Chapter 12 Electricity Class 10 MCQs Questions | NCERT Science Chapter-12 – Edu grown

Question 1. A wire of length /, made of material resistivity ρ is cut into two equal parts. The resistivity of the two parts are equal to,
(a) ρ
(b) (\frac{\rho}{2})
(c) 2 ρ
(d) 4 ρ

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Resistivity of the material depends only on the nature of material not dimensions.

  1. A fuse wire repeatedly gets burnt when used with a good heater. It is advised to use a fuse wire of
    (a) more length
    (b) less radius
    (c) less length
    (d) more radius

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) In order to get the working of heater properly, fused wire of higher rating must be used

  1. A battery of 10 volt carries 20,000 C of charge through a resistance of 20 Ω. The work done in 10 seconds is
    (a) 2 × 103 joule
    (b) 2 × 105joule
    (c) 2 × 104 joule
    (d) 2 × 102 joule

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) W= qV= 20000 × 10 = 2,00, 000 = 2 × 105 J

  1. A boy records that 4000 joule of work is required to transfer 10 coulomb of charge between two points of a resistor of 50 Ω. The current passing through it is
    (a) 2 A
    (b) 4 A
    (c) 8 A
    (d) 16 A

Answer/Explanation
Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Work done in transferring the charge
W= qV = qlR …….. (V = IR)

  1. A cooler of 1500 W, 200 volt and a fan of 500 W, 200 volt are to be used from a household supply. The rating of fuse to be used is
    (a) 2.5 A
    (b) 5.0 A
    (c) 7.5 A
    (d) 10 A

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) Total power used, P = P1 + P1 = 1500 + 500 = 2000 W.
Current drawn from the supply,.

  1. To get 2 Ω resistance using only 6 Ω resistors, the number of them required is
    (a) 2
    (b) 3
    (c) 4
    (d) 6

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Three resistors of 2 Ω is required to get 6 Ω because resultant is more than individual so they all must be connected in series.

  1. The effective resistance between A and b
    (a) 4Ω
    (b) 6Ω
    (c) May be 10 Ω
    (d) Must be 10 Ω

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) 6 Ω is shorted so effective resistance is 4 Ω.

  1. Two devices are connected between two points say A and B in parallel. The physical quantity that will remain the same between the two points is
    (a) current

    (b) voltage
    (c) resistance
    (d) None of these

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) In parallel combination, voltage remains same across two points.

  1. The least resistance obtained by using 2 Ω, 4 Ω, 1 Ω and 100 Ω is
    a) < 100 Ω (b) < 4 Ω (c) < 1 Ω (d) > 2 Ω

Answer/Explanation

Answer: cExplanation:
(c) In parallel combination, the equivalent resistance is smaller than the least resistance used in the circuit.

  1. Two wires of same length and area, made of two materials of resistivity ρ1 and ρ2 are connected in parallel V to a source of potential. The equivalent resistivity for the same length and area is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Electricity with Answers 4

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Equivalent resistance in parallel combination is (\frac{1}{R_{P}}=\frac{1}{R_{1}}+\frac{1}{R_{2}})
For the same length and area of cross-section, R ∝ p (resistivity)

11. Calculate the current flows through the 10 Ω resistor in the following circuit.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Electricity with Answers 5
(a) 1.2 A
(b) 0.6 A
(c) 0.2 A
(d) 2.0 A

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) In parallel, potential difference across each resistor will remain same. So, current through 10 Ω resistor
I = (\frac{V}{R}=\frac{6}{10}) = 0.6 A

  1. Two resistors are connected in series gives an equivalent resistance of 10 Ω. When connected in parallel, gives 2.4 Ω. Then the individual resistance are
    (a) each of 5 Ω
    (b) 6 Ω and 4 Ω
    (c) 7 Ω and 4 Ω
    (d) 8 Ω and 2 Ω

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) In series, Rs = R1 + R2 = 10 Ω

  1. If R1 and R2 be the resistance of the filament of 40 W and 60 W respectively operating 220 V, then
    (a) R1 < R2

    (b) R2 < R1
    (c) R1 = R2
    (d) R1 ≥ R2

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Using power, P = (\frac{V^{2}}{R}) or R = (\frac{V^{2}}{P})
For the same voltage, R ∝ (\frac{1}{P})
More the power, lesser the resistance.
Accordingly, R2 < R1

14. A wire of length /, made of material resistivity ρ is cut into two equal parts. The resistivity of the two parts are equal to,
(a) ρ
(b) (\frac{\rho}{2})
(c) 2 ρ
(d) 4 ρ

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Resistivity of the material depends only on the nature of material not dimensions.

15.What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5 W? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) 1/5 Ω
(b) 10 Ω
(c) 5 Ω
(d) 1 Ω

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) Series combination provide the maximum resistance

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Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Class 10 MCQs Questions | NCERT Science Chapter-13 – Edu grown

1. Magnetic effect of current was discovered by
(a) Oersted
(b) Faraday
(c) Bohr
(d) Ampere

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Oersted showed that electricity and magnetism were related phenomena.

  1. Inside the magnet, the field lines moves
    (a) from north to south
    (b) from south the north
    (c) away from south pole
    (d) away from north pole

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Magnetic field inside the magnet moves from south to north pole.

  1. Relative strength of magnetic field at a point in the space surrounding the magnet is shown by the
    (a) length of magnet
    (b) thickness of magnet
    (c) degree of closeness of the field.
    (d) resistance offered by the surroundings

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) The force acting on the pole of another magnet by the crowded magnetic field lines is greater.

  1. Which of the following statement is not correct about the magnetic field?
    (a) Magnetic field lines form a continuous closed curve.
    (b) Magnetic field line do not interest each other.
    (c) Direction of tangent at any point on the magnetic field line curve gives the direction of magnetic field at that point.
    (d) Outside the magnet, magnetic field lines go from South to North pole of the magnet.

Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explanation:
(d) Outside the magnet, magnetic field line emerges from North-pole and moves towards south-pole.

  1. By which instrument, the presence of magnetic field be determined?
    (a) Magnetic Needle
    (b) Ammeter
    (c) Galvanometer
    (d) Voltmeter

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(a) With the help of magnetic field, one can find the presence of magnetic field in a region by observing its deflection.

  1. The pattern of the magnetic field produced by the straight current carrying conducting wire is
    (a) in the direction opposite to the current
    (b) in the direction parallel to the wire
    (c) circular around the wire
    (d) in the same direction of current

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(c) Magnetic field line around a current carrying straight conductor is represented by concentric circles.

  1. The strength of magnetic field around a current carrying conductor is
    (a) inversely proportional to the current but directly proportional to the square of the distance from wire.
    (b) directly proportional to the current and inversely proportional to the distance from wire.
    (c) directly proportional to the distance and inversely proportional to the current
    (d) directly proportional to the current but inversely proportional the square of the distance from wire.

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
• magnetic field strength increases on increasing the current through the wire.
• magnetic field strength decreases as the distance from the wire increases.

  1. A current through a horizontal power line flows from south to North direction. The direction of magnetic field line 0.5m above it is
    (a) North
    (b) South
    (c) West
    (d) East

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Apply right-hand thumb rule.

  1. The nature of magnetic field line passing through the centre of current carrying circular loop is
    (a) circular
    (b) ellipse
    (c) parabolic
    (d) straight line

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) magnetic field line at the centre of current carrying loop appears as a straight line.

10. The strength of each of magnet reduces to half when it cut along its length into the equal parts magnetic field strength of a solenoid. Polarity of solenoid can be determined by
(a) use of compass needle
(b) Right hand thumb rule
(c) fleming left hand rule
(d) either (a) or (b)

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) both (a) and (b) can be use to determine the polarity of solenoid.

  1. The factors on which one magnetic field strength produced by current carrying solenoids depends are
    (a) Magnitude of current
    (b) Number of turns
    (c) Nature of core material
    (d) All of the above

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) Factors shown in (a), (b) and (c).

  1. A soft iron bar is introduced inside the current carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid
    (a) will decrease
    (b) will remains same
    (c) will increase
    (d) will become zero

Answer/Explanation
Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Soft iron inside the current carrying solenoid act as an electromagnet.

  1. When current is parallel to magnetic field, then force experience by the current carrying conductor placed in uniform magnetic field is
    (a) Twice to that when angle is 60°
    (b) Thrice to that when angle is 60°
    (c) zero
    (d) infinite

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) If the current direction is parallel to the magnetic field, then there will no force on the conductor exerted by the magnetic field.

  1. A positive charge is moving upwards in a magnetic field directed towards north. The particle will be deflected towards
    (a) west
    (b) north
    (c) south
    (d) east

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
(a) Apply fleming’s left hand rule

  1. Which of the following factors affect the strength of force experience by a current carrying conduct in a uniform magnetic field?
    (a) magnetic field strength
    (b) magnitude of current in a conductor
    (c) length of the conductor within magnetic field
    (d) All of above.

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) All the factors affect the strength of magnetic force.

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Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Class 10 MCQs Questions | NCERT Science Chapter-14 – Edu grown –

  1. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but still everybody discuss about the energy crisis because
    (a) Energy transform into different form continuously.
    (b) Usable form of energy is dissipated to the surroundings in less usable forms.
    (c) Energy is consumed and cannot be used again.
    (d) All of these

Answer/Explanation
Explanation:
(d) Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed but usable form is dissipated to surrounding in less usable farm which can’t be used again.

  1. An ideal source of energy should have
    (a) higher calorific value
    (b) easy transportability
    (c) easy accessibility
    (d) All of these

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) These are the characterises of ideal source of energy.

  1. Fossile fuels are
    (a) non-renewable source of energy
    (b) renewable source of energy
    (c) both (a) and (b)
    (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Fossile fuels were formed over million of years ago and there are only limited reserve. So they are non-renewable source of energy.

  1. Dead organisms are transformed into petroleum and natural gas in
    (a) presence of air
    (b) absence of air
    (c) presence of sunlight
    (d) none of the above

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) absence of air

  1. Which of the following problem is associated with a burning of coal?
    (а) Carbon-dioxide emission
    (b) acid rain
    (c) ash with toxic metal supurity
    (d) all of these.

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) all of these.

  1. Select the important factor for the site selection of a thermal power plant.
    (a) Distance from the populated area
    (b) Availability of fuel
    (c) Availability’ of water
    (d) Cost of plant

Answer/Explanation
Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Water is required to produce steam. Thermal power plants are setup near the coal field and transmission of electricity is easy than transporting fuel.

7.The material used for interconnection the solar cells in the solar panel is
(a) silicon
(b) silver
(c) aluminium
(d) copper

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Silver is the best conductor of electricity.

8. Hydropower plant are located in the
(a) desert area
(b) plane area
(c) hilly terrains
(d) none-of above

Answer/Explanation
Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Hydroelectric power plant are generally located in high hilly areas where dam can easily be buit and large reservoir for storage of water can be obtained.

  1. Biogas is a better fuel than animal dung cake because
    (a) biogas has lower calorific value.
    (b) animal dung cake has high calorific value
    (c) biogas bums smoke and leaves no residue
    (d) biogas is used as a fuel for cooking only wheareas dung cake can be used for cooking, illuminant the lanterns.

Answer/Explanation
Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Biogas has high calorific value and leave no residue, no smoke after burning and can be used for domestic purpose, running engins and in gas lanterns for illumination.

