Author Archives: Priyanka

NCERT MCQ ON CONSTITUTIONAL DESIGN

Question 1: Who amongst the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly of India?

• a) Mahatma Gandhi
• b) Dr Rajendra Prasad
• c) Dr B. R. Ambedkar
• d) H. C. Mukherjee

Answer: Mahatma Gandhi

Question 2: Which of these is a provision that a democratic constitution does not have ?

• a) Name of the head of the state.
• b) Powers of the head of the state.
• c) Powers of the legislature.
• d) Name of the country.

Answer: Name of the head of the state.

Question 3: Which of these was the most salient underlying conflict in the making of a democratic constitution in South Africa?

• a) Between the white minority and the black majority.
• b) Between South Africa and its neighbors.
• c) Between men and women.
• d) Between the colored minority and the black majority.

Answer: Between the white minority and the black majority.

Question 4: Which among the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution?

• a) Double citizenship
• b) Parliamentary form of government
• c) Federal form of government
• d) A written constitution

Answer: Double citizenship

Question 5: India is a secular state because

• a) all of the above
• b) there is no state religion
• c) every citizen has the right to adopt and practice any religion
• d) no discrimination can be made among citizens on the basis of religion

Answer: all of the above

Question 6: The Constitution of India is

• a) partly flexible and partly rigid
• b) flexible
• c) rigid
• d) none of these

Answer: partly flexible and partly rigid

Question 7: The Preamble to the Constitution of India declares India to be a

• a) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
• b) Sovereign, Democratic Republic
• c) Sovereign, Socialist, Democratic, Republic
• d) None of the above

Answer: Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic

Question 8: Mahatma Gandhi’s vision about the Indian Constitution was published in which magazine?

• a) Young India
• b) Discovery of India
• c) New India
• d) Indian Gazette

Answer: Young India

Question 9: The first captain of the National Hockey Team who was also the member of the Constituent Assembly was?

• a) Jaipal Singh
• b) Baldev Singh
• c) Somnath Lahiri
• d) K. M. Munshi

Answer: Jaipal Singh

Question 10: When did the Constituent Assembly adopt the Constitution of India?

• a) 26th November, 1949
• b) 15th August, 1947
• c) 26th January, 1950
• d) 26th January, 1930

Answer: 26th November, 1949

Question 11: How many members did the Constituent Assembly of India have?

• a) 299
• b) 199
• c) 399
• d) 279

Answer: 299

Question 12: Who prepared the Constitution for India in 1928?

• a) Motilal Nehru
• b) B. R. Ambedkar
• c) Dr Rajendra Prasad
• d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: Motilal Nehru

Question 13: When did the Indian Constitution come into force?

• a) 26th January, 1950
• b) 26th November, 1949
• c) 15th August, 1947
• d) 26th January, 1930

Answer: 26th January, 1950

Question 14: Which of the following days is celebrated to mark the enforcement of the Indian Constitution?

• a) Republic Day
• b) Independence Day
• c) Gandhi Jayanti
• d) Constitution Enforcement Day

Answer: Republic Day

Question15 : Who was the President of the Indian Constituent Assembly?

• a) Dr Rajendra Prasad
• b) Motilal Nehru
• c) Sarojini Naidu
• d) B. R. Ambedkar

Answer: Dr Rajendra Prasad

NCERT MCQ ON WHAT IS DEMOCRACY? WHY DEMOCRACY?

Question 1. When did Mexico become independent?
(a) 1979
(b) 1981
(c) 1980
(d) 1982

Answer :  C

Question 2. In any society, people are bound to have difference of opinions and interests. Which is a better way of dealing with these conflicts?
(a) By brutal power exercised by the government
(b) By allowing one group to dictate terms to others
(c) By providing equal opportunities to all
(d) By opting for a strong leader who should have all the powers.

Answer :  C

Question 3. Zimbabwe attained independence from White minority rule in …….?
(a) 1980
(b) 1975
(c) 1981
(d) 1977

Answer :  A

Question 4. In which of these cases can democracy not provide a complete solution?
(a) Removing poverty completely
(b) Providing education to all
(c) Giving jobs to all
(d) All of the above

Answer :  D

Question 5. Which of these is permitted under the Rule of Law?
(a) Prime Minister can be punished for violating the Constitution.
(b) Police has a right to kill anybody.
(c) Women can be paid lesser salaries.
(d) President can rule for as long as he wants.

