Author Archives: Priyanka

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-15 Plant Growth and Development NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON PLANT GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT

Question 1.

Which plant growth regulator is the derivative of carotenoids?
(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellic acid
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Abscisic acid

Answer (d) Abscisic acid

Question 2.
Intercalary meristems are of
(a) Permanent nature
(b) Temporary nature
(c) Some are permanent some temporary
(d) None of these

Answer: (b) Temporary nature

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Question 3.
Cells of fibers and tracheid’s elongate during
(a) Phase of cell division
(b) Phase of cell elongation
(c) Phase of cell maturation
(d) Phase of cell differentiation

Answer: (a) Phase of cell division

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Question 4.
Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.
(a) J-shaped
(b) S-shaped
(c) I-shaped
(d) Parabolic

Answer: (b) S-shaped
Explanation:
Typical plant growth represents sigmoid curve.

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Question 5.
Exponential growth of the plants is express as W₁ = W₀ e^rt r represents
(a) ability of the plant to produce new cells
(b) efficiency index
(c) relative growth rate
(d) all of the above

Answer: (d) all of the above
Explanation:
r is the relative growth rate and also measures the ability of the plant to produce new plant material (efficiency index).

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Question 6.
Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of:
(a) Autonomic movement of variation
(b) Autonomic movement of locomotion
(c) Autonomic movement of growth
(d) Paratonic movement of growth

Answer: (c) Autonomic movement of growth

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Question 7.
Which one is incorrect?
(a) Epiblast is presumptive ectoderm and mesoderm
(b) Hypoblast is presumptive endoderm
(c) Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm
(d) Upper layer of cells in blastoderm is epiblast

Answer: (c) Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm

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Question 8.
The stage of rapid cell division just after fertilization is
(a) Organogenesis
(b) Cleavage
(c) Gastrulation
(d) Growth

Answer: (b) Cleavage

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Question 9.
Plants grow throughout their life due to
(a) presence of meristems
(b) presence of vascular cambium
(c) presence of xylem and phloem
(d) presence of tracheid

Answer: (a) presence of meristems
Explanation:
Plants growth throughout their life due to the presence of meristems at certain locations in their body.

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Question 10.
Liver and pancreas arise from
(a) Foregut
(b) Midgut
(c) Hindgut
(d) None of these

Answer: (a) Foregut

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Question 11.
Which one of the followings is a gaseous plant hormone?
(a) Ethylene
(b) Gibberellin
(c) IAA
(d) Abscisic acid

Answer: (a) Ethylene

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Question 12.
To prevent over – ripening, bananas should be
(a) given a dip in ascorbic acid
(b) maintained at room temperature
(c) refrigerated
(d) stored at the top of refrigerator

Answer: (c) refrigerated

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Question 13.
Growth in dorsiventral leaf is measured in terms of
(a) length of leaf
(b) increase in cell number
(c) surface area increase
(d) none of these

Answer: (c) surface area increase
Explanation:
Increase in surface area denotes the growth in a dorsiventral leaf.

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Question 14.
Mechanism of development was explained by
(a) Hans Dietrich
(b) Spemann
(c) Both a and b
(d) Haemmerling

Answer: (c) Both a and b

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Question 15.
The ability to regain or recover the lost or injured part of body is
(a) Aging
(b) Regeneration
(c) Abnormal development
(d) Primary induction

Answer: (b) Regeneration

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-14 Respiration in Plants NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON RESPIRATION IN PLANTS

Question 1 : In Krebs’s cycle, the FAD participates as electron acceptor during the conversion of

• a) succinic acid to fumaric acid
• b) fumaric acid to malic acid
• c) succinyl CoA to succinic acid
• d) None of these

Answer : succinic acid to fumaric acid

Question 2 : The major reason that glycolysis is not as energy productive as respiration is that

• a) pyruvate is more reduced than CO₂; it still contains much of the energy from glucose
• b) it does not take place in a specialized membrane-bound organelle.
• c) it is the pathway common to fermentation and respiration
• d) None of these

Answer :  pyruvate is more reduced than CO₂; it still contains much of the energy from glucose

Question 3 : Which of the following is a 4-carbon compound?

• a) Oxaloacetic acid
• b) Phosphoglyceric acid
• c) Citric acid
• d) Phosphoenol pyruvate

Answer : Oxaloacetic acid

Question 4 : Which of the following is a biological uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation ?

