Author Archives: Priyanka

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-3 The Little Girl NCERT MCQ for Class 9 English which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE LITTLE GIRL

Question 1:

Name of the little girl was

(a) Kezia

(b) Simmy

(c) Kezi

(d) Sony

Answer:

(a) Kezia.

Question 2:

Who was a figure to fear and avoided to the little girl Kezia

(a) Father

(b) Brother

(c) Mother

(d) Grandmother

Answer:

(a) Father.

Question 3:

The sound of—–was a great relief for Kezia.

(a) Bus

(b) Car

(c) Carriage

(d) Train

Answer:

(c) Carriage.

Question 4:

In the evening when her father came home Kezia used to stand near the

(a) Staircase

(b) Dining table

(c) Door

(d) Storeroom

Answer:

(a) Staircase.

Question 5:

After coming back home Kezia’s father ordered for tea, news paper and his

(a) Spectacles

(b) T-shirt

(c) Slippers

(d) Trousers

Answer:

(c) Slippers.

Question 6:

According to Kezia’s mother if she was a good girl she should talks off his father’s ——

(a) Coat

(b) Socks

(c) Boots

(d) Shirt

Answer:

(c) Boots.

Question 7:

Kezia should be taken to the doctor to check her

(a) Fever

(b) Stammering

(c) Cough

(d) Cold

Answer:

(b) Stammering.

Question 8:

Meaning of wretched is

(a) Happy

(b) Sad

(c) Clever

(d) Wicked

Answer:

(b) Sad.

Question 9:

Who seemed like a giant for Kezia

(a) Father

(b) Mother

(c) Grandfather

(d) Teacher

Answer:

(a) Father.

Question 10:

Where did Kezia’s grandmother send her to have a nice talk to her mother and father

(a) Drawing room

(b) Barandah

(c) Dinning room

(d) Bedroom

Answer:

(a) Drawing room.

Question 11:

On every —- Kezia went to have a nice talk with her parents.

(a) Saturday

(b) Monday

(c) Sunday

(d) Friday

Answer:

(c) Sunday.

Question 12:

Kezia found her mother —- after going to the drawing room.

(a) Cooking

(b) Sleeping

(c) Fating

(d) Reading

Answer:

(d) Reading.

Question 13:

Covering his face with ——-Kezia’s father used to sleep on Sunday afternoon in their drawing room.

(a) Handkerchief

(b) Cap

(c) Cushion

(d) Pillow

Answer:

(a) Handkerchief.

Question 14:

According to Kezia’s father she was looking like a — while staring at him.

(a) Owl

(b) Crow

(c) Tiger

(d) Elephant

Answer:

(a) Owl.

Question 15:

Kezia’s grand mother gave her a —-coloured fabric of silk to make cushion for her father’s birthday.

(a) Red

(b) Brown

(c) Blue

(d) Yellow

Answer:

(d) Yellow.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-2 The Sound of Music NCERT MCQ for Class 9 English which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE SOUND OF MUSIC

Question 1:

Ustaad Bishmillah Khan was a well-known ______ player.

(a) Shehnai

(b) Santoor

(c) Piano

(d) Tabla

Answer:

(a) Shehnai.

Question 2:

Emperor —— had banned the musical instrument, Pungi.

(a) Jahangir

(b) Aurangzeb

(c) Babur

(d) Akbar

Answer:

(b) Aurangzeb.

Question 3:

According to Aurangzeb Pungi had —– sound.

(a) Shrill

(b) Pleasant

(c) Soothing

(d) Good

Answer:

(a) Shrill.

Question 4:

Which instrument got the name reeded noisemaker.

(a) Flute

(b) Piano

(c) Harmonium

(d) Pungi

Answer:

(d) Pungi.

Question 5:

—– decided to improve the tonal quality of the Pungi.

(a) A barbar

(b) A tailor

(c) A cobler

(d) A farmer

Answer:

(a) A barber.

Question 6:

The barbar made —— holes on the body of the pipe make that musical instrument.

(a) Five

(b) Four

(c) Seven

(d) Eight

Answer:

(c) Seven.

Question 7:

The barbar gave the name of the new instrument –

(a) Shehnai

(b) Pungi

(c) Santoor

(d) Sarod

Answer:

(a) Shehnai.

