Chapter – 2 New Kings And Kingdoms | Class 7th | NCERT History Solutions | Edugrown

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Social Science includes all the questions provided in NCERT Class 7 Social Science Text Book of Geography The Earth: Our Habitat, History Our Pasts, Civics Social and Political Life. Here CBSE Class 7 SST all questions are solved with the detailed explanation to score good marks in the exams. you can check Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Chapter -2 New Kings And Kingdoms

1. Match the following:
Gwjara-Pratiharas    –      Western Deccan
Rashtrakutas             –       Bengal
Palos                           –     Gujarat and Rajasthan
Cholas                         –        Tamil Nadu
Answer: 
Gurj ara-Pratiharas        –   Gujarat and Rajasthan
Rashtrakutas                   –   Western Deccan
Palas                                 –    Bengal
Cholas                               –   Tamil Nadu

2. Who were the parties involved in the ‘tripartite struggle’?
Answer: The parties involved in the tripartite struggle were Gurjar-Pratihara, Rashtrakuta, and Pala dynasties.

3. What were the qualifications necessary to become a member of a committee of the sabha in the Chola Empire?
Answer:
The working of a sabha according to the Uttaramerur inscription is given below:

  1.  All those who wish to become members of the sabha should be owners of the land from which land, revenue is collected.
  2. They should have their own homes.
  3. They should be between 35 and 70 years of age.
  4. They should have knowledge of the Vedas.
  5. They should be well-versed in administrative matters and honest in all dealings.
  6. If anyone has been a member of any committee in the last three years, he cannot become a member of another committee.
  7. Anyone who has not submitted his accounts, as well as those of his relatives, cannot contest the elections.

4. What were the two major cities under the control of the Chahamanas?
Answer:  
Delhi and Ajmer were the two cities under control of the Chahamanas.

5. How did the Rashtrakutas become powerful?
Answer:
Rashtrakutas became powerful in the following manner:

  1. Rashtrakutas were subordinates to the Chalukyas of Karnataka.
  2. In the mid-eighth century Dantidurga, a Rashtrakuta chief, overthrew his Chalukyan overlord.
  3. He performed a ritual called Hiranya-garbha with the help of Brahmanas.
  4. This ritual was, then, considered to lead the rebirth of the sacrificer as Kshatriya, even if he was not Kshatriya by birth.

6. What did the new dynasties do to gain acceptance?
Answer:  The new dynasties gained power and wealth. Thereafter they declared themselves to be maha-samantas or mahamandaleshwara. Many of such kings adopted high sounding titles like maharaja-adhiraja or tribhuvana-chakravartin. They also deputed learned brahmanas to depict them as valiant, victorious warriors. Their activities were recorded in Prashastis. They tried to demonstrate their power and resources by building large temples.

7. What kind of irrigation works were developed in the Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Large scale cultivation was developed in Tamil Nadu and in many cases artificial irrigation became necessary. A variety of methods were used:

  • Wells were dug
  • Huge tanks were constructed to collect rainwater
  • Canals were constructed

All this work required planning, organizing labour and resources. Decisions were taken collectively on the usage of water. New rulers and people took an active interest in these activities.

8. What were the activities associated with Chola temples?
Answer:
Splendid temples and bronze sculptures of the Cholas:

  1. Rajaraja and Rajendra built big temples of Thanjavur and Gangaikondacholapuram.
  2. They are architectural and sculptural marvels.
  3. Chola temples often became the centre of settlements around them.
  4. These were centres of craft production.
  5. Temples were also endowed with land by both rulers and others.
  6. The produce of this land went to maintain all the specialists who worked at the temple and very often lived near it.
  7. They included priests, garland makers, cooks, sweepers, musicians, dancers, etc.
  8. In other words, temples were not only places of worship; but also the hub of economic, social and cultural life.
  9. Amongst the crafts associated with temples, the making of bronze images was the most important.
  10. Chola bronze images are amongst the finest in the world.
  11. Most images were of deities, sometimes images were made of devotees also.

9. Look at Map 1 once more and find out whether there were any kingdoms in the state in which you live.
Answer:  The answer may vary as per the students’ state where they live. So the students should answer this question on the basis of their individual study of the Map.

10. Contrast the ‘elections’ in Uttaramerur with present day panchayat election?
Answer:  The system of election in Uttaramerur was quite different from that of the present day panchayat elections. In the Uttaramerur election, the names of the persons eligible to be members of the committees were written on small tickets of palm leaves. The tickets were put into an earthenware pot. Thereafter a young boy was asked to take out the tickets, one by one for each committee. But the present day panchayat members are elected through a general election.

The names of the total members are printed with a symbol allotted to them on a paper called ballot paper. The voter put a stamp over their choice and drops it in a ballot box. Votes are counted and the winners’ name is declared by the Returning Officer. Every procedure is organized by a statutory body.

11. Compare the temple shown in this chapter with any present-day temple in your neighbourhood, highlighting any similarities and differences that you notice.
Answer:  Attempt yourself.

12. Find out more about taxes that are collected at present. Are these in cash, kind, or labour services?
Answer:
Taxes collected at present.

  • Land tax
  • Income tax
  • Wealth tax
  • Sale tax
  • Property tax
  • Excise tax
  • VAT (value-added tax)
  • Service tax
  • Education cess {tax)
  • Tax on electricity
  • Water tax

These taxes are generally in cash

 Very Short Answer Type Questions

1. Who was Dantidurga?
Answer: Dantidurga was a Rashtrakuta chief who turned out to be a kshatriya after performing a ritual known as hiranya-garbha.

2. What was called ‘rent’?
Answer:  Resources obtained from the producers were called ‘rent’.

3. Who paid revenue?
Answer:  The traders paid revenue

4. What were ‘prashastis’?
Answer:  Prashastis were the details depicting the rule and personality of the rulers

5. Who were the writers of Prashastis?
Answer:  The learned brahmanas were the writers of the Prashastis.

6. Who was Kalhana?
Answer: Kalhana was a great Sanskrit poet from Kashmir.

7. What was ‘tripartite struggle’?             [V. Imp.]
Answer:  The tripartite sruggle was a long drawn conflict among the rulers of Gurjara- Pratihara, Rashtrakuta and Pala dynasties for control over Kanauj.

8. Who wrote Kitab al-Hind?
Answer:  A great Arab poet al-Baruni wrote Kitab al-Hind

9. Who was Prithviraja in ?
Answer: Prithviraja III was afamous Chauhan ruler of Delhi and surrounding regions during 1168-1192.

10. Who destroyed the temple of Somnath?
Answer: Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni, a ruler of Afghanistan, destroyed the temple of Somnath.

11 Why are the temples of Thanjavur and Gangaikonda-cholapuram famous for?[V. Imp.]
Answer:  These temples are famous for their architectural and sculptural marvels.