• a) Thermogenin
• b) 2, 4 – Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid
• c) 2, 4 – Dinitrophenol
• d) Ethylene diaminotetra acetic acid

Answer : Thermogenin

Question 5 : Which of the following is not true for oxidative phosphorylation?

• a) It uses oxygen as the initial electron donor.
• b) It involves the redox reactions of electron transport chain
• c) It involves an ATP synthase located in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
• d) It depends on chemiosmosis

Answer : It uses oxygen as the initial electron donor.

Question 6:  Final electron acceptor in oxidative phosphorylation is

• a) oxygen
• b) hydrogen
• c) cytochrome
• d) None of these

Answer : oxygen

Question 7 : Quantasomes are found in

• a) chloroplast
• b) mitochondria
• c) lysosome
• d) None of these

Answer : chloroplast

Question 8 : Which of the following is an important intermediate found in all the types of respiration ?

• a) Pyruvic acid
• b) Tricarboxylic acid
• c) Acetyl CoA
• d) Oxaloacetate

Answer : Pyruvic acid

Question 9 : Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid with several intermediate steps is known as

• a) Glycolysis
• b) Krebs cycle
• c) TCA-pathway
• d) HMS-pathway

Answer : Glycolysis

Question 10 : Common enzyme in glycolysis and pentose phosphate pathways is

• a) hexokinase
• b) fumarase
• c) aconitase
• d) dehydrogenase

Answer : hexokinase

Question 11 : One of the following is common to glycolysis as well as Krebs cycle in eukaryotes

• a) Substrate level phosphorylation
• b) Photophosphorylation
• c) Localization in mitochondria
• d) None of these

Answer : Substrate level phosphorylation

Question 12 : A mutant cell lacking mitochondria will show

• a) Inability to oxidize carbohydrates and fats
• b) Inability to synthesize glucose
• c) Inability to oxidize fats
• d) Inability to oxidize carbohydrates

Answer : Inability to oxidize carbohydrates and fats

Question 13 : During the early stages of alcoholic fermentation there is a high rate of growth of yeast. After some time the rate decreases. Which of the following conditions in the culture medium is least likely to have caused this?

• a) Depletion of oxygen
• b) Depletion of mineral salts
• c) Accumulation of waste products
• d) Depletion of glucose

Answer : Depletion of oxygen

Question 14 : Hexose monophosphate shunt does not take place when

• a) NAD is available
• b) NAD is not available due to shortage of oxygen
• c) Glucose is the substrate
• d) Oxygen is not enough

Answer : NAD is available

Question 15 : Chemiosmosis theory of ATP synthesis in the chloroplasts and mitochondria is based on

• a) proton gradient
• b) accumulation of Na ions
• c) membrane potential
• d) None of these

Answer : proton gradient

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON PHOTOSYNTHESIS IN HIGHER PLANTS

Question 1.
The rate of photosynthesis is controlled by
(a) the rate of light reaction
(b) the rate of dark reaction
(c) the rates of both light and dark reactions
(d) none of the aboveAnswer

Answer: (b) the rate of dark reaction

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Question 2.
The end product of the Calvin cycle is ______.
(a) RuBP
(b) PGAL
(c) PGA
(d) ADP + NADP

Answer: (a) RuBP

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Question 3.
The primary carbon dioxide acceptor in C4 cycle is
(a) malic acid
(b) phosphophenol pyruvate
(c) rubisco
(d) aspartic acid

Answer: (b) phosphophenol pyruvate
Solution :
The primary carbon dioxide acceptor in C4 pathway is phosphophenol pyruvate.

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Question 4.
The law of limiting factor was given by
(a) Calvin
(b) Blackman
(c) Priestley
(d) None of these

Answer: (b) Blackman
Solution :
Law of limiting factor was given by Blackman in 1905.
If a chemical process is affected by more than one factor, then its rate will be determined by the factor which is nearest to its minimal value.

