MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography: Ch 4 Distribution of Oceans and Continents

1. According to the Plate Tectonic concept, how many major plates are there?
   (a) 7
   (b) 9
   (c) 12
   (d) 11
   ► (a) 7
2. The continental drift theory was propounded by
   (a) Alfred Wegner.
   (b) Aortelius.
   (c) Hall and Danna.
   (d) Abraham Ortelius.
   ► (a) Alfred Wegner.
3. Tillite is formed due to
   (a) deposits on mountains.
   (b) deposits of volcanoes.
   (c) deposits of glaciers.
   (d) deposits of gold.
   ► (c) deposits of glaciers.
4. Which one of the following is not a minor plate?
   (a) Nazca
   (b) Arabia
   (c) Philippines
   (d) Antarctica
   ► (d) Antarctica
5. Which one of the following is the type of plate boundary of the Indian plate along the Himalayan Mountains?
   (a) Ocean- Continents convergence
   (b) Divergent boundary
   (c) Transform boundary
   (d) Continent convergence
   ► (d) Continent convergence
6. Which one of the following term is related to Polar fleeing force?
   (a) Revolution of the Earth
   (b) Gravitation
   (c) Rotation of the Earth
   (d) Tides
   ► (c) Rotation of the Earth
7. The slowest rate of plate movement can be seen in
   (a) East Pacific region.
   (b) Arctic ridge.
   (c) South pacific region.
   (d) Mid Atlantic ridge.
   ► (b) Arctic ridge.
8. The Rim of the Pacific is also called
   (a) Ring of Fire.
   (b) Ring of Waves.
   (c) Ring of Ridges.
   (d) Ring of Slopes.
   ► (a) Ring of Fire.
9. Who was the profounder of convection currents theory?
   (a) Arthur Holmes
   (b) McKenzie, Parker and Morgan
   (c) Admans Heinz
   (d) Alfred Wegener
   ► (a) Arthur Holmes
10. A tectonic plate is a slab of
    (a) molten rock.
    (b) hot rock.
    (c) solid rock.
    (d) small rocks.
    ► (c) solid rock.
11. By which method have facilitated correlating the rock formation from different continents across oceans?
    (a) The radiometric dating methods
    (b) Carbon 14 method
    (c) Radioactive methods
    (d) Fling method
    ► (a) The radiometric dating methods
12. What was the name given by Alfred Wegener to a large continents surrounded?
    (a) Pangaea
    (b) Panthalassa
    (c) Angaraland
    (d) Gondwanaland
    ► (a) Pangaea
13. The ocean floor may be segmented into how much division based on the depth as well as the forms of relief?
    (a) Three
    (b) Four
    (c) Five
    (d) Seven
    ► (a) Three
14. What was the name given by Alfred Wegener to a large continents surrounded?
    (a) Pangaea
    (b) Panthalassa
    (c) Angaraland
    (d) Gondwanaland
    ► (a) Pangaea
15. Indian subcontinent was located at
    (a) 60 degree South latitude.
    (b) 30 degree South latitude.
    (c) 50 degree South latitude.
    (d) 40 degree South latitude.
    ► (c) 50 degree South latitude.
16. What is a tectonic plate that lies between the Asiatic and Pacific Plate?
    (a) Cocos Plate
    (b) Nazca Plate
    (c) Arabian Plate
    (d) Philippine Plate
    ► (d) Philippine Plate
17. What was the name given to massive ocean by Wegener?
    (a) Pangaea
    (b) Panthalassa
    (c) Angaraland
    (d) Gondwanaland
    ► (b) Panthalassa
18. When did Alfred Wegener gave continental drift theory?
    (a) 1920
    (b) 1946
    (c) 1912
    (d) 1948
    ► (c) 1912

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography || Ch – 3 Interior of the Earth || With Answer || NCERT CBSE

