Author Archives: Priyanka

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-2 Lost Spring  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON LOST SPRING

Question 1 : Why did Saheb leave Dhaka?

(a) Because of lack of resources
(b) Because of lack of enough food
(c) Because of friends
(d) Because of parents

Answer  : B

Question 2 : Who are responsible for the poor condition of bangle makers in Firozabad?

(a) Parents
(b) Society
(c) Bureaucrats
(d) All

Answer  : D

Question 3 : What efforts can help Mukesh materialise his dream of becoming a car driver?

(a) Hard work
(b) going to garage
(c) guidance of his owner
(d) all these

Answer  : D

Question 4 : What are the hazards of working in the glass bangles industry?

(a) Poor health 
(b) impaired vision
(c) miserable life
(d) All of these

Answer  : D

Question 5 : Who employs the local families of Firozabad?

(a) Bureaucrats
(b) Merchants
(c) Politicians
(d) The glass blowing industry

Answer  : D

Question 6 : What is the function of glass blowing industry?

(a) to make windows
(b) to make doors
(c) to mould glass
(d) to mould glass and make colorful bangles

Answer  : D

Question 7 : What makes the working condition of the children worst in the glass industry?

(a) Dark dingy cells without light and air
(b) dazzling and sparking of welding light
(c) high temprature
(d) All these

Answer  : D

Question 8: What excuse do the rag pickers give for not wearing chappals?

(a) mothers don’t give
(b) no interest
(c) a tradition
(d) All these

Answer  : D

Question 9 : Who is Mukesh?

(a) student
(b) worker
(c) ragpicker
(d) ragpicker

Answer  : D

Question 10 : What are the reasons for the migration of people from villages to city in the lesson?

(a) Sweeping of houses and fields by storms
(b) poverty
(c) education and unemployment
(d) safety

Answer  : A

Question 11 : What compels the workers in bangle industry of Firozabad to poverty?

(a) cast and ancestral profession
(b) Karam theory and society
(c) Bureaucrats and politicians
(d) All these

Answer  : D

Question 12 : The city of Firozabad is famous for what?

(a) For casteism
(b) For ragpickers
(c) for poverty
(d) for bangles

Answer  : D

Question 13 : Firozabad is the centre of which industry?

(a) cotton industry
(b) furniture industry
(c) textile industry
(d) glassblowing industry

Answer  : D

Question 14 : How is Mukesh’s attitude different from that of his family?

(a) being daring, firm and clear
(b) being a fighter
(c) being a coward
(d) not clear

Answer  : A

Question 15 : What is the means of survival in Seemapuri?

(a) work
(b) merchandising
(c) education
(d) ragpicking

Answer  : D

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-1 The Last Lesson  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ THE LAST LESSON

MCQ Questions for Class 12 English Flamingo Chapter 1 The Last Lesson with Answers

Question 1.
Franz looked for opportunities to skip school to do what?
(a) work on mills
(b) go fishing
(c) water the plants
(d) collect birds eggs

Answer: (d) collect birds eggs

Question 2.
What was Franz banking on to enter the class as he was late?
(a) M.Hamel’s teaching on the blackboard
(b) commotion in the class
(c) Hauser helping him sneak in
(d) to quietly walk in when everyone was preoccupied with participles

Answer: (b) commotion in the class

Question 3.
M. Hamel is introduced as a ruler-wielding teacher. This demonstrates that:
(a) he is concerned.
(b) he is adamant.
(c) he is unfeeling.
(d) he is a hard taskmaster.

Answer: (d) he is a hard taskmaster.

Question 4.
Franz thinks- will they make them sing in German- even the pigeons? What could this mean?
(a) German would use brutal force over everyone
(b) harsh orders will be passed
(c) when people are deprived of their essence even the surroundings are affected.
(d) the Germans will rob France of its language.

Answer: (c) when people are deprived of their essence even the surroundings are affected.