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Question 5.
The metabolic pathway which produces carbohydrate is
(a) Calvin cycle
(b) Glycolysis
(c) Cyclic electron pathway
(d) Krebs cycle

Answer: (a) Calvin cycle

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Question 6.
Manganese is required in
(a) Chlorophyll synthesis
(b) Nucleic acid synthesis
(c) Plant cell wall formation
(d) Photolysis of water during photosynthesis

Answer: (d) Photolysis of water during photosynthesis

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Question 7.
Oxidative phosphorylation refers to
(a) Anaerobic production of ATP
(b) The citric acid cycle production of ATP
(c) Production of ATP by chemiosmosis
(d) Alcoholic fermentation

Answer: (c) Production of ATP by chemiosmosis

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Question 8.
Which of the following is not an accessory pigment?
(a) Carotene
(b) Chlorophyll a
(c) Chlorophyll b
(d) Xanthophyll

Answer: (b) Chlorophyll a
Solution :
Chlorophyll a is a primary pigment.

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Question 9.
Besides water and CO₂, which is more essential a raw material for food formation
(a) light
(b) oxygen
(c) NAD
(d) mineral salt

Answer: (a) light

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Question 10.
In actively growing young plants, the best data for estimating the rate of photosynthesis would be
(a) ratio of oxygen evolved to carbon dioxide absorbed
(b) increase in fresh weight
(c) increase in dry weight
(d) increase in carbohydrate

Answer: (a) ratio of oxygen evolved to carbon dioxide absorbed

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Question 11.
Discovery of Emerson effect has already shown the
(a) two distinct photochemical reactions
(b) light and dark reactions of photosynthesis
(c) photophosphorylation
(d) photorespiration

Answer: (a) two distinct photochemical reactions

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Question 12.
Translocation of sugar in flowering plants occurs in the form of
(a) glucose
(b) sucrose
(c) starch
(d) maltose

Answer: (b) sucrose

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Question 13.
Where are thylakoids and grana located?
(a) Lysosomes
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Chloroplasts
(d) Golgi apparatus

Answer: (c) Chloroplasts

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Question 14.
Who enunciated the law of limiting factor for photosynthesis?
(a) Robert Emerson
(b) Ruben
(c) Blackman
(d) Calvin

Answer: (c) Blackman

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Question 15.
Which one of the following statement is true for ATP?
(a) ATP is prosthetic part of an enzyme
(b) ATP is an enzyme
(c) ATP is organic ions of enzyme
(d) ATP is a Co-enzyme

Answer: (d) ATP is a Co-enzyme

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-12 Mineral Nutrition NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON MINERAL NUTRITION

Question 1 : ‘Whip-tail’ disease in cauliflower is noted due to deficiency of

• a) molybdenum
• b) manganese
• c) magnesium
• d) nitrogen

Answer : molybdenum

Question 2 : Which of the following is correct set of micronutrient for plants?

• a) Cu, Fe, Zn, B, Mn
• b) Mo, Zn, Cl, Mg, Ca
• c) Mg, Fe, Zn, B, Mn
• d) Mg, Si, Fe, Cu, Ca

Answer : Cu, Fe, Zn, B, Mn

Question 3: A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium which can also form symbiotic association with the water fern Azolla is

• a) Anabaena
• b) Chlorella
• c) Tolypothrix
• d) Nostoc

Answer : Anabaena

Question 4 : Azotobacter and Beijerinckia are the examples of

• a) non-symbiotic nitrogen-fixers
• b) ammonifying bacteria
• c) None of these
• d) symbiotic nitrogen-fixers

Answer : non-symbiotic nitrogen-fixers

Question 5 : Which of the following is not performed by root hairs ?

• a) CO₂ uptake
• b) Oxygen uptake
• c) Water uptake
• d) Mineral uptake

Answer :  CO₂ uptake

Question 6 : The plant ash is an indication of

• a) mineral salts absorbed by plants
• b) None of the above
• c) waste product
• d) organic matter of plant

Answer : mineral salts absorbed by plants

Question 7 : Hydroponics is

• a) soilless culture
• b) nutrient less culture
• c) water less culture
• d) none of these

Answer : soilless culture

Question 8 : Which element is required in the germination of pollen grain?

• a) Boron
• b) Chlorine
• c) Potassium
• d) Calcium

Answer : Boron

Question 9 : A trace element essential for plant growth and radio-isotope, which is used in cancer therapy is

• a) cobalt
• b) sodium
• c) iron
• d) calcium

Answer : cobalt

Question 10: Which one of the following elements in plants is not remobilised?

• a) Calcium
• b) Sulphur
• c) Phosphorus
• d) Potassium

Answer : Calcium

Question 11: Plants die from prolonged water-logging because

• a) root respiration stops.
• b) cell sap in the plants becomes too dilute.
• c) nutrients leach down due to excess water.
• d) soil nutrients become very dilute.