 1. Which one of the following is a direct source of the information about the interior of the Earth?

(a) Earthquake waves

(b) Volcanoes

(c) Gravitational force

(d) Earth magnetism

► (a) Earthquake waves

2. Which is not a type of volcano?

(a) Shield volcano

(b) Composite volcano

(c) Ridge volcano

(d) Caldera

► (c) Ridge volcano

3. Which one of the following describe the lithosphere?

(a) Upper and middle mantle

(b) Crust and upper mantle

(c) Crust and core

(d) Mantle and core

► (b) Crust and upper mantle

4. The magnitude of earthquake is measured in

(a) Richter Scale

(b) Mercalli scale

(c) Measuring scale

(d) Seismograph

► (a) Richter Scale

5. Which one of the following describe the lithosphere?

(a) Upper and middle mantle

(b) Crust and upper mantle

(c) Crust and core

(d) Mantle and core

► (b) Crust and upper mantle

6. What is the thickness of the earth’s crust in the Himalayan region?

(a) 75 kms

(b) 60 kms

(c) 70 kms

(d) 65 kms

► (c) 70 kms

7. The intensity of earthquake is measured in

(a) Richter Scale

(b) Mercalli scale

(c) Measuring scale

(d) Seismograph

► (b) Mercalli scale

8. The upper portion of mantle is known as

(a) Asthenosphere

(b) Crust

(c) Lithosphere

(d) Fossil Sphere

► (a) Asthenosphere

9. The interior of the earth can only be understood by ______________

(a) Direct methods

(b) Indirect methods

(c) Both the indirect and direct methods

(d) None of the Above

► (c) Both the indirect and direct methods

10. What is the density of the rocks between the adjoining line on mantle and core?

(a) 3-4 gm. per sq. cm 

(b) 5 gm. per sq. cm

(c) 4-5 gm. per sq. cm

(d) 6 gm. per sq. cm

► (b) 5 gm. per sq. cm

11. What is the approximate depth of mantle?

(a) 2400 km

(b) 2900 km

(c) 3200 km

(d) 3500 km

► (b) 2900 km

12. The Deccan trap is a large

(a) flood plain.

(b) flood basalt province.

(c) lava plain.

(d) shield volcano.

► (b) flood basalt province.

13. What is the thickness of the crust?

(a) 10 km to 200 km

(b) 5 km to 30 km

(c) 30 km to 400 km

(d) 100 km to 200 km

► (a) 10 km to 200 km

14. The vibration direction parallel to the wave direction in the vertical plane is present in

(a) P-waves.

(b) S-waves.

(c) Surface waves.

(d) L-waves.

► (a) P-waves.

15. What is the mean thickness of oceanic crust?

(a) 5 km

(b) 30 km

(c) 10 km

(d) 70 km

► (a) 5 km

16. Volcanoes are

(a) indirect source of information about earth’s interior.

(b) direct source of information about the interior of the earth.

(c) not a source of information about the interior of the earth.

(d) good source to ascertain earth’s temperature.

► (b) direct source of information about the interior of the earth.

17. Magma refers to ____

(a) Rocks

(b) Material in upper mantle

(c) Material in upper core

(d) Material in the crust

► (b) Material in upper mantle

18. Earthquake waves are recorded on the

(a) Seismograph.

(b) Barograph.

(c) Pantograph.

(d) Ergograph.

► (a) Seismograph.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography || Ch – 1 Geography as a Discipline || With Answer || NCERT CBSE

1. Which one of the following features can be termed as physical features?

(a) Port

(b) Road

(c) Plain

(d) Waterpark

► (c) Plain

2. The major issue for environmental geography is

(a) scientific study of the habitats.

(b) pollution, land degradation and conservation of environment.

(c) geographic characteristics of animals and their habitats.

(d) population explosion.

► (b) pollution, land degradation and conservation of environment.

3. The regional approach was developed by

(a) Alexander Von Humboldt.

(b) Karl Ritter

(c) Ptolemy

(d) Ibn-e-Batuta

► (b) Karl Ritter

4. What does we study under physical geography?

(a) Weather

(b) Soil

(c) Atmosphere

(d) All of the above

► (d) All of the above

5. Physical geography deals with the

(a) study of settlements.

(b) study of culture.

(c) study of soils.

(d) study of humans.

► (c) study of soils.

6. Which one of the following is the concern of geography?

(a) To find relationship between two country

(b) To find relationship between two parties

(c) To find relationship between any two phenomena

(d) None of these

► (c) To find relationship between any two phenomena

7. Which of the following is not a sub-branch of biogeography?

(a) Zoo geography

(b) Plant geography

(c) Environmental geography

(d) Climate geography

► (d) Climate geography

8. Which of the following is not studied under population geography?

(a) Sex ratio

(b) Migration

(c) Pollution

(d) Population

► (c) Pollution

9. To sustain our life, we use

(a) technology.