Question 5.
What does M. Hamel’s motionless posture reflect?
(a) the school is dismissed
(b) sense of finality
(c) changing order of life
(d) feeling of nostalgia

Answer: (b) sense of finality

Question 6.
What is the moral that the Alphonse Daudet wants to bring out?
(a) not to put off things that one can do that day
(b) old order changed to new
(c) one should accept everything that happens
(d) teachers should be respected

Answer: (a) not to put off things that one can do that day

Question 7.
Why did Hamel blame himself?
(a) not having taught them enough French
(b) not being strict
(c) giving students a holiday at times
(d) not being responsible

Answer: (c) giving students a holiday at times

Question 8.
Who sat on the back bench on the last lesson?
(a) Franz
(b) Prussians
(c) the village people
(d) The new teacher

Answer: (c) the village people

Question 9.
What was M. Hamel going to question Franz about?
(a) participles
(b) adjectives
(c) old primer
(d) tense

Answer: (a) participles

Question 10.
For the last two years, where did all the bad news come from?
(a) the Bulletin Board
(b) Town Hall
(c) school
(d) M. Hamel’s House

Answer: (a) the Bulletin Board

Question 11.
Don’t go so fast, you will get to your school in plenty of time means ___
(a) getting late
(b) very early
(c) not early
(d) early enough

Answer: (d) early enough

Question 12.
What did Mr. Hamel bring for his class on his last day in the school?
(a) new pens
(b) new notebooks
(c) sweets
(d) story books

Answer: (b) new notebooks

Question 13.
What was Franz expected to be prepared for at school that day?
(a) song
(b) dance
(c) essay writing
(d) Participles

Answer: (d) Participles

Question 14.
Why did the villagers come to meet M. Hamel in the school?
(a) to complain
(b) to say goodbye
(c) to gossip
(d) to show gratitude

Answer: (d) to show gratitude

Question 15.
Why was Franz surprised?
(a) Because of village elders
(b) Because of police patrolling
(c) because of students’ behavior
(d) because of M.Hamel’s kind and polite behavior

Answer: (d) because of M.Hamel’s kind and polite behavior

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-16 Environmental Issues Reproduction in Organism  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES

