Author Archives: Priyanka

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-2 Morphology of Flowering Plants NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON MORPHOOGY OF FLOWERING PLANTS

Question 1.
In tamarind, the pinnate leaf is
(a) bipinnate
(b) tripinnate
(c) paripinnate
(d) imparipinnate

Answer: (a) bipinnate

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Question 2.
Artabotrys is a hook climber in which the hooks are modified
(a) inflorescence axis
(b) petiole
(c) roots
(d) stipules

Answer: (a) inflorescence axis

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Question 3.
Exceptional roots of Cuscuta are
(a) haustorial
(b) coralloid
(c) mycorrhizal
(d) all of the above

Answer: (a) haustorial

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Question 4.
The petiole is swollen and spongy in
(a) Nepenthes
(b) Trapa
(c) Clematis
(d) all of the above

Answer: (b) Trapa

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Question 5.
Which one of the following plants dose not have root – pockets
(a) Pistia
(b) Lemma
(c) Ficus
(d) Eichhornia

Answer: (c) Ficus

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Question 6.
The largest petal overlaps the lateral ones in _________ aestivation.
(a) Papilionaceous
(b) Valvate
(c) Twisted
(d) Imbricate

Answer: (a) Papilionaceous
Explanation:
In pea and bean flowers, there are five petals, the largest overlaps the two lateral petals which in turn overlaps the two smallest anterior petals. This is called Vexillary or papilionaceous aestivation.

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Question 7.
In Lathyrus, the leaves are modified into
(a) thorns
(b) cladodes
(c) tendrils
(d) spines

Answer: (c) tendrils

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Question 8.

Label the parts of a monocot seed.
(a) A.Endosperm, B. Scutellum, C. Radicle, D. Coleoptile, E. Plumule
(b) A.Endosperm, B. Coleoptile, C. Scutellum, D. Radicle, E. Plumule
(c) A.Endosperm, B. Scutellum, C. Coleoptile, D. Radicle, E. Plumule
(d) A.Endosperm, B. Scutellum, C. Coleoptile, D. Plumule, E. Radicle

Answer: (d) A.Endosperm, B. Scutellum, C. Coleoptile, D. Plumule, E. Radicle
Explanation:

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Question 9.
Potato tuber is an underground stem because
(a) it lacks chlorophyll
(b) it is swollen
(c) it possesses axillary buds
(d) it stores starch as reserve food material

Answer: (c) it possesses axillary buds

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Question 10.
Floating roots are characteristic of
(a) Tinospora
(b) Jussiaea
(c) Viscum
(d) Vanda

Answer: (b) Jussiaea

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Question 11.
Thorns and spines are
(a) homologous organs
(b) analogous organs
(c) thorn is homologous while spine is analogous
(d) spine is homologous while is analogous

Answer: (d) A

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Question 12.
Which of the following picture shows fibrous root system?

Answer: (d)

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Question 13.
In which of the following plants stems do not store the food material
(a) potato
(b) ginger
(c) onion
(d) colocasia

Answer: (c) onion

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Question 14.
In banana, the stem is
(a) underground only
(b) both underground and aerial
(c) absent
(d) aerial only

Answer: (a) underground only

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Question 15.
Stem modified to perform the function of a leaf and having many internodes is called as
(a) phylloclade
(b) cladode
(c) offset
(d) phyllode

Answer: (a) phylloclade

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-4 Animal Kingdom NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON ANIMAL KINGDOM

Question 1 : Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic?

• a) Aschelminthes (round worms)
• b) Coelenterates (Cnidarians)
• c) Ctenophores
• d) None of these

Answer : Aschelminthes (round worms)

Question 2 :  Which of the following animal is cold blooded and has 4 – chambered heart?

• a) Crocodile
• b) Ornithorhynchus
• c) Calotes
• d) none of these

Answer :  Crocodile

Question 3: Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of phylum Annelida?

• a) Pseudocoelom
• b) Ventral nerve cord
• c) Segmentation
• d) Closed circulatory system

Answer : Pseudocoelom

Question 4 : Which one of the following characters is not typical of the class mammalia?

• a) Ten pairs of cranial nerves
• b) Seven cervical vertebrae
• c) Alveolar lungs
• d) Thecodont dentition

Answer : Ten pairs of cranial nerves

Question 5 : Which one of following feature is possessed by Crustaceans and not by insects?

