a note on Communication.
Answer:
Communication:

  • Communication is the process of conveying messages to others.
  • With the development of technology, humans have devised new and fast modes of communication.

Different modes of communication are used

  • to provide information.
  • to educate
  • to entertain

Through Newspapers, Radio, and Television we communicate with a large number of people.
These are therefore called mass media.

Satellites have made communication very fast.

  • Satellites have helped in
  • Oil exploration
  • Survey of forest
  • Underground water
  • Mineral wealth
  • Weather forecast and
  • Disaster warning.
  • Electronic mails or e-mails through Internet have become popular these days.
  • Wireless telephonic communications through cellular phones have also become very popular today.
  • Internet not only provides us with worldwide information and interaction but also makes our lives more comfortable.
  • Now we reserve tickets for railways, airways and even cinemas and hotels sitting at home.
  • With this kind of inter-connectivity—people to people, people to services and institutions—across the world, we
    are becoming a large global society.
Read More

CHAPTER – 6 Natural Vegetation and Wild Life | CLASS 7TH | NCERT GEOGRAPHY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQS | EDUGROWN

Chapter - 6 Natural Vegetation and Wild Life

MCQs

Read More

CHAPTER -5 Water | CLASS 7TH | NCERT GEOGRAPHY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQS | EDUGROWN

Chapter -5 Water

MCQs

Read More

CHAPTER -4 Air | CLASS 7TH | NCERT GEOGRAPHY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQS | EDUGROWN

Chapter - 4 Air

MCQs

Question 1.
Which gas released in the atmosphere creates a greenhouse effect trapping the heat?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Carbon dioxide


Question 2.
Excess amount of CO2 is responsible for
(a) global cooling
(b) global warming
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) global warming


Question 3.
What are the important objects for survival of plants and animals?
(a) Rainfall
(b) Sun light
(c) Oxygen
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 4.
Which one of the following gases is present in the atmosphere in the highest amount?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Lithium

Answer

Answer: (c) Nitrogen


Question 5.
Which gas is used by the green plants to make their food?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Carbon dioxide


Question 6.
Which is the important gas used by human beings for breathing?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Oxygen
(d) Sodium chloride

Answer

Answer: (c) Oxygen


Question 7.
When the air is heated it becomes
(a) Lighter?
(b) Heavier?
(c) Colder?
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Lighter?


Question 8.
What is the average height of the troposphere?
(a) 3 km
(b) 6 km
(c) 9 km
(d) 13 km

Answer

Answer: (d) 13 km


Question 9.
As we go up in troposphere layer of the atmosphere the pressure
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) no change
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (b) decreases


Question 10.
Which one of the following gases protects us from harmful sun’s rays?
(a) Ozone
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Oxygen

Answer

Answer: (a) Ozone


Question 11.
Which of the following are part of weather forecast in the newspapers?
(a) Temperature
(b) Humidity
(c) Time of Sunset
(d) All of These

Answer

Answer: (d) All of These


Question 12.
Which element of weather is measured in degree Celsius?
(a) Temperature
(b) Pressure
(c) Wind
(d) Gravity

Answer

Answer: (a) Temperature


Question 13.
The water boils at
(a) 10°C
(b) 50°C
(c) 75°C
(d) 100°C

Answer

Answer: (d) 100°C


Question 14.
Where is the air pressure highest?
(a) Moon
(b) Sea Level
(c) Stratosphere
(d) Exosphere

Answer

Answer: (b) Sea Level


Question 15.
What is very hot wind called?
(a) Loo
(b) Cool breeze
(c) Monsoon air
(d) Trade wind

Answer

Answer: (a) Loo


Question 16.
Which one of the following is a local wind?
(a) Sea breeze
(b) Trade wind
(c) Monsoon wind
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Sea breeze


Question 17.
Rain, snow sleet or hail are the different forms of:
(a) Condensation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Precipitation
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Precipitation


Match the contents of Column A with that of Column B

Column AColumn B
1. Temperature(a) Bacteria in soil
2. Pressure(b) Thermosphere
3. Seasonal wind(c) Barometer
4. Radio waves transmission(d) Thermometer
5. Nitrogen from air(e) Change directions in different seasons
Answer

Answer:

Column AColumn B
1. Temperature(d) Thermometer
2. Pressure(c) Barometer
3. Seasonal wind(e) Change directions in different seasons
4. Radio waves transmission(b) Thermosphere
5. Nitrogen from air(a) Bacteria in soil

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. Earth is surrounded by a blanket of air called ………….

Answer

Answer: atmosphere


2. Green plants produce …………. during photosynthesis.

Answer

Answer: oxygen


3. Increased volume of ………….. is affecting the earth’s weather and climate.

Answer

Answer: carbon dioxide


4. Ionosphere is the part of ……………

Answer

Answer: thermosphere


5. Amount of rainfall is measured by ………….

Answer

Answer: rain gauge


6. Insolation influences the distribution of …………….

Answer

Answer: temperature


State whether the given statements are true or false.

1. Hot air is dense and heavy and cold air is lighter and expands.

Answer

Answer: False


2. Without Greenhouse effect earth would have been too cold to live.

Answer

Answer: True


3. Ionosphere contains the ozone layer.

Answer

Answer: False


4. Helium and hydrogen float from exosphere into space.

Answer

Answer: True


5. Wind-vane shows the direction of wind.

Answer

Answer: True


6. Air moves from high pressure to low pressure.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 1.
Define the term atmosphere.
Answer:
Blanket of air surrounding the earth is known as the atmosphere.