Answer :  A

Question 6. A democratic government has to respect some rules after winning the elections. Which of these points is not a part of those rules?
(a) Respecting guarantees given to the minorities.
(b) Every major decision has to go through a series of consultations.
(c) Office-bearers are not accountable.
(d) Office-bearers have some responsibilities.

Answer :  C

Question 7. Which party has ruled Zimbabwe since its independence and who is its ruler?
(a) ZANU-PF, Robert Mugabe
(b) ZANU-PF, Kenneth Kaunda
(c) Zimbabwe Freedom Party, Nelson Mandela
(d) Zimbabwe Party, P Johnson

Answer :  A

Question 8. Which of these is an example of perfect democracy?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) India
(d) None of the above

Answer :  D

Question 9. When was Mugabe forced out of office?
(a) 2018
(b) 2017
(c) 2016
(d) 2019

Answer :  B

Question 10. Democracy is based on….?
(a) Discussions and meetings are amongst few
(b) Discussions and meetings occur when a number of people put their heads together,
(c) No discussions
(d) Unruly crowded meetings with no formal decision

Answer :  B

Question 11. Which party has ruled Zimbabwe since its independence and who is its ruler?
(a) ZANU-PF, Robert Mugabe
(b) ZANU-PF, Kenneth Kaunda
(c) Zimbabwe Freedom Party, Nelson Mandela
(d) Zimbabwe Party, P Johnson

Answer :  A

Question 12. How many members are elected to the National People’s Congress from all over China?
(a) 3050
(b) 3000
(c) 4000
(d) 2000

Answer :  B

Question 13. When did Zimbabwe attain independence and from whom?
(a) 1970, from Black minority rule
(b) 1880, from White minority rule
(c) 1980, from Americans
(d) 1980, from White minority rule

Answer :  D

Question 14. What is Constitutional Law?
(a) Provisions given in the Constitution
(b) Law to make Constitution
(c) Law to set up Constituent Assembly
(d) none of the above

Answer :  A

Question15 . In which period did China face one of the worst famines that have occurred in the world?
(a) 1932-36
(b) 1958-61
(c) 2001-2002
(d) 2004-2007

Answer :  B

NCERT MCQ ON POPULATION

Question 1.
Which India state has lowest density of population:
(a) Punjab
(b) Chennai
(c) West Bengal
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (d) Arunachal Pradesh

Question 2.
……………. has the highest literacy rate:
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Bangalore
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (a) Kerala

Question 3.
How much portion of population is engaged in secondary activities?
(a) 12%
(b) 10%
(c) 18%
(d) 16%

Answer: (a) 12%

Question 4.
What is the literacy rate in Gujarat according to Censes 2001?
(a) 68.24%
(b) 69.97%
(c) 63.25%
(d) 65.93%

Answer: (b) 69.97%

Question 5.
The greatest literacy rate, among the four given states is of:
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Orissa
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (c) Chhattisgarh

Question 6.
Country’s human resources are called?
(a) Density
(b) Man-power
(c) Census
(d) Age composition

Answer: (b) Man-power

Question 7.
India is the ……………. most populated country in the world.
(a) Fifth
(b) First
(c) Second
(d) Third

Answer: (c) Second

Question 8.
……………. is the state where the density of the population is 100 to 200 persons per sq. km.
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) West Bengal
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (a) Madhya Pradesh

Question 9.
Name the union territory which has highest population density:
(a) Delhi
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Punjab
(d) Port Blair

Answer: (a) Delhi

Question 10.
Which Indian state has highest density of population:
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) West Bengal
(d) Haryana

Answer: (c) West Bengal

Question 11.
What was India’s population in 1951?
(a) 361 million
(b) 265 million
(c) 295 million
(d) 461 million

Answer: (a) 361 million

Question 12.
What is the literacy rate in India?
(a) 94%
(b) 40%
(c) Nearly 100%
(d) 64-84%

Answer: (d) 64-84%

Question 13.
A large proportion of children in a population is result of:
(a) High birth rate
(b) High life expectancy
(c) High death rate
(d) More married couple

Answer: (a) High birth rate

Question 14.
According to census 2001, a literate person is one who:
(a) Can read and write his/her name
(b) Can write his/her name
(c) is 7 years old and can read, and write any language with understanding
(d) Knows the 3 ‘Rs’.