Question 8:

Shehnai is an indispensable component of any ——– wedding.

(a) North Indian

(b) East Indian

(c) West Indian

(d) South Indian

Answer:

(a) North Indian.

Question 9:

In naubat ——- instruments were played together.

(a) Nine

(b) Eight

(c) Ten

(d) Five

Answer:

(a) Nine.

Question 10:

—– brought Shehnai onto the classical stage.

(a) Ustaad Zahir Hussain

(b) Ustaad Amjad Ali Khan

(c) Ustaad Amir Khan

(d) Ustaad Bishmillah khan

Answer:

(d) Ustaad Bishmillah khan.

Question 11:

Name the estate where Ustaad Bishmillah khan lived.

(a) Dumraon

(b) Damayanti

(c) Dungrigaon

(d) Rihand

Answer:

(a) Dumraon.

Question 12:

Dumraon is a small place in –

(a) Tamilnadu

(b) Bihar

(c) Telengana

(d) Jharkhand

Answer:

(b) Bihar.

Question 13:

Name the temple where Ustaad Bismillah Khan used to go to sing.

(a) Balaji temple

(b) Biswanath temple

(c) Mayurkashi temple

(d) Biharji temple

Answer:

(d) Biharji temple.

Question 14:

In Biharji temple he used to sing “Chaita” in ______ language.

(a) Bhojpuri

(b) Bihari

(c) Marathi

(d) Tamil

Answer:

(a) Bhojpuri.

Question 15:

What had he earned as a prize of his performance from the local Maharaja.

(a) Laddu

(b) Barfi

(c) Sandesh

(d) Modak

Answer:

(a) Laddu.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-1 The Fun They Had NCERT MCQ for Class 9 English which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE FUN THEY HAD

Question 1. Tommy walked away with the ______ book beneath his arm
(a) Torn
(b) Dusty
(c) Imaginary
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer :   B

Question 2. “……..If you don’t like it, you don’t have to read the book”- Who said this?
(a) Tommy
(b) Margie
(c) County Inspector
(d) Mrs. Jones

Answer :   A

Question 3. Who are Margie and Tommy?
(a) cousins
(b) brother sister
(c) friends
(d) neighbors

Answer :   D

Question 4. How long (approx.) did the inspector take to fix the mechanical teacher?
(a) 2 hours
(b) 1 hour
(c) 3 hours
(d) 4 hours

Answer :   B

Question 5. What was the difference between old schools and modern schools/
(a) old schools had many friends and modern school had no fellows
(b) old schools had human teachers and modern schools had robots
(c) old schools had playgrounds and modern school had only computers
(d) All

Answer :   D

Question 6. “Why would anyone write about school” -Who said this?
(a) Tommy
(b) Margie
(c) Mrs. Jones
(d) Blair

Answer :   B

Question 7. Margie was scornful-
(a) About her geography scores
(b) Knowing that the real book detailed about school
(c) About Tommy’s scores
(d) About festivals

Answer :   B

Question 8. The section of which subject was completely deleted from Tommy’s computer?
(a) English
(b) History
(c) Social Studies
(d) Geography

Answer :   B

Question 9. How old is Tommy?
(a) 10 years old
(b) 13 years old
(c) 15 years old
(d) 12 years old

Answer :   B

Question 10. What subjects did Margie and Tommy learn?
(a) Mathematics
(b) Science
(c) Geography
(d) All

Answer :   D

Question 11. According to Margie, in an older time, the schools were
(a) Big
(b) Brown
(c) Funny
(d) Stupid

Answer :   C

Question 12. Margie had to write out her homework
(a) In Russian
(b) In Punch code
(c) In English
(d) None of the above

Answer :   B

Question 13. The kids in the old schooling pattern went home together
(a) In between classes
(b) During afternoon breaks
(c) During festivals
(d) At the end of the day

Answer :   D

Question 14. What did the teacher in the real book do?
(a) Teaches through computer
(b) Gives lessons online
(c) Taught and gave questions in person
(d) Mailed them the lesson

Answer :   C

Question 15. How much time was taken to repair Tommy’s teacher?
(a) 5 days
(b) 25 days
(c) 20 days
(d) one month