  1. Which of the following organism produces biogas from cow drug sherry in the biogas plant?
    (a) aerobic bectria
    (b) anaerobic bectria
    (c) prolozoa
    (d) fungi

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) In the absence of oxygen, anaerobic micro-organism decomposed the compound of cow- dung sturry to generate biogas.

  1. Wind is caused due to
    (a) uneven heating of earth’s surface
    (b) rotation of earth
    (c) local conditions
    (d) All of these

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) All are the factors that responsible for the blowing of wind.

  1. What are the disadvantage of solar energy
    (a) A large surface area is required collect the solar
    (b) Daily average of solar energy varies from 4 to 7 kwh/m2
    (c) Highly hazardous toxic material is used in the manufacturing of solar device.
    (d) All of the above are disadvantages.

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) All the points given are the disadvantage age of using solar energy.

  1. The temperature inside the solar cooker ranges from
    (a) 500-100°C
    (b) 100-140°C
    (c) 150-200°C
    (d) 70-80°C

Answer/Explanation

Sources of Energy Questions and Answer: bExplanation:
(b) The box type solar cooker have a range 100-140°C.

  1. The use of reflector in the solar cooker is to
    (a) Decrease efficiency
    (b) create green house effect
    (c) increase efficiency
    (d) none of these

Answer/Explanation
Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Reflectors (mirror) are used to focus the sun rays along with heat radiation inside the box to achieve high temperature.

  1. Solar cells are made of
    (a) germanium
    (b) silicon
    (c) silver
    (d) aluminium

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) special grade silicon is used for making solar cells.

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Chapter 15 Our Environment Class 10 MCQs Questions | NCERT Science Chapter-15 – Edu grown

Question 1.
Assertion: Vegetarian food habit is more beneficial to organisms.
Reason: Only 10% energy is available as food from one trophic level to next.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
In natural ecosystems, decomposers include-

(a) only bacteria and fungi
(b) only microscopic animals
(c) herbivores and carnivores
(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer
(a) only bacteria and fungi

Question 3.
The percentage of solar radiation absorbed by all the green plants for the process of photosynthesis is about-

(a) 1%
(b) 8%
(c) 5%
(d) 10%

Answer
(a) 1%

Question 4.
The second trophic level is always of-

(a) herbivores
(b) autotrophs
(c) carnivores
(c) producers

Answer
(a) herbivores

Question 5.
The decomposers in an ecosystem-

(a) convert organic material to inorganic forms
(b) convert inorganic material to simpler forms
(c) convert inorganic material into organic compound
(d) do not break down organic compound

Answer
(a) convert organic material to inorganic forms

Question 6.
Which of the following is an abiotic component of an ecosystem
?
(a) Humus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Plants
(d) Fungi

Answer
(a) Humus

Question 7.
What will happen if all the deer are killed in the given food chain?
Grass → Deer → Lion

(a) The population of grass decreases.
(b) The population of lions increases.
(c) The population of lions remains unchanged.
(d) The population of lions decreases and grass increases.

Answer
(d) The population of lions decreases and grass increases.

Question 8.
Which of the following is not a terrestrial ecosystem

(a) forest
(b) desert
(c) aquarium
(d) grassland

Answer
(c) aquarium

Question 9.
In the garden ecosystem, which of the following are producers?

(a) Insects
(b) Snakes
(c) Grasses
(d) Rabbits

Answer
(c) Grasses

Question 10.
Which of the following is biodegradable?

(a) Plastic mugs
(b) Leather belts
(c) Silver foil
(d) Iron nails

Answer
(b) Leather belts

Question 11.
Which of the following is an autotrop
h?
(a) Lion
(b) Insect
(c) Tree
(d) Mushroom

Answer
(c) Tree

Question 12.
Which of the following is a logical sequence of food chain

(a) producer → consumer → decomposer
(b) producer → decomposer → consumer
(c) consumer → producer → decomposer
(d) decomposer → producer → consumer

Answer
(a) producer → consumer → decomposer

Question 13.
A food chain comprising birds, green plants, fish and man. The concentration of harmful chemical entering the food chain will be maximum in

(a) green plants
(b) man
(c) birds
(d) fish

Answer
(b) man

Question 14.
Ozone layer is damaged by-

(a) methane
(b) carbon-dioxide
(c) Sulphur-dioxide
(d) CFCs

Answer
(d) CFCs

Question 15.
In an ecosystem, herbivores represent

(a) producers
(b) primary consumers
(c) secondary consumers
(d) decomposers

Answer
(b) primary consumers

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Chapter 16 Sustainable Management of Natural Resources Class 10 MCQs Question | NCERT Science Chapter-16- Edu grown

Question 1.
The better way to assess the pollution level of a water body is to calculate the:

(a) Nutrient level
(b) Number of organisms
(c) Coliform count
(d) Pesticide level.

Answer
Answer: (c) Coliform count

Question 2.
The purpose of rainwater harvesting is to
:
(a) use it for irrigation
(b) culture fishes
(c) use it for washing ears
(d) recharge ground water

Answer
Answer: (d) recharge ground water

Question 3.
‘Kulhs’ the ancient water harvesting structure were made in

(a) Manipur
(b) Bihar
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer
Answer: (c) Himachal Pradesh

Question 4.
The three R’s that will help us to conserve natural resources for long term use are

(a) recycle, regenerate, reuse
(b) reduce, regenerate, reuse
(c) reduce, reuse, redistribute
(d) reduce, recycle, reuse

Answer
Answer: (d) reduce, recycle, reuse

Question 5.
Amrita Devi Bishnoi sacrificed her life to protect the

(a) Palm trees
(b) Khejri trees
(c) Sal trees
(d) Teakwood trees.

Answer
Answer: (b) Khejri trees

Question 6.
Khadins, bundhis, ahars and kattas are ancient structures built for the purpose of:

(a) store grains
(b) conserve soil
(c) water harvesting
(d) conserve wildlife.