Answer: (c) is 7 years old and can read, and write any language with understanding

Question 15.
The magnitude of population refers to:
(a) The total population of an area
(b) The number of person added each year
(c) The rate at which the population increases
(d) The number of females per thousand males

Answer: (b) The number of person added each year

NCERT MCQ ON NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILDLIFE

1. To which one of the following types of vegetation does rubber belong to?
(a) Tundra
(b) Tidal
(c) Himalayan
(d) Tropical Evergreen

Ans. (d) Tropical Evergreen

2. Cinchona trees are found in the areas of rainfall more than
(a) 100 cm
(b) 50 cm
(c) 70 cm
(d) less than 50 cm

Ans. (a) 100 cm

3 In which of the following state is the Similipal bio-reserve located?
(a) Punjab
(b) Delhi
(c) Orissa
(d) West Bengal

Ans. (c) Orissa

4. Which one of the following bio-re serves of India is not included in the world network of bioreserve?
(a) Manas
(b) Dihang-Dibang
(c) Gulf of Mannar
(d) Nanda devi

Ans. (b) Dihang-Dibang.

5. Flora means
(a) plants
(b) animals
(c) both
(d) none of the above.

Ans. (a) plants

6. Fauna means
(a) plants
(b) animals
(c) both
(d) none of the above.

Ans. (b) animals.

7. A very large ecosystem on land having distinct types of vegetation and animal life is called
(a) plants
(b) precipitation
(c) biome
(d) none of the above

Ans. (c) biome.

8. Which of the following are tropical rainforest?
(a) ebony
(b) mahogany
(c) cinchona
(d) all of the above

Ans. (d) all of the above

9. Bamboos Sai system are all trees found in which type of forests?
(a) tropical rainforest
(b) tropical deciduous forest
(c) mangrove forests
(d) montane forests.

Ans. (b) tropical deciduous forest

10. In which year wildlife protection act was implemented in India?
(a) 1972
(b) 1986
(c) 1947
(d) 2015

Ans. (a) 1972.

11. Which type of trees found in mangrove forest?
(a) coconut
(b) sundari trees
(c) keora, agar
(d) all of the above.

Ans. (d) all of the above.

12. Royal Bengal tiger is the famous animal in which forest?
(a) tropical rainforest
(b) tropical deciduous forest
(c) mangrove forests
(d) montane forests.

Ans. (c) mangrove forests.

13. The thorn forests and scrubs are found in a region where annual rainfall is
(a) 10 to 100cm
(b) more than 100cm
(c) less than 10cm
(d) none of the above.

Ans. (c) less than 10cm.

14. Asiatic lions are found in
(a) Thar desert
(b) Himalayan forest
(c) Similipal
(d) Gir forest

Ans. (d) Gir forests

15. How many biosphere reserves are present in our country?
(a) 19
(b) 18
(c) 35
(d) 10

Ans. (b) 18

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NCERT MCQ ON CLIMATE

Question 1.
Which is the coldest place in India?
(a) Dras
(b) Srinagar
(c) Shillong
(d) Bikaner

Answer: (a) Dras

Question 2.
The word monsoon is derived from a word which literally means which of the following?
(a) Seasons
(b) Wind pattern
(c) Change
(d) Mausumbi

Answer: (a) Seasons

Question 3.
Which of the following causes rainfall in West Bengal during the hot weather season?
(a) Mango showers
(b) Kal Baishakhi
(c) Southwest monsoon
(d) Retreating Monsoon

Answer: (b) Kal Baishakhi

Question 4.
Which of the following is a component of upper air circulation?
(a) North-easterlies
(b) Jet stream
(c) South-west monsoon
(d) Kal Baishakhi

Answer: (b) Jet stream

Question 5.
From which of the following pressure belts do the north-easterly trade winds originate?
(a) Equatorial low pressure belt
(b) Subtropical high pressure belt of the Northern Hemisphere
(c) Subtropical high pressure belt of the Southern Hemisphere
(d) Temperate low pressure belt of the Northern Hemisphere

Answer: (b) Subtropical high pressure belt of the Northern Hemisphere

Question 6.
Which of the following atmospheric conditions govern the climate and associated weather conditions in India?
(a) Pressure and surface winds
(b) Upper air circulation
(c) Western cyclonic disturbances and tropical cyclones
(d) All the above

