Author Archives: Priyanka

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-8 Human Health and Disease  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON HEALTH AND DISEASE

Question 1.
AIDS is caused by HIV. Among the following, which one is not a mode of transmission of HIV?
(a) Transfusion of contaminated blood.
(b) Sharing the infected needles.
(c) Shaking hands with infected persons.
(d) Sexual contact with infected persons.
Answer:
(c) Shaking hands with infected persons.

Question 2.
‘Smack’ is a drug obtained from the
(a) latex of Papever somniferum
(b) leaves of Cannabis saliva
(c) flowers of Datura
(d) fruits of Erythroxyl coca.
Answer:
(a) latex of Papever somniferum

Question 3.
The substance produced by a cell in viral infection that can protect other cells from further infection is
(a) serotonin
(b) colostrum
(c) interferon
(d) histamine.
Answer:
(c) interferon

Question 4.
Antibodies present in colostrum which protect the new born from certain diseases is of
(a) IgG type
(b) IgA type
(c) IgD type
(d) IgE type.
Answer:
(b) IgA type

Question 5.
Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline and nor-adrenaline. The component causing this could be
(a) nicotine
(b) tannic acid
(c) curaimin
(d) catechin.
Answer:
(a) nicotine

Question 6.
Antivenom against snake poison contains
(a) antigens
(b) antigen-antibody complexes
(c) antibodies
(d) enzymes
Answer:
(c) antibodies

Question 7.
Which of the following is not a lymphoid tissue ?
(a) Spleen
(b) Tonsils
(c) Pancreas
(d) Thymus
Answer:
(c) Pancreas

Question 8.
Which of the following glands is large sized at birth but reduces in size with ageing ?
(a) Pineal
(b) Pituitary
(c) Thymus
(d) Thyroid
Answer:
(c) Thymus

Question 9.
Hemozoin is a
(a) precursor of hemoglobin
(b) toxin released from Streptococcus infected cells
(c) toxin released from Plasmodium infected cells
(d) toxin released from Haemophilus infected cells.
Answer:
(c) toxin released from Plasmodium infected cells

Question 10.
One of the following is not the causal organism for ringworm.
(a) Microsporum
(b) Trichophyton
(c) Epidermophyton
(d) Macrosporum
Answer:
(d) Macrosporum

Question 11.
A person with sickle cell anemia is
(a) more prone to malaria
(b) more prone to typhoid
(c) less prone to malaria
(d) less prone to typhoid.
Answer:
(c) less prone to malaria

Question 12.
Which of the following factors affect human health ?
(i) Infections
(ii) Silent mutation
(iii) Life style
(iv) Genetic disorders
(a) (i), (ii)and(iv)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Question 13.
Which one of the following disease is non – communicable ?
(a) Diphtheria
(b) Flu
(c) Cancer
(d) Malaria
Answer:
(c) Cancer

Question 14.
Which of the following pairs contains an infectious and a non-infectious disease respectively ?
(a) Typhoid and AIDS
(b) AIDS and cancer
(c) Pneumonia and malaria
(d) Cancer and malaria
Answer:
(b) AIDS and cancer

Question 15.
Typhoid fever in human beings is caused by
(a) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Trichophyton
(c) Salmonella typhi
(d) Rhinoviruses.
Answer:
(c) Salmonella typhi

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-1 Evolution  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON EVOLUTION

1. The force that initiates evolution is ______
(a) Variation
(b) Mutation
(c) Extinction
(d) Adaptation

Answer: (a) Variation

2. ___________ is a vestigial organ
(a) Intestinal villi
(b) Papillae
(c) Vermiform appendix
(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) Vermiform appendix

3. The earliest geological time period among the following is _______
(a) Cambrian
(b) Permian
(c) Jurassic
(d) Quaternary

Answer: (a) Cambrian

4. The experiment that simulated conditions thought to be present on the early earth
(a) Hershey–Chase experiment
(b) Geiger–Marsden experiment
(c) Miller–Urey experiment
(d) Schiehallion experiment

Answer: (c) Miller–Urey experiment

5. Example of a homologous organ
(a) The arm of a human, wing of a bird
(b) Wing of an insect, wing of a bird
(c) Leg of a dog, leg of a spider
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) The arm of a human, wing of a bird