Answer :   D

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-4 Food Security in India NCERT MCQ for Class 9 Social Science Economics Important Questions which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON FOOD SECURITY IN INDIA

Question 1.
Name the cooperative that provides milk and vegetables controlled rate decided by the Government of Delhi:
(a) Amul
(b) Kendriya Bhandar
(c) Mother Dairy
(d) None of these

Answer: (c) Mother Dairy

Question 2.
The society which facilitated setting up of grain banks in different regions is :
(a) Amul (Gujarat)
(b) Academy of Development Science (Maharashtra)
(c) Mother Dairy (Delhi)
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Academy of Development Science (Maharashtra)

Question 3.
When was National Food Security Act passed?
(a) 2010
(b) 2011
(c) 2012
(d) 2013

Answer: (d) 2013

Question 4.
The price that is announced before the sowing season is called:
(a) Issue price
(b) Fair price
(c) Market price
(d) Minimum support price

Answer: (d) Minimum support price

Question 5.
Chronic hunger refers to:
(a) Low income
(b) Inadequate quantity of food
(c) Inadequate quality of food
(d) All of the above

Answer: (d) All of the above

Question 6.
In which of the following year did our country cross the 200 million tons per year mark in food grain production?
(a) 2013-14
(b) 2014-15
(c) 2015-16
(d) 2016-17

Answer: (c) 2015-16

Question 7.
In which of the following years was the food grain stock with the FCI the maximum?
(a) 2001
(b) 2009
(c) 2002
(d) 2000

Answer: (c) 2002

Question 8.
Name the NGO which facilitated setting up of grain banks in different regions.
(a) Academy of Development Science, Maharashtra
(b) Anand Milk Union Limited
(c) Mother Dairy
(d) None of these

Answer: (a) Academy of Development Science, Maharashtra

Question 9.
In which decades was the Rationing System introduced in India?
(a) 1940s
(b) 1950s
(c) 1960s
(d) 1970s

Answer: (a) 1940s

Question 10.
When was the Antyodaya Anna Yojana scheme launched?
(a) In Jan 1999
(b) In May 2000
(c) In Dec 2000
(d) In October 2005

Answer: (c) In Dec 2000

Question 11.
What is the alternative name for ration shops?
(a) Fair Price Shops
(b) Grain Shops
(c) Distribution Shops
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Fair Price Shops

Question 12.
Who released a special stamp entitled ‘Wheat Revolution’ in July 1968?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Motilal Nehru

Answer: (b) Indira Gandhi

Question 13.
Under the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) food grains given per family per month is :
(a) 40 kg
(b) 35 kg
(c) 20 kg
(d) 25 kg

Answer: (b) 35 kg

Question 14.
Annapurna Scheme (APS) has been launched in April:
(a) 2000
(b) 2005
(c) 1999
(d) 2003

Answer: (a) 2000

Question 15.
Which of the following is not a dimension of food security?
(a) Availability
(b) Accessibility
(c) Affordability
(d) Costly

Answer: (d) Costly

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-3 Poverty as a Challenge NCERT MCQ for Class 9 Social Science Economics Important Questions which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON POVERTY AS A CHALLENGE

Question 1: Which one is a social group from amongst the following groups vulnerable to poverty?

• a) Scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households
• b) Rural agricultural labour households
• c) Urban casual labour households
• d) The female daily wagers

Answer: Scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households

Question 2: What is accepted average calories required in India in urban areas?

• a) 2400
• b) 2100
• c) 2800
• d) 2500

Answer: 2400

Question 3: Which state has the largest percentage of poor in India?

• a) Orissa
• b) Bihar
• c) Kerala
• d) Punjab

Answer: Orissa

Question 4: Which one of the social groups is vulnerable to poverty?

• a) All of these
• b) Scheduled caste
• c) Urban casual labour
• d) Rural agricultural households

Answer: All of these

Question 5 : Which of the following is a social indicator of poverty laid by social scientists?

• a) Illiteracy level
• b) Increase in population
• c) Caste
• d) Health club membership

Answer: Illiteracy level

Question 6: In which of the following countries did poverty actually rise from 1981 to 2001?