12. What was called as ‘ur’?
Answer:  The settlements of peaseants were called as ‘ur’.

13. What were called ‘nadu’?
Answer: The larger units of the groups of ‘ur’ were called ‘nadu’.

14. What was known as ‘brahmadeya’?
Answer: The land gifted to Brahmanas was called as ‘brahmadeya’.

15. Define ‘nagarams’.
Answer:  ‘Nagarams’ were the associationa of traders

16. What was ‘sabha’?
Answer:  An assembly of prominent Brahmanas that looked after brahmadeya was called ‘sabha’.

Short Answer Type Questions

1. Trace out the emergence of the new class of rulers.  [V. Imp.]
Answer: During the seventh century a new class of rulers emerged. They were the subordinates or samantas under the influence of big landlords or warriors. Later they themselves gained power and wealth and declared themselves to be maha- samantas, maha-mandaleshvara (the great lord of a circle or region)

2. Who was Dantidurga? How did he became a kshatriya?
Answer: Dantidurga was a Rashtrakuta chief in Deccan. Initially, Rashtrakutas were subordinate to the Chalukyas of Karnataka. Dantidurga, in the mid-eighth century, overthrew his Chalukya overlord and performed a ritual known as ‘hiranya-garbha’. It was thought to lead to the rebirth of the sacrificer as a kshatriya, even if he was not one by birth.

3. How was the financial position controlled in these states?    [V. Imp.]
Answer:  These states were closely associated with peasants, traders, and Brahmanas. The resources were obtained from peasants, cattle-keepers, and artisans who were the producers. They were compelled to surrender part of what they produced. The traders had to pay revenue. The functionaries for collecting revenue were generally from influential families or from the close relatives of the kings.

4. Write a note on ‘Prashastis’.
Answer:  Prashastis, often written by learned Brahmanas, were details of the functioning of a king. They may not be literally true. They tell us how rulers wanted to depict themselves—as valiant, victorious warriors etc. Brahmanas were rewarded by grants of land which were recorded on copper plates.

5. Who was Kalhana? Why was he famous for?
Answer:  Kalhana was a great Sanskrit poet who wrote a long Sanskrit poem depicting the ruler of Kashmir. He used a variety of sources, including inscriptions, documents, eyewitness accounts. He was different from the writers of Prashastis for he was often critical about rulers and their policies.

6. Why were the temples first targets of the conquerors?      [V. Imp.]
Answer:  It was the trend to demonstrate power and resources by building large temples. The rulers often invested a lot in the decoration and maintenance of the temples. So the foreign conquerors made them target first. The most prominent example of it was the temple 6f Somnath in Gujarat looted several times by Sultan Mahmud of Ghazani who came from Afghanistan. Much of the wealth he carried away was used to create a splendid capital city at Ghazani.

7. Who was Prithvirqja III? Who defeated him?
Answer:  Prithviraja III (1168-1192) was a Chahamanas, later known as Chauhan ruler. He ruled over the regions around Delhi and Ajmer. He defeated Sultan Muhammad Ghori, an Afghan conqueror in 1191. But only one year after it in 1192 he was defeated by Ghori. It was the end of his rule and life both.

8. What was the role of temples during Chola kingdom? [V. Imp.]
Answer:  The Chola rulers like Rajaraja and Rajendra built two great temples of Thanjavur and Ganaikonda-cholapuram respectively. Temples were the nuclei of settlements during this period. They were the centres of craft production and also controlled the financial aspects related to them. Hence they were not only the religious centres but also the hub of economic, social, and cultural life as well.

9 Describe the irrigation system of the Chola kingdom.    [Imp.]
Answer: The irrigation system during the Chola ruler was much improved. A variety of methods were applied to it. Many wells were dug; huge tanks were also constructed to collect water. The kings themselves took interest in organizing labour and resources and extensive planning.

10. What was the system of election of committee members for Sabha?
Answer:  The Sabha had separate committees to manage the works of irrigation and other works of gardens, temples, etc. The members of each committee were elected through a strict process. Names of eligible candidates were written on small tickets of palm leaf. The tickets were put into an earthenware pot. A young boy was asked to take out the tickets one by one for each committee.

Long Answer Type Questions

1. Write a note on Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni  [Imp.]
Answer:  Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni was a ruler of Afghanistan from 997 to 1030. He was an ambitious king and so made all efforts to extend his control over far off regions. He extended his control over parts of Central Asia, Iran, and the north­western part of the subcontinent. Almost every year he raided the subcontinent targeting wealthy temples. The temple of Somnath in Gujarat was the worst victim of his raids. Much of the wealth he carried away was used to create a splendid capital city at Ghazni. Ghazni was fond of knowing more about the people he conquered. He entrusted a scholar named al-Biruni to write an account of the subcontinent. The al- Biruni’s account, an Arabic work titled as Kitab al-Hind, is still an important source for historians.

2. How did the Cholas rise to power? Trace out the role of Rajaraja I in this rise.[V. Imp.]
Answer:  Cholas belonged to a minor chiefly family known as Muttaraiyar that held power in the Kaveri delta. They worked as subordinate to the Pallava kings of Kanchipuram. Vijayalaya, a member of the ancient chiefly family of the Cholas from Uraiyur, captured the delta from the Muttaraiyar in the middle of the ninth century. ‘Hie town of Thanjavur and the temple for goddess Nishmbhasudini are some of his great creations. Vijayalaya’s successors conquered neighboring regions and the kingdom grew in size and power.

The Pandyan and the Pallava territories to the south and north were made part of this kingdom.Rajaraja I was the most powerful Chola ruler. He became king in 985 and expanded control over most of these areas. He was well known for the reorganization of the administration of his empire. His son Rajendra I continued his policies an even raided the Ganga valley, Sri Lanka and contries of Southeast Asia, developing a navy for these expeditions. The big temples of Thanjavur and Gangaikonda-cholapuram built by them are architectural marvels.

Read More

Chapter – 1 Tracing Changes Through a Thousand Years | Class 7th | NCERT History Solutions | Edugrown

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Social Science includes all the questions provided in NCERT Class 7 Social Science Text Book of Geography The Earth: Our Habitat, History Our Pasts, Civics Social and Political Life. Here CBSE Class 7 SST all questions are solved with the detailed explanation to score good marks in the exams. you can check Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Chapter -1 Tracing Changes Through a Thousand Years

Question 1. Who was considered a ‘foreigner’ in the past?
Answer:  The term ‘foreigner’ is used in the sense of a person who is not an Indian. In the medieval period it was applied to any stranger who appeared, say in a given village, someone who was not a part of that society or culture. In this sense a forest-dweller was a foreigner for a city-dweller. But two peasants living in the same village were not foreigners to each other, even though they may have had different religious or caste backgrounds.

Question  2. State whether true or false:

  • We do not find inscriptions for the period after 700.
  • The Maraihas asserted their political importance during this period.
  • Forest-dwellers were sometimes pushed out of their lands with the spread of agricultural settlements.
  • Sultan Ghiyasuddin Balban controlled Assam, Manipur and Kashmir.

Answer:  (a) False; (b) False; (c) True; (d) False

Question 3. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Archives are places where………….. are kept.
(b) …………….was a fourteenth-century chronicler.
(c) ……., ……., ………, ……… and ………… were some of the crops introduced into the subcontinent during this period.
Answer:  (a) Manuscripts
(b) Ziyauddin Barani
(c) Potatoes, com, chillies, tea, coffee.