6. Primordial soup is a set of hypothetical conditions on ancient earth first proposed by______
(a) Dmitri Ivanovsky
(b) Alexander Oparin
(c) Dmitry Anuchin
(d) Nikolay Shatsky

Answer: (b) Alexander Oparin

7. Which condition can be explained by Lamarckism?
(a) How giraffes got their long neck
(b) How humans lost their tail
(c) How humans became bipedal
(d) All of the above

Answer: (d) All of the above

8. Observation of species on ___________ heavily inspired Darwin’s theory of evolution.
(a) Ilya da Queimada Grande
(b) Guatemala
(c) Faroe Islands
(d) Galapagos Islands

Answer: (d) Galapagos Islands

9. _____________ was considered as a missing link between reptiles and birds.
(a) Archaeopteryx
(b) Pteranodon
(c) Avimimus
(d) Caudipteryx

Answer: (a) Archaeopteryx

10. The oldest mineral discovered so far was __________, which dates back to 4.4 billion years.
(a) Iron
(b) Zircon
(c) Cadmium
(d) Silicon

Answer: (b) Zircon

11. Pidgeon, platypus and panda are _______
(a) Homeothermic
(b) Poikilothermic
(c) Hyperthermic
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Homeothermic

12. The last common ancestor of humans is
(a) Pan troglodytes
(b) Homo neanderthalensis
(c) Lemuroidea
(d) Dromaeosaurus

Answer: (a) Pan troglodytes

13. An example of convergent evolution is
(a) Wing of Hawkmoths, the wing of hawks
(b) Teeth of domestic dog, teeth of a wolf
(c) Wings of Geospiza magnirostris, wings of Geospiza fortis
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Wing of Hawkmoths, the wing of hawks

14. On the Origin of Species was written by ______
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Ludmila Kuprianova
(c) Mikhail A. Fedonkin
(d) Ituhbuna Lawraga

Answer: (a) Charles Darwin

15. When did dinosaurs die off?
(a) 105.1 million years ago
(b) 65.5 million years ago
(c) 75.5 million years ago.
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) 65.5 million years ago

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

1. The nucleic acid synthesis takes place in
(a) 3’-5’ direction
(b) 5’-3’ direction
(c) Both ways
(d) Any direction

Answer: (b) 5’-3’ direction

2. What is the nature of the strands of the DNA duplex?
(a) Anti-parallel and complementary
(b) Identical and complementary
(c) Anti=parallel and non-complementary
(d) Dissimilar and non-complementary

Answer: (a) Anti-parallel and complementary

3. Hershey and Chase’s experiment was based on the principle
(a) Transformation
(b) Translation
(c) Transduction
(d) Transcription

Answer: (c) Transduction

4. AUG stands for
(a) Alanine
(b) Methionine
(c) N-formyl methionine
(d) Glycine

Answer: (b) Methionine

5. The reason behind the anti-parallel strand of DNA is
(a) Hydrogen bond
(b) Ionic bond
(c) Phosphodiester bond
(d) Disulphide bond

Answer: (a) Hydrogen bond

6. In a transcription unit, the promoter is located towards
(a) 5’end of the structural gene
(b) 3’end of the structural gene
(c) 5’end of the template strand
(d) 3’end of the coding strand

Answer: (a) 5’end of the structural gene

7. The primer in DNA replication is
(a) Small ribonucleotide polymer
(b) Helix destabilizing protein
(c) Small deoxyribonucleotide polymer
(d) Enzyme joining nucleotides of new strands

Answer: (a) Small ribonucleotide polymer

8. Genetic information is transferred from nucleus to cytoplasm through
(a) RNA
(b) Anticodon
(c) DNA
(d) Lysosomes

Answer: (a) RNA

9. The enzyme involved in transcription
(a) DNA Polymerase I
(b) DNA Polymerase III
(c) RNA Polymerase
(d) DNA Polymerase II

Answer: (c) RNA Polymerase

10. Non-sense codons participate in
(a) Releasing t-RNA from polynucleotide chain
(b) Formation of unspecified amino acids
(c) Terminating message of gene-controlled protein synthesis
(d) Conversion of sense DNA into non-sense DNA