• a) Two pairs of antenna
• b) Chitinous exoskeleton
• c) Bilateral symmetry
• d) Paired limbs

Answer : Two pairs of antenna

Question 6: Poison glands of snake are modified

• a) Parotids
• b) Sublinguals
• c) Linguals
• d) Maxillaries

Answer : Parotids

Question 7: The adults are radially symmetrical but larvae exhibit bilateral symmetry in

• a) Echinodermata
• b) Mollusca
• c) Hemichordata
• d) Cephalochordata

Answer : Echinodermata

Question 8: Solenocytes and metanephridia are excretory organs of

• a) Platyhelminthes and Annelida
• b) Coelenterata and Mollusca
• c) Aschelminthes and Annelida
• d) Annelida and Arthropoda

Answer : Platyhelminthes and Annelida

Question 9 : Radial symmetry occurs in

• a) Coelenterata and Echinodermata
• b) Coelenterata and Platyhelminthes
• c) Arthropoda and Mollusca
• d) Porifera and Coelenterata

Answer : Coelenterata and Echinodermata

Question 10 : In Amoeba and Paramecium osmoregulation occurs through

• a) contractile vacuole
• b) pseudopodia
• c) nucleus
• d) general surface

Answer : contractile vacuole

Question 11: Animals with metameric segmentation, bilateral symmetry and closed circulatory system belong to phylum

• a) Annelida
• b) Arthropoda
• c) Echinodermata
• d) Mollusca

Answer : Annelida

Question 12 : Which one of the following characters is not typical of the class Mammalia?

• a) Ten pairs of cranial nerves
• b) Alveolar lungs
• c) Thecodont dentition
• d) None of these

Answer : Ten pairs of cranial nerves

Question 13 : Animals like bats have/are

• a) Endothermic
• b) Efficient respiration. Non-vascular air sacs are connected to lungs to supplement respiration
• c) Feathers which are modified reptilian scales
• d) Hollow skeleton

Answer : Endothermic

Question 14 : Complete the following analogy : Pigeon’s milk : Crop :: Song

• a) Syrinx
• b) Proventriculus
• c) Trachea
• d) None of these

Answer : Syrinx

Question 15 : Which of the following is not correct matching of phylum and its three examples?

• a) Aschelminthes : Ancylostoma, Enterobius, Tubifex
• b) Arthropoda : Buthus, Lepisma, Leptocorisa
• c) Mollusca : Teredo, Aplysia, Chaetopleura
• d) None of these

Answer : Aschelminthes : Ancylostoma, Enterobius, Tubifex

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-3 Plant Kingdom NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON PLANT KINGDOM

Question 1 : In Chlorophyceae, sexual reproduction occurs by

• a) isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy
• b) oogamy only
• c) anisogamy and oogamy
• d) isogamy and anisogamy

Answer : isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy

Question 2 : A water fern which is used as a green manure in rice fields is

• a) Azolla
• b) Mucor
• c) Salvinia
• d) Aspergillus

Answer : Azolla

Question 3 : The largest flower found is known as

• a) Rafflesia
• b) Musa
• c) Cauliflower
• d) Tecoma

Answer : Rafflesia

Question 4 : In fern, spores are formed in

• a) sporangium
• b) archegonium
• c) oogonium
• d) stomium

Answer : sporangium

Question 5 :  Laminaria (kelp) and Fucus (rock weed) are the examples of

• a) brown algae
• b) green algae
• c) golden brown algae
• d) red algae

Answer : brown algae

Question 6 :  People recovering from long illness are often advised to include the alga Spirulina in their diet because it

• a) is rich in proteins
• b) has antibiotic properties
• c) restores the intestinal microflora
• d) makes the food easy to digest

Answer : is rich in proteins

Question 7 : Which of the following cell organelle remains enveloped by a single unit membrane?

• a) Lysosomes
• b) Chloroplast
• c) Mitochondria
• d) Nucleus

Answer : Lysosomes

Question 8 : Algae have cell wall made up of

• a) cellulose, galactans and mannans
• b) hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
• c) pectins, cellulose and proteins
• d) cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins

Answer : cellulose, galactans and mannans

Question 9 :  Which plays an important role in the dispersal of spores in Funaria?