• a) Sub-Saharan Africa
• b) India
• c) China
• d) Russia

Answer: Sub-Saharan Africa

Question 7: Every____ person in India is poor.

• a) Fourth
• b) Third
• c) Fifth
• d) Tenth

Answer: Fourth

Question 8: What is the number of persons living below poverty line in 2001-02 ?

• a) 26.02 crore
• b) 22.67 crore
• c) 20.52 crore
• d) 24.52 crore

Answer: 26.02 crore

Question 9: Which region has high percentage of people living below poverty line

• a) Rural
• b) Hilly
• c) Urban
• d) All the above

Answer: Rural

Question 10: What is accepted average calorie requirement in rural areas in India

• a) 2400 cal
• b) 2000 cal
• c) 2600 cal
• d) 3000 cal

Answer: 2400 cal

Question 11: What is the accepted average calorie requirement in Urban areas in India

• a) 2100 cal
• b) 2700 cal
• c) 1500 cal
• d) 2400 cal

Answer: 2100 cal

Question 12: What is the poverty line for the rural areas in India at present

• a) Rs. 328 per month
• b) Rs. 350 per month
• c) Rs. 375 per month
• d) Rs. 400 per month

Answer: Rs. 328 per month

Question 13: What is the poverty line for the Urban areas in India at present ?

• a) Rs 454 per month
• b) Rs. 300 per month
• c) Rs. 550 per month
• d) Rs 454 per month

Answer: Rs 454 per month

Question 14: Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana was launched in

• a) 1999
• b) 1998
• c) 1997
• d) 1996

Answer: 1999

Question 15: Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana was started in-

• a) 1993
• b) 1991
• c) 1990
• d) 1992

Answer: 1993

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-2 People as Resource NCERT MCQ for Class 9 Social Science Economics Important Questions which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON PEOPLE AS RESOURCE

Question 1.
Which of the following is the most labour absorbing sectors of the Indian economy?
(a) Primary sector
(b) tertiary sector
(c) Secondary sector
(d) Private sector

Answer: (a) Primary sector

Question 2.
Which of the following is included in the primary sector?
(a) Manufacturing
(b) Tourism
(c) Forestry
(d) Communication

Answer: (c) Forestry

Question 3.
Which of the following is included in the tertiary sector?
(a) Fishing
(b) Trade
(c) Mining
(d) Health

Answer: (d) Health

Question 4.
Which of the following is included in the secondary sector?
(a) Poultry farming
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Transport
(d) Quarrying

Answer: (b) Manufacturing

Question 5.
Investment in human capital can be made through
(a) Education
(b) Training
(c) Medical care
(d) All the three

Answer: (d) All the three

Question 6.
The literacy rate during 2010-11 was
(a) 64%
(b) 74%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%

Answer: (b) 74%

Question 7.
Which of the following sectors faces the problem of seasonal unemployment?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Service sector
(c) Trade
(d) IT sector

Answer: (a) Agriculture

Question 8.
Infant mortality rate is the death of a child under
(a) One year
(b) Three, year
(c) Two year
(d) Four year

Answer: (a) One year

Question 9.
The workforce population includes people from 15 years to
(a) 59 years
(b) 62 years
(c) 60 years
(d) 65 years

Answer: (a) 59 years

Question 10.
Which age group of children does the Sarva Siksha Abhiyan aim to promote education?
(a) 6 to 10 years
(b) 5 to 3 years
(c) 6 to 14 years
(d) 7 to 12 years

Answer: (c) 6 to 14 years

Question 11.
The number of females per thousand males refers to :
(a) Sex Ratio
(b) Literacy Rate
(c) Infant Mortality Rate
(d) Birth Rate

Answer: (a) Sex Ratio

Question 12.
Decrease in IMR (Infant Mortality Rate) of a country signifies:
(a) Increase in life expectancy
(b) Increase in GNP
(c) Economic development of a country
(d) Increase in number of colleges in a country

Answer: (a) Increase in life expectancy

Question 13.
What is the life expectancy in India as per the census of 2000?
(a) 72 years
(b) 53 years
(c) 64 years
(d) 80 years