Question 4. List some of the technological changes associated with this period.
Answer:
Some of the technological changes associated with this period are:

  1. Persian wheel in irrigation.
  2. Spinning wheel.
  3. Fire-arms in combat.

Question 5. What were some of the major religious developments during this period?
Answer:  
Some of the major significant religious developments occurred in Hinduism. The worship of new deities, the construction of temples by royalty and growing importance of Brahmanas, the priests, as dominant groups in society were the new changes. Brahmanas’ importance grew due to their knowledge of Sanskrit language. They were patronized by the Emperors. The idea of bhakti emerged among people. The merchants and migrants brought with them the teachings of Quran, the holy book of Muslims.

Question 6. In what ways has the meaning of the term ‘Hindustan’ charged over the centuries?
Answer:
The meaning of the term ‘Hindustan’ has changed over the centuries in the following manner:

  1. In the thirteenth century Minhaj-i-Siraj used the term ‘Hindustan’. He meant areas of Punjab, Haryana and the lands between Ganga and Yamuna. He used this term in a political sense that were a part of the dominions of the Delhi Sultanate. The term never included South India.
  2. In the sixteenth century poet Babur used the term ‘Hindustan’ to describe the geography, the fauna and the culture of the inhabitants of the subcontinent.
  3. In fourteenth-century poet Amir Khusrau used the term ‘Hind’ in the same sense as Babur did in the sixteenth century.
  4. ‘Hindustan’ did not carry the political and national meanings as the term ‘India’ does today.

Question  7. How were the affairs of jatis regulated?
Answer:
The affairs of jatis were regulated in the following way:

  1. Jatis formed their own rules and regulations.
  2. There was an assembly of elders called jati panchayat.
  3. It enforced the rules and regulations.
  4. Jatis were also directed to follow the rules of the village.
  5. Several villages were governed by a chieftain.

Question 8. What does the term pan-regional empire mean?
Answer:  
The term ‘pan-regional’ was used in the sense of the areas of empires spanning diverge regions. The dynasties like Cholas, Khaljis, Tughluqs, and Mughals extended their empires pan-regional. Though, not all these empires were equally stable or successful. But pan-regional rule altered the character of the regions. Most of the regions across the subcontinent were left with the legacies of the big and small states that had ruled over them. The emergence of many distinct and shared traditions in governance the economy elite cultures and languages were some of the prominent factors that took place as a result of pan-regional rules.

Question 9. What are the difficulties historians face in using manuscripts?
Answer:
Historians faced a lot of difficulties while using manuscripts because:

  1. There was no printing press in the 13th and 14th centuries. Scribes in those days made manuscripts by hand.
  2. To copy was not an easy exercise. Scribes could not read the handwriting of the other writers.
  3. They were forced to guess. So there were small but significant differences in the copy of the scribed.
  4. These small words or sentences here and there grew over centuries of copying.
  5. The manuscripts of the same text became a great extent different from the original.

Question 10. How do historians divide the past into periods? Do they face any problems in doing so?
Answer:
Historians divide the past into periods on the basis of continuity. This continuity is further based on:

  1. Coins
  2. Inscriptions
  3. Architecture
  4. Textual records

But they face difficulties in doing so as discontinuity exists.

  1. Textual records increased tremendously.
  2. They gradually displaced other types of available information.

Thousand years of human history (or of any country or region) witnessed a number of changes. After all, the ancient history of India is different from that of the other two periods i.e., the medieval period and modem period. Therefore describing the entire period as one historical unit is not an easy task.

Question 11. Compare either Map 1 or Map 2 with the present-day map of the subcontinent listing as many similarities and differences as you can find.
Answer:  
Map 1 and Map 2 given in the NCERT Textbook represent two different times. Map 1 was made in 1154 CE by al-Idrisi, an Arab geographer. This section is a detail of the Indian subcontinent from his larger map of the world. Map 2 was made by a French cartographer in 1720. Both maps are quite different from each other, even though they represent the same area. In Map 1 we find south India at the place where we would expect to find north India and Sri Lanka is the island at the top. The place names are in Arabic. Some familiar places like Kanauj in Uttar Pradesh have been spelt as Qanauj. In comparison to this Map 2 was made nearly 600 later after Map 1. By that time information about the subcontinent had changed a lot. This map appears to be more familiar to us. The coastal areas, particularly, are more detailed.

Question 12. Find out where records are kept in your village or city. Who writes these records? Is there an archive? Who manages it? What kinds of documents are stored there? Who are the people who use it?
Answer:

  1. Records are kept in our city at the archives. These records are written by the officials of the Revenue Department.
  2. The in charge of the Archives/ Deputy Director of Archives manages these records.
  3. Rare manuscripts, government records, and other valuable books, etc. are stored there.
  4. Scholars, researchers, and government officials use them.

V. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1. Who was al-Idrisi?
Answer:  al-Idrisi was an Arab cartographer.

Question 2. Who is a ‘cartographer’?
Answer:  Cartographer is one who draws a map.

Question 3. What difference do you notice in the map drawn by al-Idrisi?
Answer: In the map drawn by al-Idrisi we find a completely different view. Here south India is shown at present North India and Sri Lanka is the island at the top

Question 4. Who used the term Hindustan for the first time and when?
Answer:  Minhaj-i Siraj used the term ‘Hindustan’ for the first time in the thirteenth century.

Question 5. What sources do historians use for the study of a particular period of history?[V. Imp.]
Ans. The historians use sources like coins, inscriptions, architectures, and textual records for the study of a specific period.

Question 6. What do you mean by archives?
Answer:  Archives were the places where manuscripts were collected.

Question 7. Who were scribes?
Answer: Scribes were those professionals who used to copy down the manuscripts.

Question 8. How did the scribes copy down the manuscripts?
Answer: Scribes copied down the manuscripts by hand.

Question 9. What changes took place during 700 and 1750? [V. Imp.]
Answer: Many technologies like the Persian wheel in irrigation, the spinning wheel in weaving, and firearms in combat made their appearance. Some new foods and beverages like potatoes, corn, chilies, tea, and coffee also arrived in the subcontinent.

Question 10. What factors contributed to a variety of developments?
Answer: The new technologies and innovations came to the subcontinent with the people who came from other areas and settled here.

Question 11. What were the new groups of people to be prominent at this age? [V. Imp.]
Answer: Rajputs, Marathas, Sikhs, Jats, Ahoms, and Kayasthas were the groups which came to be prominent in this age. They availed most of the opportunities of society.

Question 12. What do you mean by Jati Panchayat?
Answer: Jati Panchayat was the assembly of elders that controlled the conduct of the members of their jati They had their own rules and regulations.

Question 13. Who was the Chief of the village?
Answer: Villages were controlled by a Chieftain. Even the smaller Jati Panchayats were bound to follow the village administration.