Answer : root respiration stops.

Question 12 : Which of the following minerals activate the enzymes involved in respiration?

• a) magnesium and manganese
• b) nitrogen and phosphorus
• c) potassium and calcium
• d) sulpur and iron

Answer : magnesium and manganese

Question 13 : Soil can easily become deficient in____________ because these ions are negatively charged and do not stick to negatively charged clay particles.

• a) Nitrate
• b) Ammonium
• c) Both
• d) None of these

Answer : Nitrate

Question 14 : Legumes’ roots have swellings called nodules that

• a) contain nitrogen-fixing bacteria
• b) increases the surface area for water uptake
• c) provide a steady supply of sugar to the host plant
• d) produce antibiotics that protect the plant from soil bacteria

Answer : contain nitrogen-fixing bacteria

Question 15 : Macronutrients are_____ than micronutrients

• a) Needed in greater quantities
• b) More essential
• c) More important for growth
• d) Larger molecules

Answer : Needed in greater quantities

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-11 Transport in Plants NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON TRANSPORT IN PLANTS

Question 1 : Stomata open and close due to

• a) turgor pressure of guard cells
• b) pressure of gases inside the leaves
• c) genetic clock
• d) ircadian rhythm

Answer : turgor pressure of guard cells

Question 2 : Movement of ions or molecules in a direction opposite to that of prevailing electrochemical gradient is known as

• a) active transport
• b) brownian movement
• c) diffusion
• d) pinocytosis

Answer : active transport

Question 3 : Osmosis means movement of

• a) solvent from low concentration of solution to higher concentration of solution.
• b) solvent from higher concentration of solution to low concentration of solution.
• c) solute from higher concentration to lower concentration.
• d) None of these

Answer : solvent from low concentration of solution to higher concentration of solution.

Question 4 : Solution outside a cell has higher concentration than cytoplasm, then the solution is

• a) hypertonic
• b) acidic
• c) isotonic
• d) hypotonic

Answer : hypertonic

Question 5 : Which of the following is used as antitranspirant?

• a) Phenyl mercuric acetate
• b) Cobalt chloride
• c) Naphthol acetic acid
• d) Calcium carbonate

Answer : Phenyl mercuric acetate

Question 6: In rainy season, door gets swelled due to

• a) imbibition
• b) transpiration
• c) diffusion
• d) respiration

Answer : imbibition

Question 7 : Turgor pressure become equal to the wall pressure when

• a) no exchange of water takes place
• b) solute goes from cell into water
• c) water enter the cell
• d) water leaves the cell

Answer : no exchange of water takes place

Question 8 : Addition of a solute to pure water causes

• a) negative water potential
• b) more negative water potential
• c) positive water potential
• d) more positive water potential.

Answer : negative water potential

Question 9 : Which one of the following process help the water- soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts?

• a) Leaching
• b) Fragmentation
• c) Catabolism
• d) None of these

Answer : Leaching

Question 10 : Water logging of soil makes it physiologically dry because

• a) this condition does not allow oxygen to enter the soil
• b) this condition does not allow the capillary force to work
• c) Both
• d) None of the above

Answer : this condition does not allow oxygen to enter the soil

Question 11 : The phenomenon of plasmolysis is evident when cells are kept in

• a) hypertonic solution
• b) isotonic solution
• c) None of the above
• d) hypotonic solution

Answer : hypertonic solution

Question 12 : The casparian strip prevents water and minerals from entering the stele through the

• a) apoplast
• b) xylem vessel
• c) plasmodesmata
• d) symplast

Answer : apoplast

Question 13: If a soft stemmed plant, is cut horizontally near the base of its stem with a sharp blade on early morning of a humid day, drops of solution ooze through cut stem. This is due to

• a) root pressure
• b) bleeding
• c) guttation
• d) transpiration pull

Answer : root pressure

Question 14 : The movement of water up the stems of tall plants is least dependent on which of the following factors ?