• a) Peristome and annulus
• b) Sporogonium
• c) Capsule
• d) Operculum

Answer : Peristome and annulus

Question 10 : Which one of the following is a correct statement ?

• a) Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes
• b) Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are present in pteridophytes
• c) In gymnosperms female gametophyte is free-living
• d) None of these

Answer : Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes

Question 11 : What is the similarity between gymnosperms and angiosperms ?

• a) Both have leaves, stem and roots
• b) Origin of ovule and seed is similar in both
• c) Endosperm is formed before fertilization in both
• d) Phloem of both have companian cells

Answer : Both have leaves, stem and roots

Question 12 : In Chlorophyceae, sexual reproduction occurs by

• a) isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy
• b) oogamy only
• c) anisogamy and oogamy
• d) isogamy and anisogamy

Answer : isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy

Question 13 : In gymnosperms, the ovule is naked because

• a) ovary wall is absent
• b) perianth is absent
• c) integuments are absent
• d) nucellus is absent

Answer : ovary wall is absent

Question 14 : How many meiotic division would be required to produce 101 female gametophytes in an angiosperm?

• a) 101
• b) 127
• c) 26
• d) None of these

Answer : 101

Question 15 : Which one of the following is the major difference between mosses and ferns ?

• a) Sporophytes of ferns live much longer as compared to the sporophytes of mosses.
• b) Vascular bundles of ferns show xylem vessels while those of mosses lack it
• c) Mosses are facultative aerobes while ferns are obligate aerobes.
• d) Ferns lack alternation of generation while mosses show the same.

Answer : Sporophytes of ferns live much longer as compared to the sporophytes of mosses.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-2 Biological Classification NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION

Question 1.
Sexual reproduction is by copulation of male and female followed by embryological development is characteristic feature of
(a) Animalia
(b) Fungi
(c) Mucor
(d) Plantae

Answer: (a) Animalia

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Question 2.
The blue-green algae are also referred as
(a) Cyanobacteria
(b) Eubacteria
(c) Archaebacteria
(d) Heterotrophic bacteria

Answer: (a) Cyanobacteria

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Question 3.
Antibiotics cure disease by
(a) Competitive Inhibition
(b) Fighting with the disease causing organism
(c) Turning the pathogen out of the body
(d) Removing the pain

Answer: (a) Competitive Inhibition

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Question 4.
The organism that completely lack a cell wall and are smallest living cell know, can survive without oxygen is
(a) Bacteriophages
(b) Yeast
(c) Mycoplasmas
(d) Virus

Answer: (c) Mycoplasmas

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Question 5.
Naked cytoplasm, multinucleated and saprophytic are the characteristics of
(a) Monerans
(b) Slime moulds
(c) Fungi
(d) Protists

Answer: (b) Slime moulds

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Question 6.
Wine turns sour because of
(a) Heat
(b) Aerobic bacteria
(c) Anaerobic bacteria
(d) Exposure to the light

Answer: (b) Aerobic bacteria

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Question 7.
Which among the following is not included in the three domains system?
(a) Bacteria Domain
(b) Archaea Domain
(c) Viral Domain
(d) Euskara Domain

Answer: (c) Viral Domain

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Question 8.
Which one of the following is true for fungi?
(a) They are phototrophs
(b) They lack a rigid cell wall
(c) They are heterotrophs
(d) They lack nuclear membrane

Answer: (c) They are heterotrophs

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Question 9.
Which Archaebacteria is present in the guts of ruminant animals such as cows and buffaloes?
(a) Speculums
(b) Methanogens
(c) Heterogens
(d) Halophiles

Answer: (b) Methanogens

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Question 10.
Which of the following is an exception of monera kingdom –
(a) Bacteria
(b) Virus
(c) Cyanobacteria
(d) Mycoplasma

Answer: (b) Virus

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Question 11.
Archegoniophore is present in:
(a) Marchantia
(b) Chara
(c) Adiantum
(d) Funaria

Answer: (a) Marchantia

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Question 12.
The main difference between Gram positive and gram negative resides in the composition of:
(a) Cilia
(b) Cell-wall
(c) Cell-membrane
(d) Cytoplasm