Question 2.
How do all living beings depend on the atmosphere for their survival?
Answer:
All living beings depend on the atmosphere for their survival.

  • Atmosphere provides them the air they breathe.
  • It protects them from the harmful effects of the sun’s rays.
  • Without its protection, they would be baked alive by the heat of the sun during day and get frozen during night.

Question 3.
What is green house effect?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere traps the heat radiated from the earth creating a green house effect. This makes the temperatures livable. Without this earth would have been too cold to live. But the increased emissions from vehicles and factories increases the temperature leading to global warming.

Question 4.
What is global warming? What is its affect?
Answer:
When the heat retained through greenhouse gas increases the temperature of the earth, it causes global warming:

  • The plants maintain the balance of gases. However this balance is upset by burning fuels such as coal, petroleum oil and large scale deforestation.
  • This rise in temperature causes the snow in coldest parts to melt.
  • As a result the sea level rises causing floods in the coastal areas.
  • This may bring changes in weather and climate leading to extinction of certain plants and animal species.

Composition of the Atmosphere

Question 1.
Name the two gases which influence the atmosphere to a great extent.
Answer:

  • Two gases such as carbon dioxide and ozone influence the atmosphere to a large extent.
  • Their percentage in the atmosphere is as under:
  • Carbon dioxide 0.03%
  • Ozone 0.00006%

Question 2.
Describe the composition of the atmosphere.
Answer:
Composition of the Atmosphere:

  • The air we inhale while breathing is actually a mixture of numerous gases.
  • Nitrogen and oxygen are two gases which make up the most of the atmosphere.
  • Carbon dioxide, helium, ozone, argon and hydrogen are found in lesser quantities.
  • Tiny dust particles are also present in the air.

Air Class 7 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 4 - 1

Question 3.
How is nitrogen present in atmosphere used by plants?
Answer:
Nitrogen is the most plentiful gas in the air.

  • Plants need nitrogen for their survival. They cannot take nitrogen directly from the air.
  • Bacteria in the soil or the roots fix nitrogen by changing its form so that plants can use it.

Question 4.
Which is the second most plentiful gas in the atmosphere?
Answer:
Oxygen is the second most plentiful gas in the atmosphere. Humans and animals use it for breathing. Green plants produce oxygen through photosynthesis and thus oxygen balance is maintained in air. This gets disturbed if we cut trees.

Question 5.
Explain how the oxygen and carbon dioxide balance is maintained in air?
Answer:
Green plants use carbon dioxide to make their food and during this process release oxygen:

  • Humans and animals release carbon dioxide and take oxygen from air.
  • The amount of carbon dioxide released by them is equal to amount used by plants
    to make their food. Hence a balance is maintained.
  • But now the excess of carbon dioxide is released by burning of fuels. The reduction in number of plants upset the balance of gases like carbon dioxide affecting earth’s weather and climate.

Question 6.
Explain the circulation of air in atmosphere.
Answer:
When air is heated it expands, becomes lighter and rises up:

  • Cold air is dense, so, it sinks down.
  • When hot air rises up, cold air from surrounding areas fills in the gap.
  • This is the process of circulation of air.

NOTES: News reports around the world

  • Due to burning of fuels and cutting of trees C02 level are increasing
  • Globed sunscreen thinned
  • Warning unstoppable
  • It can bring back Jurassic era.

Structure of the Atmosphere

Question 1.
Discuss the structure of the atmosphere.
Answer:
Structure of the Atmosphere:
The atmosphere is divided into five layers according to height, starting from the earth’s surface.
They are

  • Troposphere
  • Stratosphere
  • Mesosphere
  • Thermosphere
  • Exosphere

Question 2.
Which is most important layer of the atmosphere?
Answer:
Troposphere

  • Troposphere is the important layer of the atmosphere.
  • Its average height is 13 km.
  • It is 8 kilometres on the poles and 18 kilometres on the equator.
  • The air (which living beings breathe) exists here.
  • All the weather phenomena like winds, rainfall, fog, hailstorm etc. occur in this layer.

Air Class 7 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 4 - 2

Question 3.
Which layer the most suitable conditions for flying aeroplanes?
Answer:
Stratosphere:

  • The stratosphere lies above the troposphere.
  • It extends up to a height of 50 km.
  • This layer is almost free from clouds.
  • No weather phenomenon occurs in this layer making conditions most ideal for flying aeroplanes.
  • Stratosphere contains a layer of ozone gas.
  • It protects living beings from the harmful effects of the sun rays.

Question 4.
What is the third layer of atmosphere?
Answer:
Mesosphere:

  • Mesosphere is the third layer of the atmosphere.
  • It lies above the stratosphere.
  • It extends up to a height of 80 km.
  • Meteorites bum up in this layer on entering from the space.

Question 5.
Briefly write about thermosphere?
Answer:
Thermosphere

  • In thermosphere temperature rises very rapidly with increasing height.
  • Ionosphere is a part of this layer.
  • It extends between 80 and 400 km.
  • This layer helps in radio transmission.
  • Radio waves transmitted from the earth are reflected back to the earth by this layer.

Question 6.
Which is the uppermost layer of the atmosphere?
Answer:
Exosphere

  • The uppermost layer of the atmosphere is known as exosphere.
  • This layer has very thin air.
  • Light gases like helium and hydrogen float into the space from here.