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 7.
The Indian subcontinent experiences comparatively milder winters as compared to Central Asia due to which of the following factors?
(a) The Tropic of Cancer
(b) The surrounding seas
(c) The Himalayas
(d) Ocean currents

Answer: (c) The Himalayas

Question 8.
Which one of the following is not one of the six major controls of the climate of any place?
(a) Latitude
(b) Temperature
(c) Pressure and wind system
(d) Distance from the sea

Answer: (b) Temperature

Question 9.
Latitude and altitude of a place determine which of the following climatic elements of a place?
(a) Pressure and wind system
(b) Temperature
(c) Rainfall pattern
(d) All the above

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 10.
In which of the following places are houses built on stilts?
(a) Assam
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Goa
(d) Kerala

Answer: (a) Assam

Question 11.
Which one of the following is the driest station?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Leh
(c) Bengaluru
(d) Delhi

Answer: (b) Leh

Question 12.
Which of the following places of India experiences the highest summer temperature?
(a) Pahalgam
(b) Leh
(c) Thiruvananthapuram
(d) Jaisalmer

Answer: (d) Jaisalmer

Question 13.
Which one of the following terms is used for the state of atmosphere over an area at any point of time?
(a) Weather
(b) Winds
(c) Climate
(d) Pressure

Answer: (a) Weather

Question 14.
Which of the following is not an elements of weather and climate?
(a) Atmospheric pressure
(b) Temperature
(c) Humidity
(d) Altitude

Answer: (d) Altitude

Question 15.
The term monsoon is originated from?
(a) German
(b) Hindi
(c) Latin
(d) Arabic

Answer: (d) Arabic

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NCERT MCQ ON DRAINAGE

1. Which one of the following is not a lake created by human beings?

(a) Gobind Sagar

(b) Nizam Sagar

(c) Barapani

(d) Hirakud

Answer  (c) Barapani

2. Which of the following states is not drained by the Godavari river?

(a) Maharashtra

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(c) Andhra Pradesh

(d) Chhattisgarh

Answer  (b) Himachal Pradesh

3. Which of the following affects the self-cleansing capacity of the river?

(a) Aquatic organisms

(b) Drawing of water for irrigation

(c) Hydroelectricity generation

(d) Pollution

Answer   (d) Pollution

4. Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of river Godavari?

(a) Purna

(b) Ghatprabha

(c) Wardha

(d) Pranhita

Answer   (b) Ghatprabha

5. Which one of the following lakes is a salt water lake?           

(a) Sambhar

(b) Dal

(c) Wular

(d) Gobind Sagar

Answer   (a) Sambhar

6. Where are most of the freshwater lakes located ?       

(a) Himalayan region

(b) Rajasthan

(c) Peninsular region

(d) All of the above

Answer   (a) Himalayan region

7. Why have the river banks attracted settlers from ancient times?

(a) Water is a basic natural resource

(b) Rivers provide water for irrigation

(c) Rivers provide facilities for inland navigation

(d) All of the above

Answer   (d) All of the above

8. A river along with its tributaries is known as _______ .

(a) River system

(b) Delta

(c) George

(d) Estuaries

  Answer  (a) River system

9. Which one of the following freshwater lakes is the largest?

(a) Wular

(b) Loktak

(c) Nainital

(d) Dal

  Answer  (a) Wular

10. The river Narmada has its source at

(a) Amarkantak

(b) Vindhya range 

(c) Satpura range

(c) Nainital

(d) All of the above

Answer   (a) Amarkantak

11. Where does the river Indus rise?

(a) Tibet

(b) Himalayan

(c) Kailash

(d) All of the above

Answer  (a) Tibet

12. The Dibang and the Lohit are the tributaries of the river

(a) Mahanadi

(b) Narmada

(c) Godavari

(d) Brahmaputra

Answer   (d) Brahmaputra

13. Lakes are of great value to human beings. Which of the following statements about lakes given below is incorrect?

(a) Helps to regulate the flow of rivers

(b) It results in flooding

(c) Can be used for developing hydel power

(d) Enhances natural beauty

Answer   (b) It results in flooding

14. Which of the following is an artificial lake located in Andhra Pradesh?

(a) Kolleru

(b) Nagarjuna Sagar

(c) Krishnaraja Sagar

(d) Vembanad

  Answer  (b) Nagarjuna Sagar

15. Which of the following is the description of the term drainage?

(a) The area drained by a single river system

(b) The river system of an area

(c) An upland that separates two drainage basins

(d) None of the above

Answer (b) The river system of an area

NCERT MCQ ON PHYSICAL FEATURES OF INDIA

Question 1.
Which islands of India are called Coral Islands?
(a) Lakshadweep
(b) Andaman and Nicobar
(c) both
(d) None of these