1. Ultraviolet rays of the sunlight results in formation of

(a) Carbon monoxide

(b) Sulphur Dioxide

(c) Ozone

(d) Fluorides

Answer: (c) Ozone

2. Which of the following will not cause any atmospheric pollution?

(a) Hydrogen

(b) Sulphur Dioxide

(c) Carbon dioxide

(d) Carbon monoxide

Answer: (a) Hydrogen

 3. Sewage water can be purified for recycling with the action of

(a) aquatic plants

(b) penicillin

(c) microorganisms

(d) fishes

Answer: (c) microorganisms

 4. Today, concentration of greenhouse gases is high because of

(a) use of refrigerator

(b) increased combustion of oil and coal

(c) deforestation

(d) all of the above

Answer: (d) all of the above

 5. Photochemical smog is related to the pollution of

(a) soil

(b) water

(c) noise

(d) air

Answer: (d) air

 6. Most important causative pollutant of soil maybe

(a) plastics

(b) iron junks

(c) detergents

(d) glass junks

Answer: (a) plastics

 7. Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect of

(a) chlorine

(b) sulphur dioxide

(c) oxygen

(d) hydrogen

Answer: (a) chlorine

 8. When huge amount of sewage is dumped into a river the BOD will

(a) increase

(b) remain unchanged

(c) slightly decrease

(d) decrease

Answer: (c) slightly decrease

 9. Which is a fungicide?

(a) 2,4-D

(b) DDT

(c) Bordeaux mixture

(d) BHC

Answer: (c) Bordeaux mixture

10. Rotenone is

(a) a bioherbicide

(b) an insect hormone

(c) a natural herbicide

(d) a natural insecticide

Answer: (b) an insect hormone

11. Which of the following is not produced as exhaust of vehicles?

(a) sulphur dioxide

(b) carbon dioxide

(c) carbon monoxide

(d) fly ash

Answer: (c) carbon monoxide

 12. Smog is

(a) smoke

(b) other name for dust storm

(c) moistened air gases

(d) smoke and fog

Answer: (c) moistened air gases

 13. The most dangerous metal pollutant of automobile exhaust is

(a) cadmium

(b) silver

(c) lead

(d) manganese

Answer: (c) lead

14. Which one of the following is a greenhouse gas?

(a) carbon dioxide

(b) carbon monoxide

(c) ozone

(d) oxygen

Answer: (a) carbon dioxide

 15. Smog produces

(a) O3

(b) NO2

(c) CH4

(d) Aluminum Ion

Answer: (d) Aluminum Ion

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-15 Biodiversity and Conservation  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION

Question 1 :  Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during

• a) 1980 s
• b) 1990 s
• c) 1970 s
• d) 1960 s

Answer :  1980 s

Question 2 :  Which is an example of an ex-situ conservation

• a) Seed bank
• b) National park
• c) Wildlife sanctuary
• d) Sacred groves

Answer :  Seed bank

Question 3 :  Which is not generally seen in biodiversity hotspots.

• a) Lesser interspecific competition
• b) Loss of diversity
• c) Species richness
• d) Species richness

Answer :  Lesser interspecific competition 

Question 4 : Which vertebrate group is more vulnerable to extinction?

a) Birds       b) Amphibians
c) Mammals d) Fishes

Answer : B

Question 5: From origin of life to its diversification on earth, there have occurred following number of episodes of mass extinction.

a) Two  b) Three
c) Four d) Five

Answer : D

 Question 6 : The ‘Evil Quartet’ of biodiversity loss, does not include

a) habitat loss
b) introduction of alien species
c) o-exploitation
d) hunting

Answer : D

Question 7 : Amazon rain forest, called the ‘Lungs of the Planet’, contribute following percentage of oxygen by photosynthesis, to earth atmosphere

a) 20% b) 35%
c) 42% d) 50%

Answer : A

Question 8: The taxa believed likely to join the endangered category in near future is called

a) Rare          b) Extinct
c) Vulnerable d) Living fossil

Answer : C

Question 9 : The Cichlid species of Lake Victoria were driven to, or nearly to, extinction by the introduction of _________. 

a) North American sturgeon
b) Nile perch
c) Eels
d) Bass

Answer : B

Question 10 : Which of the following is not currently a major cause of the global reduction in biodiversity?

a) Overexploitation
b) Global warming
c) Habitat destruction
d) Introduction of foreign predators and disease

Answer : B

Question 11: Which of the following is the most serious threat to biodiversity?

a) Competition from exotic species
b) Commercial harvesting
c) Habitat loss
d) Overexploitation

Answer : C

Question 12: Which of the following characteristics would cause a country to be considered a high-priority region for conservation efforts?

a) A high degree of endemism
b) Having low species richness
c) Having little natural habitat remaining
d) All of the above

Answer : A

Question 13: Which of the following is not the approach for in-situ conservation ?

a) Biosphere reserve  b) Sanctuary
c) Wild life safari park d) Sacred groove

Answer : C 

Question 14:  Among the ecosystem mentioned below, where can one find maximum biodiversity?

• a) Coral reefs
• b) Alpine meadows
• c) Desert
• d) Mangroves

Answer :  Coral reefs

Question 15 :  Which of the following forests is known as the ‘lungs of the planet Earth’?