(b) shelter.

(c) resources.

(d) environment.

► (c) resources.

10. Who among the following said that ‘geography is concern with the description and explanation of the areal differentiation of the earth’s surface’?

(a) Herodotus

(b) Eratosthenes

(c) Richard Hartshorne

(d) Galileo

► (c) Richard Hartshorne

11. Which one of the following is associated with biogeography?

(a) Geology

(b) Sociology

(c) Zoology

(d) Climatology

► (c) Zoology

12. Plant geography deals with

(a) spatial pattern of natural vegetation in their habitats.

(b) geographic characteristics of animals and their habitats.

(c) scientific study of the habitats and characteristic of species.

(d) economic activities including agriculture, industry, trade, etc.

► (a) spatial pattern of natural vegetation in their habitats.

13. Which one of the following is not studied under economic geography?

(a) Agriculture

(b) Industry

(c) Transport

(d) Population

► (d) Population

14. Soils are formed by the process of

(a) Soil synthesis.

(b) Pedogenesis.

(c) Photosynthesis.

(d) Radio genesis.

► (b) Pedogenesis.

15. Which one of the following disciplines attempts temporal synthesis?

(a) Sociology

(b) Geography

(c) Anthropology

(d) History

► (a) Sociology

16. Geo-informatics comprising techniques such as

(a) remote sensing, GIS, GPS.

(b) computer cartography.

(c) qualitative techniques.

(d) quantitative techniques.

► (a) remote sensing, GIS, GPS.

17. Regional geography helps in identifying the

(a) realms.

(b) regions.

(c) distributions.

(d) problems.

► (b) regions.

18. Who developed systematic geography?

(a) Hambolt

(b) Karl Ritter

(c) Kumari Sample

(d) Alfred Hartner

► (a) Hambolt

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science: Ch 10 Development

1. Development inevitably leads to

(a) Displacement of the urban youth.

(b) Losses for the foreign investors.

(c) Decline in fiscal economy.

(d) Sacrifice of the marginalised class.

► (d) Sacrifice of the marginalised class.

2. The model of development is heavily dependent on the increasing use of the

(a) Money.

(b) Human resources.

(c) Political power.

(d) Energy.

► (d) Energy.

3. In India, one of the priorities of the first three plans was

(a) Industrial growth.

(b) Peace and harmony.

(c) Political participation.

(d) Social equality.

► (a) Industrial growth.

4. UNDP means:

(a) United Nations Development Programme

(b) United Nations Development Planning

(c) United Nations Destruction Programme

(d) None of the above

► (a) United Nations Development Programme

5. The call for ”Development Decade” was made by

(a) Krishna Menon.

(b) Raghuvir Yadav.

(c) Kofi Annan.

(d) Shashi Tharoor.

► (a) Krishna Menon.

6. Key indicators of Human Development Index are

(a) Literacy, income, health.

(b) Income, crime rate, social security.

(c) Peace, nutrition, economic growth.

(d) Industrial growth, democratic participation, income.

► (a) Literacy, income, health.

7. The emphasis is placed on ” harmony and happiness” in the

(a) Narrower view.

(b) Broader view.

(c) Political.

(d) Economic.

► (b) Broader view.

8. The process of development should be such that it harmonises the economic growth with:

(a) Globalisation.

(b) Individual rights.

(c) The vision of elite.

(d) National security.

► (b) Individual rights.

9. Development means :

(a) Development with war

(b) Development with dispute

(c) Change along with growth

(d) None of these

► (c) Change along with growth

10. Indigenous people lives in:

(a) Forests.

(b) Coastal areas.

(c) Mega cities.

(d) Border states.

► (a) Forests.

11. The melting of Arctic and Antarctica may cause

(a) Floods and submergence of low lying areas.

(b) Disastrous earthquake.

(c) Drought.

(d) Famines.

► (a) Floods and submergence of low lying areas.

12. The New Agrarian Strategy was adopted to enhance

(a) Industrial productivity.

(b) Health.

(c) Agricultural.

(d) Education.

► (c) Agricultural.