Answer: (c) Terminating message of gene-controlled protein synthesis

11. The proofreading enzyme in DNA replication is
(a) Primase
(b) DNA Polymerase I
(c) Ligase
(d) DNA Polymerase II

Answer: (b) DNA Polymerase I

12. Select a ribozyme
(a) Peptidyl transferase
(b) Helicase
(c) Ribonuclease-P
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (c)

13. Which step does not occur in translation?
(a) Replication
(b) Termination
(c) Elongation
(d) Initiation

Answer: (a) Replication

14. Select the incorrectly matched pairs
(a) Purines – Nitrogenous bases cytosine, thymine and uracil
(b) Recombinant DNA – DNA formed by joining the DNA segments from two different sources
(c) rRNA – RNA found in ribosomes
(d) ATP – The energy-carrying compound in the cell

Answer: (a) Purines – Nitrogenous bases cytosine, thymine and uracil

15. The energy source for the elongation process is
(a) Creatine-PO₄
(b) GTP
(c) ATP
(d) All of the above

Answer: (b) GTP

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION

Question 1.
If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier female to only some of the male progeny, the disease is
(a) autosomal dominant
(b) autosomal recessive
(c) sex-linked dominant
(d) sex-linked recessive.
Answer:
(d) sex-linked recessive.

Question 2.
In sickle cell anemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Which one of the following triplets codes for valine ?
(a) GGG
(b) A AG
(c) G A A
(d) GUG
Answer:
(d) GUG

Question 3.
Person having genotype IA IB would show the blood group as AB. This is because of
(a) pleiotropy
(b) co-dominance
(c) segregation
(d) incomplete dominance.
Answer:
(b) co-dominance

Question 4.
ZZ/ZW type of sex determination is seen in
(a) platypus
(b) snails
(c) cockroach
(d) peacock
Answer:
(d) peacock

Question 5.
A cross between two tall plants resulted in offspring having few dwarf plants. What would be the genotypes of both the parents ?
(a) TT and Tt
(b) Tt and Tt
(c) TT and TT
(d) Tt and It
Answer:
(b) Tt and Tt

Question 6.
In a dihybrid cross, if you get 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio it denotes that
(a) the alleles of two genes are interacting with each other
(b) it is a multigenic inheritance
(c) it is a case of multiple allelism
(d) the alleles of two genes are segregating independently.
Answer:
(d) the alleles of two genes are segregating independently

Question 7.
Which of the following will not result in variations among siblings ?
(a) Independent assortment of genes
(b) Crossing over
(c) Linkage
(d) Mutation
Answer:
(c) Linkage

Question 8.
Mendel’s Law of independent assortment holds good for genes situated on the
(a) non-homologous chromosomes
(b) homologous chromosomes
(c) extra nuclear genetic element
(d) same chromosome.
Answer:
(b) homologous chromosomes

Question 9.
Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect. The phenomenon is called
(a) multiple allelism
(b) mosaicism
(c) pleiotropy
(d) polygeny.
Answer:
(c) pleiotropy

Question 10.
In the F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross the number of phenotypes and genotypes are
(a) phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 16
(b) phenotypes – 9; genotypes – 4
(c) phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 8
(d) phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 9.
Answer:
(d) phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 9.

Question 11.
The color based contrasting traits in seven contrasting pairs, studied by Mendel in pea plant were
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 12.
_________ pairs of contrasting traits were studied by Mendel in pea plant.
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 10
Answer:
(b) 7

Question 13.
Which of the following characters was not chosen by Mendel ?
(a) Pod shape
(b) Pod color
(c) Location of flower
(d) Location of pod
Answer:
(d) Location of pod

Question 14.
Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as
(a) dominant genes
(b) alleles
(c) linked genes
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) alleles

Question 15.
A recessive allele is expressed in
(a) heterozygous condition only
(b) homozygous condition only
(c) F3 generation
(d) both homozygous and heterozygous conditions.
Answer:
(b) homozygous condition only

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-4 Reproductive Health  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

Question 1.
Amniocentesis is a technique to
(a) Estimate essential amino acids in the body.
(b) Detect chromosomal anomalies in the foetus.
(c) Reverse sex of the foetus.
(d) Correct genetic disorders of the foetus.