Answer: (a) Lakshadweep

Question 2.
The largest delta in the world is:
(a) Ganga Delta
(b) Mahanadi Delta
(c) Sunderban Delta
(d) Godavari

Answer: (c) Sunderban Delta

Question 3.
In which division of the Himalayas are the famous valleys of Kashmir, Kangra and Kullu located?
(a) The Himadri
(b) The Himachal
(c) The Shivaliks
(d) The Duns

Answer: (b) The Himachal

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a mountain pass in the Great Himalayas?
(a) Bara Lapcha La and Shipkila
(b) Nathula
(c) Khyber pass
(d) Jojila and Lipu Lekh

Answer: (c) Khyber pass

Question 5.
Which of the following is the highest peak in India?
(a) Mt. Everest
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Nanga Parbat
(d) Nandadevi

Answer: (b) Kanchenjunga

Question 6.
The Himalayan uplift out of the Tethys Sea and subsidence of the northern flank of the peninsular plateau resulted in the formation of a large basin. Which of the following physical divisions of India was formed due to filling up of this depression?
(a) The Himalayas
(b) The Northern Plains
(c) The Peninsular Plateau
(d) The Coastal Plains

Answer: (b) The Northern Plains

Question 7.
The Himalayas consist of three parallel ranges in its longitudinal extent. Which of the following is the name of the northern-most range?
(a) The Himadri
(b) The Himachal
(c) The Shivaliks
(d) The Purvanchal

Answer: (a) The Himadri

Question 8.
A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as _______.
(a) Coast
(b) Island
(c) Peninsula
(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) Peninsula

Question 9.
Which of the following divisions of India has the oldest landmass?
(a) The Himalayas
(b) The Northern Plains
(c) The Peninsular Plateau
(d) The Indian Desert

Answer: (c) The Peninsular Plateau

Question 10.
According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ when some plates come towards each other, which of the following is formed?
(a) Convergent boundary
(b) Divergent boundary
(c) Transform boundary
(d) Colliding boundary

Answer: (a) Convergent boundary

Question 11.
According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ the movement of the plates result in some geological activity. Which one of the following is not such a geological activity?
(a) Volcanic activity
(b) Folding
(c) Faulting
(d) Glaciation

Answer: (d) Glaciation

Question 12.
Which of the following is a plausible theory presented by Earth scientists to explain the formation of continents and oceans and the various landforms?
(a) Theory of Motion
(b) Theory of Plate Tectonics
(c) Theory of Evolution
(d) Theory of Relativity

Answer: (b) Theory of Plate Tectonics

Question 13.
The longitudinal valleys lying between lesser Himalayas and Shivaliks are known as _______.
(a) Kangra Valley
(b) Patkoi Bum
(c) Passes
(d) Duns

Answer: (d) Duns

Question 14.
A narrow gap in a mountain range providing access to the other side is:
(a) Mound
(b) Pass
(c) Strait
(d) Valley

Answer: (b) Pass

Question 15.
Which two hills are located in the south-east of Eastern Ghats?
(a) Mizo Hills and Naga Hills
(b) Javadi Hills and Shevroy Hills
(c) Patkoi Hills and Manipuri Hills
(d) Mizo Hills and Patkoi Hills

Answer: (b) Javadi Hills and Shevroy Hills

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NCERT MCQ ON INDIA SIZE AND LOCATION

1. What is the latitude extension of India?
(a) 8°4’N to 37°6’N
(b) 8°4’N to 23°30’N
(c) 10°4’N to 23°30’N
(d) 12°4’N to 37°6’N

Ans. (a) 8°4’N to 37°6’N

2. What is the longitude extension of India?
(a) 8°4’N to 37°6’N
(b) 68°7’E to 97°25’E
(c) 23°30’N
(d) none

Ans. (b) 68°7’E to 97°25’E.