Question 14. What was the stretch of Delhi Sultan Ghiyasuddin Balban’s Empire?
Answer: According to a Sanskrit Prashasti Delhi Sultan Ghiyasuddin Balban’s empire was stretched from Bengal (Gauda) in the east to Ghazni (Gajjana) in Afghanistan in the west. It also included all of south India (Dravida)

Question 15. Why did Brahmanas dominate in society during this period? [Imp.]
Answer: Brahmanas were the only class of people who were proficient in the Sanskrit language. This was the reason that made them prominent.

Question 16. Who were the patrons?
Answer:  Patrons were a group of rulers and rich class of people who provided protection and livelihood to the Brahmanas, artists, and poets.

Question 17. What was the major development of this age?
Answer: The emergence of the idea of bhakti was the major development of this age.

Question 18. How history was divided by historians during the middle of the nineteenth century?
Answer: The British historians divided the history of India into three periods—:P

  • Hindu,
  • Muslim and
  • British.

Question 19. What was the basis of such division?
Answer: Such division was made on the basis of the religion as the historians did not consider any aspect more prominent other than the developments in religions.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.  What difference do you trace out in the region of Hindustan of the thirteenth century and the modem India?
Answer: The term ‘Hindustan’ in the thirteenth century implied the areas of Punjab, Haryana, and the lands between the Ganga and Yamuna. Minhaj-i Siraj used the term in a political sense for lands consisting of a part of the dominions of the Delhi Sultanate. The areas included in this term shifted with the extent of the Sultanate. However, it never included south India.

Question 2. What does time mean for historians? How does it help them? [V. Imp.]
Answer:  Time, for historians, doesn’t mean just a passing of hours, days, or years. Instead, it reflects changes in social and economic organization, in the persistence and transformation of ideas and beliefs. In order to study historical developments historians divide the past into large segments. It makes the study convenient. The historians study different aspects of the specific period and then assess the comparative developments their impact on society and their contribution to the future generations.

Question 3. What do you mean by pan-regional rule? What was its impact? [V. Imp.]

Answer:  Pan-regional rule applies to the trend of extending the empire to the region beyond one’s own state. With the decline of the Mughal Empire in the eighteenth century, many regional states emerged. Consequently, a chance of sharing different traditions in the realms of governance, economy, elite cultures, and languages was brightened. People knew a lot of new things, manners, etc, without losing their own culture and identity.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1. What was the process of copying the manuscript? What were its drawbacks? [Imp.]
Answer: As there was no printing press during the period between 700 and 1750, Scribes used to copy down the manuscripts which were hand-written. Sometimes it was difficult to recognize the original script. So the Scribes used their own way of interpreting the facts. Consequently, there were differences were found in the copies written by different Scribes. As all the copies were handwritten, it was difficult to recognize which was the original one. It was the drawback of such copying.

Question 2. Trace out the major changes in society during 700 and 1750? What was its main reason? [V. Imp.]
Answer: A number of changes took place in society between 700 and 1750. This period traced the technological appearance of Persian wheel in irrigation, the spinning wheel in weaving and firearms in combat. Potatoes, com, chilies, tea, and coffee were some of the new foods and beverages. These developments came with the arrival of the people who migrated to this land. As a result this period saw various changes in the economic, political, social and cultural life,

Question 3. What was the change in the religion of the time? Trace out major developments? [V. Imp.]
Answer: The period between 700 and 1750 witnessed major changes in religion. It was seen prominently in Hinduism. The worship of new deities, the construction of temples by royalty, and the growing importance of Brahmanas, the priests, as dominant groups in society were some of the major developments.

The idea of bhakti emerged. Merchants and migrants brought the new teachings of the ‘Quran’, the holy book of the Muslims. A class of patrons emerged. They were the rulers who provided shelter and protection to the ulemas—the learned theologians and jurists. Muslims were divided into two groups—Shia and Sunni. Shia Muslims believed in Prophet Muhammad’s authority while the Sunnis accepted the authority of the early leaders—Khalifas.

Read More

Chapter – 18 Wastewater Story | Class 7th | NCERT Science Solutions | Edugrown

NCERT solutions for Class 7 Science have been provided below to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using a logical approach and methodology. CBSE Class 7th Science solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the NCERT Class 7 Science textbook.

Chapter -18 Wastewater Story

Q.1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Cleaning of water is process of removing __________
(b) Wastewater released by houses is called __________.
(c) Dried __________ is used as manure.
(d) Drains get blocked by __________ and __________.
Ans.(a) pollutants (b) sewage (c) sludge (d) (d) chemicals, kitchen waste

Q.2. What is sewage? Explain why it is harmful to discharge untreated sewage into rivers or seas.
Ans. Sewage is a liquid containing wastes which is disposed by households, industrial and agricultural activities in water. It is harmful to discharge untreated sewage into rivers or seas because it can pollute the whole sources of water. Sewage contains harmful substances and disease causing organisms. It is therefore dangerous to release untreated sewage in water.

Q.3. Why should oils and fats be not released in the drain? Explain.
Ans. Oils and fats should not be released in drains because they harden the soil in the pipes and block them. Fats get clogged in holes of the soil in the drain and block it. It does not allow the water to flow.

Q.4. Describe the steps involved in getting clarified water from wastewater.
Ans. Following steps are involved in the purification of water:


(i) Firstly all the physical impurities like stones, plastic bags, cans etc. are to be removed. It is done by passing the water through bar screens.
(ii) Then water is taken to grit and sand removal tank where impurities are removed by sedimentation.
(iii) Solid impurities and feaces etc. are collected from bottom of water. These impurities collected are called sludge.
(iv) Clarified water is cleaned of other impurities by aerator. All disease causing bacteria are removed by chlorination.

Q.5. What is sludge? Explain how it is treated.
Ans. Sludge is the collected solid waste from the wastewater during the treatment in water treatment plant. Sludge is decomposed in a separate tank by the anaerobic bacteria. Activated sludge is used as manure.

Q.6. Untreated human excreta is a health hazard. Explain.
Ans. Untreated human excreta can cause a lot of health related problems. It pollutes water, air and soil. The polluted water contain disease causing bacteria which can spread epidemics like cholera, meningitis etc.

Q.7. Name two chemicals used to disinfect water.
Ans. Chlorine and ozone

Q.8. Explain the Junction of bar screens in a wastewater treatment plant.
Ans. Bar screens clear the wastewater of all the physical impurities. Large size waste like napkins, plastics, cans etc. are removed from the wastewater through the bar screens.

Q.9. Explain the relationship between sanitation and disease.
Ans. Sanitation and disease are related to each other. Sanitation involves proper disposal of sewage and refuse from hou&e and public places. If sanitation is there, no disease will occur, but if sanitation is not there various types of disease will occur and spread. So sanitation should be kept to avoid disease.

Q.10. Outline your role as an active citizen in relation to sanitation.
Ans. As active citizen we should take care of our personal environmental sanitation. We should make people aware of the benefits of sanitation. We should help municipal corporations to cover all the open drains and remove disease causing substances thrown in open.