Weather and Climate

NOTES: Many questions are asked about days conditions especially on an important day like cricket match or wedding etc. Questions like’ will it rain or will it be sunny; etc. basically are related to day’s weather. Such questions are not asked about climate

Question 1.
What is weather?
Answer:
Weather is the day to day condition of the atmosphere. For example a sunny day or rainy day. Weather is like a control knob of climate.

Question 2.
Define the term climate.
Answer:
The sum total of all weather conditions prevailing over large area for a longer period of time is called climate.

Question 3.
What is the difference between weather and climate?
Answer:
Weather is hour-hour conditions of atmosphere like hot humid weather may make us irritable but same day breezy or pleasant evening may make one cheerful. We have hot or cold climate over a period of few months.
Therefore we have daily forecast of weather and long term predictions of climatic conditions.

Question 4.
Name different types of weather measuring instruments.
Answer:
Thermometer – measures temperature
Barometer – measures atmospheric pressure
Rain gauge – measures amount of rainfall
Wind wane – shows direction of wind

Temperature

Question 1.
What is temperature?
Answer:

  • The degree of hotness or coldness is called the temperature.
  • Temperature changes not only between day and night but also from season to season.

Question 2.
What is insolation?
Answer:
Insolation is the incoming solar energy intercepted by the earth. It influences the distribution of temperature.

Question 3.
Why are poles covered with snow?
Answer:
The amount of insolation decreases from equator towards poles, therefore the temperature also reduces. But if the earth’s temperature rises too high, it would be too warm to raise crops.

Question 4.
Why cities are more hotter than villages?
Answer:
The temperature in cities is much higher than that of villages because the concrete and metals in the buildings and the tar and asphalt in the roads gets heated throughout the day and absorbs heat. This heat is released at night hence there is the difference in the temperature.
The crowded high rise buildings trap the warm air and thus raise the temperature of the cities.

Air Pressure

Question 1.
Why don’t we feel the air pressure?
Answer:
The air above us presses us from all sides with great force but we do not feel it. This happens because our body exerts a counter pressure.

Question 2.
Define the term air pressure.
Answer:
Air pressure is the pressure exerted by the weight of air on the earth’s surface. As we move in the upper layers of atmosphere, the pressure falls rapidly.

Question 3.
How does air pressure vary from equator to poles and from surface to heights?
Answer:
Variation in Distribution of Pressure

  • As we go up the layers of atmosphere, the pressure falls rapidly.
  • The air pressure is highest at sea level
  • It decreases with increase in height.
  • Horizontally the distribution of air pressure is influenced by temperature of air at a given place.

Question 4.
What is the relation between temperature and pressure?
Answer:
Distribution of air pressure is influenced by the temperature of the area:

  • Where temperature is high the air gets heated and rises. This creates a low pressure area.
  • Low pressure is associated with cloudy skies and wet weather.
  • In areas with low temperature, the air is cold and heavy so, it sinks down. This creates a high pressure area.
  • High pressure is associated with clear and sunny skies.
  • Air always moves from high pressure to low pressure areas.

Question 5.
Why do Astronauts wear a protective gear on moon?
Answer:
Astronauts wear a protective suit filled with air when they go to moon because the counter pressure exerted by the body would make the blood vessels burst.

Wind

Question 1.
Define the term wind. Explain with examples.
Answer:
The movement of air from high pressure to low pressure areas is called wind. For example wind blows dry leaves or strong wind uproots trees. Blowing smoke or dust is the work of wind. Strong wind makes it difficult to walk or hold umbrella.

Question 2.
Which are the three components of cyclone?
Answer:
Three components of cyclone are wind velocity, rain and tidal surge.

Question 3.
What are the various categories of wind? Explain with a diagram.
Answer:
Winds can be broadly divided into three types:

  • Permanent winds – which blow constantly throughout the year in a particular direction.
    Example, easterlies and westerlies.
  • Seasonal winds – which change directions in different seasons. For example, monsoon winds.
  • Local winds – blow only during a particular period of the day or the year in a small area. For example, land or sea breeze, or loo.

Air Class 7 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 4 - 3
Question 4.
What is Cyclone?
Answer:
A powerful and destructive storm with very high speed winds that moving in circular motion around an area of low pressure.

Question 5.
Describe the fury of cyclone taking example of ‘Super cyclone’ of Odisha.
Answer:
Odisha on eastern sea coast of India is prone to cyclones originating in Bay of Bengal.

  • Odisha was hit by cyclone on 17th-18th October 1999 and again on 29th October.
  • Cyclone originated as a ‘depression’ in the Gulf of Thailand near Port Blair.
  • It moved in northwest direction on 25th October and intensified into super cyclone and hit Odisha.
  • Wind speed was upto 260 km/hr which lasted for 36 hours.
  • Trees were uprooted kutcha houses, roof tops industrial sheds etc blown away.
  • Power supply and communication lines damaged.
  • Continues rains flooded the major rivers. Tidal waves swept 20 km of inland areas including cities of Bhubaneshwar and Cuttack and destructed 28 coastal towns.
  • 7-10 m high tidal waves caused damage to paddy crops, vegetables fruits and agricultural land turned infertile due to salination.
  • 13 million people were affected. Livestock was killed.
  • Plantations of teak, sal, bamboo, mangrove forests of Paradeep and Konark disappeared.

Moisture

Question 1.
What is humidity?
Answer:
When water evaporates from different water bodies and land it turns into water vapours or moisture. Moisture in air at any time is known as humidity.