Answer: (b) Cell-wall

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Question 13.
Which of the following structure is not found in prokaryotic cells :
(a) Plasma membrane
(b) Ribosomes
(c) Nuclear membrane and membranous cell organelles
(d) Hereditary substance

Answer: (c) Nuclear membrane and membranous cell organelles

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Question 14.
Virus envelope is known as:
(a) Capsid
(b) Virion
(c) Nucleoprotein
(d) Core

Answer: (a) Capsid

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Question 15.
Moneran phylogeny is best evidenced by sequence of nucleotides in RNA of ribosomes. On the basis of this information, the most primitive monerans are :-
(a) Archaebacteria
(b) Eubacteria
(c) Filamentous bacteria
(d) Cyanobacteria

Answer: (a) Archaebacteria

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-1 The Living World NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE LIVING WORLD

Question 1 : The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of their ability for

• a) reproduction
• b) growth and movement
• c) responsiveness to touch.
• d) interaction with the environment and progressive evolution

Answer : reproduction

Question 2 : Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named taxonomic category ?

• a) Tiger – tigris, the species
• b) Cuttle fish – mollusca, a class
• c) Humans – primata, the family
• d) Housefly – musca, an order

Answer : Tiger – tigris, the species

Question 3 : Choose correct scientific name of mango

• a) Mangifera indica Linn
• b) Mangifera indica Hook
• c) Mangifera indica L
• d) Mangifera Indica

Answer : Mangifera indica Linn

Question 4: Arrange the following taxonomic categories in increasing number of common characteristics w.r.t. plant mango A. Dicotyledonae B. Polymoniales C. Mangifera D. Angiospermae E. Anacardiaceae

• a)
• b)
• c)
• d) None of these

Answer :

Question 5 : The common characteristics between brinjal and wheat can be observed maximum at the level of their.

• a) Division
• b) Kingdom
• c) Phylum
• d) None of these

Answer : Division

Question 6 : Study of number of chromosomes for resolving difficulties in classification is used in

• a) Cytotaxonomy
• b) Biochemical taxonomy
• c) Morphotaxonomy
• d) Chemotaxonomy

Answer : Cytotaxonomy

Question 7 : Most names in biological nomenclature of living organisms are taken from which language?

• a) Latin
• b) French
• c) Hindi
• d) German

Answer : Latin

Question 8 : The main objective of plant taxonomy is

• a) all of these
• b) to provide Latin ‘scientific’ names for every group of plants in the world
• c) to provide a method for identification and nomenclature
• d) to study the world’s flora

Answer : all of these

Question 9: Which one of the following has least similar characters?

• a) Class
• b) Genus
• c) Species
• d) Family

Answer : Class

Question 10 : The ascending or descending arrangement of taxonomic categories is called as

• a) hierarchy
• b) classification
• c) taxonomy
• d) key

Answer : hierarchy

Question 11 : Animal taxonomists have named the animals according to

• a) International code for Zoological Nomenclature
• b) International classification for Zoological Nomenclature
• c) Indian code for Zoology Nomenclature
• d) International class for Zoology Nomenclature

Answer : International code for Zoological Nomenclature

Question 12 : Which of the following statement is not true?

• a) When the external temperature is warm, the superficial blood vessels constrict to prevent loss of body heat
• b) Homeostasis is a fundamental property of life
• c) Human beings are endothermic
• d) None of these

Answer : When the external temperature is warm, the superficial blood vessels constrict to prevent loss of body heat

Question 13: The usage of binomial names, for plant species was accepted by all after the publication of the work by

• a) Linnaeus
• b) Darwin
• c) Hooker
• d) None of these

Answer : Linnaeus

Question 14 : A taxon with reference to classification of living organisms can be defined as

• a) a group of any one rank of organisms
• b) a group of organisms based on chromosome numbers
• c) a group of similar species
• d) a group of similar genera

Answer : a group of any one rank of organisms

Question 15 : Species are considered as

• a) The lowest units of classification
• b) Artificial concept of human mind which cannot be defined in absolute terms
• c) Real basic units of classification
• d) Real units of classification devised by taxonomists

Answer : The lowest units of classification

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-7 Environmental Chemistry NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY

Question 1.
Which of the following has greatest affinity for hemoglobin?
(a) CO
(b) NO
(c) O₂
(d) CO₂

Answer: (b) NO

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Question 2.
Which of the following is the coldest region?
(a) Troposphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Stratosphere
(d) Thermosphere.