Answer: (b) Detect chromosomal anomalies in the foetus.

Question 2.
What is correct about a test tube baby?
(a) Fertilization in female’s genital tract and growth in test tube.
(b) Rearing of premature born baby in an incubator.
(c) Fertilization outside and gestation inside mother’s womb.
(d) Both fertilization and development are done outside the female genital tract.

Answer: (c) Fertilization outside and gestation inside mother’s womb.

Question 3.
The birth control device not used by women is
(a) Diaphragm
(b) Oral pill
(c) Nirodh
(d) Copper T

Answer: (c) Nirodh

Question 4.
The prenatal technique to determine the genetic disorders in a foetus is called
(a) Laparoscopy
(b) Amniocentesis
(c) Abstinence
(d) Coitus interrupts

Answer: (b) Amniocentesis

Question 5.
Test tube baby is a technique where
(a) Zygote is taken from the oviduct cultured and then implanted.
(b) Ovum is taken out, then fertilized and implanted.
(c) Sperms and ovum are fused and zygote grown in a test tube.
(d) None of the above.

Answer: (b) Ovum is taken out, then fertilized and implanted.

Question 6.
Progesterone in the contraceptive pill
(a) Prevents ovulation
(b) Inhibits estrogen
(c) Checks attachment of zygote to endometrium
(d) All the above

Answer: (a) Prevents ovulation

Question 7.
A method of birth control is
(a) GIFT
(b) HJF
(c) IVF-ET
(d) lUDs

Answer: (d) lUDs

Question 8.
Which is related to males?
(a) Oral pill
(b) Tubectomy
(c) Vasectomy
(d) None of these

Answer: (c) Vasectomy

Question 9.
Copper-T prevents
(a) Ovulation
(b) Fertilization of egg
(c) Implantation of embryo
(d) Both (b) and (c)Answer

Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 10.
Lactational Amenorrhea is related to
(a) Temporary method of contraception
(b) Absence of mensturation
(c) Permanent method of contraception
(d) A STD name

Answer: (a) Temporary method of contraception

Question 11.
Drug RU-486 is used as
(a) Contraceptive
(b) Abartive agent
(c) Used for amniocentesis
(d) Mutagen

Answer: (b) Abartive agent

Question 12.
The most effective method for birth control is
(a) Abortion
(b) Oral pills
(c) Abstinence
(d) Sterilization

Answer: (d) Sterilization

Question 13.
Central Drug Research Institute. Lucknow has developed a contraceptive named
(a) Mala D
(b) Combined pills
(c) Saheli
(d) Condoms

Answer: (c) Saheli

Question 14.
Which among these is not a natural method of birth control
(a) Coitus interruptus
(b) Periodic abstinence
(c) Vasectomy
(d) Lactational Amenorrhea

Answer: (c) Vasectomy

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Question 15.
Which of these is caused by a retrovirus?
(n) Gonorrhoea
(b) AIDS
(c) Trichomoniasis
(d) Syphillis

Answer: (b) AIDS

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-3 Human Reproduction  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON HUMAN REPRODUCTION

1. Which of the following characters is seen in females?
   (a) Muscles are strong
   (b) Mammary gland is well developed
   (c) Voice is heavy
   (d) Facial hair

Answer (b) Mammary gland is well developed

2. Which of the following characters is seen in males?
   (a) Muscles are comparatively weak
   (b) Voice is shrill
   (c) Voice is heavy
   (d) Beard and mustache is not seen

Answer (c) Voice is heavy

3. Where testes are situated?
   (a) Abdominal cavity
   (b) Dorsal side of the abdominal cavity
   (c) (a) and (b) both
   (d) Scrotal sac

Answer (d) Scrotal sac

4. Which hormone is released from testes?
   (a) Testosterone
   (b) Estrogen
   (c) Progesterone
   (d) Relaxin

Answer (a) Testosterone

5. Which hormone is released from ovaries?
   (a) Testosterone
   (b) Estrogen
   (c) Progesterone
   (d) (b) and (c) both

Answer (d) (b) and (c) both

6. Which of the following glands is seen in the male reproductive system?
   (a) Seminal vesicle
   (b) Prostate gland
   (c) Bulbourethral gland
   (d) All of these