Answer: (c) 64 years

Question 14.
Which one of the following is considered important to create a ‘virtuous cycle’ by the parents?
(a) To sand their children to the school
(b) To provide goods food to their children
(c) To join their children in corporate schools
(d) To take care of the health and education of their children

Answer: (d) To take care of the health and education of their children

Question 15.
Which one from the following is the most labour absorbing sector?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Fisheries
(c) Poultry farming
(d) Mining

Answer: (a) Agriculture

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-1 The Story of Village Palampur in India NCERT MCQ for Class 9 Social Science Economics Important Questions which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE STORY OF VILLAGE PALAMPUR

Question 1. Tools, machines and buildings can be used to production over many years, are called:
(a) physical capital
(b) secondary capital
(c) fixed capital
(d) all the above

Answer :  C 

Question 2. High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds are developed in
(a) Research institutes
(b) Factories
(c) Krishak Bharati Cooperatives
(d) None of the above

Answer :  A

Question 3. Scope of farming activity is limited in Palampur due to
(a) fixed amount of land
(b) lack of irrigation
(c) lack of labour
(d) none of the above

Answer :  A

Question 4. All farmers in Palampur grow at least two main crops may are growing:
(a) sugarcane as the third crop
(b) rice as the third crop
(c) potatoes as the third crop
(d) onion as the third crop

Answer :  C

Question . Which of the following is a modern farming method?
(a) Multiple cropping
(b) Use of HYV seeds
(c) Use of chemical fertilizers
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer :  D

Question 5. Who is a person who puts together land, labour and capital?
(a) Moneylender
(b) Entrepreneur
(c) Zamindar
(d) Manager

Answer :  B

Question 6. Multiple Cropping refers to:
(a) cultivation of wheat and rice
(b) cultivation of two crops in alternate rows
(c) cultivating more than one crop on the same field each year
(d) cultivating crops and rearing animals on the same farm

Answer :  C

Question 7. Consumption of chemical fertilizers is highest in which state of India?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Himachal Pradesh

Answer :  A

Question 8. Which one among the following is not fixed capital?
(a) Machines
(b) Buildings
(c) Tools
(d) Raw materials

Answer :  D

Question 9. The SC’s population in the village comprises of:
(a) half
(b) two-thirds
(c) one-third
(d) none of the above

Answer :  C

Question 10. Which one among the following is a non-farm activity?
(a) Multiple cropping
(b) Crop rotation
(c) Dairy farming
(d) Modern farming

Answer :  C

Question 11. The concept of White Revolution is associated with
(a) food crops
(b) milk
(c) cotton
(d) pesticides

Answer :  B

Question 12. Which is the most abundant factor of production in India?
(a) Land
(b) Capital
(c) Labour
(d) Tools and machines

Answer :  C

Question 13. Which one of the following terms is used for measuring crop produced on a given piece of land during a single season?
(a) Yield
(b) Productivity
(c) Cultivation
(d) Output

Answer :   A

Question 14. During the rainy season, farmers in Palampur grow:
(a) wheat and barley
(b) wheat and rice
(c) wheat and bajra
(d) jowar and bajra

Answer :  D

Question 15. Which of the following transformed the system of irrigation in Palampur?
(a) Tube wells
(b) Persian wheel
(c) Rainwater harvesting
(d) None of these

Answer :  A

NCERT MCQ ON DEMOCRATIC RIGHTS

Question 1.
Civil Rights are given to the individual by:
(a) Nature
(b) God
(c) The State
(d) The people

Answer: (c) The State

Question 2.
Which one of the following fundamental rights is called the heart and soul of Indian constitution?
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right to constitutional remedies
(c) Right to freedom
(d) Right to freedom of religion

Answer: (b) Right to constitutional remedies

Question 3.
Which of the following rights is not available under the fundamental rights?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(b) Right to protect one’s culture
(d) Right to property.

Answer: (d) Right to property.

Question 4.
Which among the following cannot be challenged in a court?
(a) Directive principles of state policy
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Freedom to choose any profession or business
(d) Right to move freely to any part of the country.