• a) Guttation
• b) Transpiration
• c) Cohesiveness of water molecules
• d) Tension within column of water molecules

Answer : Guttation

Question 15 : The primary difference between the apoplast and the symplast is that the

• a) apoplast is nonliving spaces and cell walls
• b) apoplast relies on active transport.
• c) symplast is nonliving spaces and cell walls
• d) apoplast prevents passive diffusion

Answer : apoplast is nonliving spaces and cell walls

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION

Question 1.
Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum cannot be seen during
(a) late telophase
(b) late prophase
(c) early anaphase
(d) late metaphase

Answer: (b) late prophase
Explanation:
Cells, when viewed under microscope at the end of prophase, do not show golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and nuclear envelope.

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Question 2.
Cell plate grows from
(a) walls to the centre
(b) centre to the walls
(c) in patches
(d) simultaneously

Answer: (b) centre to the walls
Explanation:
Cell plate grows during cytokinesis from centre to the walls.

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Question 3.
Choose the correct sequence. A. Chromatin condensation B. Protein synthesis C. Duplication of centrioles D. Centrioles moves towards opposite poles
(a) C, A, B, D
(b) C, B, A, D
(c) C, D, B, A
(d) A, C, D, B

Answer: (b) C, B, A, D
Explanation:
Duplication of centrioles occurs in S-phase.
Protein synthesis occurs in G₂ phase.
Chromatin condensation is followed by centrioles movement towards the poles. (Prophase)

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Question 4.
If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into:
(a) Prophase
(b) Anaphase
(c) Telophase
(d) Metaphase

Answer: (d) Metaphase

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Question 5.
Karyokinesis is the term used for
(a) division of cytoplasm
(b) division of nucleoplasm
(c) division of nucleus
(d) separation of daughter chromosomes

Answer: (d) separation of daughter chromosomes
Explanation:
Karyokinesis means separation of daughter chromosomes.
Cytokinesis means division of cytoplasm.

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Question 6.
During which stage the chromosomes first become visible.
(a) Anaphase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Prophase
(d) Telophase

Answer: (c) Prophase

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Question 7.
In mitosis, nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear during
(a) Metaphase
(b) Interphase
(c) Prophase
(d) Telophase

Answer: (c) Prophase

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Question 8.
Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence: I. Terminalization II. Crossing over III. Synapsis IV. Disjunction of genomes The correct sequences:
(a) II, I, IV, III
(b) III, II, I, IV
(c) IV, III, II, I
(d) I, IV, III, II

Answer: (b) III, II, I, IV

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Question 9.
The major event that occurs during the anaphase of mitosis, which brings about the equal distribution of chromosomes, is
(a) splitting of the centromeres
(b) splitting of the chromatids
(c) replication of the genetic material
(d) condensation of the chromatin

Answer: (a) splitting of the centromeres

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Question 10.
What type of plant is formed when colchicine is used in the process of development of Raphanobrassica?
(a) Autotetraploid
(b) Haploid
(c) Triploid
(d) Allotetraploid

Answer: (d) Allotetraploid

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Question 11.
Meiosis occurs for the human female in ______.
(a) Pancreas
(b) Liver
(c) Ovary
(d) Kidney

Answer: (c) Ovary

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Question 12.
Choose the correct sequence. A. Pachytene B. Zygotene C. Leptotene D. Diakinesis E. Diplotene
(a) C, B, A, D, E
(b) C, A, B, E, D
(c) C, B, A, E, D
(d) D, B, C, E, A

Answer: (c) C, B, A, E, D
Explanation:
These are the five phases of prophase I of Meiosis I based on the chromosomal behaviour.

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Question 13.
How many chromosomes are there in onion root tip cell?
(a) 06
(b) 16
(c) 26
(d) 36Answer

Answer: (b) 16
Explanation:
There are 16 chromosomes in onion root tip cell.

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Question 14.
Lambrush chromosomes are observed in
(a) Mitotic prophase
(b) Mitotic metaphase
(c) Meiotic metaphase
(d) Meiotic prophase

Answer: (d) Meiotic prophase

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Question 15.
Which of the following cellular structures always disappears during mitosis and meiosis?
(a) Plasma membrane
(b) Nucleolus and nuclear envelope
(c) Plastids
(d) none of these

Answer: (b) Nucleolus and nuclear envelope

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-9 Biomolecules NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON BIOMOLECULES

Question 1 : In RNA, thymine is replaced by

• a) Uracil
• b) Guanine
• c) Both
• d) None of these

Answer : Uracil

Question 2:  Carrier ions like Na⁺ facilitate the absorption of substances like:

• a) amino acids and glucose
• b) glucose and fatty acids
• c) fatty acids and glycerol
• d) fructose and some amino acids