Answer (d) All of these

7. How much lower is the temperature of the scrotal sac than the body temperature?
   (a) 3 degree Celsius
   (b) 4-degree Celsius
   (c) 5-degree Celsius
   (d) 6-degree Celsius

Answer (a) 3 degree Celsius

8. What is the size of the testis?
   (a) 6 cm length and 2.5 cm diameter
   (b) 5 cm length and 2.5 cm diameter
   (c) 5 cm length and 3.5 cm diameter
   (d) 6 cm length and 3.5 cm diameter

Answer (b) 5 cm length and 2.5 cm diameter

9. Which connective tissue surrounds the testis?
   (a) Fibrous tissue
   (b) Spongy connective tissue
   (c) Tunica albuginea
   (d) None of them

Answer (c) Tunica albuginea

10. Seminiferous tubules in the testis are lined with which type of cells?
    (a) Germinal cells
    (b) only germinal cells
    (c) Sertoli cell
    (d) Both a and c

Answer (d) Both a and c

11. In testis, which cells produce sperms?
    (a) Germinal cells
    (b) Epithelial cell
    (c) Sertoli cell
    (d) Both a and c

Answer (a) Germinal cells

12. Which cells provide nutrition to the sperms?
    (a) Germinal cells
    (b) Epithelial cell
    (c) Sertoli cell
    (d) None of them

Answer (c) Sertoli cell

13. In tests, which cells are present in the interstitial space between seminiferous tubules?
    (a) Sertoli cells
    (b) Germinal cells
    (c) Leydig’s cells
    (d) (a)and(b)both

Answer (c) Leydig’s cells

14. Which cells secrete testosterone?
    (a) Sertoli cells
    (b) Germinal cells
    (c) Interstitial cells
    (d) (a)and(b)both

Answer (c) Interstitial cells

15. Where do the seminiferous tubules of each lobe empty their sperms?
    (a) Vas deferens
    (b) Vasa efferentia
    (c) Epididymis
    (d) Seminal vesicles

Answer (b) Vasa efferentia

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

Question 1.
What is the function of filiform apparatus in an angiosperms embryo sac?
(a) Brings about opening of the pollen tube
(b) Guides the pollen tube into a synergid
(c) Prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into a synergid
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Guides the pollen tube into a synergid

Question 2.
The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the time of fertilization is
(a) 8 – celled
(b) 7 – celled
(c) 6 – celled
(d) 5 – celled
Answer:
(b) 7 – celled

Question 3.
Polygonum type of embryo sac is
(a) 8 – nucleate, 7 – celled
(b) 8 – nucleate, 8 – celled
(c) 7 – nucleate, 7 – celled
(d) 4 – nucleate, 3 – celled
Answer:
(a) 8 – nucleate, 7 – celled

Question 4.
Both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers are present in
(a) Helianthus
(b) Commelina
(c) Rosa
(d) Gossypium
Answer:
(b) Commelina

Question 5.
Even in absence of pollinating agents seed-setting is assured in
(a) Commelina
(b) Zostera
(c) Salvia
(d) Fig
Answer:
(a) Commelina

Question 6.
Male and female flowers are present on different plants (dioecious) to ensure xenogamy, in
(a) papaya
(b) bottle gourd
(c) maize
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(a) papaya

Question 7.
Feathery stigma occurs in
(a) pea
(b) wheat
(c) Datura
(d) Caesalpinia
Answer:
(b) wheat

Question 8.
Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules are generally pollinated by
(a) bees
(b) butterflies
(c) birds
(d) wind
Answer:
(d) wind

Question 9.
Which of the following is not a water pollinated plant ?
(a) Zostera
(b) Vallisneria
(c) Hydrilla
(d) Cannabis
Answer:
(d) Cannabis

Question 10.
Spiny or sticky pollen grains and large, attractively colored flowers are associated with
(a) hydrophily
(b) entomophily
(c) ornithophily
(d) anemophily
Answer:
(b) entomophily

Question 11.
Endospermic seeds are found in
(a) castor
(b) barley
(c) coconut
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 12.
In albuminous seeds, food is stored in _______ and in non albuminous seeds, it is stored in _______.
(a) endosperm, cotyledons
(b) cotyledons, endosperm
(c) nucellus, cotyledons
(d) endosperm, radicle
Answer:
(a) endosperm, cotyledons