Question 2.
What is a humid day?
Answer:
A day when air is full of water vapour is called a humid day. With the air getting warmer its capacity to hold moisture increases so it becomes more humid. On such days clothes takes longer to dry and even body sweat does not evaporate easily.

Question 3.
How are clouds formed? How do clouds cause precipitation?
Answer:

  • When water vapour rises, it starts cooling.
  • Water vapour condenses which results in formation of droplets of water.
  • These droplets hanging in the air above are called clouds.
  • Clouds are masses of these water droplets.
  • When these droplets of water become too heavy to float in the air, they come down as precipitation.

Question 4.
Why do jet planes leaves a white trail behind them?
Answer:
Jet planes flying in the sky leave a white trail behind them,

  • The moisture from their engines condenses.
  • We see trails of this condensed moisture for sometime when there is no air movement to disturb it.
  • These trails of condensed moisture are actually clouds.

Question 5.
What are different forms of precipitations?
Answer:
Different forms of precipitations are: dew, rainfall, hail, snowfall, fog, sleet.

Question 6.
What is rain? What is its importance?
Answer:
Precipitation in liquid form is called rain. Most of the ground water comes from rainwater. It is important for survival of plants and animals. It brings fresh water to earth.
If rainfall is more or trees are cut on hills, rain water can cause flooding in low lying areas. If it is less than water scarcity or drought may occur.

Question 7.
What are the types of rainfall?
Answer:
Based on the mechanism rainfall can be of three types: Convectional, Orographic or Cyclonic.

Objective type Questions

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:
1. Earth is surrounded by a blanket of air called ………………..
2. Green plants produce ……………………… during photosynthesis.
3. Increased volume of ……………………. is affecting the earth’s weather and climate.
4. Ionosphere is the part of ……………………….
5. Amount of rainfall is measured by ………………………
6. Insolation influences the distribution of ……………………
Answer:
1. atmosphere
2. oxygen
3. carbon dioxide
4. thermosphere
5. rain gauge
6. temperature

Question 2.
State whether the given statements are true or false.
1. Hot air is dense and heavy and cold air is lighter and expands.
2. Without Green house effect earth would have been too cold to live.
3. Ionosphere contains the ozone layer.
4. Helium and hydrogen float from exosphere into space.
5. Wind – vane shows the direction of wind.
6. Air moves from high pressure to low pressure.
Answer:
1. False
2. True
3 False
4. True
5. True
6. True.

Question 3.
Match the contents of Column A with that of Column B
Air Class 7 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 4 - 4
Answer:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (a)

Read More

CHAPTER -3 Our Changing Earth | CLASS 7TH | NCERT GEOGRAPHY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQS | EDUGROWN

Get Chapter Wise MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography with Answers prepared here according to the latest CBSE syllabus and NCERT curriculum. Students can practice CBSE Class 7 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to score good marks in the examination.  Students can also visit the most accurate and elaborate NCERT Solutions for Class 7 History. Every question of the textbook has been answered here.

Chapter - 3 Our Changing Earth

MCQs

Read More

CHAPTER -2 Inside our Earth | CLASS 7TH | NCERT GEOGRAPHY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQS | EDUGROWN

Chapter - 2 Inside our Earth

MCQs

Read More

CHAPTER -1 Environment | CLASS 7TH | NCERT GEOGRAPHY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQS | EDUGROWN

Get Chapter Wise MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography with Answers prepared here according to the latest CBSE syllabus and NCERT curriculum. Students can practice CBSE Class 7 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to score good marks in the examination.  Students can also visit the most accurate and elaborate NCERT Solutions for Class 7 History. Every question of the textbook has been answered here.

Chapter - 1 Environment

MCQs

Read More

CHAPTER -10 Eighteenth Century Political Formations | CLASS 7TH | NCERT HISTORY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQS | EDUGROWN

Chapter - 10 Eighteenth Century Political Formations

MCQs

Question 1.
The British East India Company established its power after
(a) 1757
(b) 1761
(c) 1768
(d) 1771

Answer

Answer: (a) 1757


Question 2.
Aurangzeb had depleted the military and financial resources by fighting a long war in the
(a) East India
(b) North India
(c) Deccan
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Deccan


Question 3.
Aurangzeb died in the year
(a) 1700
(b) 1710
(c) 1725
(d) 1707

Answer

Answer: (d) 1707


Question 4.
Ahmad Shah Abdali was the ruler of
(a) Afghan
(b) Iran
(c) Iraq
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Afghan


Question 5.
Ahmad Shah Abdali invaded North India times between 1748 and 1761.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

Answer

Answer: (c) 5


Question 6.
During which century the Mughal Empire declined?
(a) 18th
(b) 16th
(c) 19th
(d) 21th

Answer

Answer: (a) 18th


Question 7.
Which of the following enjoyed the zat rank of 7000?
(a) Asaf Jah
(b) Murshil Quli Khan
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both of these


Question 8.
Who were the Telugu warrior chiefs’?
(a) Nayakas
(b) Jathas
(c) Misl
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Nayakas


Question 9.
Who was the powerful governor of Bengal?
(a) Sa’adat Khan
(b) Murshid Quli Khan
(c) Asaf Jah
(d) Alivardi Khan

Answer

Answer: (b) Murshid Quli Khan


Question 10.
During whose rule Jagat Seth became prosperous in Bengal?
(a) Murshil Quli
(b) Sa’adat Khan
(c) Alivardi Khan
(d) Asaf Jah