Answer: (b) Mesosphere

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Question 3.
The aromatic compounds present as particulates are
(a) Benzene
(b) Toluene
(c) Nitrobenzene
(d) Poly cyclic hydrocarbons.

Answer: (d) Poly cyclic hydrocarbons.

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Question 4.
Ozone layer is present in
(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Exosphere

Answer: (b) Stratosphere

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Question 5.
Depletion of ozone layer causes
(a) Blood cancer
(b) Lung cancer
(c) Skin cancer
(d) Breast cancer.

Answer: (c) Skin cancer

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Question 6.
Photochemical smog is formed in
(a) Summer during morning time
(b) Summer during day time
(c) Winter during morning time
(d) Winter during day time.

Answer: (b) Summer during day time

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Question 7.
Which of the following is not involved in formation of photochemical smog?
(a) NO
(b) O₃
(c) C_xH_y
(d) SO₂

Answer: (d) SO₂

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Question 8.
The most abundant hydrocarbon pollutant is
(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
(c) Propane
(d) Butane

Answer: (a) Methane

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Question 9.
Which of the following is present in maximum amount in acid rain?
(a) HNO₃
(b) H₂SO₄
(c) HCl
(d) H₂CO₃

Answer: (b) H₂SO₄

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Question 10.
Which of the following is not considered a pollutant?
(a) NO₂
(b) CO₂
(c) O₃
(d) C_xH_y

Answer: (b) CO₂

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Question 11.
Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(a) CO₂
(b) CH₄
(c) Chlorofluorocarbons
(d) O₂

Answer: (d) O₂

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Question 12.
The size of the particulates of H₂SO₄ fog lies in the range
(a) 5-100 nm
(b) 100-500 nm
(c) 500-1000 nm
(d) 1000-10000 nm

Answer: (c) 500-1000 nm

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Question 13.
Which of the following is true about photochemical smog?
(a) It is reducing in nature
(b) It is formed during winter
(c) It is a mixture of smoke and fog
(d) It causes irritation in eyes.

Answer: (d) It causes irritation in eyes.

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Question 14.
Which of the following statement is false?
(a) London smog is oxidizing in nature
(b) London smog contains H₂SO₄ droplets
(c) London smog is formed during winter
(d) London smog causes bronchitis.

Answer: (a) London smog is oxidizing in nature

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Question 15.
The region closest to earth’s surface is
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) Thermosphere.

Answer: (c) Troposphere

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-6 Hydrocarbons NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON HYDROCARBONS

Question 1 : The number of primary, secondary and tertiary carbons in 3, 4-dimethylheptane are respectively

• a) 4, 3 and 2
• b) 4, 2 and 3
• c) 2, 3 and 4
• d) 3, 4 and 2

Answer: 4, 3 and 2

Question 2: Which of the following statements is false for isopentane

• a) It has a carbon which is not bonded to hydrogen
• b) It has one CH group
• c) It has three CH₃ groups
• d) It has one CH₂ group

Answer: It has a carbon which is not bonded to hydrogen

Question 3: How many isomers are possible for the C₅H₁₂ ?

• a) 3
• b) 5
• c) 2
• d) 4

Answer: 3

Question 4: The number of 4° carbon atoms in 2,2,4,4-tetramethyl pentane is –

• a) 2
• b) 4
• c) 1
• d) 3

Answer: 2

Question 5: Which one of the following cannot be prepared by Wurtz reaction ?

• a) CH₄
• b) C₂H₆
• c) Both
• d) None of these

Answer: CH₄

Question 6: Pure methane can be produced by

• a) Soda-lime decarboxylation
• b) Reduction with H₂
• c) Kolbe’s electrolytic method
• d) Wurtz reaction

Answer: Soda-lime decarboxylation

Question 7: Sodium salts of carboxylic acids on heating with soda lime give alkanes containing _______ than the carboxylic acid

• a) one carbon less
• b) one carbon more
• c) two carbon less
• d) All of these

Answer: one carbon less

Question 8: Which one of the following has the least boiling point?