Answer: (b) Fundamental Rights

Question 5.
Laws have been made to prohibit children’s from working in which of these industries?
(a) Beedi making
(b) Fire crackers and matches
(c) Printing and dyeing
(d) All the above

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 6.
One of the forms of exploitation as mentioned in the constitution is ‘traffic’. What does it mean?
(a) Transport system
(b) Buying and selling of human beings
(c) Buying and selling of goods
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Buying and selling of human beings

Question 7.
How many Fundamental Rights does the Indian constitution provide?
(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 8

Answer: (b) 6

Question 8.
When was the NHRC set up?
(a) 1998
(b) 1996
(c) 1993
(d) 2001

Answer: (c) 1993

Question 9.
Which of these is not seen as a standard of human rights by the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights?
(a) Right to social security and insurance
(b) Right to health
(c) Right to accumulate wealth
(d) Right to adequate standard of living

Answer: (c) Right to accumulate wealth

Question 10.
What did Dr. Ambedkar refer to the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies as?
(a) The brain of our Constitution
(b) The heart and soul of our Constitution
(c) The heart of our Constitution
(d) The soul of our Constitution

Answer: (b) The heart and soul of our Constitution

Question 11.
Which of these is/are the new rights guaranteed by the constitution of South Africa for its citizens?
(a) Right to privacy
(b) Right to an environment that is not harmful to the people’s health
(c) Right to have access to adequate housing
(d) All the above

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 12.
Which of these statements about the relationship between democracy and rights is more valid?
(a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens
(b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy
(c) Giving rights is good, but it is not necessary for a democracy
(d) All the above

Answer: (b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy

Question 13.
What can be done in case of infringement of the rights in a democracy?
(a) Citizens are helpless; they cannot do anything
(b) They can approach courts to protect their rights
(c) They can ask their representatives to do the needful
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) They can approach courts to protect their rights

Question 14.
What is the position of women in Saudi Arabia?
(a) Women are given all the rights
(b) Women are given equal status with men
(c) Women are subjected to many public restrictions
(d) They are offered high positions

Answer: (c) Women are subjected to many public restrictions

Question 15.
Of which country was Kosovo a province before its split?
(a) USSR
(b) Yugoslavia
(c) South Africa
(d) Germany

Answer: (b) Yugoslavia

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NCERT MCQ ON WORKING OF INSTITUTIONS

Question 1.
Who exercises all governmental powers?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(d) Chief Election Commission

Answer: (b) Prime Minister

Question 2.
The Second Backward Classes Commission was appointed by the government of India in
(a) 1979
(b) 1981
(c) 1985
(d) 1999Answer

Answer: (a) 1979

Question 3.
Which one of the following statement about the President is wrong?
(a) He is the head of the state.
(b) He is the highest formal authority in the country.
(c) He exercises only nominal powers.
(d) He is elected directly by the people.

Answer: (d) He is elected directly by the people.

Question 4.
The strength of the Council of Ministers ranges from
(a) 60 to 80
(b) 60 to 100
(c) 70 to 85
(d) 80 to 100

Answer: (a) 60 to 80

Question 5.
Once the Lok Sabha passes the budget of the government or any other money related law, the Rajya Sabha cannot rejected it. The Rajya Sabha can only delay it by
(a) 14 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 16 days
(d) 17 days

Answer: (a) 14 days

Question 6.
When was the Second Backward Class Commission appointed?
(a) 1989
(b) 1979
(c) 1999
(d) 2001

Answer: (b) 1979

Question 7.
What do the Civil Servants do?
(a) They take important policy decisions
(b) They implement the ministers’ decisions
(c) They settle the disputes
(d) none of the above

Answer: (b) They implement the ministers’ decisions

Question 8.
What is ‘Parliament’?
(a) Assembly of elected representatives at the national level
(b) A body consisting of appointed ministers
(c) Body comprising judges
(d) Assembly of only appointed members

Answer: (a) Assembly of elected representatives at the national level

Question 9.
Apart from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, who else constitutes the Parliament?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Governor
(d) President

Answer: (d) President

Question 10.
For how long can the Rajya Sabha delay a Money Bill?
(a) 15 days
(b) 1 month
(c) 3 months
(d) 14 days