Answer

Answer: (c) Alivardi Khan


Question 11.
Sawai Jai Singh founded his new capital here:
(a) Malwa
(b) Amber
(c) Jodhpur
(d) Jaipur

Answer

Answer: (d) Jaipur


Question 12.
Dalkhalsa was set up in 1699 by
(a) Guru Nanak Singh
(b) Guru Tegh Bahadur
(c) Guru Gobind Singh
(d) Guru Har Kishan

Answer

Answer: (c) Guru Gobind Singh


Question 13.
Small political groups of the Sikhs were called
(a) Khalsa
(b) Misls
(c) Dalkhalsa
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Misls


Question 14.
Chauth was the ……….. of the land revenue.
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 30%

Answer

Answer: (c) 25%


Question 15.
Who was the founder of Maratha empire?
(a) Shivaji
(b) Tipu Sultan
(c) Raja Jai Singh
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Shivaji


Question 16.
Shivaji adopted the title of Chhatrapati in
(a) 1701
(b) 1760
(c) 1752
(d) 1762

Answer

Answer: (d) 1762


Question 17.
Tax levied by Marathas was called
(a) zat
(b) sardeshmukhi
(c) umara
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) sardeshmukhi


Question 18.
Under whose leadership Bharatpur emerged as a strong Jat State?
(a) Churaman
(b) Suraj Mai
(c) Jawahir Shah
(d) Nadir Shah

Answer

Answer: (b) Suraj Mai


Match the contents of Column A with that of Column B:

Column AColumn B
1. Sadat Khan(a) Hyderabad
2. Murshid Quli Khan(b) Gujarat
3. Asaf Jah(c) Malwa
4. Ijaradars(d) Awadh
5. Raja Ajit Singh(e) Bengal
6. Sawai Raja Jai Singh(f) Revenue farmers
Answer

Answer:

Column AColumn B
1. Sadat Khan(d) Awadh
2. Murshid Quli Khan(e) Bengal
3. Asaf Jah(a) Hyderabad
4. Ijaradars(f) Revenue farmers
5. Raja Ajit Singh(b) Gujarat
6. Sawai Raja Jai Singh(c) Malwa

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. Third battle of Panipat (1761) was fought between Marathas and ………….

Answer

Answer: Ahmad Shah Abdali


2. Ruler of Iran ………… plundered the city of Delhi in 1739.

Answer

Answer: Nadir Shah


3. Mughal nobles were divided in two factions, the ………….. and the …………..

Answer

Answer: Iranis, Turanis


4. Revenue in Bengal was collected in ……………

Answer

Answer: cash


5. Chief Minister of Marathas was called ……………..

Answer

Answer: Peshwa


6. System of rakhi offered protection to cultivators on payment of a tax of ……………. of produce.

Answer

Answer: 20%


State whether the given statements are true or false:

1. Nobles appointed as Governors by the Mughals had no control over Diwani and Faujdari.

Answer

 


2. Ahmad Shah Abdali invaded north India 5 times between 1748-1761.

Answer

 


3. Banking house of Jagat Seth became extremely prosperous during the rule of Murshid Quli Khan.

Answer

 


4. Khalsa was instituted in 1699.

Answer

 


5. Ranjit Singh was an important leader of Marathas.

Answer

 


6. Jats consolidated their power under the leadership of Churaman.

Answer

Question 1.
How were the boundaries of the Mughal Empire reshaped in the first
half of the 18th century?
Answer:

  • The boundaries of the Mughal Empire were reshaped by the emergence of a number of independent kingdoms.
  • By 1765, another power, the British, had successfully grabbed major chunks of territory in eastern India.
  • The political conditions in eighteenth century India changed quite dramatically
    and within a relatively short span of time.

NOTES: New political groups emerged in the subcontinent.
It happened after the death of Aurangzeb in 1707 till third battle of Panipat in 1761.

The Crisis of the Empire and the Later Mughals

Question 1.
What were the causes responsible for various crises of the Mughal Empire towards the closing year of the 17th century?
Answer:
Mughal Empire reached the height of its success and started facing a variety of crises towards the closing years of the seventeenth century.
These were caused by a number of factors:

  • Emperor Aurangzeb had depleted the military and financial resources of his empire by fighting a long war in the Deccan.
  • Under his successors, the efficiency of the imperial administration broke down.
  • It was increasingly difficult for the later Mughal emperors to keep a check on their powerful mansabdars.
  • Nobles appointed as governors (subadars) often controlled the offices of revenue and military administration (diwani and faujdari) as well.
  • The governors consolidated their control over the provinces and revenue declined.

Peasant and zamindari rebellions in many parts of northern and western India added to their problems:

  • These revolts were sometimes caused by the pressures of mounting taxes.
  • At other times there were attempts by powerful chieftains to consolidate their own position.
  • Mughal authority was challenged by rebellious groups in the past as well. But these groups were now able to seize the economic resources of the region to consolidate their positions.

The Mughal emperors after Aurangzeb were unable to arrest the gradual shifting of political and economic authority into the hands of provincial governors, local chieftains and other groups.

Question 2.
Which foreign invaders came in the middle of the economic and political crisis in 1739?
Answer:

  • In the middle of the economic and political crisis, the ruler of Iran, Nadir Shah, attacked and plundered the city of Delhi in 1739.
  • He took away immense amount of wealth.
  • A series of plundering raids by the Afghan ruler Ahmad Shah Abdali occurred afterwards. He invaded north India five times between 1748 and 1761.