• a) 2, 2– dimethylpropane
• b) 2-methylpropane
• c) n-butane
• d) n-pentane

Answer: 2, 2– dimethylpropane

Question 9: Which one of the following has highest boiling point?

• a) n-Octane
• b) Iso-octan
• c) 2,2 dimethyl pentane
• d) All have equal values

Answer: n-Octane

Question 10: In the free radical chlorination of methane, the chain initiating step involves the formation of

• a) chlorine free radical
• b) hydrogen chloride
• c) methyl radical
• d) chloromethyl radical.

Answer: chlorine free radical

Question 11: Which one of the following gives only one monochloro derivative?

• a) neo-pentane
• b) 2-methylpentane
• c) n-hexane
• d) 2, 3-dimethylpentane

Answer: neo-pentane

Question 12: Photochemical halogenation of alkane is an example of

• a) free radical substitution
• b) nucleophilic substitution
• c) electrophilic addition
• d) electrophilic substitution

Answer: free radical substitution

Question 13: 2-Methylbutane on reacting with bromine in the presence of sunlight gives mainly

• a) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane
• b) 1-bromo-2-methylbutane
• c) 2-bromo-3-methylbutane
• d) 1-bromo-3-methylbutane

Answer: 2-bromo-2-methylbutane

Question 14: Liquid hydrocarbons can be converted to a mixture of gaseous hydrocarbons by

• a) cracking
• b) distillation under reduced pressure
• c) hydrolysis
• d) oxidation

Answer: cracking

Question 15: n-Hexane isomerizes in presence of anhydrous aluminum chloride and hydrogen chloride gas to give

• a) Both
• b) 2-Methyl pentane
• c) 3-Methyl pentane
• d) None of these

Answer: Both

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-5 Organic Chemistry- Some Basic Principles and Techniques NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON ORGANIC CHEMISTRY- SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES AND TECHNIQUES

Question 1: In laboratory, first organic compound was synthesized by

• a) Wohler
• b) Kekule
• c) Hennel
• d) Liebig

Answer: Wohler

Question 2: Who is known as the “Father of Chemistry”?

• a) Lavoisier
• b) Priestley
• c) Faraday
• d) Rutherford

Answer: Lavoisier

Question 3: The percentage of s- character of the hybrid orbitals in ethane, ethene and ethyne are respectively

• a) 25, 33, 50
• b) 50, 75, 100
• c) 25, 50, 75
• d) 10, 20, 40

Answer: 25, 33, 50

Question 4: The functional group present in organic, acid is –

• a) –COOH
• b) – OH
• c) – CHO
• d) > C = O

Answer: –COOH

Question 5: Which of these contains the carbonyl group?

• a) all of these
• b) aldehydes
• c) ketones
• d) esters

Answer: all of these

Question 6: Butanone is a four-carbon compound with the functional group –

• a) ketone
• b) carboxylic acid
• c) aldehyde.
• d) alcohol.

Answer: ketone

Question 7: Which of the following compounds contains 1°, 2°, 3° as well as 4° carbon atoms ?

• a) 2,2,3-trimethyl pentane
• b) 2-methyl pentane
• c) Neopentane
• d) 2,3-dimethyl butane

Answer: 2,2,3-trimethyl pentane

Question 8: The number of secondary hydrogens in 2, 2-dimethylbutane is

• a) 2
• b) 6
• c) 8
• d) 4

Answer: 2

Question 9: The compound which has one isopropyl group is

• a) 2- Methypentane
• b) 2, 2, 3- Trimethylpentane
• c) 2, 2 – Dimethylpentane
• d) 2, 2, 3, 3 – Tetramethylpentane

Answer: 2- Methypentane

Question 10: Which of the following statements is false for isopentane ?

• a) It has a carbon which is not bonded to hydrogen
• b) It has one CH group
• c) It has one CH₂ group
• d) It has three CH₃ groups

Answer: It has a carbon which is not bonded to hydrogen

Question 11: The number of primary, secondary and tertiary carbons in 3, 4-dimethylheptane are respectively

• a) 4, 3 and 2
• b) 4, 2 and 3
• c) 2, 3 and 4
• d) 3, 4 and 2

Answer: 4, 3 and 2

Question 12: The number of primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary carbons in neopentane are respectively

• a) 4, 0, 0 and 1
• b) 4, 3, 2 and 1
• c) 5, 0, 0 and 1
• d) 4, 0, 1 and 1

Answer: 4, 0, 0 and 1

Question 13: What is the IUPAC name of t-butyl alcohol.