Q.11.Here is a crossword puzzle. Good luck!
NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 18 Wastewater Story Q11
Across:
3. Liquid waste products
4. Solid waste extracted in sewage treatment
6. A word related to hygiene
8. Waste matter discharged from human body
Down:
1. Used water
2. A pipe carrying sewage
5. Micro-organisms which cause cholera
7. A chemical to disinfect water

Ans
NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 18 Wastewater Story Q11.1

Q.12. Study the following statements about ozone:
(a) It is essential for breathing of living organisms.
(b) It is used to disinfect water.
(c) It absorbs ultraviolet rays.
(d) Its proportion in air is about 3%.
Which of these statements are correct?
(i) (a), (b) and (c) (ii) (b) and (c) (iii) (a) and (d) (iv) All four
Ans. (ii) (b) and (c)

Read More

Chapter – 17 Forests Our Lifeline | Class 7th | NCERT Science Solutions | Edugrown

NCERT solutions for Class 7 Science have been provided below to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using a logical approach and methodology. CBSE Class 7th Science solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the NCERT Class 7 Science textbook.

Chapter -17 Forests Our Lifeline

Q.1. Explain how animals dwelling in the forest help it grow and regenerate.
Ans. Animals help in growing and regenerating forests in many ways. Animals work as the cleaning agents in the forest. Microorganisms work on dead bodies of plants and animals and degenerate them. An’imals also help in pollination which helps in growing a number of plants. Herbivores helps the carnivores to grow as they serve as food for them. Thus flora and fauna mutually grow in the forest.

Q.2. Explain how forests prevent floods.
Ans. Forests can absorb a lot of water. The roots of the trees absorb the water and prevent it from flowing away. Roots of trees also help in percolation of water into the soil. This helps in preventing floods.

Q.3. What are decomposers? Name any two of them. What do they do in the forest?
Ans. Decomposers are the organisms which feed on the dead bodies of plants and animals. They clean the forests decaying dead bodies and replenishing the nutrients back to the forest soil, e.g.„ beetles and grubs.

Q.4. Explain the role of forest in maintaining the balance between oxygen and carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Ans. Plants release oxygen in the atmosphere during the process of photosynthesis. This oxygen is inhaled by the animals for respiration. During respiration, they release carbon-dioxide which is absorbed by plants. In this way the oxygen and carbon dioxide cycle goes on. Since forests contain a large number of plants, they help much in this cycle and maintain balance in nature.

Q.5. Explain why there is no waste in a forest.
Ans. There is no waste in the forest because decomposers convert all the dead bodies of the plants and animals into the humus which gets added to the soil. Thus, no waste remains.

Q.6. List five products we get from forests.
Ans. (i) We get medicines from forests.
(ii) We get gum from forests.
(iii) We get wood which is used for many purposes like making furniture, paper etc.
(iv) We get food for animals from forests.
(v) We get sealing wax from forests.

Q.7.Fill in the blank:
(a) The insects, butterflies, honeybees and birds help flowering plants in .
(b) A forest is a purifier of and .
(c) Herbs form the layer in the forest.
(d) The decaying leaves and animal droppings in a forest enrich the .
Ans. (a) pollination (b) water, air (c) lowest (d) soil as humus.

Q.8. Why should we worry about the conditions and issues related to forests far from us?
Ans. We should be worried about deforestation as it would lead to floods, increase in earth’s temperature, decreasing animals habitats and soil erosion. Damage to forests directly or indirectly affects human habitat and environment so it must be a matter of concern among us.

Q.9. Explain why there is a need of variety of animals and plants in a forest.
Ans. All plants and animals sustain the forest life and also C02 – 02 cycle goes on due to animals and plants. Animals convert the dead and decaying matters into humus and increase the fertility of soil, thus enhancing plant growth. All food chains and food webs need variety of plants and animals.

Q.10. In fig. 1 7.15 the artist has forgotten to put the labels and directions on the arrows. Mark the directions on the arrows and label the diagram using the following labels: clouds, rain, atmosphere, cabon dioxide, oxygen, plants, animals, soil, roots, water table.
NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 17 Forests Our Lifeline Q10

Q.11.Which of the following is not a forest product?
(i) Gum (ii) Plywood (iii) Sealing wax (iv) Kerosene
Ans.(iv) Kerosene

Q.12.Which of the following statements is not correct?
(i) Forests protect the soil from erosion.
(ii) Plants and animals in a forest are not dependent on one another.
(iii) Forests influence the climate and water cycle.
(iu) Soil helps forests to grow and regenerate.
Ans.(ii) Plants and animals in a forest are not dependent on one another.

Q.13.Micro-organisms act upon the dead plants to produce
(i) sand (ii) mushrooms (iii) humus (iu) wood
Ans. (i) Humus

Read More

Chapter – 16 Water A Precious Resource | Class 7th | NCERT Science Solutions | Edugrown

NCERT solutions for Class 7 Science have been provided below to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using a logical approach and methodology. CBSE Class 7th Science solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the NCERT Class 7 Science textbook.

Chapter -16 Water A Precious Resource

Q.1. Mark ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if it is false:
(a) The freshwater stored in the ground is much more than that present in the rivers and lakes of the world. (T/F)


(b) Water shortage is a problem faced only by people living in rural areas. (T/F


(c) Water from rivers is the only source for irrigation in the fields. (T/F)
(d) Rain is the ultimate source of water. (T/F)

Ans. (a) T (b) F (c) F (d) T

Q.2. Explain how groundwater is recharged.
Ans. The groundwater gets recharged through the process of infiltration. Infiltration means seeping of water from rivers and lakes into the empty spaces and cracks deep below the ground.

Q.3.There are ten tubewells in a lane of fifty houses. What could be the long-term impact on the water table?
Ans.The effect on the water table depends on the replenishment of underground water. Only five families will share a tubewell, the water used for daily domestic purposes will not effect the water table. But if there is shortage of rains, the water used by the family will not replenished and water table will fall down.

Q.4.You have been asked to maintain a garden. How will you minimise the use of water? „
Ans.To minimise the wastage of water we will use the drip irrigation which throws the water at the base of plants. We will check the leakages in the water pipes and arrange small pits for rainwater harvesting. The collected rainwater will be used later.

Q.5.Explain the factors responsible for the depletion of water table.
Ans.Various factors responsible for the depletion of water table are:
(i) Increased population: Demand of water has been increased by the increased population. As the number of humans increase, the consumption of water also increases.
(ii) Increasing industries: All industries need water. As the number of human population increase, the number of industries are also increased which definitely increases the consumption of water.


(iii) Lack of water conservation techniques: Main source of water on earth and for the underground water is rain. The water of the rain, if conserved can increase the ground water level. But this is not done due to lack of water conservative techniques.
(iv) Agricultural activities: India is a country which depends on agriculture. The land used for cultivation has increased. So, the consumption of water for agriculture has increased. Irregular rainfall has increased the consumption of groundwater. This has increased the depletion of groundwater.