Question 3.
How was the empire further weakened?
Answer:
The empire was already under severe pressures from all sides.
It was further weakened by competition amongst different groups of nobles.

  • They were divided into two major groups or fractions; the Iranis and Turanis.
  • For a long time, the later Mughal emperors were puppets in the hands of either one or the other of these too powerful groups.
  • The worst possible humiliation came when two Mughal emperors, Farrukh Siyar (1713-1719) and Alamgir II (1754-1759) were assassinated.
  • Two others Ahmad Shah (1748-1754) and Shah Alam II (1759-1816) were blinded by their nobles.

Question 4.
How a contemporary writer gave a account of bankruptcy of the empire?
Answer:
A contemporary writer wrote that:

  • The lords were helpless and impoverished.
  • Peasants raised two crops a year but taxes were not paid.
  • Administration collapsed and the lords didn’t get any benefit.
  • Lords could not maintain soldiers or horsemen.

Question 5.
Give an account of Nadir Shah attacking Delhi.
Answer:
Nadir Shah Attacked Delhi:

  • Nadir Shah’s looting is described as below:
  • Sixty lakh of rupees and some thousand gold coins, nearly one crore worth of gold- ware, nearly fifty crore worth of jewels, most of them unrivaled in the world, and the above included the peacock throne.
  • Another account described the invasion’s impact upon Delhi:
  • Those who had been masters were now in dire straits; and those who had been revered couldn’t even quench their thirst.
  • The New City (Shahjahanabad) was turned into rubble.
  • Nadir Shah then attacked the old quarters of the city and destroyed a whole world that existed there.

Emergence of New States

Question 1.
How did the new states emerge?
Answer:
Emergence of New States:

  • With the decline of the Mughal emperors, the governors of large provinces, subadars, and the great zamindars consolidated their authority in different parts of the subcontinent.
  • Through the eighteenth century, the Mughal Empire gradually fragmented into a number^of independent, regional states.

The states of the eighteenth century were divided into three overlapping groups:

  • States that were old Mughal provinces like Awadh, Bengal and Hyderabad.
  • The rulers of these states did not break their formal ties with the Mughal emperor.
  • States that had enjoyed considerable independence under the Mughals as watan jagirs.
  • They included several Rajput principalities.
  • The last group included states under the control of Marathas, Sikhs, and others like the Jats.
  • They were of differing sizes.
  • They had seized their independence from the Mughals after a long drawn armed struggle.

The Old Mughal Provinces

Question 1.
Who were the very powerful governors of Awadh, Bengal and Hyderabad among the early and later Mughal rulers?
Answer:

  • Sa‘adat Khan was powerful governor of Awadh with zat rank *6,000.
  • Murshid Quli Khan was powerful governor of Bengal with zat rank 7,000.
  • Asaf Jah was powerful governor of Hyderabad with zat rank 7,000.

Hyderabad

Question 1.
How did Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah become the actual ruler of the Deccan?
Answer:

  • Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah was the founder of Hyderabad state.
  • He was one of the most powerful member at the court of the Mughal Emperor Farrukh Siyar.
  • He was entrusted first with the governorship of Awadh and later given charge of the Deccan.
  • As the Mughal governor of the Deccan provinces, Asaf Jah already had full control over its political and financial administration.
  • He took advantage of the turmoil in the Deccan and the competition amongst the court nobility.
  • He gathered power in his hands and became the actual ruler of that region.

Question 2.
How did Asaf Jah consolidate his power?
Answer:

  • Asaf Jah brought skilled soldiers and administrators from northern India.
  • They welcomed the new opportunities in the south.
  • Asaf Jah appointed mansabdars and granted jagirs.
  • Although he was still a servant of the Mughal emperor, he ruled quite independently without seeking any direction from Delhi or facing any interference.
  • The Mughal emperor merely confirmed the decisions already taken by the Nizam.

Question 3.
Why was the state of Hyderabad constantly engaged in struggle? What was the result?
Answer:
The state of Hyderabad was constantly engaged in struggle because:

  • It was against the Marathas to the west and with independent Telugu warriors chief (nayakas) of the plateau.
  • The ambitions of the Nizam to control the rich textile producing areas of the coromandal coast in the east were checked by the British.
  • They were becoming increasingly powerful in that region.

Awadh

Question 1.
How did Burhan-ul-Mulk become powerful?
Answer:

  • Burhan-ul-Mulk Sa’adat Khan was appointed subadar of Awadh in 1722.
  • He founded a state which was one of the most important to emerge out of the break up of the Mughal Empire.
  • Awadh was a prosperous region.
  • It controlled the rich alluvial Ganga plain.
  • It served the main trade route between north India and Bengal.
  • Burhan-ul-Mulk also held the combined offices of subadari, diwani, and faujdari.
  • Actually he was responsible for managing the political, financial and military affairs of the province of Awadh.

Question 2.
How did Burhan-ul-Mulk try to decrease the Mughal influence?
Answer:
Burhan-ul-Mulk tried to decrease Mughal influence in the Awadh region.

  • He reduced the number of office holders (Jagirdars) appointed by the mughals.
  • He also reduced the size of jagirs.
  • He appointed his own loyal servants to vacant positions.
  • The accounts of jagirdars were checked to prevent cheating.

The revenues of all districts were reassessed by officials appointed by the Nawab’s court.
He seized a number of Rajput zamindaris and the agriculturally fertile lands of the Afghans of Rohilkhand.