Answer: (d) 14 days

Question 11.
Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts?
(a) President, according to his own wishes
(b) President, on the advice of the PM
(c) President on the advice of the PM in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) President on the advice of the PM in consultation with the Chief Justice of India

Question 12.
Two features of Indian judicial system are:
(a) Independent Judiciary
(b) Integrated Judiciary
(c) Dependent Judiciary
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 13.
Which of the following institutions can make changes to the existing law of the country?
(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The President
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Parliament

Answer: (d) The Parliament

Question 14.
Which body acts as the guardian of Fundamental Rights?
(a) District Courts
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Election Commission
(d) Legislature

Answer: (b) Supreme Court

Question 15.
Why does the political executive have more powers than the permanent executive?
(a) Because hardly any expertise is required in taking policy decisions
(b) Because political executive consists of the direct representatives of the people
(c) Political leaders are more educated
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Because political executive consists of the direct representatives of the people

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NCERT MCQ ON ELECTORAL POLITICS

Question 1: During election the voters make many choices. Select the correct options.

• a) Who will make laws for them?
• b) Who will form the government and take major decisions?
• c) Who will grant Fundamental Rights?
• d) Who will check the functioning of courts?

Answer: Who will make laws for them?

Question 2: What are the main challenges to free and fair elections in India? Select the correct options.

• a) Model of Code of Conduct
• b) Lack of Internal Democracy among Political Parties
• c) Influence of Money and Muscle Power
• d) Dynastic Rule

Answer: Model of Code of Conduct

Question 3: Is it good to have Political Competition? Which of the following statements justify this?

• a) Political Competition helps to force political parties and leaders to serve people
• b) It creates a sense of disunity and factionalism
• c) It gives fair chance to people for the responsible government
• d) Political competition causes divisions and some ugliness

Answer: Political Competition helps to force political parties and leaders to serve people

Question 4: Which of the following is not allowed while carrying out an election campaign?

• a) Giving money to voters to cast vote for particular candidate
• b) Using television channels.
• c) Door-to-door canvassing.
• d) Contacting voters on phone.

Answer: Giving money to voters to cast vote for particular candidate

Question 5: Which of the following does not include election procedure?

• a) Booth capturing
• b) Voting
• c) Nomination of Candidate
• d) Canvassing

Answer: Booth capturing

Question 6: What makes an election democratic? Select the correct option.

• a) Free and fair Election.
• b) Universal Adult Franchise
• c) Fundamental Rights
• d) Directive Principles of State Policy

Answer: Free and fair Election.

Question 7: Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false?

• a) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government
• b) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary
• c) People select the representative of their choice in an election
• d) People can indicate which policies they prefer

Answer: Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government

Question 8: Which one of the following provisions fails to ensure fair and equal chance to compete to candidates and political parties?

• a) No party or candidate is bound by the model code of conduct
• b) No party or candidate can bribe or threaten voters
• c) No party or candidate can use government resources for election campaign
• d) Nobody can appeal to the voters in the name of caste or religion

Answer: No party or candidate is bound by the model code of conduct

Question 9: The number of seats reserved for scheduled caste in Lok Sabha is:

• a) 79
• b) 59
• c) 89
• d) 99

Answer: 79

Question 10: Which of the following statements is against the democratic process of elections?

• a) The Right to Vote should be given to selected people only
• b) Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections
• c) Elections must be held regularly immediately after the term is over
• d) Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner

Answer: The Right to Vote should be given to selected people only

Question 11: The voters list is also known as:

• a) Electoral Roll
• b) Election
• c) Voter Identity Card
• d) None of these

Answer: Electoral Roll

Question 12: The number of Lok Sabha Constituencies in India at present is:

• a) 543
• b) 541
• c) 546
• d) 540

Answer: 543

Question 13: What is the age of a person who can contest election for Lok Sabha in India?

• a) 25 Years
• b) 30 Years
• c) 35 Years
• d) 40 Years

Answer: 25 Years

Question 14: Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner (CCE) of India?

• a) The President of India
• b) The Chief Justice of India
• c) The Prime Minister of India
• d) The People of India

Answer: The President of India

Question 15: Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?

• a) India has the largest number of voters
• b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful
• c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote
• d) In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict

Answer: India has the largest number of voters