Answer : amino acids and glucose

Question 3 : An enzyme brings about

• a) reduction in activation energy
• b) increase in activation energy
• c) increase in reaction time
• d) decrease in reaction time

Answer : reduction in activation energy

Question 4 : The enzymes hexokinase which catalyses glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in glycolysis is inhibited by glucose- 6-phosphate. This is an example of

• a) feedback allosteric inhibition
• b) non-competitive inhibition
• c) competitive inhibition
• d) None of these

Answer : feedback allosteric inhibition

Question 5 : The enormous diversity of protein molecules is due mainly to the diversity of

• a) amino acid sequences within the protein molecule
• b) peptide bonds
• c) R groups on the amino acids
• d) amino groups on the amino acids

Answer : amino acid sequences within the protein molecule

Question 6: Length of one turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is approximately

• a) 3.4 nm
• b) 0.34 nm
• c) Both
• d) None of these

Answer : 3.4 nm

Question 7 : Which of the following sets contains polysaccharides?

• a) Starch, glycogen, cellulose
• b) Sucrose, maltose, cellulose
• c) Galactose, starch, sucrose
• d) Glucose, fructose, lactose

Answer : Starch, glycogen, cellulose

Question 8 : The most basic amino acid is

• a) Arginine
• b) Glycine
• c) Histidine
• d) Glutamine

Answer : Arginine

Question 9 : The helical structure of protein is stabilized by

• a) Hydrogen bonds
• b) Disulphide bonds
• c) Peptide bonds
• d) None of these

Answer : Hydrogen bonds

Question 10: The Km value of the enzyme is the value of the substrate concentration at which the reaction reaches to

• a) ½ Vmax
• b) Zero
• c) ¼ Vmax
• d) 2 Vmax

Answer :  ½ Vmax

Question 11 : Which group contains biocatalysts?

• a) Peptidase, amylase, rennin
• b) Glucose, amino acids, fatty acids
• c) Rhodopsin, pepsin, steapsin
• d) Myosin, oxytocin, adrenalin

Answer : Peptidase, amylase, rennin

Question 12: Enzymes that catalyse removal of groups from substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis, and addition of groups to double bonds, are called

• a) lyases
• b) dehydrogenases
• c) Both
• d) None of these

Answer : lyases

Question 13 :  Oils are rich in

• a) Fats that are generally liquid at room temperature
• b) Glycerol that possesses three hydroxyl groups
• c) Esters of fatty acids
• d) Saturated fatty acids

Answer : Fats that are generally liquid at room temperature

Question 14 : Bonds that do not exist in tertiary structure of proteins

• a) Phosphodiester bonds
• b) Hydrophobic etnractions
• c) Ionic bonds
• d) Covalent bonds

Answer : Phosphodiester bonds

Question 15 : Cleavage of specific covalent bonds and removal of groups without hydrolysis is the property of

• a) Lyases
• b) Transferases
• c) Isomerases
• d) Hydrolases

Answer : Lyases

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-8 Cell: The Unit Of Life NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE

Question 1 : Which one of the following combination is mismatched?

• a) Pili – Reproduction
• b) Cell wall – Protective, determines shape, prevents from bursting
• c) Flagella, Pili and Fimbriae – Surface structures of bacterial cell
• d) Glycocalyx – may be capsule or slime layer

Answer : Pili – Reproduction

Question 2 : The fluidity of membranes in a plant in cold weather may be maintained by

• a) increasing the number of phospholipids with unsaturated hydrocarbon tails
• b) increasing the proportion of integral proteins
• c) increasing concentration of cholesterol in membrane
• d) increasing the number of phospholipids with saturated hydrocarbon tail

Answer : increasing the number of phospholipids with unsaturated hydrocarbon tails

Question 3 : The cell as a basic unit of structure of living beings was discovered by

• a) Schleiden and Schwann
• b) Gregore Mendel
• c) Robert Hooke
• d) Aristotle

Answer : Schleiden and Schwann

Question 4 : Which pair of structures are usually found in both plant and animal cells?