Question 3.
How did the new social groups come into being?
Answer:

  • The state depended on local bankers and mahajans for loans.
  • It sold the right to collect tax to the highest bidders.
  • These ‘revenue farmers’ (ijaradars) agreed to pay the state a fixed sum of money.
  • Local bankers guaranteed the payment of this contracted amount to the state.
  • In turn, the revenue-farmers were given considerable freedom in the assessment and collection of taxes.
  • These developments allowed new social groups, like moneylenders and bankers, to influence the management of the state’s revenue system.
  • It was something which had not occurred in the past.

Question 4.
Who were Ijaradars?
Answer:
Ijaradars were the revenue farmers who bought the right to collect revenue and agreed to pay the state a fixed sum of money. This system was known as Ijaradari system.

Bengal

Question 1.
How did Murshid Quli Khan become powerful in Bengal?
Answer:

  • Bengal gradually broke away from Mughal control under Murshid Quli Khan.
  • Murshid Quli Khan was appointed as the naib, deputy to the governor of the province.
  • He was never a formal subadar, but he seized all the power of the subadar very quickly.
  • Like the rulers of Hyderabad and Awadh, he also commanded the revenue administration of the state.
  • In order to reduce Mughal influence in Bengal he transferred all Mughals’ jagirdars to Orissa.

He ordered a major reassessment of the revenues of Bengal:

  • Revenue was collected in cash with great strictness from all zamindars.
  • It resulted in, many zamindars being forced to borrow money from bankers and moneylenders.
  • Those unable to pay were forced to sell their lands to larger zamindars.

Question 2.
How did formation of a regional state in 18th century Bengal lead to considerable changes?
Answer:

  • The formation of a regional state in eighteenth century Bengal led to considerable change amongst the zamindars.
  • The close connection between the state and bankers which was noticeable in
    Hyderabad and Awadh was evident in Bengal under the rule of Alivardi Khan (1740-1756).
  • During his reign the banking house of Jagat Seth became extremely prosperous.

Question 3.
Describe the common features of the three states—Hyderabad, Bengal and Awadh.
Answer:
The three states of Hyderabad, Awadh and Bengal had certain common features:

  • They were all established by the Mughal nobles who were given the jagir or the governorship of the territory.
  • Their methods of tax collection differed and they used their own officials for this.
  • They contracted with “revenue farmers” for collection of revenue and the practice of “ijaradari” though disapproved by the Mughals spread all over India.
  • All these regional states had relationship with the bankers and money lenders.
  • They received land as security and collected tax from there through agents.
  • Social strata of these states was reorganized to a greater extent.

The Watan Jagirs of the Rajputs

Question 1.
Describe the watan jagirs of the Rajputs.
Ans.
The watan jagirs of the Rajputs:

  • Many Rajput kings mostly of Amber and Jodhpur, had served under the Mughals with distinction.
  • In exchange, they were permitted to enjoy considerable autonomy in their watan jagirs.
  • In the eighteenth century, these rulers attempted to extend their control over adjacent regions.
  • Ajit Singh, the ruler of Jodhpur, was also involved in the factional politics at the Mughal court.
  • These Rajput families claimed the subadari of the rich provinces of Gujarat and Malwa.
  • Raja Ajit Singh of Jodhpur held the governorship of Gujarat.
  • Sawai Raja Jai Singh of Amber was governor of Malwa.
  • These offices were renewed by Emperor Jahandar Shah in 1713.
  • They also tried to extend their territories by seizing portions of imperial territories adjacent to their watans.
  • Nagaur was conquered and annexed to the house of Jodhpur.
  • Amber seized large portions of Bundi.
  • Sawai Raja Jai Singh founded his new capital at Jaipur.
  • He was given the subadari of Agra in 1722.
  • Maratha campaigns into Rajasthan from the 1740s put severe pressure on these principalities and checked their further expansion.

Question 2.
Describe in brief about Raja Jai Singh of Jaipur.
Answer:

  • Raja Jai Singh was at the height of his power.
  • He was the governor of Agra for 12 years and of Malwa for 5 to 6 years.
  • He possessed a large army, artillery and great wealth.
  • His sway extended from Delhi to the banks of the Narmada.

Seizing Independence

The Sikhs

Question 1.
How did Sikhs become a political power?
Answer:

  • The organisation of the Sikhs into a political community during the seventeenth century helped in regional state-building in the Punjab.
  • Several battles were fought by Guru Gobind Singh against the Rajput and Mughal rulers, both before and after set up of the Khalsa in 1699.
  • After his death in 1708, the Khalsa rose in revolt against the Mughal authority uhder Banda Bahadur’s leadership.
  • The Khalsa declared their sovereign rule by striking coins in the name of Guru Nanak and Guru Gobind Singh.
  • They established their own administration between the Sutlej and the Jamuna.
  • Under a number of able leaders in the eighteenth century, the Sikhs organized themselves into a number of bands called jathas, and later on misls.
  • Their combined forces were known as the grand army (dal khalsa).

Question 2.
Which were the many practices started by the Sikhs?
Answer:

  • The entire body used to meet at Amritsar at the time of Baisakhi and Diwali to take collective decisions known as ‘resolutions of the Guru (gurmatas)’.
  • A system called rakhi was introduced, offering protection to cultivators on the payment of a tax of 20 per cent of the produce.
  • Guru Gobind Singh had inspired the Khalsa with the belief that their destiny was to rule (raj karega khalsa).
  • The khalsa declared their sovereign rule by striking their own coin again in 1765.
  • This coin bore the same inscription as the one on the orders issued by the khalsa in the time of Banda Bahadur.
  • The Sikh territories in the late eighteenth century extended from the Indus to the Jamuna.
  • They were divided under different rulers.
  • One of them, Maharaja Ranjit Singh, reunited these groups.
  • He established his capital at Lahore in 1799.