• a) 2–Methyl-propan–2-ol
• b) Propanol-2
• c) Butanol–2
• d) Butanol–1

Answer: 2–Methyl-propan–2-ol

Question 14: The IUPAC name of CH₃COCH (CH₃)₂ is –

• a) 3-methyl-2-butanone
• b) 4-methylisopropyl ketone
• c) 2-methyl-3-butanone
• d) isopropyl methyl ketone

Answer: 3-methyl-2-butanone

Question 15: Which of the following statements is false for isopentane–

• a) It has a carbon which is not bonded to hydrogen
• b) It has one CH group
• c) It has three CH₃ groups
• d) It has one CH₂ group

Answer: It has a carbon which is not bonded to hydrogen

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-4 The p-block Elements NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE p-BLOCK ELEMENTS

Question 1 :  Which of the following is/are true regarding gallium?

(i) It has unusually low melting point (303 K).
(ii) It exist in liquid state during summer.
(iii) It has a high boiling point (2676 K).
The correct option is

• a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
• b) (i) and (ii)
• c) (i) and (iii)
• d) (ii) and (iii)

Answer :  (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 2 :  The element which shows least metallic character is

• a) Boron
• b) Gallium
• c) Indium
• d) Aluminium

Answer :  Boron

Question 3 :  Which one of the following has the lowest m.p.?

• a) Ga
• b) B
• c) Al
• d) Tl

Answer :  Ga

Question 4 :  Which of the following does not form M³⁺ ion?

• a) Boron
• b) Indium
• c) Aluminium
• d) Gallium

Answer :  Boron

Question 5:  The group 13 element that is liquid during summer and used for measuring high temperature is

• a) Gallium
• b) Boron
• c) Aluminium
• d) Indium

Answer :  Gallium

Question 6:  Thallium shows different oxidation states because

• a) of inert pair effect
• b) of its amphoteric character
• c) of its higher reactivity
• d) it is transition element

Answer :  of inert pair effect

Question 7 :  Aluminium chloride is a/an

• a) Lewis acid
• b) Bronsted – Lowery acid
• c) Arhenius acid
• d) Lewis base

Answer :  Lewis acid

Question 8 :  The strongest Lewis acid is

• a) BI₃
• b) BCl₃
• c) BF₃
• d) BBr₃

Answer :  BI₃

Question 9 :  Which metal is protected by a layer of its own oxide?

• a) Al
• b) Au
• c) Ag
• d) Fe

Answer :  Al

Question 10 :  Aluminium vessels should not be washed with materials containing washing soda because

• a) washing soda reacts with aluminium to form soluble aluminate
• b) washing soda reacts with aluminium to form insoluble aluminium oxide
• c) washing soda is easily decomposed
• d) washing soda is expensive

Answer :  washing soda reacts with aluminium to form soluble aluminate

Question 11 :  When Al is added to KOH solution

• a) hydrogen is evolved
• b) oxygen is evolved
• c) no action takes place
• d) water is produced

Answer :  hydrogen is evolved

Question 12:  Which of the following does not react with aqueous NaOH ?

• a) B
• b) Al
• c) Ga
• d) Tl

Answer :  B

Question 13 :  In borax bead test which compound is formed?

• a) Meta-borate
• b) Tetra-borate
• c) Ortho-borate
• d) Double oxide

Answer :  Meta-borate

Question 14 :  Boric acid is polymeric due to

• a) the presence of hydrogen bonds
• b) its acidic nature
• c) its monobasic nature
• d) its geometry

Answer :  the presence of hydrogen bonds

Question 15 :  Orthoboric acid when heated to red hot gives

• a) pyroboric acid
• b) boric anhydride
• c) metaboric acid
• d) boron and water

Answer :  pyroboric acid

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-3 The s-block Elements NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE s-BLOCK ELEMENTS

Question 1.
The paramagnetic species is
(a) KO₂
(b) SiO₂
(c) TiO₂
(d) BaO₂

Answer: (a) KO₂

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Question 2.
On dissolving moderate amount of sodium metal in liquid ammonia at low temperature, which one of the following does not occur?
(a) Blue coloured solution is obtained
(b) Na⁺ ions are formed in the solution
(c) Liquid NH₃ becomes good conductor of electricity
(d) Liquid ammonia remain diamagnetic.