• a) Amazon rain forest
• b) Tundra forest
• c) Tiaga forest
• d) Rain forests of North East India

Answer :  Amazon rain forest

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-14 Ecosystem  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON ECOSYSTEM

Q1. Ecosystem may be defined as

1. A species along with environment
2. Plants found in water
3. Plants found on land
4. Call plants and animals species along with environment

Answer:4

Q2. A pond / lake is

1. A biome
2. Unnatural ecosystem
3. An artificial ecosystem
4. Community of plants and animals only

Answer:2

Q3. Biome is

1. The fauna of an ocean
2. The Flora of land
3. Communities of organisms interacting with one another
4. The part of the earth and its atmosphere which is inhabited by living organisms

Answer:3

Q4. Grassland biome for its maintenance requires

1. Periodic fire
2. Intensive grazing
3. Mowing
4. All the above

Answer:4

Q6. Primary consumers in the detritus food chain are

1. Herbivorous
2. Bacteria and fungi
3. Insect Larva, nematodes
4. All the above

Answer:2

Q7. Total organic matter present in an ecosystem is called

1. Biomass
2. Biome
3. Litter
4. Food

Answer:1

Q8. Detritus food chain in comparison to grazing food chain is

1. Generally longer
2. Generally equal
3. Generally shorter
4. None of these

Answer:3

Q9. Putrefying organisms are

1. Producer organisms
2. Reducer organisms
3. Consumer organisms
4. Parasitic organisms

Answer:2

Q10. The most important organisms for an ecosystem are

1. Herbivorous
2. Carnivorous
3. Green plants
4. Protozoa

Answer:3

Q11. A peacock eats snakes which eat frog these eat hoppers which in turn thrive on leaves of the plants, the peacock is

1. Primary consumer
2. Secondary consumer
3. Decomposer
4. Apex of the food pyramid

Answer:4

Q12. A food chain is

1. Group of organisms which eat the same type of food
2. Animals eating animals eating
3. Series of plants / animals which are interrelated in the form of organisms being eaten as food by the other
4. None of these

Answer:3

Q13. A food chain consists of

1. Producers
2. Consumers
3. Decomposers
4. Producers and Consumers

Answer:4

Q14. Trophic leaves in a food chain are formed by

1. Producers
2. Consumers
3. Decomposers
4. All the above

Answer:4

Q15. Food chain always starts with

1. Photosynthesis
2. Respiration
3. Nitrogen fixation
4. Decay

Answer:1

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-13 Organisms and Population  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON ORGANISMS AND POPULATION

Question 1.
The shifting of an organism temporarily from the stressful habitat to a more hospitable area and return when stressful period is over is called
(a) Suspend
(b) Migrate
(c) Hibernation
(d) Aestivation

Answer: (b) Migrate

Question 2.
Winter sleep is also called as
(a) Hibernation
(b) Suspend
(c) Migrate
(d) Aestivation

Answer: (a) Hibernation

Question 3.
To avoid summer-related problems – heat and desiccation by organism is called
(a) Hibernation
(b) Suspend
(c) Migrate
(d) Aestivation

Answer: (d) Aestivation

Question 4.
A stage of suspended development is called
(a) Diapause
(b) Suspend
(c) Migrate
(d) Aestivation

Answer: (a) Diapause

Question 5.
Both the species benefit in
(a) Parasitism
(b) Mutualism
(c) Competition
(d) Predation

Answer: (b) Mutualism

Question 6.
Both species lose in
(a) Mutualism
(b) Competition
(c) Parasitism
(d) Predation

Answer: (b) Competition

Question 7.
One species benefit in
(a) Parasitism
(b) Predation
(c) Mutualism
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 8.
The interaction where one species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed is called
(a) Commensalism
(b) Amensalism
(c) Mutualism
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Commensalism

Question 9.
If one species is harmed whereas the other is unaffected is called
(a) Commensalism
(b) Amensalism
(c) Mutualism
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Commensalism

Question 10.
Parasites that feed on the external surface of the host organism are called
(a) Ecto parasites
(b) Endo parasites
(c) Brood parasitism
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Ecto parasites

Question 11.
Parasites that live inside the host body at different sites are called
(a) Ecto parasites
(b) Endo parasites
(c) Brood parasitism
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Endo parasites

Question 12.
The number of birth during a given period in the population that are added to the initial density is referred to
(a) Natality
(b) Mortality
(c) Sex-ratio
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Natality

Question 13.
The number of deaths in the population during a given period is referred to
(a) Natality
(b) Mortality
(c) Sex-ratio
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Mortality

Question 14.
The size of the population tells us a lot about its status in the
(a) Environment
(b) Sex-ratio
(c) Age pyramid
(d) Habitat

Answer: (d) Habitat

Question 15.
For human population, the age pyramids generally show age distribution of
(a) Only males
(b) Only females
(c) Of males and females
(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) Of males and females

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-12 Biotechnology and its Application  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON BIOTECHNOGY AND ITS APPLICATION

1. Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?