Answer
Answer: (c) water harvesting

Question 7.
The Tehri Dam is constructed on River

(a) Yamuna
(b) Bhagirathi
(c) Ravi
(d) Sutlej

Answer
Answer: (b) Bhagirathi

Question 8.
The degraded Arabari forests were revived by the efforts of

(a) A.K. Chatterjee
(b) A.K. Baneijee
(c) Sunder Lai Bahuguna
(d) Amrita Devi

Answer
Answer: (b) A.K. Baneijee

Question 9.
Which plan has been started by government to control pollution of Ganga?

(a) Ganga Action Plan
(b) Ganga Revival Plan
(c) Swachh Jal Abhiyan
(d) Ganga Restoration Plan

Answer
Answer: (a) Ganga Action Plan

Question 10.
Which pH range is most suitable for life of fresh water plants and animals?

(a) 6.5 – 7.5
(b) 2.0 – 3.5
(c) 3.5 – 7.0
(d) 9.0 – 10.5

Answer
Answer: (a) 6.5 – 7.5

Question 11.
The most appropriate definition of a natural resource is that it is a substance/commodity that is

(a) present only on land
(b) a gift of nature which is very useful to mankind
(c) a man-made substance placed in nature
(d) available only in the forest

Answer
Answer: (b) a gift of nature which is very useful to mankind

Question 12.
The main cause for abundant coliform bacteria in the river Ganga is

(a) disposal of unbumt corpses into water
(b) discharge of effluents from electroplating industries
(c) washing of clothes
(d) immersion of ashes

Answer
Answer: (a) disposal of unbumt corpses into water

Question 13.
Among the statements given below select the ones that correctly describe the concept of sustainable developmen
t
(i) Planned growth with minimum damage to the environment
(ii) Growth irrespective of the extent of damage caused to the environment
(iii) Stopping all developmental work to conserve the environment
(iv) Growth that is acceptable to all the stakeholders
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (iii) only

Answer
Answer: (a) (i) and (iv)

Question 14.
In our country, there are attempts to increase the height of several existing dams like Tehri and Almati, dams across Narmada. Choose the correct statements among the following that are a consequence of raising the height of dams

(i) Terrestrial flora and fauna of the area is destroyed completely
(ii) Dislocation of people and domestic animals living in the area
(iii) Valuable agricultural land may be permanently lost
(iv) It will generate permanent employment for people
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Answer
Answer: (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 15.
Select the incorrect statement.

(a) Economic development is linked to environmental conservation
(b) Sustainable development encourages development for current generation and conservation of resources for future generations
(c) Sustainable development does not consider the view points of stakeholders
(d) Sustainable development is a long planned and persistent development

Answer
Answer: (c) Sustainable development does not consider the view points of stakeholders

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Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equation Class 10 MCQs Question | NCERT Science Chapter-1 – Edu grown

Q1
In Which Of The Following Statements Is Or Are Incorrect?

[A]. When calcium hydroxide solution lime water reacts with carbon dioxide gas a white precipitate of calcium carbonate is formed along with water.
[B]. When zinc metals react with dilute sulphuric acid to form zinc sulphate solution and hydrogen gas.
[C]. During respiration glucose combines with oxygen in the cells of our body to form carbon dioxide and water along with the production of energy.
[D]. The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen to form nitrogen monoxide is an an exothermic reaction.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen to form nitrogen monoxide is an endothermic reaction because heat is absorbed in this reaction. Actually, when nitrogen and oxygen are heated to a very high temperature about 3000 degree Celsius, they combined to form nitrogen monoxide and a lot of heat is absorbed in this reaction.

Q2
Nancy Is Writing Some Indicating Information About Chemical Equation. Choose The Correct One(
S):
[A]. By indicating the physical state of the reactant and products.
[B]. By indicating the heat change take place in the reaction.
[C]. By indicating the condition under which their reaction takes place.
[D]. All the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Here are all the statements are correct. Hence, your answer will be option [D].

Q3
Which Of The Following Processes Involve Chemical Reactions?

[A]. A storing of oxygen gas under pressure in a gas cylinder.
[B]. Liquefaction of air.
[C]. Keeping petrol in china dish in an open.
[D]. Heating copper wire in the absence of air at high temperature.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
During a chemical reaction the chemical composition of a substance changes. A chemical reaction produces a new substance with new properties. Energy is either released or absorbed during a chemical reaction. It is an irreversible reaction. You can easily understand by this equation: 2CU (copper wire) + O2 → 2CuO (copper oxide)

Q4
In The Double Displacement Reaction Between Aqueous Potassium Iodide And Aqueous Lead Nitra
te, A Yellow Precipitate Of Lead Iodide Is Formed. While Performing The Activity If Lead Nitrate Is Not Available, Which Of The Following Can Be Used In Place Of Lead Nitrate?
[A]. Lead sulphate (insoluble)
[B]. Lead acetate
[C]. Ammonium nitrate
[D]. Potassium sulphate
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Lead sulphate being insoluble will not dissociate into Pb2+ ions.

Q5
Pooja Is Writing Some Statements. She Wants To Know In Which Of The Following Statements Is Or Are Incorrect?

[A]. When hydrogen burns in oxygen to form water.
[B]. Liquid hydrogen burns to lift the space shuttle out of the earth’s gravitational field.
[C]. When glucose undergoes to slow combustion by combining with oxygen in the cells of our body to produce energy.
[D]. As a fuel CNG and LPG gives more energy than hydrogen.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
As a fuel hydrogen is more efficient then CNG and LPG. Hence, liquid hydrogen burns in liquid oxygen to form water providing a tremendous amount of energy to lift the space shuttle out of the earth’s gravitational field.