13. Which model is needed for India?

(a) Marxist

(b) Gandhian

(c) Hegelianism

(d) None of the above

► (b) Gandhian

14. Who is associated with Narmada Bachao Andolan?

(a) Shashi Tharoor

(b) Kailash Satyarthi

(c) Medha Patekar

(d) None of the above

► (c) Medha Patekar

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science: Ch 9 Peace

1. FLN (National Liberation Front) led the independence movement of
   (a) Algeria.
   (b) Nigeria.
   (c) Congo.
   (d) Zimbabwe.
   ► (a) Algeria.
2. The Cuban Missile Crises ended with the
   (a) Intervention of UN.
   (b) defeat of USSR in cold war.
   (c) Cuba’s defeat.
   (d) Withdrawal of missiles by USSR.
   ► (d) Withdrawal of missiles by USSR.
3. The Cuban Missile Crisis illustrated
   (a) NATO formation.
   (b) De-Stalinization.
   (c) Policy of containment.
   (d) Cold war era.
   ► (d) Cold war era.
4. According to realist theory, the main actors in international politics are
   (a) Superpowers.
   (b) Nation states.
   (c) Countries of European Union.
   (d) International organisations.
   ► (b) Nation states.
5. To introduce a peace award for your class, the quality you would look for in your fellow students is
   (a) Fanaticism.
   (b) Intolerance.
   (c) Passivity.
   (d) Compassion.
   ► (d) Compassion.
6. What is very essential for the progress of humanity?
   (a) Terrorism
   (b) Cold War.
   (c) Peace.
   (d) War.
   ► (c) Peace.
7. Pacifists attach supreme value to:
   (a) Liberty and equality.
   (b) Human security and international laws.
   (c) Coercion and force.
   (d) Peace and opposition to war.
   ► (d) Peace and opposition to war.
8. According to Balance of Power theory, the main objective of states is
   (a) Preservation of international law.
   (b) Regional peace.
   (c) Maximize gains of globalisation.
   (d) Self preservation.
   ► (d) Self preservation.
9. For Gandhiji, what was the supreme virtue?
   (a) War
   (b) Communation
   (c) Ahimsa
   (d) Terrorism
   ► (c) Ahimsa
10. Martin Luther King, Jr., worked for racial equality and civil rights in
    (a) Spain.
    (b) France.
    (c) South Africa.
    (d) United States of America.
    ► (d) United States of America.
11. Method to prevent war:
    (a) International Law
    (b) Balance of Power
    (c) International Organisation
    (d) All of the above
    ► (d) All of the above
12. The core business of UN peacekeeping operations does not include
    (a) Rule of law related activities.
    (b) Protection and promotion of human rights.
    (c) Socio-economic recovery and development.
    (d) Electoral assistance.
    ► (c) Socio-economic recovery and development.
13. Which type of war is a war without arms?
    (a) Terrorism
    (b) Cold War.
    (c) Peace.
    (d) War.
    ► (b) Cold War.
14. Which one of the following is the element of peace?
    (a) Justice
    (b) Terrorism
    (c) Cold War.
    (d) War.
    ► (a) Justice