Question 3.
What is/are Khalsa and Jatha or Misls?
Answer:
Small political groups of the Sikhs were called the Jathas or the Misls. Their total number before Ranjit Singh was 12. The section of soldiers formed by 10th Guru Gobind Singh in 1699 was called Khalsa.

Question 4.
Who took over as leader of the Sikhs after Guru Gobind Singhji?
Answer:
Banda Bahadur took over as leader of the Sikhs after Guru Gobind Singhji.

The Marathas

Question 1.
Give an account of the Maratha Kingdom.
Answer:

  • The Maratha Kingdom was another powerful regional kingdom.
  • It rose out of a sustained opposition to Mughal rule.
  • Shivaji (1627-1680) carved out a stable kingdom with the support of powerful warrior families (deshmukhs).
  • Groups of highly mobile, peasant pastoralists (kunbis) provided the backbones of the Maratha army.
  • Shivaji used these forces to challenge the Mughals in the Peninsula.
  • After Shivaji’s death, effective power in the Maratha state was wielded by a family of Chitpavan Brahmanas who served Shivaji’s successors as Peshwa (or principal minister).
  • Poong. became the capital of the Maratha kingdom.

Question 2.
How did Maratha become a force to reckon with?
Answer:

  • Under the Peshwas, the Marathas developed a very successful military organisation.
  • Their success lay in by-passing the fortified areas of the Mughals.
  • They raided cities and engaged Mughal armies in areas where their supply line and reinforcements could be easily disturbed.
  • Between 1720 and 1761, the Maratha empire expanded.
  • It gradually chipped away at the authority of the Mughal Empire.
  • Malwa and Gujarat were seized from the Mughals by ]the 1720s.
  • By the 1730s, the Maratha king was recognised as the overlord of the entire Deccan peninsula.
  • He possessed the right to levy chauth and sardeshmukhi in the entire region.
  • After raiding Delhi in 1737 the frontiers of Maratha domination expanded rapidly.
  • into Rajasthan.
  • into Punjab in the north.
  • into Bengal and Orissa in the east.
  • into Karnataka and the Tamil and Telugu countries in the south.
  • These were not formally included in the Maratha empire. They were made to pay tribute as a way of accepting Maratha sovereignty.
  • Expansion brought enormous resources but it came at a price.
  • These military campaigns also made other rulers hostile towards the Marathas. This resulted in the reduced support to the Marathas during the third battle of Panipat in 1761.

Question 3.
Who were the Peshwas, Deshmukhs and Kunbis?
Answer:
Peshwas were the principal minister who served as successors of Shivaji. They were the Chitpavan Brahmanas. Deshmukhs were the powerful warrior families and the Kunbis were the peasant pastoralists who were the backbones of Maratha Army.

Question 4.
What were Chauth and Sardeshmukhi?
Answer:
By 1730’s the Maratha king was recognized as the overlord of the Deccan peninsula and had the right to collect chauth and sardeshmukhi from there. Chauth was the 25% of the land revenue and Sardeshmukhi was 9-10% of the land revenue.

Question 5.
Give an account of administrative system of the Marathas.
Answer:

  • The Marathas developed an effective administrative system.
  • Revenue demands were gradually introduced taking local conditions into account.
  • Agriculture was encouraged.
  • Trade revived.
  • This allowed Maratha chiefs (Sardars) like Sindhia of Gwalior, Gaekwad of Baroda and Bhonsle of Nagpur the resources to raise powerful armies.
  • Maratha campaigns into Malwa in the 1720s did not challenge the growth and prosperity of the cities in the region.
  • Ujjain expanded under Sindhia’s patronage.
  • Indore under Holkar’s.
  • By all accounts these cities were large and prosperous and functioned as important commercial and cultural centres.
  • New trade routes emerged within the areas controlled by the Marathas.
  • The silk produced in the Chanderi region now found a new outlet in Poona, the Maratha capital.
  • Burhanpur which had earlier participated in the trade between Agra and Surat now expanded its . hinterland. It included
  • Poona and Nagpur in the south.
  • Lucknow and Allahabad in the east.

The Jats

Question 1.
How was Jat power established?
Answer:
The Jats consolidated their power during the late 17th and 18th century. Under the leadership of Churaman they acquired control over territories to the west of Delhi. By the 1680’s they dominated the region between Delhi and Agra. For some time they controlled the city of Agra.

Question 2.
Describe the rule of Jats.
Answer:

  • The Jats were prosperous agriculturists.
  • Panipat and Ballabhgarh became important trading centres under Churaman a jat who dominated Delhi and Agra.
  • Under Suraj Mai the kingdom of Bharatpur emerged as a strong state.
  • When Nadir Shah sacked Delhi in 1739, many of the city’s notables took refuge there.
  • His Son Jawahir Shah had 30,000 troops of his own and hired another 20,000 Maratha and 15,000 Sikh troops to fight the Mughals.
  • Bharatpur fort was built in a fairly traditional style.
  • At Dig the Jats built an elaborate garden palace combining styles seen at Amber and Agra.
  • Its buildings were modelled on architectural forms first associated with royalty

 

Read More