(a) X phage

(b) Retrovirus

(c) Ti plasmid

(d) PBR 322

Answer: B

2. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four year old girl with Adenosine Deaminase deficiency (ADA)?

(a) Gene therapy

(b) Chemo therapy

(c) Immunotherapy

(d) Radiation therapy

Answer: A

3. The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by________

(a) Phosphodiester bond

(b) Covalent bond

(c) Disulphide bridges

(d) Hydrogen bonds

Answer: C

4. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected bycMeloidogyne incognitia?

(a) Leaf

(b) Root

(c) Stem

(d) Flower

Answer: B

5. In Bt Cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue as protoxin is converted into active toxin due to__________

(a) Alkaline PH of the insect gut

(b) Acidic pH of the insect gut

(c) Action of gut microorganism

(d) Presence of conversion factors in insect gut

Answer: A

6. The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology is______

(a) Insulin

(b) Thyroxin

(c) Estrogen

(d) Progesterone

Answer:A

7. Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India by the farmers?

(a) Brinjal

(b) Maize

(c) Soyabean

(d) Cotton

Answer: D

8. Tobacco plant resistant to a nematode have beencdeveloped by the introduction of DNA that produced in the host cells__________

(a) Both sense and anti-sense RNA

(b) A particular hormone

(c) An antifeedant

(d) A toxic protein

Answer: A

9. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating__________

(a) Diabetes mellitus

(b) Chicken pox

(c) Rheumatoid arthritis 

(d) Adenosine Deaminase deficiency 

Answer: D

10. Which body of the Government of India regulates GM research and safety of introducing GM organisms for public services________

(a) Bio-safety committee

(b) Indian council for Agriculture Research

(c) Genetic engineering Approval Committee

(d) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation.

Answer: C

11. Maximum number of existing transgenic animalsis of_________

(a) Fish

(b) Cow

(c) Pig

(d) Mice

Answer: D

12. Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing:

(a) Transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in humans________

(b) Transgenic models for studying new treatments for certain cardiac diseases

(c) Transgenic cow – Rosie which produces high fat milk for making ghee

(d) Animals like bulls for farm work as they have super power

Answer: A

13. Transgenic animals are those which have________

(a) Foreign DNA in some of its cells

(b) Foreign DNA in all its cells

(c) Foreign RNA in all its cells 

(d) DNA and RNA both in the cells

Answer: B

14. Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called_______

(a) Biodegradation

(b) Bio-infringement

(c) Biopiracy

(d) Bioexploitation

Answer: C

15. The silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to:

(a) Boll worms

(b) White rusts

(c) Nematodes

(d) Bacterial blights

Answer: C

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-11 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON BIOTECHNOLOGY : PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

1. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?

(a) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves

(b) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves

(c) Positively charged fragments move to farther end

(d) Negatively charged fragments do not move

Answer: B

2. A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as___________

(a) Selectable marker

(b) Vector

(c) Plasmid

(d) Structural gene

Answer: A

3. Which one of the given options correctly identifies its certain component(s)?

(a) Ori – original restriction enzyme

(b) Rop – Reduced osmotic pressure

(c) Hind I, EcoR I – selectable markers

(d) AmpR, tetR – antibiotic resistance genes

Answer: D

4. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does ‘co part in it stand for?

(a) Coelom

(b) Coli

(c) Colon

(d) Coenzyme

Answer: B

5. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the oppositevstrands?

5’____________GAATTC____________3′

5’____________CTTAAG____________3′

What is so special shown in it?