3. The tropic of Cancer passes through-
(a) 23°30’S
(b) 23°30’N
(c) 8°4’N
(d) 37°6’N

Ans. (b) 23°30’N

4. Which is the largest country of world in terms of area?
(a) Russia
(b) China
(c) India
(d) Pakistan

Ans. (a) Russia

5. Which is the largest country of world in terms of population?
(a) Russia
(b) China
(c) Pakistan
(d) America

Ans. (b) China

6. India’s rank in the world in terms of area is
(a) 4th
(b) 1st
(c) 6th
(d) 7th

Ans. (d) 7th

7. From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh there is a time lag of how many hours?
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) half
(d) none.

Ans. (a) 2

8. The standard meridian of India passing through –
(a) 82°30’E
(b) 23°30’N
(c) 8°4’N
(d) 37°6’N

Ans. (a) 82°30’E

9. Palk Strait separates India from which country?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Pakistan
(c) China
(d) Bangladesh

Ans. (a) Sri Lanka

10. In India, tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 9

Ans. (c) 8

11. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Orissa
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Tripura.

Ans. (b) Orissa

12. Uttaranchal, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontiers with
(a) China
(b) Bhutan
(c) Nepal
(d) Myanmar.

Ans. (c) Nepal.

13. India’s total area is how much percent of the total geographical area of the world?
(a) 2.9%
(b) 2.4%
(c) 3.6%
(d) 30%

Ans. (b) 2.4%.

14.The capital of Mizoram is-
(a) Imphal
(b) Kohima
(c) Agartala
(d) Aizwal

Answer :  D Aizwal

15. Which geographical feature bounds India’s mainland south of 22°N latitude?
(a) Young Fold Mountains
(b) Sandy Desert
(c) Lava Plateaus
(d) Seas and Ocean

Answer :  D Seas and Ocean

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NCERT MCQ ON CLOTHING : A SOCIAL HISTORY

Question 1: Wearing of which two things created misunderstanding and conflict between the British and the Indians?

• a) The wearing of turban and shoes
• b) The umbrella and gold ornaments
• c) The wearing of saris and dhotis
• d) The wearing of gowns and long skirts

Answer: The wearing of turban and shoes

Question2: When was slavery abolished in Travancore? What did it result in?

• a) 1855, frustration among upper castes
• b) 1865, shortage of labour force
• c) 1867, end of caste system
• d) 1895, permission to Shanar women to cover the upper part of their body

Answer: 1855, frustration among upper castes

Question 3: Why were Shanar women attacked by Nair’s in May 1922?

• a) For using umbrellas
• b) For wearing a tailored blouse
• c) For wearing a cloth across their upper bodies
• d) For wearing gold ornaments

Answer: For using umbrellas

Question 4: Dresses in India were defined by

• a) Both Sumptuary laws and Caste system
• b) Sumptuary laws
• c) Caste system
• d) None of the options

Answer: Both Sumptuary laws and Caste system

Question 5: To some Indians western clothes were a sign of

• a) Both Progress and Modernity
• b) Progress
• c) Modernity
• d) Freedom from poverty

Answer: Both Progress and Modernity

Question 6: Who was the first among the Indians to adopt the western-style clothing?

• a) Parsies
• b) Christians
• c) Gujaratis
• d) Maharashtrians

Answer: Parsies

Question 7: Which of the following were among other important changes that came about for women?

• a) All the options
• b) Trousers became a vital part of western women’s clothing
• c) Women took to cutting their hair short for convenience
• d) As women took to gymnastics and games, they had to wear clothes that did not hamper movement

Answer: All the options

Question 8: Radical changes in women’s clothing came about due to the`

• a) Both World War I and World War II
• b) Russian Revolution
• c) World War I
• d) World War II

Answer: Both World War I and World War II

Question 9: When and where was Rational Dress Society started?

• a) 1881, England
• b) 1880, USA
• c) 1882, France
• d) 1883, Russia

Answer: 1881, England

Question 10: When did women in England start agitating for democratic rights?

• a) 1830s
• b) 1820s
• c) 1840s
• d) 1850s

Answer: 1830s

Question 11: How did clothing play a part in creating the image of frail, submissive women?