1. The ” Gujral Doctrine” was adopted in
   (a) 1985.
   (b) 1989.
   (c) 1992.
   (d) 1996.
   ► (d) 1996.
2. The history for a nation helps to develop
   (a) Sense of continuing historical identity.
   (b) Racial superiority.
   (c) Regionalism.
   (d) Political differences.
   ► (a) Sense of continuing historical identity.
3. Canada mainly has
   (a) English speaking people.
   (b) French speaking people.
   (c) English and French speaking people.
   (d) Spanish speaking people.
   ► (c) English and French speaking people.
4. A hindrance in the development of nationalism is
   (a) Strong historical legacy.
   (b) Communalism.
   (c) Emotional integration.
   (d) Common civilisation.
   ► (b) Communalism.
5. Which of the following is not a difference between State and Nation?
   (a) State has four essentials elements but no essential elements of a Nation.
   (b) Idea of oneness is essential for the Nation but not for the State.
   (c) Sovereignty is essential for the State and not for the Nation.
   (d) Sovereignty is essential for the Nation and not for the State.
   ► (d) Sovereignty is essential for the Nation and not for the State.
6. The key exponent of the modern idea of nation state was
   (a) Karl Marx.
   (b) J.S Mill.
   (c) G.W.F Hegel.
   (d) Rousseau.
   ► (c) G.W.F Hegel.
7. The word ‘Nation’ is derived from which language?
   (a) Greek
   (b) French
   (c) Latin
   (d) Russian
   ► (c) Latin
8. Identify an option which is not the symbol of Indian nationalism
   (a) National Anthem.
   (b) Republic day parade.
   (c) National flag.
   (d) Communal violence.
   ► (d) Communal violence.
9. Liberal nationalism is not characterised by
   (a) Every nation has separate entity.
   (b) Nationalism based on blood and race.
   (c) Opposed to colonialism.
   (d) Right of every nation to make economic and cultural progress in its own way.
   ► (b) Nationalism based on blood and race.
10. Which of the following elements is responsible for the promotion of Nationalism?
    (a) Common Motherland
    (b) Common Language
    (c) Common Race
    (d) All of these above
    ► (d) All of these above
11. The German nation was first unified by
    (a) European Union.
    (b) Austria.
    (c) Prussia.
    (d) Russia.
    ► (c) Prussia.
12. Who is the main supporter of the principle of One Nation, One State?
    (a) European Union.
    (b) G.W.F Hegel.
    (c) J.S Mill.
    (d) Rousseau.
    ► (c) J.S Mill.
13. In the nineteenth century, Germany and Italy denoted the examples of
    (a) break up of empires.
    (b) unification.
    (c) lack of nationalism.
    (d) dictatorship.
    ► (b) unification.
14. East Timor gained independence from
    (a) British.
    (b) Russia.
    (c) Portugual.
    (d) China.
    ► (c) Portugual.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science || Ch – 6 Citizenship || With Answer || NCERT CBSE

 1. In 1958, India gave refuge to persecuted people from

(a) Bhutan.

(b) Sri Lanka.

(c) Tibet.

(d) Afghanistan.

► (c) Tibet.

2. Martin Luther King Jr. led movement against

(a) Segregation Laws

(b) Multiple citizenship

(c) Dual citizenship

(d) Multi National Companies

► (a) Segregation Laws

3. Citizenship can be acquired by:

(a) Long residence

(b) Marriage

(c) Government service

(d) All of the above

► (d) All of the above

4. Identify the nation where dual citizenship prevails.

(a) India

(b) Sri Lanka

(c) USA

(d) Nepal

► (c) USA

5. The Palestinian refugees are fighting for full citizenship of a state in

(a) Middle East

(b) South East Asia

(c) Europe

(d) West America

► (a) Middle East

6. Choose the incorrect cause of illegal immigration.

(a) War

(b) Poverty

(c) Prostitution and slavery

(d) Peace

► (d) Peace

7. Identify the year when Black people got equal citizenship rights in the South Africa.

(a) 1960s

(b) 1970s

(c) 1980s

(d) 1990s

► (d) 1990s

8. Citizenship may be lost under the following condition:

(a) Marriage

(b) Long Absence

(c) Adoption

(d) All of the above

► (d) All of the above

9. The notion of citizenship rights is associated with

(a) A. H. Halsey.

(b) E. H. Carr.

(c) T. H. Huxley.

(d) T. H. Huxlem.

► (c) T. H. Huxley.

10. Choose the incorrect type of citizenship.

(a) Dual citizenship

(b) Multiple citizenship

(c) Single Citizenship

(d) Non- Resident Citizenship

► (d) Non- Resident Citizenship

11. The 1951 Geneva Convention deals with

(a) Refugee laws.

(b) Laws against segregation.

(c) Laws against forced labour.

(d) Citizenship rights of women.

► (a) Refugee laws.

12. Who was T. Marshall?

(a) A British Socialist

(b) A British Scientist

(c) A British Cricketer

(d) A British Footballer

► (a) A British Socialist

13. What is the meaning of the term ‘Apartheid’?

(a) Social Upliftment

(b) Social Discrimination

(c) Economic Upliftment

(d) Economic Discrimination

► (b) Social Discrimination

14. Identify incorrect statement related to the refugees or illegal migrants.

(a) No state is willing to grant them membership.

(b) They have no guaranteed rights by any state.

(c) Live in precarious conditions.

(d) Enjoy equal status with the citizens.

► (d) Enjoy equal status with the citizens.