• a) Cell membrane and nucleolus
• b) Cell membrane and cell wall
• c) Nucleolus and chloroplast
• d) Nucleus and cell wall

Answer : Cell membrane and nucleolus

Question 5: Most abundant lipid in the cell membrane is

• a) phospholipids
• b) cerebrosides
• c) glycolipids
• d) None of these

Answer : phospholipids

Question 6 :  Cell recognition and adhesion are facilitated by components of plasma membrane. These components are generally

• a) glycolipids and glycoproteins
• b) both lipids and proteins
• c) protein molecules alone
• d) None of these

Answer : glycolipids and glycoproteins

Question 7 : Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is well developed in the cells which synthesize

• a) steorids
• b) carbohydrates
• c) proteins
• d) all of these

Answer : steorids

Question 8 : Quasi-fluid nature of membrane is due to

• a) Phospholipid
• b) Peripheral protein
• c) Integral protein
• d) Sugar moiety

Answer : Phospholipid

Question 9 : Gas vacuole is present in

• a) All of the above
• b) Green photosynthetic bacteria
• c) Purple photosynthetic bacteria
• d) Blue green algae

Answer : All of the above

Question 10 : Which of the following feature is not associated with centrosome?

• a) Lipid bilayer covering
• b) Two centriole
• c) Two cylindrical structures
• d) Pericentriolar material

Answer : Lipid bilayer covering

Question 11 : What is the site of DNA and centriole duplication respectively

• a) Nucleus, cytoplasm
• b) Nucleus, nucleus
• c) Cytoplasm, nucleus
• d) Nucleus, nucleolous

Answer : Nucleus, cytoplasm

Question 12 : Cell wall

• a) All are correct
• b) Contains minerals like calcium carbonate in certain algae
• c) Helps in cell to cell interaction
• d) Helps in cell to cell interaction

Answer : All are correct

Question 13 : Golgi bodies are involved in

• a) All of the above
• b) Modification of proteins
• c) Synthesis of glycolipids
• d) Recycling of broken plasma membrane during endocytosis

Answer : All of the above

Question 14: Aleuroplasts, amyloplasts and elaioplasts

• a) Store protein, starch and fat respectively
• b) Help in photolysis of water
• c) Store reserve food and pigments
• d) Divide by multiple fission

Answer : Store protein, starch and fat respectively

Question 15 : Reformation of nucleolus, golgi complex and ER occurs in

• a) Anaphase
• b) Metaphase
• c) Both
• d) None of these

Answer : Anaphase

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-7 Structural Organization in Animals NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON STRUCTURAL ORGANIZATION IN ANIMALS

Question 1.
Blood corpuscles are formed in the
(a) Haversian canal
(b) endosteum
(c) red bone marrow
(d) pancreas

Answer: (c) red bone marrow

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Question 2.
Which of the following is absent in female frog?
(a) Webbed feet
(b) Copulatory pads
(c) Tympanum
(d) All are present

Answer: (b) Copulatory pads
Explanation:
Copulatory pads are absent in female frog.
These are present on the first digit of the fore limbs.

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Question 3.
Osteoblasts are found in
(a) blood
(b) muscle
(c) bone
(d) catrilage

Answer: (c) bone

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Question 4.
Choose the incorrect statement.
(a) Vascular system of frog is closed type.
(b) Frogs have 4-chambered heart.
(c) During aestivation and hibernation, skin acts as respiratory organ.
(d) All the statements are correct.

Answer: (b) Frogs have 4-chambered heart.
Explanation:
Vascular system of frogs is closed and they have 3-chambered heart.

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Question 5.
Which one of the four parts mentioned below is not part of a single uriniferous tubule ?
(a) Bowman capsule
(b) Loop of Henle
(c) Distal convoluted tubule
(d) Collecting ducts

Answer: (d) Collecting ducts

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Question 6.
Ciliated epithelium is present in
(a) fallopian tubes
(b) blood vessels
(c) mid brain
(d) none of the above

Answer: (a) fallopian tubes
Explanation:
Ciliated epithelium is present in inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles ando fallopian tubes.

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Question 7.
The vascular tissue of blood is made up of
(a) RBC
(b) plasma
(c) platelets
(d) all of the above

Answer: (d) all of the above

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Question 8.
Which membrane protects the eyes of frog in water?
(a) Tympanum
(b) Skin
(c) Sebaceous
(d) Nictitating

Answer: (d) Nictitating
Explanation:
Frogs have nictitating membrane which protect their eyes in water.