• a) All the options
• b) From childhood, girls were tightly laced up
• c) When slightly older, girls had to wear tight fitting corsets
• d) Tightly laced, small waisted women were admired as attractive, elegant and graceful

Answer: All the options

Question 12: In Victorian England why were women from childhood tightly laced up and dressed in stays, because:

• a) Women looked graceful in these dresses
• b) They were dutiful and docile
• c) These clothes helped in creating the expected image of girls
• d) Women were trained to bear and suffer

Answer: Women looked graceful in these dresses

Question 13: England passed a law which compelled all persons over 6 years of age, except those of high position, to wear woolen caps made in England on Sundays and all holy days. What does this mean?

• a) Some sumptuary laws were passed to protect home production against imports
• b) All sumptuary laws were meant to emphasis social hierarchy
• c) Some sumptuary laws were made to promote the religion
• d) None of the options

Answer: Some sumptuary laws were passed to protect home production against imports

Question 14: Which of the following were among the things that became a symbol of equality and liberty among the French people?

• a) All the options
• b) The color’s of France -blue, white and red
• c) The red cap
• d) Revolutionary cockade pinned on to a hat

Answer: All the options

Question 15 : The simplicity of clothing of Sans-Culottes was meant to express

• a) The idea of equality
• b) The poverty among the common people
• c) The prosperity of textile industries
• d) None of the options

Answer: The idea of equality

NCERT MCQ ON HISTORY AND SPORT : THE STORY OF CRICKET

Question 1.
When were first written Law of Cricket drawn?
(a) 1754
(b) 1764
(c) 1744
(d) 1756

Answer: (c) In 1744

Question 2.
In which year cricket was changed forever?
(a) In 1977
(b) In 1977
(c) In 1987
(d) In 1783

Answer: (a) In 1977

Question 3.
When was six seem ball created?
(a) In 1980
(b) In 1880
(c) In 1780
(d) In 1680

Answer: (c) In 1780

Question 4.
Who led the professional team in 1930’s?
(a) Len Hutten
(b) W.C. Grace
(c) David Hutton
(d) David Gover

Answer: (a) Len Hutten

Question 5.
The word cockade refers to:
(a) type of fur
(b) type of cricket ball
(c) type of the bat used by batsman
(d) cap usually worn on one side

Answer: (d) cap usually worn on one side

Question 6.
What is the full from of ICC?
(a) International Cricket Council
(b) International Cricket Co-operative Nation
(c) International Cricket Confederation
(d) Imperial Cricket Council

Answer: (a) International Cricket Council

Question 7.
Which was the first Indian Community to play cricket?
(a) Parsies
(b) Zoroastrian
(c) Trader and businessmen
(d) Social weaker section of the society

Answer: (b) Zoroastrian

Question 8.
Where was cricket invented?
(a) In England
(b) In Australia
(c) In West Indies
(d) In South Africa

Answer: (a) In England

Question 9.
First cricket club formed in 1760’s in
(a) Melbourne
(b) Lords
(c) Manchester
(d) Hambleton

Answer: (d) Hambleton

Question 10.
When was cricket invented?
(a) In early 19^th century
(b) In early 17^th century
(c) In early 16^th century
(d) In mid of the 17^th century

Answer: (c) In early 16^th century

Question 11.
Armatures stand for:
(a) Reserve players
(b) Rich people who could afford to play cricket
(c) Rich people who have no time to play cricket
(d) Poor people who could play cricket

Answer: (b) Rich people who could afford to play cricket

Question 12.
Who are professional in cricket?
(a) Those who play cricket for enjoyment.
(b) Those who play cricket for time pass.
(c) Those who play cricket for living.
(d) Those who play cricket as a hobby.

Answer: (c) Those who play cricket for living.

Question 13.
Where was India’s first cricket club established?
(a) In Mumbai
(b) In Calcutta (Kolkata)
(c) In Madras (Chennai)
(d) In Delhi at Firoz Shah Kotla

Answer: (b) In Calcutta (Kolkata)

Question 14.
What is the specified length of the pitch?
(a) 22 yards
(b) 22 feet
(c) 22 metres
(d) 80 feet

Answer: (a) 22 yards

Question 15.
Where cricket was invented?

(a) In England
(b) In Australia
(c) In West Indies
(d) In South Africa

Answer: (a) In England

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