Q6
Consider The Following Statements, Choose The Incorrect One(S):

[A]. The chemical equation is balance to satisfy the law of conservation of mass in chemical reaction.
[B]. We should never change the formula of an element or compound to balance and equation.
[C]. Those reaction in which heat is evolved are known as exothermic reactions.
[D]. When Methane (CH4) burns in oxygen of air it forms carbon monoxide and water vapour.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
When Methane (CH4) burns in oxygen of air it forms carbon dioxide and water vapour. Rest of all statements are correct. Hence, your answer will be option [D].

Q7
Which Of The Following Gases Can Be Used For Storage Of Fresh Sample Of An Oil For A Long Time?

[A]. Carbon dioxide or oxygen
[B]. Nitrogen or oxygen
[C]. Carbon dioxide or helium
[D]. Helium or nitrogen
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Helium or nitrogen both can be used for storage of fresh sample of an oil for a long time. These gases are called inert gases as they do not react with most elements including oxygen. Thus, these gases create an inert environment for the oil and prevent its reaction with any element in the environment that prevent from getting it stale.

Q8
Which Of The Following Is (Are) An Endothermic Process (Es)?
[A]. Dilution of sulphuric acid, and Condensation of water vapours.
[B]. Sublimation of dry ice.
[C]. Condensation of water vapours.
[D]. Sublimation of dry ice, and Evaporation of water
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Sublimation of dry ice and evaporation of water both are endothermic processes. These processes pull heat (energy) from their surroundings to change from one state to another. Hence both these processes produce cooling rather than heating. Dry ice absorbs heat from the environment to convert into ga

Q9
Paheli Is Writing Some Statement Which Is Given By Her Teacher. Would You Help Him To Choose The Incorrect Statements?
[A]. The combustion reaction of candle wax is characterized by a change in state from solid to liquid and gas.
[B]. When a chemical reaction absorbs heat energy, then the temperature of reaction mixture is falls and it becomes cold.
[C]. When a Zinc metal reacts with dilute sulphuric acid to form zinc sulphate and hydrogen gas.
[D]. None of the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Here are all the statements are correct. Hence, your answer will be option [D].

Q10
Electrolysis Of Water Is A Decomposition Reaction. The Mole Ratio Of Hydrogen And Oxygen Gases Liberated During Electrolysis Of Water Is

[A]. 1 : 1
[B]. 2 : 1
[C]. 4 : 1
[D]. 1 : 2
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The mole ratio of hydrogen and oxygen gases liberated during electrolysis of water is 2:1 by volume. In a decomposition reaction, a compound is broken down into its simpler forms. During electrolysis water is broken down into oxygen gas and hydrogen gas due to passing of electric current through it. You can easily understand by this equation: 2H2O (I) → 2H2(g) + O2(g) The mole ratio of hydrogen and oxygen gases is 2:1 by volume.

Q11
Boojho Appeared In Class Test Where He Wrote Some Statements But He Confused To Know The Correct Statement. Would You Help Him To Know That?

[A]. Some chemical reaction and are characterized by a change in colour.
[B]. The purple colour of potassium permanganate solution disappears when citric acid reacts with potassium permanganate solution.
[C]. The orange colour of potassium dichromate solution changes to green when sulphur dioxide gas is passed through acidified potassium dichromate solution.
[D]. All the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Here are all the statements are correct. Hence, your answer will be option [D].

Q12
Barium Chloride On Reacting With Ammonium Sulphate Forms Barium Sulphate And Ammonium Chloride. Which Of The Following Correctly Represents The Type Of The Reaction Involved?

[A]. Displacement reaction
[B]. Precipitation reaction
[C]. Double displacement reaction
[D]. Precipitation reaction, and Double displacement reaction
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
This reaction is a double displacement reaction as well as a precipitation reaction. This is a double displacement reaction because one component of each compound has exchanged places with each other. It is also called a precipitation reaction due to the formation of white precipitate of barium sulphate. Rest other products formed are soluble in water except barium sulphate that precipitates out.

Q13
Solid Calcium Oxide Reacts Vigorously With Water To Form Calcium Hydroxide Accompanied By The Liberation Of Heat. This Process Is Called Slaking Of Lime Water. Which Among The Following Is/Are True About Slaking Of Lime Water And The Solution Formed?

[A]. It is an endothermic reaction, and It is exothermic reaction.
[B]. It is exothermic reaction, and The pH of the resulting solution will be more than seven.
[C]. It is an endothermic reaction, and The pH of the resulting solution will be less than seven.
[D]. The pH of the resulting solution will be more than seven, and The pH of the resulting solution will be less than seven.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Slaking of lime is an exothermic reaction because a large amount heat is produced during the reaction. The heat can be felt by touching the beaker from outside. The resulting compound Ca(OH)2, which is also called slaked lime, turns red litmus solution to blue and hence proves it to be a basic solution. Thus, the pH of this solution will be more than seven. You can easily understand by this equation: CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + Heat

Q14
Consider The Given Statements And Choose The Incorrect One:

[A]. The bubbles of hydrogen gas are produced, when zinc granules reacts with dilute sulphuric acid.
[B]. Hydrogen gas is evolved when magnesium reacts with a dilute acid.
[C]. Hydrogen gas is evolved when dilute hydrochloric acid is poured over sodium carbonate.
[D]. None of the above.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Carbon dioxide gas is evolved when dilute hydrochloric acid is poured over sodium carbonate.

Q15
Which Among The Following Statement (S) Is (Are) True? Exposure Of Silver Chloride To Sunlight For A Long Duration Turns Grey Due To:
[A]. The formation of silver by decomposition of silver chloride.
[B]. The formation of silver by decomposition of silver chloride, and Decomposition of chlorine gas from silver chloride.
[C]. Sublimation of silver chloride, and Decomposition of chlorine gas from silver chloride.
[D]. Oxidation of silver chloride.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
When silver chloride is exposed to sunlight, it is decomposed to form silver. During this reaction, white silver chloride changes into greyish white silver metal. This is also known as photolytic decomposition reaction as it takes place in the presence of sunlight. You can easily understand by this equation: 2AgCl + Sunlight → 2Ag(s) + Cl2

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Chapter 5 Print Culture and the Modern World Class 10 MCQs Questions | NCERT Social-Science Chapter-5 – Edu grown

Question 1.
Penny magazines were especially meant for:

(a) Children
(b) Adults
(c) Men
(d) Women

Answer
Answer: (d) Women
Penny magazines were especially meant for women.