(a) Replication completed

(b) Deletion mutation

(c) Start codon at the 5′ end

(d) Palindromic sequence of base pairs

Answer: D

6. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with__________

(a) Bromophenol blue 

(b) Acetocarmine

(c) Aniline blue

(d) Ethidium bromide

Answer: D

7. Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends?

(a) Eco RV

(b) Sal I

(c) Hind III

(d) Xho I

Answer: A

8. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the me restriction endonuclease can be joined to forma recombinant plasmid using_____________

(a) Eco RI

(b) Taq polymerase

(c) Ligase

(d) Polymerase II

Answer: C

9. Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmid?

(a) Single stranded

(b) Independent replication

(c) Circular structure

(d) Small, circular double-stranded

Answer: A

10. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are_____________

(a) T-DNA

(b) BAC vectors

(c) T/C cloning vector

(d) Expression vector

Answer: B

11. DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by_________

(a) Centrifugation

(b) Polymerase Chain Reaction

(c) Electrophoresis

(d) Restriction mapping

Answer: C

12. Biolistics (Gene gun) is suitable for_____________

(a) Disarming pathogen vectors

(b) Iransformation of plant cells

(c) Joining of DNA Vector

(d) DNA Fingerprinting 

Answer: B

13. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is____________

(a) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing

(b) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation

(c) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing

(d) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

Answer: D

14. The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called__________

(a) Upstream processing

(b) Downstream processing

(c) Bioprocessing

(d) Postproduction processing

Answer: B

15. Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing? 

(a) Separation

(b) Preservation

(c) Purification

(d) Expression

Answer: D

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-10 Microbes in Human Welfare NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE

Question 1 :  The primary treatment of waste water involves the removal of

• a) stable particles
• b) toxic substances
• c) harmful bacteria
• d) dissolved impurities

Answer :  stable particles

Question 2:  BOD of waste water is estimated by measuring the amount of

• a) oxygen consumption
• b) oxygen evolution
• c) biodegradable organic matter
• d) total organic matter

Answer :  oxygen consumption

Question 3:  Which one of the following alcoholic drinks is produced without distillation?

• a) Wine
• b) Whisky
• c) Rum
• d) Brandy

Answer :  Wine

Question 4 :  Which of these processes does not give off CO₂?

• a) Lactate fermentation
• b) Aerobic respiration
• c) Alcoholic fermentation
• d) None of these

Answer :  Lactate fermentation

Question 5 :  High biological oxygen demand in a water body means

• a) Water is polluted
• b) Water is not polluted
• c) Waterbody contains lots of lifeforms
• d) None of these

Answer :  Water is polluted

Question 6:  The guts of various ruminants contain

• a) Methanogens
• b) Halophiles
• c) Broth
• d) None of these

Answer :  Methanogens 

Question 7 : Conversion of sugar into alcohol during fermentation is due to the direct action of

a) temperature
b) micro-organisms
c) zymase
d) concentration of sugar solution

Answer : C

Question 8: Glucose fermentation by yeast yields

a) ethanol + CO₂   b) ethanol + H₂O
c) methanol + CO₂ d) H₂O + CO₂

Answer : A

Question 9: Streptokinase, used as a ‘clot buster’ is obtained from

a) Streptococcus b) Staphylococcus
c) Lactobacillus    d) Saccharomyces

Answer : A

Question 10 : Cyclosporin A is used for

a) dissolving blood clots
b) lowering cholesterol level
c) immunosuppression
d) enhancing tenderness of meat

Answer : C

Question 11 : The bioactive molecule Cyclosporin A is used in the treatment of

a) whooping cough b) diphtheria
c) leprosy                d) organ-transplant patients

Answer : D

Question 12: Statins are obtained from

a) Streptococcus           b) Mucor javanicus
c) Monascus purpureus d) Clostridium butyricum