Question 13.
Persistent nucellus is called as _______ and is found in _______.
(a) perisperm, black pepper
(b) perisperm, groundnut ‘
(c) endosperm, black pepper
(d) endosperm groundnut
Answer:
(a) perisperm, black pepper

Question 14.
Identify the wrong statement regarding post-fertilizations development.
(a) The ovary wall develops into pericarp.
(b) The outer integument of ovule develops into tegmen.
(c) The fusion nucleus (triple nucleus) develops into endosperm.
(d) The ovule develops into seed.
Answer:
(b) The outer integument of ovule develops into tegmen.

Question 15.
Polyembryony commonly occurs in
(a) banana
(b) tomato
(c) potato
(d) citrus.
Answer:
(d) citrus.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-1 Reproduction in Organism  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISM

Question 1: Offspring formed by sexual reproduction exhibit more variation than those formed by Asexual reproduction because

• a) gametes of parents have qualitatively different genetic composition
• b) gametes of parents have qualitatively different genetic composition
• c) greater amount of DNA is involved in sexual reproduction
• d) sexual reproduction is a lengthy process

Answer: gametes of parents have qualitatively different genetic composition

Question 2: The property of an undifferentiated cell that has the potential to develop into an entire plant is called

• a) Totipotency
• b) Sub potency
• c) Cloning
• d) Budding

Answer: Totipotency

Question 3: The development of root and shoot in tissue culture is determined by ______

• a) Auxin and cytokinin ratio
• b) None of the above
• c) Nutrients
• d) Temperature

Answer: Auxin and cytokinin ratio

Question 4: There is no natural death in single celled organisms like Amoeba and bacteria because

• a) parental body is distributed among the offspring
• b) they are microscopic
• c) they reproduce by binary fission
• d) they cannot reproduce sexually

Answer: parental body is distributed among the offspring

Question 5: There are various types of reproduction. The type of reproduction adopted by an organism depends on

• a) the organism’s habitat, physiology, and genetic makeup
• b) morphology and physiology of the organism
• c) morphology of the organism
• d) None of these

Answer: the organism’s habitat, physiology, and genetic makeup

Question 6: A few statements describing certain features of reproduction are given below:

i. Gametic fusion takes place

ii. Transfer of genetic material takes place

iii. Reduction division takes place

iv. Progeny have some resemblance with parents

Select the options that are true for both asexual and sexual reproduction from the options given below:

• a) ii and iv
• b) i and iii
• c) ii and iii
• d) i and ii

Answer: ii and iv

Question 7: Appearance of vegetative propagules from the nodes of plants such as sugarcane and ginger is mainly because

• a) nodes have meristematic cells
• b) nodes have meristematic cells
• c) nodes have meristematic cells
• d) nodes are shorter than intenodes

Answer: nodes have meristematic cells

Question 8: Identify the correct sequence of events

• a) Gametogenesis → Syngamy → Zygote
• b) Gametogenesis → Embryogenesis → Zygote → Syngamy
• c) Gametogenesis → Zygote → Syngamy → Embryogenesis
• d) Gametogenesis → Syngamy Embryogenesis → Zygote

Answer: Gametogenesis → Syngamy → Zygote

Question 9: The term ‘clone’ cannot be applied to offspring formed by sexual reproduction because

• a) Offspring do not possess exact copies of parental DNA
• b) DNA of only one parent is copied and passed on to the offspring
• c) Offspring are formed at different times
• d) NA of parent and offspring are completely different

Answer: Offspring do not possess exact copies of parental DNA

Question 10: Amoeba and Yeast reproduce asexually by fission and budding respectively, because they are

• a) Unicellular organisms
• b) Uninucleate organisms
• c) Heterotrophic organisms
• d) Microscopic organisms

Answer: Unicellular organisms

Question 11: A few statements with regard to sexual reproduction are given below:

i. Sexual reproduction does not always require two individuals

ii. Sexual reproduction generally involves gametic fusion

iii. Meiosis never occurs during sexual reproduction

iv. External fertilisation is a rule during sexual reproduction

Choose the correct statements from the options below:

• a) i and ii
• b) ii and iii
• c) i and iv
• d) i and iv

Answer: i and ii

Question 12: A multicellular, filamentous alga exhibits a type of sexual life cycle in which the meiotic division occurs after the formation of zygote. The adult filament of this alga has

• a) haploid vegetative cells and haploid gametangia
• b) diploid vegetative cells and haploid gametangia
• c) diploid vegetative cells and diploid gametangia
• d) haploid vegetative cells and diploid gametangia

Answer: haploid vegetative cells and haploid gametangia

Question 13: The male gametes of rice plant have 12 chromosomes in their nucleus. The chromosome number in the female gamete, zygote and the cells of the seedling will be, respectively,

• a) 12, 24, 24
• b) 24, 12, 24
• c) 24, 12, 12
• d) 12, 24, 12

Answer: 12, 24, 24

Question 14: Given below are a few statements related to external fertilization. Choose the correct statements.

i. The male and female gametes are formed and released simultaneously

ii. Only a few gametes are released into the medium

iii. Water is the medium in a majority of organisms exhibiting external fertilization

iv. Offspring formed as a result of external fertilization have better chance of survival than those formed inside an organism

• a) i and iii
• b) ii and iv
• c) i and iv
• d) iii and iv

Answer: i and iii

Question 15 : The statements given below describe certain features that are observed in the pistil of flowers.

i. Pistil may have many carpels

ii. Each carpel may have more than one ovule

iii. Each carpel has only one ovule

iv. Pistil have only one carpel

Choose the statements that are true from the options below:

• a) i and ii
• b) i and iii
• c) ii and iv
• d) iii and iv

Answer: i and ii

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-16 Chemistry in Everyday Life  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE

Question 1: Drugs can be classified on the basis of

• a) Pharmacological effect
• b) Drug action
• c) Chemical structure
• d) All of these

Answer: All of these

Question 2: Antacids include

• a) Omeprazole
• b) Lansoprazole
• c) Sodium bicarbonate
• d) All of these

Answer: All of these

Question 3: Drawback of excess of hydrogen carbonate taking as antacid is

• a) It is insoluble
• b) It can make stomach alkaline and trigger the production of even more acid
• c) It causes ulcer
• d) It causes pain and irritation

Answer: It can make stomach alkaline and trigger the production of even more acid

Question 4: Tranquilizers are prescribed for curing

• a) Anxiety, stress, irritability
• b) The growth of microorganism
• c) Pain, Fever
• d) All of these

Answer: Anxiety, stress, irritability

Question 5: Tincture of iodine is

• a) Iodoform
• b) 100% Iodine
• c) 2-3% Iodine solution in alcohol-water
• d) Iodobenzene

Answer: 2-3% Iodine solution in alcohol-water

Question 6: 0.2% of solution of phenol and 0.2–0.4 ppm chlorine in aqueous solution respectively behave as

• a) Antiseptic, Disinfectant
• b) Disinfectant, Antiseptic
• c) Disinfectant, Disinfectant
• d) Antiseptic, Antiseptic

Answer: Antiseptic, Disinfectant

Question 7:  Birth control pills essentially contains

• a) Synthetic estrogen
• b) Synthetic progesterone
• c) Both (1) & (2)
• d) Neither (1) nor (2)

Answer:  Both (1) & (2)

Question 8: Which is mismatched, regarding the examples?

• a) Broad spectrum Antibiotic – Chloramphenicol
• b) Narrow spectrum antibiotic – Ampicillin
• c) Antiseptic – Furacine
• d) Antifertility – Novestrol

Answer:  Narrow spectrum antibiotic – Ampicillin

Question 9: Chemicals are added to food for

• a) Preservation
• b) Enhancing the appeal
• c) Adding nutritive value
• d) All of these

Answer: All of these

Question 10: The first popular artificial sweetening agent is

• a) Saccharin
• b) Aspartame
• c) Alitame
• d) Both (2) & (3)

Answer: Saccharin

Question 11:  The compound with structure

is used as

• a) Food preservative
• b) Artificial sweetener
• c) Medicine
• d) Edible color

Answer: Artificial sweetener

Question 12: The main disadvantage associated with use of aspartame is

• a) Its sweetening power is less
• b) It is unstable at cooking temperature
• c) It provide calories
• d) It is difficult to control its sweetness

Answer: It is unstable at cooking temperature

Question 13: Which of the following can be used as food preservative?