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Question 9.
Fats are richly found in
(a) alveolar tissue
(b) lymph glands
(c) adipose tissue
(d) liver cells

Answer: (c) adipose tissue

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Question 10.
The main function of the skin of frog is
(a) the exchange of respiratory gases
(b) the storage of fat
(c) the storage of energy
(d) to convert light vitamin D

Answer: (a) the exchange of respiratory gases

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Question 11.
The ciliated epithelium in our body may be found in
(a) trachea
(b) ureter
(c) bile duct
(d) intestines

Answer: (a) trachea

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Question 12.
Which one of the following is a scent gland of mammals?
(a) Bartholin
(b) Anal
(c) Prostate
(d) Adrenal

Answer: (b) Anal

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Question 13.
The characteristic of simple epithelium is that
(a) the cells are loosely placed
(b) they are single – layered in thickness
(c) cells are tightly packed with no intercellular spaces
(d) cells are generally ciliated

Answer: (b) they are single – layered in thickness

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Question 14.
Spot the salivary gland in the following :
(a) sublingual
(b) adrenal
(c) Brunner
(d) lacrimal

Answer: (a) sublingual

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Question 15.
Protein not found in the connective tissues is
(a) actin
(b) Ossetin
(c) collagen
(d) elastin

Answer: (a) actin

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Biology which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON ANATOMY OF FLOWERING PLANTS

Question 1 : Which is correct about transport or conduction of substances?

• a) Organic food moves upwardly and downwardly through phloem
• b) Inorganic food moves upwardly and downwardly through xylem
• c) Organic food moves up through phloem
• d) Organic food moves up through phloem

Answer : Organic food moves upwardly and downwardly through phloem

Question 2 : A narrow layer of thin walled cells found between phloem/ bark and wood of a dicot is

• a) vascular cambium
• b) pericycle
• c) cork cambium
• d) endodermis

Answer : vascular cambium

Question 3 : Which of the following statements is true?

• a) Tracheids are unicellular with wide lumen
• b) Vessels are unicellular with wide lumen.
• c) Tracheids are multicellular with narrow lumen
• d) Vessels are multicellular with narrow lumen.

Answer : Tracheids are unicellular with wide lumen

Question 4 : The quiescent centre in root meristem serves as a

• a) reserve for replenishment of damaged cells of the meristem.
• b) region for absorption of water
• c) reservoir of growth hormones
• d) site for storage of food which is utilized during maturation.

Answer : reserve for replenishment of damaged cells of the meristem.

Question 5 :  Root hair arises from

• a) epiblema
• b) endodermis
• c) pericycle
• d) cortex

Answer : epiblema

Question 6 : Phellogen and phellem respectively denote

• a) cork cambium and cork
• b) cork and cork cambium
• c) secondary cortex and cork
• d) cork and secondary cortex

Answer : cork cambium and cork

Question 7 : The common bottle cork is a product of

• a) Phellogen
• b) Vascular cambium
• c) Dermatogen
• d) Xylem

Answer : Phellogen

Question 8 : A vascular bundle in which the protoxylem is pointing to the periphery is called

• a) exarch
• b) closed
• c) endarch
• d) radial

Answer : exarch

Question 9 : Which of the following does not have stomata?

• a) Submerged hydrophytes
• b) Xerophytes
• c) Mesophytes
• d) Hydrophytes

Answer : Submerged hydrophytes

Question 10 : Collenchyma differs from parenchyma in having

• a) pectin deposits at corners
• b) vacuoles
• c) cellulose walls
• d) living protoplasm

Answer : pectin deposits at corners

Question 11 : Which of the following plant shows multiple epidermis?

• a) Nerium
• b) Croton
• c) Allium
• d) Cucurbita

Answer : Nerium

Question 12 : Epidermis is absent in

• a) root tip and shoot tip
• b) ovule and seed
• c) shoot bud and floral bud
• d) petiole and pedice

Answer : root tip and shoot tip

Question 13 : Which of the following layer is present nearest of plasma membrane in plant cell?

• a) Tonoplast
• b) Middle lamella
• c) Secondary wall
• d) Primary wall

Answer : Tonoplast

Question 14 : In land plants, the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having

• a) chloroplasts
• b) mitochondria
• c) cytoskeleton
• d) endoplasmic reticulum

Answer : chloroplasts

Question 15 : In endarch condition of xylem, protoxylem lies ______ of metaxylem.

• a) on inner side
• b) on outer side
• c) both on inner and outer side
• d) in centre

Answer : on inner side