Question 2.
Leading libraries in England became instruments for educating:

(a) White-collar workers and artisans
(b) Artisans and lower-middle class people
(c) While-collar workers
(d) White-collar workers artisans and lower-middle class people

Answer
Answer: (d) White-collar workers artisans and lower-middle class people
Leading libraries in England became instruments for educating white-collar workers, artisans and lower-middle class people.

Question 3.
By the late eighteenth century the press came to made up of:

(a) Paper
(b) Stone
(c) Metal
(d) Wood

Answer
Answer: (c) Metal
By the late eighteenth century the press came to be made up of metal.

Question 4.
The power-driven cylindrical press was capable of:

(a) Printing 6,000 sheets per hour
(b) Printing 7,000 sheets per hour
(c) Printing 8,000 sheets per hour
(d) Printing 9,000 sheets per hour

Answer
Answer: (c) Printing 8,000 sheets per hour
It was capable of printing 8,000 sheets per hour.

Question 5.
In the 1920s in England, popular works were sold in cheap series, called the:

(a) Dollar series
(b) Pound Series
(c) Shilling Series
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Shilling Series
In the 1920s in England, popular works were sold in cheap series called the shilling series.

Question 6.
India had a very rich and old tradition of hand-written manuscripts in:

(a) Sanskrit, Arabic and various vernacular languages
(b) Arabic, Persian and various vernacular languages
(c) Sanskrit, Arabic and Persian
(d) Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian and various vernacular languages

Answer
Answer: (d) Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian and various vernacular languages
In India most of the manuscripts were written in Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian and various vernacular languages.

Question 7.
Manuscripts were highly:

(а) Expensive and fragile
(b) Decorated and fragile
(c) Expensive
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (а) Expensive and fragile
Since manuscripts were written by hand, they were expensive and fragile.

Question 8.
The printing press first came to Goa with Portuguese missionaries in the:

(а) Mid-fourteenth century
(b) Mid-sixteenth century
(c) Mid-seventeenth century
(d) Mid-eighteenth century

Answer
Answer: (b) Mid-sixteenth century
In the mid-sixteenth century.

Question 9.
Catholic priests printed the first Tamil book in ……………. at Cochin.

(a) 1549
(b) 1559
(c) 1569
(d) 1579

Answer
Answer: (d) 1579
In 1579, Catholic priests printed the first Tamil book at Cochin.

Question 10.
The Deoband Seminary was founded in:

(a) 1857
(b) 1867
(c) 1877
(d) 1887

Answer
Answer: (b) 1867
In 1867.

Question 11.
Amar Jiban was the autobiography of:

(а) Rashsundari Debi
(b) Kalpana Debi
(c) Mahasundari Debi
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (а) Rashsundari Debi
Amar Jiban was the autobiography of Rashsundari Debi.

Question 12.
Istri Dharm Vichar was published by:

(a) Shyam Chaddha
(b) Sohan Chaddha
(c) Mohan Chaddha
(d) Ram Chaddha

Answer
Answer: (d) Ram Chaddha
Ram Chaddha published Istri Dharma Vichar to teach women how to be obedient wives.

Question 13.
Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal was written and published by:

(a) Kashi baba
(b) Kali baba
(c) Sohan baba
(d) Mohan baba

Answer
Answer: (a) Kashi baba
Kashi Baba, a Kanpur mill worker, wrote and published Chotte Aur Bade Ka Sawal in 1938.

Question 14.
Kesari was owned by:

(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Kesari, a newspaper was owned by Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

Question 15.
Bal Gangadhar was imprisoned in:

(a) 1908
(b) 1909
(c) 1910
(d) 1911

Answer
Answer: (a) 1908
When Bal Gangadhar Tilak wrote about the Punjab revolutionaries he was imprisoned in 1908.

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Chapter 4 The Age of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQs Questions | NCERT Social-Science Chapter-4 – Edu grown

Question 1.
The company appointed a paid servant to supervise weavers. He was called:

(a) Officers
(b) Tehsildar
(c) Gomastha
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Gomastha
He was known as Gomastha.

Question 2.
The first cotton mill in Bombay came up in :

(a) 1852
(b) 1853
(c) 1854
(d) 1855

Answer
Answer: (c) 1854
The first cotton mill came up in 1854 and it went into production two years later.

Question 3.
The history of many business groups goes back to trade with:

(a) Japan
(b) Britain
(c) USA
(d) China

Answer
Answer: (d) China
China had trade links with many countries.

Question 4.
The Marwari businessman who set up the first Indian jute mill in Calcutta in 1917 was:

(a) Seth Hukumchand
(b) Seth Manikchand
(c) Seth Ramchand
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (a) Seth Hukumchand
Seth Hukumchand set up the first Indian jute mill in Calcutta in 1917.

Question 5.
Advertisements of Indian manufacturers became a vehicle of the nationalist message of:

(a) Purely Indian
(b) Purely English
(c) Swadeshi
(d) None of the

Answer
Answer: (c) Swadeshi
Indian manufactures became a vehicle of the nationalist message and thus their advertisements were called swadeshi messages.

Question 6.
E.T. Pauli produced a music book that had a picture on the cover page announcing the:

(a) ‘Dawn of the year’
(b) ‘Dawn of the Century’
(c) ‘Dawn of the country’
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) ‘Dawn of the Century’
In 1900, a popular music publisher E.T. Pauli produced a music book that had a picture on the cover page announcing the ‘Dawn of the Century’.