Answer: (d) Liquid ammonia remain diamagnetic.

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Question 3.
The substance not likely to contain CaCO₃ is
(a) Dolomite
(b) A marble
(c) Calcined gypsum
(d) Sea shells.

Answer: (c) Calcined gypsum

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Question 4.
TLe active constituent of bleaching powder is
(a) Ca(OCl)₂
(b) Ca(OCl)Cl
(c) Ca(ClO₂)
(d) Ca(ClO₂)Cl

Answer: (b) Ca(OCl)Cl

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Question 5.
Which of the following is the correct order of gradually decreasing basic nature of the oxides?
(a) Al₂O₃, MgO, Cl₂O₇, SO₃
(b) Cl₂O₇, SO₃, Al₂O₃, MgO
(c) SO₃, Cl₂O₇, MgO, Al₂O₃
(d) MgO, Al₂O₃, SO₃, Cl₂O₇

Answer: (d) MgO, Al₂O₃, SO₃, Cl₂O₇

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Question 6.
Among the alkaline earth metals, the element forming the predominantly covalent compound is
(a) Barium
(b) Strontium
(c) Calcium
(d) Beryllium.

Answer: (d) Beryllium.

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Question 7.
Which of the following substances can be used for drying gases?
(a) Calcium carbonate
(b) Sodium carbonate
(c) Sodium bicarbonate
(d) Calcium oxide

Answer: (d) Calcium oxide

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Question 8.
The stability of the following alkali metal chlorides follows the order
(a) LiCl > KCl > NaCl > CsCl
(b) CsCl > KCl > NaCl > LiCl
(c) NaCl > KCl > LiCl > CsCl
(d) KCl > CsCl > NaCl > LiCl

Answer: (a) LiCl > KCl > NaCl > CsCl

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Question 9.
Solubility of carbonates decrease down the Magnesium group due to decrease in
(a) Entropy of solution formation
(b) Lattice energies of solids
(c) Hydration energy of cations
(d) Inter-ionic attraction.

Answer: (c) Hydration energy of cations

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Question 10.
In curing cement plasters, water is sprinkled from time to time. This helps in
(a) Converting sand into silicic acid
(b) Keeping it cool.
(c) Developing interlocking like crystals of hydrated silicates
(d) Hydrating sand and gravel mixed with cement.

Answer: (c) Developing interlocking like crystals of hydrated silicates

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Question 11.
Bleaching powder loses its power on keeping for a long time because
(a) It changes into calcium hypochlorite
(b) It changes into calcium chloride and calcium hydroxide
(c) It absorbs moisture
(d) It changes into calcium chloride and calcium chlorate

Answer: (d) It changes into calcium chloride and calcium chlorate

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Question 12.
A metal M readily forms water soluble sulphate MSO₄, water insoluble hydroxide M(OH)₂ and oxide MO which becomes inert on heating. The hydroxide is soluble in NaOH. The metal M is
(a) Be
(b) Mg
(c) Ca
(d) Sr

Answer: (a) Be

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Question 13.
KO₂ (Potassium superoxide) is used in oxygen cylinders in space and submarines because it
(a) Absorbs CO₂ and increases O₂ content
(b) Eliminates moisture
(c) Absorbs CO₂
(d) Produces ozone

Answer: (a) Absorbs CO₂ and increases O₂ content

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Question 14.
Which one is used as an air purifier in space craft?
(a) Quick lime
(b) Slaked lime
(c) Potassium superoxide
(d) Anhydrous CaCl₂

Answer: (c) Potassium superoxide

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Question 15.
The correct order of increasing ionic character is
(a) BeCl₂ < MgCl₂ < CaCl₂ < BaCl₂
(b) BeCl₂ < MgCl₂ < BaCl₂ < CaCl₂
(c) BeCl₂ < BaCl₂ < MgCl₂ < CaCl₂
(d) BaCl₂ < CaCl₂ < MgCl₂ < BeCl₂

Answer: (a) BeCl₂ < MgCl₂ < CaCl₂ < BaCl₂

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