Q.6.Fill in the blanks with the appropriate answers: .
(a) People obtain groundwater through and .
(b) Three forms of water are solid, and .
(c) The water bearing layer of the earth is .
(d) The process of water seepage into the ground is called .
Ans.(a) wells, hand pumps
(b) liquid, gas
(c) aquifer
(d) infiltration

Q.7.Which one of the following is not responsible for water shortage?
(i) Rapid growth of industries
(ii) Increasing population
(iii) Heavy rainfall
(iv) Mismanagement of water resources
Ans.(iii) heavy rainfall

Q.8.Choose the correct option. The total water
(i) in the lakes and rivers of the world remains constant.
(ii) under the ground remains constant.
(iii) in the seas’and oceans of the world remains constant.
(iv) of the world remains constant.
Ans.(iv) of the world remains constant.

Q.9.Make a sketch shoyving groundwater and water table. Label it.
Ans
NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 16 Water A Precious Resource Q9

Read More

Chapter – 15 Light | Class 7th | NCERT Science Solutions | Edugrown

NCERT solutions for Class 7 Science have been provided below to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using a logical approach and methodology. CBSE Class 7th Science solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the NCERT Class 7 Science textbook.

Chapter -15 Light

Q.1.Fill in the blanks:
(a) An image that cannot be obtained on a screen is called ___________ .
(b) Image formed by a convex is __________ always virtual and smaller in size.


(c) An image formed by a __________ mirror is always of the same size as that of the object.


(d) An image which can be obtained on a screen is called a __________ image.
(e) An image formed by a concave __________ cannot be obtained on a screen.
Ans.(a) virtual image (b) mirror (c) plane (d) real (e) lens

Q.2.Mark ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if it is false:
(a) We can obtain an enlarged and erect image by a convex mirror. (T/F)
(b) A concave lens always form a virtual image. (T/F)
(c) We can obtain a real, enlarged and inverted image by a concave mirror. (T/F)
(d) A real image cannot be obtained on a screen. (T/F)
(e) A concave mirror always form a real image. (T/F)
Ans. a) F (b) T (c) T (d) F (e) F

Q.3. Match the items given in Column I with one or more items of Column II
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 15 Light Q3
Ans.
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 15 Light Q3.1

Q.4.State the characteristics of the image formed by a plane mirror.
Ans.(i) Plane mirror forms an erect image.
(ii) It forms a virtual image.
(iii) Size of the image is same as that of the object.
(iv)Image is formed at the same distance behind the mirror as the object stands in front of it.
(v) Image formed is a laterally inverted image i.e., right hand side of the object seems to be the left hand side and vice-versa.

Q.5.Find out the letters of English alphabet or any other language known to you in which the image formed in a plane mirror appears exactly like the letter itself. Discuss your findings.
Ans.Letters like A, H, I, M, O, T, U ,V, W etc. appear same when seen through a plane mirror

Q.6.What is a virtual image? Give one situation where a virtual image is formed.
Ans.The image which cannot be taken on a screen is called virtual image. When some object is placed very close to the concave mirror we don’t get any image on the white screen placed behind the mirror. Such image is called virtual image.

Q.7. State two differences between a convex and a concave lens.
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 15 Light Q7

Q.8. Give one use each of a concave and a convex mirror.
Ans. Use of concave mirror:
Concave mirror is used by dentists to examine the teeth.
Use of convex mirror:
Convex mirror is used as side view mirror in vehicles

Q.9. Which type of mirror can form a real image?
Ans. Concave mirror can form a real image.

Q.10. Which type of lens forms always a virtual image?
Ans. Concave lens always forms a virtual image.

Choose the correct option in Questions 11-13:

Q.11. A virtual image larger than the object can be produced by a
(i) concave lens (ii) concave mirror (iii) convex mirror (iv) plane mirror

Ans. (ii) concave mirror

Q.12. David is observing his image in a plane mirror. Die distance between the mirror and his image is 4 m. If he moves 1 m towards the mirror, then the distance between David and his image will be
(i) 3 m (ii) 5 m (iii) 6 m (iv) 8 m

Ans. (iii) 6 m

Q.13. The rear view mirror of a car is a plane mirror. A driver is reversing his car at a speed of 2 m/s. The driver sees in his rear mew mirror the image of a truck parked behind his car. The speed at which the image of the truck appears to approach the driver will be
(i) 1 m/s (ii) 2 m/s (iii) 4 m/s {iv) 8 m/s

Ans. (ii) 4 m/s

Read More

Chapter – 14 Electric Current and its Effects | Class 7th | NCERT Science Solutions | Edugrown

NCERT solutions for Class 7 Science have been provided below to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using a logical approach and methodology. CBSE Class 7th Science solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the NCERT Class 7 Science textbook.

Chapter - 14 Electric Current and its Effects

Q.1.Draw in your notebook the symbols to represent the following components of electrical circuits: connecting wires, switch in the ‘OFF’ position, bulb, cell, switch in the ‘ON’ position and battery.
Ans.
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and its Effects Q1

Q.2.Draw the circuit diagram to represent the circuit shown in fig. 14.9.
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and its Effects Q2
Ans.
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and its Effects Q2.1

Q.3.Fig. 14.11 shows four cells fixed on a board. Draw lines to indicate how you will connect their terminals with wires to make a battery of four cells.
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and its Effects Q3
Ans.
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and its Effects Q3.1

Q.4.The bulb in the circuit shown in fig. 14.13 does not glow. Can you identify the problem? Make necessary changes in the circuit to make the bulb glow.
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and its Effects Q4
Ans.Problem in this circuit is the combination of two cells. In the circuit positive terminal of one cell should be connected with negative terminal of other to make the bulb glow

NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and its Effects Q4.1

Q.5. Name any two effects of electric current.
Ans. Electric current has the following effect :
(i) Electric current can give rise to heating and lighting.
(ii) Electric current can convert a straight conductor into a temporary magnet.

Q.6.When the current is switched on through a wire, a compass needle kept nearby gets deflected from its north-south position. Explain.
Ans. When current is passed through the wire, it deflects the compass near it from its north-south position like a magnet. This is called magnetic effect of the current. As we know that needle of the compass is made up of a thin magnet. When this needle comes in contact with another magnet then the like poles of the magnet repel each other and opposite poles attract each other. So the deflection is seen in the needle. In this case the wire behaves like a magnet and causes deflection in needle of the compass.

Q.7.Will the compass needle show deflection when the switch in the circuit shown by fig. 14.15 is closed?
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and its Effects Q7
Ans. No, because there is no source of electric current in this circuit, i.e., there is no battery.

Q.8.Fill in the blanks:
(a) Longer line in the symbol for a cell represents its ___________terminal
(b) The combination of two or more cells is called a ____________.
(c) When current is switched ‘on’ in a room heater, it ___________.
(d) The safety device based on the heating effect of electric current is called a _____________.

Ans.(a) positive (b) battery (c) becomes red hot and emits heat (d) fuse.

Q.9.Mark ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ it is a false:
(a) To make a battery of two cells, the negative terminal of one cell is connected to the negative terminal of the other cell. [T/F]


(b) When the electric current through the fuse exceeds a certain limit , the fuse wire melts and breaks. [T/F]
(c) An electromagnet does not aatract a piece of iron. [T/F]
(d) An electric bell has an electromagnet. [T/F]
Ans. (a) F (b) T (c) F (d) T

Q.10. Do you think an electromagnet can be used for separating plastic bags from a garbage heap? Explain.
Ans. No, the plastic bags do not get attracted by the magnet, so they cannot be separated by an electromagnet. Plastic bags are not magnetic materials, only magnetic materials like iron can be attracted by the magnet.