Question 7.
Most historians refer to the phase of industrialisation as:

(a) Dawn-industrialisation
(b) Present-industrialisation
(c) Proto-industrialisation
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Proto-industrialisation
Many historians refer to the phase of industrialisation as proto-industrialisation. ‘Proto’ means the first of early form of something.

Question 8.
In the countryside poor peasants and artisans began working:

(a) For the king
(b) For the richmen
(c) For merchants
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (c) For merchants
Merchants were rich people, who had astisans and the poor working for them.

Question 9.
Merchants were based in towns but the work was done mostly:

(a) On the roadside
(b) In their houses
(c) In the countryside
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (c) In the countryside
Though merchants were based in towns the work was done mostly in the countryside.

Question 10.
A merchant clothier in England, purchased wool from a wool stapler and:

(a) Carried it to the spinners
(b) Carried it to the weaver
(c) Carried it to the factory
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (a) Carried it to the spinners
A merchant clothier in England purchased wool for a wool stapler, and carried it to the spinners.

Question 11.
The finishing of the cloth was done in ……………………… before the export merchants sold the cloth in the international market.

(a) US
(b) Sydney
(c) London
(d) Moscow

Answer
Answer: (c) London
All the finishing was done in London before the export merchant sold the cloth in the international market.

Question 12.
The proto-industrial system was a part of a network of:

(a) Commercial exchanges
(b) Loose exchanges
(c) A global exchanges
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (a) commercial exchanges
The proto-industrial system was a part of a network of commercial exchanges. It was controlled by merchants and the goods were produced by a vast number of producers.

Question 13.
The earliest factories in England came up by the:

(a) 1720s
(b) 1730s
(c) 1740s
(d) 1750s

Answer
Answer: (b) 1730s
The earliest factories in England came up by the 1730s.

Question 14.
In the early nineteenth century, ……………………… increasingly became an intimate part of the English landscape.

(a) Quantity
(b) Quality
(c) Factories
(d) Agriculture

Answer
Answer: (c) Factories
In the early nineteenth century, factories became an intimate part of the English landscape.

Question 15.
The most dynamic industries in Britain were clearly:

(а) Cotton and jute
(b) Jute and metals
(c) Cotton and metals
(d) Only metals

Answer
Answer: (c) Cotton and metals
In Britain, at that time the most dynamic industries were cotton and metals.

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Chapter 3 The Making of a Global World Class 10 MCQs Questions | NCERT Social-Science Chapter-3 – Edu grown

Question 1.
After the war, Britain borrowed large sums of money from:

(a) China and India
(b) German banks and German public
(c) Russian banks and Russian public
(d) US banks and US public

Answer
Answer: (d) US banks and US public.
Britain lost heavily during the war, and thus after the war it borrowed large sums of money from US banks and US public.

Question 2.
When Britain was pre-occupied with war, industries had developed in:

(a) India and Japan
(b) India and China
(c) Japan and Korea
(d) Japan and China

Answer
Answer: (a) India and Japan.
When Britain was busy in the war, many industries developed in India and China.

Question 3.
Before the war, eastern Europe was a major supplier of:

(a) Rice in the world market
(b) Wheat in the world market
(c) Tea in the world market
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) Wheat in the world market.
Wheat was mostly grown in eastern Europe and before the war, eastern Europe was a major supplier of wheat in the world.

Question 4.
The US economy resumed its strong growth in the early:

(a) 1920s
(b) 1930s
(c) 1940s
(d) 1950s

Answer
Answer: (a) 1920s
By the 1920s, the US economy resumed its strong growth.

Question 5.
A well-known pioneer of mass production was the:

(a) Car manufacturer General Motors
(b) Motorcycle manufacturer Honda
(c) Car manufacturer Henry Ford
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Car manufacturer Henry Ford.
A well-known pioneer of mass production was the car manufacturer Henry Ford.

Question 6.
Fordist industrial practices was widely copied in Europe in the:

(a) 1940s
(b) 1930s
(c) 1920s
(d) 1910s

Answer
Answer: (c) 1920s
In the 1920s, Fordist industrial practices was widely copied in Europe.

Question 7.
Car production in the US rose from in 1919 to more than in 1929:

(a) 5 million, 4 million
(b) 3 million, 5 million
(c) 4 million, 5 million
(d) 2 million, 5 million

Answer
Answer: (d) 2 million, 5 million.
Car production in the US rose from 2 million in 1919 to more than 5 million in 1929.

Question 8.
The Great Depression began around 1929 and lasted till the:

(a) Mid-1940s
(b) Mid-1980s
(c) Mid-1950s
(d) Mid-1920s

Answer
Answer: (b) Mid-1980s
The Great Depression began around 1929 and lasted till the mid-1980s.

Question 9.
By 1933 over 4,000 banks had closed and between 1929 and 1932 about:

(a) 1,00,000 companies had closed
(b) 2,00,000 companies had closed
(c) 1,10,000 companies had closed
(d) 2,10,000 companies had closed

Answer
Answer: (c) 1,10,000 companies had closed.
By 1933 over 400 or banks had closed and between 1929 and 1932. 1,10,000 companies had closed due to the Great Depression.

Question 10.
Mahatma Gandhi launched the Civil Disobedience Movement at the height of the depression in:

(a) 1931
(b) 1941
(c) 1951
(d) 1961

Answer
Answer: (a) 1931
At the height of the Depression, Mahatma Gandhi launched the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1931.

Question 11.
The country that had made huge sacrifices to defeat Nazi Germany was:
(a) USA
(b) Japan
(c) Soviet Union
(d) England

Answer
Answer: (c) Soviet Union
Soviet Union had made huge losses and sacrifice to defeat Nazi Germany.