Answer : C

Question 13: Statins, a bioactive molecule, inhibits the enzyme responsible for synthesis of

a) carbohydrate b) protein
c) vitamins         d) cholesterol

Answer : D

Question 14 : Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially in the production of

a) ethanol
b) streptokinase for removing clots from the blood vessels
c) citric acid
d) blood cholesterol lowering statins

Answer : D

Question 15 : The large vessels for growing microbes on an industrial scale are called _________ .

a) Petridis        b) digestors
c) biogas vessel d) fermenter

Answer : D

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-9 Strategies for Enhancement of Food Production NCERT MCQ for Class 12 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON STRATEGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT OF FOOD PRODUCTION

Question 1: Germplasm can be collected from many sources, where the preferred source to develop disease resistance is

• a) Wild relative
• b) Plantlet from culture experiment
• c) Improved variety
• d) Local variety

Answer: Wild relative

Question 2: Emasculation (removal of anthers) is required for

• a) Selective hybridization
• b) Inbreeding
• c) Pure lines
• d) Self pollination

Answer: Selective hybridisation

Question 3: Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. plant breeding

• a) Progeny plants with superior characters are self-pollinated for several generations till they reach a state of heterozygosity
• b) In many crops pre-existing genetic variability is available from wild relatives of the crop
• c) Hybrid breeding have led to development of several high yielding varieties resistant to water stress
• d) Conventional method of breeding for disease resistance is that of hybridization and selection

Answer:  Progeny plants with superior characters are self-pollinated for several generations till they reach a state of heterozygosity

Question 4: Which of the following is an example of intergeneric hybridization?

• a) More than one option is correct
• b) Raphanobrassica
• c) Triticale
• d) ADT-37

Answer:  More than one option is correct

Question 5:  Gene responsible for dwarfing in wheat is

• a) norin-10
• b) cry gene
• c) nod gene
• d) dee-geo-woo-gen

Answer: norin-10

Question 6:  The semi-dwarf wheat varieties brought from Mexico into India were

• a) Sonara-64 and Lerma Rojo-64
• b) Sonalika and NP-836
• c) Sharbati Sonara and Pusa Lerma
• d) Sonara-64 and HUW-468

Answer: Sonara-64 and Lerma Rojo-64

Question 7: Which of the following is a chemical mutagen?

• a) Ethyl methane sulphonate and Sodium azide
• b) Ethyl methane sulphonate and X-rays
• c) Sodium azide and UV rays
• d) X-rays, gamma rays and UV rays

Answer: Ethyl methane sulphonate and Sodium azide

Question 8: Bread wheat is

• a) T. aestivum
• b) T. durum
• c) Secale cereale
• d) Triticum turgidum

Answer: T. aestivum

Question 9: Late blight of potato is caused by the fungus

• a) Phytophthora infestans
• b) Alternaria solani
• c) Fusarium udum
• d) Plasmopara viticola

Answer: Phytophthora infestans

Question 10: The use of colchicine is involved in production of

• a) Polyploids
• b) Hybrids
• c) Haploids
• d) Somaclonal variations

Answer: Polyploids

Question 11: Large numbers of new varieties have been developed through mutation breeding and it has been used commonly in

• a) Self pollinating crops
• b) Allogamous plants
• c) Cross pollinating crops
• d) More than one option is correct

Answer: Self pollinating crops

Question 12: Which one of the following is not an improved variety of flat bean?

• a) Pusa sawani
• b) Pusa sem 3
• c) Pusa sem 2
• d) None of these

Answer: Pusa sawani

Question 13: Maize is rich in

• a) Thiamine
• b) Lysine
• c) Tryptophan
• d) Alanine

Answer:  Thiamine

Question 14: Anti-nutritional neurotoxic factor called cyan alanine is found in

• a) Seeds of khesari
• b) Kidney bean
• c) Almond
• d) Brassica oleracea

Answer: Seeds of khesari

Question 15: Atlas 66 variety of wheat was developed for

• a) High protein content
• b) Checking grassy stunt virus
• c) Scented grains
• d) Vitamin C

Answer: High protein content