Q.ll. An electrician is carrying out some repairs in your house. He wants to replace a fuse by a piece of wire. Would you agree? Give reasons for your response.
Ans. No, we would not agree to allow to replace the fuse by a wire. Wires in the fuses are of specific melting points. So wd should always use ISI marked fuses in our houses to prevent short circuits.

Q.12.Zubeda made an electric circuit using a cell holder shown in fig. 14.16, a switch and a bulb. When she put the switch in the ‘ON’ position, the bulb did not glow. Help Zubeda in identifying the possible defects in the circuit
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and its Effects Q12
Ans. It is important to put the cells in right series. The positive terminal of the first cell should be connected with negative terminal of the second cell. The switch should be closed properly and bulb should not be fused. If Zubeda will check these then the bulb will certainly glow.

Q.13. In the circuit shown in fig. 14.17.
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and its Effects Q13
Would any of the bulb glow when the switch is in the ‘OFF’ position?
What will be the order in which the bulbs A, B and C will glow when the switch is moved to the ‘ON’ position?

Ans. No bulb will glow.
All bulbs will glow simultaneously.

Read More

Chapter – 13 Motion and Time | Class 7th | NCERT Science Solutions | Edugrown

NCERT solutions for Class 7 Science have been provided below to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using a logical approach and methodology. CBSE Class 7th Science solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the NCERT Class 7 Science textbook.

Chapter - 13 Motion and Time

Q.1.Classify the following as motion along a straight line, circular or oscillatory motion :
(i) Motion of your hands while running.
(ii) Motion of a horse pulling a cart on a straight road.
(iii) Motion of a child in a merry-go-round. •
(iv) Motion of a child on a see-saw.
(v) Motion of the hammer of an electric bell.
(vi) Motion of a train on a straight bridge.
Ans.(i) Oscillatory motion
(ii) Linear motion
(iii) Circular motion
(iv) Oscillatory motion
(v) Oscillatory motion
(vi) Linear motion

Q.2.Which of the following are not correct?
(i) The basic unit of time is second.
(ii) Every object moves with a constant speed.
(iii) Distances between two cities are measured in kilometers.
(iv) The time period of a given pendulum is not constant.
(v) The speed of a train is expressed in m/h
Ans. (ii), (iv), (v)

 

Q.3.A simple pendulum takes 32s to complete 20 oscillations, what is the time period of the pendulum?
Ans. Time taken to complete 20 oscillations = 32 s
Time taken to complete 1 oscillation = 32/20 s = 1.6 s
Time period of a pendulum is time taken by it to complete 1 oscillation.
Time period of pendulum is 1.6 second

Q.4.The distance between two stations is 240 km. A train takes 4 hours to cover this distance. Calculate the speed of the train.
Ans.Distance = 240 km
Time taken = 4 hours
Speed =Distance covered/time taken = 240km/4 hammer
=60 km/h
Speed of train =60 km/h

Q.5.The odometer of a car reads 57321.0 km when the clock shows the time 08:30 AM. What is the distance moved by the car, if at 08:50 AM, the odometer reading has changed to 57336.0 km? Calculate the speed of the car in km/min during this time. Express the speed in km/h also.
Ans.Distance = 57336.0 km – 57321 km =15 km
Speed in km/min =15km/20 min = 3/4 km/min

Speed in km/hr =15 km/1/3 hr
=(15 x 3) km/hr
=45 km/hr.

Q.6.Salma takes 15 minutes from her house to reach her school on a bicycle. If the bicycle has a speed of 2 m/min, calculate the distance between her house and the school.
Ans.Time taken =15 min
Speed = 2 m/min .
Distance = speed x time = 2 x 15 = 30 m
Distance between Salma’s school and her house is 30 m.

Q.7.Show the shape of the distance-time graph for the motion in the following cases :
(i) A car moving with a constant speed.
(ii) A car parked on a side road
Ans.
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 13 Motion and Time Q7

Q.8. Which of the following relations is correct?
(i) Speed = Distance Time
(ii) Speed = Distance/Time
(iii)Speed – Time/Distance
(iv)Speed = 1/Distance Time
Ans. (ii) Speed = Distance/Time is correct

Q.9.The basic unit of speed is:
(i) km/min (ii) m/min (iii) km/h (iv) m/s
Ans. (iv) m/s

Q.10.A car moves with a speed of 40 km/h for 15 minutes and then with a speed of 60 km/h for the next 15 minutes. The total distance covered by the car is:
(i) 100 km (ii) 25 km (iii) 15 km (iv) 10 km
Ans.(ii) 25 km
Q.11.Suppose the two photographs, shown in fig. 13.1 and fig. 13.2 of NCERT had been taken at an interval of 10 seconds. If a distance of 100 metres is shown by 1 cm in these photographs, calculate the speed of the blue car.
Ans.0.1 cm/s or 10 m/s

Q.12.Fig 13.10 shows the distance-time graph for the motion of two vehicles A and B. Which one of them is moving faster?
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 13 Motion and Time Q12

Ans. ‘A’ is moving faster.

Q.13.Which of the following distance-time graphs shows a truck moving with speed which is not constant?
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 13 Motion and Time Q13

Ans. (iii)

Read More

Chapter – 12 Reproduction in Plants | Class 7th | NCERT Science Solutions | Edugrown

NCERT solutions for Class 7 Science have been provided below to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using a logical approach and methodology. CBSE Class 7th Science solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the NCERT Class 7 Science textbook.

Chapter - 12 Reproduction in Plants

Q.1.Fill in the blanks:
(a) Production of new individuals from the vegetative part of parent is called ___________. 
(b) A flower may have either male or female reproductive parts. Such a flower is called _______.


(c) The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same or of


another flower of the same kind is known as __________.
(d) The fusion of male and female gametes is termed as ____________ .
(e) Seed dispersal takes place by means of ________ and __________.


Ans. (a) vegetative reproduction (b) unisexual flower (c) pollination (d) fertilization (e) wind, water

Q.2. Describe the different methods of asexual reproduction. Give examples.
Ans. Different methods of asexual reproduction are:
(a) Binary Fission: This process takes place in unicellular organisms. Parent cell elongates and gets divided into two identical daughter cells. Each daughter cell grows into an independent adult.
(b) Endospore Formation: In this method the spore wall is formed around a bacterial cell to form an endospore. This endospore germinates to form an active bacterium under favourable conditions.
(c) Fragmentation: In this process, body of the organism breaks up into two parts. Then each part grows into a new filament thus forming two organisms from a single one.
(d) Spore Formation: The spores are tiny spherical unicellular structures protected by thick wall. The spores are stored in a hard outer covering and this is called sporangium. Under favourable conditions the hard cover breaks and spores spread for germination.
(e) Budding: In yeast, new organisms are produced by the bud formation from the parent organism. After growing to full size, the bud gets detached and forms a new independent individual.
(f) Vegetative propagation: When vegetative parts of a plant like stems, leaves and root etc., give rise to new ones, it is.called vegetative propagation.