• a) Vegetable oil
• b) Table salt
• c) Sodium benzoate
• d) All of these

Answer: All of these

Question 14: Among the following, the maximum high potency sugar is

• a) Saccharin
• b) Alitame
• c) Sucralose
• d) Aspartame

Answer: Alitame

Question 15: Soaps are sodium or potassium salt of long chain fatty acids like

• a) Palmitic acid
• b) Oleic acid
• c) Stearic acid
• d) All of these

Answer: All of these

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-15 Polymers  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON POLYMERS

Question 1.
Bakelite is an example of
(a) elastomer
(b) fibre
(c) thermoplastic
(d) thermosetting

Answer: (d) thermosetting

Question 2.
Arrange the following polymers is an increasing order of intermolecular forces: fibre, plastic, elastomer
(a) Elastomer < Fibre < Plastic
(b) Elastomer < Plastic < Fibre
(c) Plastic < Elastomer < Fibre
(d) Fibre < Elastomer < Plastic

Answer: (b) Elastomer < Plastic < Fiber

Question 3.
The correct structure of monomers of Buna-S is

Answer: (c)

Question 4.
The S in Buna-S refers to
(a) Sulphur
(b) Styrene
(c) Sodium
(d) Salicylate

Answer: (b) Styrene

Question 5.
Identify the type of polymer
(i) -A-A-A-A-A-A-
(ii) -A-B-B-A-A-A-B-A-
(a) (i) Homopolymer, (ii) Copolymer
(b) (i) Natural polymer, (ii) Synthetic polymer
(c) (i) Linear polymer, (ii) Branched polymer
(d) (i) Fiber, (ii) Elastomer

Answer: (a) (i) Homopolymer, (ii) Copolymer

Question 6.
Which of the following are thermoplastic polymers?
(a) Polythene, urea-formaldehyde, polyvinyl
(b) Bakelite, polythene, polystyrene
(c) Polythene, polystyrene, polyvinyl
(d) Urea-formaldehyde, polystyrene, Bakelite

Answer: (c) Polythene, polystyrene, polyvinyl

Question 7.
Glycogen, a naturally occurring polymer stored in animals is a
(a) monosaccharide
(b) disaccharide
(c) trisaccharide
(d) polysaccharide

Answer: (d) polysaccharide

Question 8.
Nylon 6, 6 is obtained by condensation polymerization of
(a) adipic acid and ethylene glycol
(b) adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine
(c) terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol
(d) adipic acid and phenol

Answer: (b) adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine

Question 9.
Teralitre is a condensation polymer of ethylene glycol and
(a) benzoic acid
(b) phthalic acid
(c) dimethyl terephthalate
(d) salicylic acid

Answer: (c) dimethyl terephthalate

Question 10.
Natural rubber is a polymer of
(a) 1, 1-dimethylbufadiene
(b) 2-methyl-1, 3-rbutadiene
(c) 2-chlorobuta-1, 3-diene
(d) 2-chlorobut-2-ene

Answer: (b) 2-methyl-1, 3rbutadiene

Question 11.
Heating rubber with Sulphur is known as
(a) galvanization
(b) bessemerization
(c) vulcanization
(d) sulphonation

Answer: (c) vulcanization

Question 12.
Dacron is an example of
(a) polyamides
(b) polypropenes
(c) polyacrylonitrile
(d) polyesters

Answer: (d) polyesters

Question 13.
Which of the following is a condensation polymer?
(a) Teflon
(b) PVC
(c) Polyester
(d) Neoprene

Answer: (c) Polyester

Question 14.
Which of the following polymers does not involve cross-linkages?
(a) Vulcanized rubber
(b) Bakelite
(c) Melamine
(d) Teflon

Answer: (d) Teflon

Question 15.
Composition of Ziegler-Natta catalyst is
(a) (Et₃)₃Al.TiCl₂
(b) (Me)₃Al.TiCl₂
(c) (Et)₃Al.TiCl₄
(d) (Et)₃Al.PtCl₄

Answer: (c) (Et)₃Al.TiCl₄

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