Question 12.
The Financial Conference of July, 1944 was held at:

(a) Bretton Woods in New York, USA
(b) Bretton Woods in Sydney, Australia
(c) Bretton Woods in Tokyo, Japan
(d) Bretton Woods in New Hampshire, USA

Answer
Answer: (d) Bretton Woods in New Hampshire, USA
The Financial Conference of July, 1944 was held at Bretton Woods in New Hampshire, USA.

Question 13.
The IMF and the World Bank commenced financial operations in:

(a) 1927
(b) 1937
(c) 1947
(d) 1957

Answer
Answer: (c) 1947
In 1947, the IMF and the World Bank commenced financial operations.

Question 14.
The dollar was anchored to gold at a fixed price of:
(a) $ 25 per ounce of gold
(b) $ 30 per ounce of gold
(c) $ 35 per ounce of gold
(d) $ 40 per ounce of gold

Answer
Answer: (c) $ 35 per ounce of gold
The dollar was anchored to gold at a fixed price of $ 35 per ounce of gold.

Question 15.
China had been cut off from the post-war world economy since its revolution in:

(a) 1946
(b) 1947
(c) 1948
(d) 1949

Answer
Answer: (d) 1949
China had been cut off from the post-war world economy since its revolution in 1949.

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Chapter 2 Nationalism in India Class 10 MCQs Questions | NCERT Social-Science Chapter-2 – Edu grown

Question 1.
An important feature of the Civil Disobedience Movement was the:
(a) Large-scale participation of villagers.
(b) Large-scale participation of the people.
(c) Participation of the Indian merchants and industrialists.
(d) Large-scale participation of women.

Answer
Answer: (d) Large-scale participation of women.
A large-scale women participated in this movement.

Question 2.
Mahatma Gandhi declared that Swaraj would not come for a hundred years if:

(a) Sati system was not abolished
(b) Women did not participate in the movement
(c) Untouchability was not eliminated
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Untouchability was not eliminated
If untouchability was not eliminated.

Question 3.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, who organised the Dalits into the Depressed Classes Association:

(а) Clashed with Lord Irwin at the Second Round Table Confereru
(b Clashed with Jawaharlal Nehru at the First Round Table Conference
(c) Clashed with Mahatma Gandhi at the Second Round Table Conference
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Clashed with Mahatma Gandhi at the Second Round Table Conference
Dr. Ambedkar clashed with Mahatma Gandhi at the Second Round Table Conference.

Question 4.
Mahatma Gandhi called the ‘untouchables’:

(a) Messengers of God
(b) Local people
(c) Harijan
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Harijan
Mahatma Gandhi called the untouchables as Harijans.

Question 5.
Muhammad AliJinnah was willing to give up the demand for separate electorates:

(a) If Muslims were included in the Second Round Table Conference.
(b) If Muslims were assured reserved seats in the Central Assembly.
(c) If Muslims were assured reserved seats in the Central Assembly and representation in proportion to population in the Muslim-dominated provinces.
(d) None of the above.

Answer
Answer: (c) If Muslims were assured reserved seats in the Central Assembly and representation in proportion to population in the Muslim-dominated provinces.
Jinnah give up the demand for separate electorates if Muslims were assured reserved in the Central Assembly.

Question 6.
The image of Bharat Mata was first created by:

(a) Abanindranath Tagore
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer
Answer: (c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
It was created by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.

Question 7.
‘Vazide Matram’ a hymn to the motherland was written by:

(а) Abanindranath Tagore
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Answer
Answer: (d) Bankim Chandra
Chattopadhyay
It was written by Bankim Cha dra Chattopadhyay.

Question 8.
The sense of collective belongings came partly through the experience of:

(а) Different struggles
(b) Fixed struggle
(c) United struggles
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) United struggles
It came through united struggles.

Question 9.
In late nineteenth-century India, nationalists began recording folk tales sung by poets and they turned to villages to gather:

(a) Folk songs and legends
(b) Pictures and legends
(c) Folk songs
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (a) Folk songs and legends
It was about folk songs and legends.

Question 10.
In Madras, a massive four volume collection of Tamil folk tales was published by:

(a) Natesa Sastri
(b) Natesa Verma
(c) Natesa Sharma
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (a) Natesa Sastri
It was Natesa Sastri.

Question 11.
A tricolour flag, designed in Bengal had eight lotuses representing eight provinces of British India, and a crescent moon

(a) Representing rich and poor
(b) Merchants and peasants
(c) India and British
(d) Hindus and Muslims

Answer
Answer: (d) Hindus and Muslims
The crescent moon representing Hindus and Muslims.

Question 12.
In 1921, the Swaraj flag was designed by:

(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Motilal Nehru
(d) Rabindranath Tagore

Answer
Answer: (a) Mahatma Gandhi
It was designed by Mahatma Gandhi.

Question 13.
Indians began looking into the past to discover:

(а) The history of Indian rulers
(b) The vedas
(c) India’s past geography
(d) India’s great achievements.

Answer
Answer: (d) India’s great achievements.
They were looking for India’s great achievements.

Question 14.
According to the census of 1921:

(a) 10 to 11 million people perished as a result of famines and the epidemic.
(b) 11 to 12 million people perished as a result of famines and the epidemic.
(c) 12 to 13 million people perished as a result of famines and the epidemic.
(d) none of the above.

Answer
Answer: (c) 12 to 13 million people perished as a result of famines and the epidemic.
According to the census of 1921 about 12 to 13 million people perished as a result of famines and the epidemic.

Question 15.
In 1917, Mahatma Gandhi organised a satyagraha to support the peasants of:
(а) Champaran in Bihar
(b) Kheda district of Gujarat
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) none of the above.

Answer
Answer: (b) Kheda district of Gujarat
It was for peasants of Kheda district of Gujarat.

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