Q.3. Explain what you understand by sexual reproduction.
Ans.Sexual reproduction means involvement of two parents in the process of reproduction. It is found mainly in higher plants where male gamete and female gamete fuse to form a zygote. These zygotes develop into individuals which are not identical. Offsprings inherit the characteristics of both the parents. In sexual reproduction both parents survive after the process of reproduction.

Q.4. State the main difference between asexual and sexual reproduction.
Ans.
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants Q4

Q.5.Sketch the reproductive parts of a flower.
Ans.
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants Q5

Q.6.Explain the difference between self-pollination and cross-pollination
Ans.
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants Q6

Q.7.How does the process of fertilization take place in flowers?
Ans.When the pollen grain reaches the stigma of a same species flower, it starts
growing out into the pollen tube of the stigma. This tube continues to grow inside the style till it reaches the ovule. Male cells are released into the ovule for the fertilization with the female egg cell and thus the zygote is formed. After this process of fertilization, the ovary develops into fruit and ovule into seeds.

Q.8.Describe the various ways by which seeds are dispersed.
Ans. Following are the ways in which the seeds are dispersed:
(i) Some light seeds like that of madar, which are hairy, dry and small are carried away by the wind to different places.
(ii) Spiny seeds and fruits like that of xanthium and urena, stick to the clothes of passers by and animals. These seeds are carried away by these agents to different places.
(iii) In some plants having heavy seeds like that of coconut, water acts as the dispersing agents.
(iv) Some seeds are dispersed with the fruit burst like in case of balsam and castor.

Q.9.Match items in Column I with those in Column II
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants Q9
Ans
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants Q9.1

Q.10. Tick (%/) the correct answer:
(a) The reproductive part of a plant is the
(i) leaf (ii) stem (iii) root (iv) flower
(b) The process of fusion of the male and the female gametes is called
(i) fertilisation (ii) pollination (iii) reproduction (iv) seed formation
c) Mature ovary forms the
(i) seed (ii) stamen (iii) pistil (iv) fruit
(d) A spore producing plant is
(i) rose (ii) bread mould (iii) potato (iv) ginger
(e) Bryophyllum can be reproduced by its
(i) stem (ii) leaves (iii) roots (iv) flower

Ans.(a) (iv) flower (b) (i) fertilisation (c) (iv) fruit (d) (ii) bread mould (e) (ii) leaves

Read More

Chapter – 11 Transportation in Animals and Plants | Class 7th | NCERT Science Solutions | Edugrown

NCERT solutions for Class 7 Science have been provided below to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using a logical approach and methodology. CBSE Class 7th Science solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the NCERT Class 7 Science textbook.

Chapter - 11 Transportation in Animals and Plants

Q.1.Match structures given in Column I with functions given in Column II.
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 11 Transportation in Animals and Plants Q1
Ans.
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 11 Transportation in Animals and Plants Q1.1

Q.2.-Fill in the blanks :
(i) The blood from the heart is transported to all parts of the body by the _____________
(ii) Haemoglobin is present in ___________ cells.
(iii) Arteries and veins are joined by a network of ___________ .
(iv) The rhythmic expansion and contraction of the heart is called ___________
(v) The main excretory product in human beings is ___________
(vi) Sweat contains water and .
(vii) Kidneys eliminate the waste materials in the liquid form called .
(viii) Water reaches great heights in the trees because of suction pull caused by .

Ans.(i) arteries (ii) red blood cells • (in) capillaries (iv) heartbeat (v) urea (vi) salts (vii) urine (viii) transpiration.

Q.3.Choose the correct options:
(a) In plants, water is transported through
(i) Xylem (ii) Phloem (iii) Stomata (iv) Root hair
(b) Water absorption through roots can be increased by keeping the plants
(i) In the shade (ii) in dim light (iii) under the fan (iv) covered with a polythene bag

Ans.(a) (i) Xylem {b) (iii) under the fan

Q.4.Why is transport of materials necessary in a plant or an animal? Explain.
Ans.Transport of materials is necessary for plants or animals because due to it the nutrients and oxygen are made available to all the parts of the body. If the transport of necessary nutrients and oxygen does not take place in the body, the body will not be able to survive.

Q.5.What will happen if there are no platelets in the blood?
Ans.The blood platelets are responsible for the clotting of the blood. When some injury occurs blood starts flowing. But it clots on its own. If there are no platelets, the blood will not be able to clot and keep on flowing. Huge loss of blood ultimately causes death.

Q.6.What are stomata? Give two junctions of stomata.
Ans.There are small openings on the lower surface of the leaves. These pores are called stomata. These openings are surrounded with guard cells.
Functions of stomata:
1. It helps in the transpiration of water, i.e., the loss of excess water from the plant.
2. Loss of water from the stomata creates an upward pull, i.e., suction pull which helps in absorption of water from the roots.
3. They help in exchange of gases.

Q.7.Does transpiration serve any useful function in plants? Explain.
Ans.(i) It helps to enhance the absorption of water and dissolved minerals by creation of a suction pull.
(ii) It helps in getting rid of the excess water.
(iii) It helps in transport of water and minerals to leaves and leaves use the water for photosynthesis. ‘
(iv)It produces a cooling effect on the plant

Q.8.What are the components of blood?
Ans.There are four components of blood:
(i) Plasma is a liquid part of blood which is yellowish in colour and contain 90% water. It contains food, enzymes, wastes and proteins etc
(ii) Red blood cells are disc shaped cells containing red coloured pigment called haemoglobin in it. Haemoglobin helps in transportation of oxygen.
(iii) White blood cells are the fighting cells which protect us against bacteria and foreign materials causing infections.
(iv) Platelets help in clotting of the blood

Q.9.Why is blood needed by all the parts of a body?
Ans. Blood is needed by all the parts because it contains the digested food and oxygen in it. It supplies the oxygen and digested food to various parts of the body to provide essential energy to them which helps the body to perform various functions

Q.10.What makes the blood look red?
Ans. A red pigment called haemoglobin gives the blood its red colour. This pigment helps in carrying oxygen to various parts of the body by blood

Q.11.Describe the function of the heart.
Ans. The right auricle and ventricle receive blood with carbon dioxide from all parts of the body. The collected blood is then pumped to the lungs for the purification. In lungs, the exchange of gases takes place and purified blood is sent back to left auricle. It pumps it to the left ventricle, which in turn pumps off the purified blood to all parts of body through arteries

Q.12.Why is it necessary to excrete waste products?
Ans. Certain waste and toxic products are formed during functioning of body cells. The waste products like urea etc. are toxic. When these toxic materials are not removed from the body, they get mixed with blood and can damage the cells of body. It is necessary to remove such poisonous waste materials from our body.

Q.13.Draw a diagram of the human excretory system and label the various parts.
Ans.
NCERT Solutions Class 7 Science Chapter 11 Transportation in Animals and Plants Q13

Read More