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Understanding Laws MCQ Questions Class 8 Social Science with Answers

Question. Another hazardous industry that is growing rapidly in South Asia is :
(a) Ship Shaping
(b) Ship Stocking
(c) Ship Breaking
(d) All of the above

Answer : C

Question. What were the steps taken by women’s group to make the bill passed?
(a) Creating awareness among women
(b) Filing petition and public hearing
(c) Drafting of domestic violence bill, after meeting with various organizations
(d) All of these

Answer : D

Question. The law cannot discriminate between persons on basis of
(a) Religion
(b) Caste
(c) Gender
(d) None of these

Answer : D

Question. Who was the Afro-American woman who refused to give her seat to a white man in 1955?
(a) Rosy Peter
(a) Rosa Parkscorrect
(a) Rosy mary
(a) Rose Jose

Answer : B

Question. What are criminal cases?
(a) Related to taxes
(b) Related to property
(c) Related to criminal
(d) None of these

Answer : C

Question. In a democratic government what people might do in case of unpopular laws?
(a) Criticize the laws
(b) Hold public meetings.
(c) Write about it in newspapers and report to T.V. news channels
(d) All of them

Answer : D

Question. The court has the power to modify or cancel laws if it finds that they don’t adhere to the constitution
(a) True
(b) False
(c) None of these

Answer : A

Question. Where is Jallianwala Bagh located?
(a) Amritsar
(b) Delhi
(c) Agra
(d) Dehradun

Answer : A

Question. When did the Rowlatt Act come into effect?
(a) 13th April 1919
(b) 10th Feb 2020
(c) 14th March 1921
(d) 10th Mar 1919

Answer : D

Question. ________ was introduced in 2005.
(a) Citizenship Amendment Bill
(b) Dowry Act
(c) Hindu Succession Amendment Act
(d) Protection against Domestic VIolence Act

Answer : C

Question. Many workers are denied fair wages by their employers because :
(a) They badly need work
(b) Workers has no bargaining power
(c) Paid low wages
(d) All of the above

Answer : D

Question. Who introduced the rule of law in India?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Mughals
(c) British colonialists
(d) None of these

Answer : C

Question. Safety measures at work place means :
(a) Alarm system
(b) Emergency exits
(c) Properly functioning machinery
(d) All of the above

Answer : D

Question. Law on Domestic Violence was made in this year
(a) 2005
(b) 2006
(c) 2007
(d) 2008

Answer : A

Question. What was the Rowlatt Act?
(a) To control migrants
(b) To control revolutionary activities
(c) To control wealth of Indian
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question. A major role of government is :
(a) Is to control the activities of private companies
(b) Enforcing law
(c) Ensure social justice
(d) All of the above

Answer : D

Question.______ submits its report regarding any Bill to Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
(a) Cabinet Ministers
(b) Ministry Council
(c) State Ministry
(d) Parliamentary Standing Committee

Answer : D

Question. What were lay down by Hindu Succession Amendment Act 2005?
(a) Sons, daughters and their mother can get equal share of family property
(b) Only sons can get a share in the property
(c) Only sons and daughters can get a share in the property
(d) Only sons and mother can get a share in the family property

Answer : A

Question. What do you mean by the term ‘domestic’ in ‘Domestic violence’?
(a) House in which people live
(b) House in which people do not live
(c) A house where a nuclear family lives
(d) It includes all women who live or have lived together in a shared household with the husband.

Answer : D

Question. Who gave the order to fire in Jallianwala Bagh on innocent people protesting calmly?
(a) General Dyercorrect
(b) Dr. Satyapal
(c) Dr. Saifuddin Kichlew
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question. What do understand by Sedition Act of 1870?
(a) A person could be arrested and deported.
(b) Any person criticizing or protesting the British government could be arrested without a trial.
(c) The arrested person could not engage an advocate.
(d) Arrested person could be detained in police custody for an indefinite period of time.

Answer : B

Question. Making law is not enough government has to ensure that these laws are :
(a) Implemented
(b) Enforced
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer : C

Question. The Constitution states that there should be no _____ exercise of power.
(a) Mediatary
(b) illegal
(c) arbitrary
(d) custom

Answer : C

Question. What is rule of law?
(a) To balance wealth
(b) To maintain the situation
(c) To maintain the price
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question. When was the Rowlatt Act was passed?
(a) 10 March, 1919
(b) 8 March, 1919
(c) 12 March, 1919
(d) 3 March, 1919

Answer : A

Question. One worker can easily replace another because of :
(a) Too much unemployment
(b) Work in unsafe condition
(c) Low wages
(d) All of the above

Answer : A

Question. Who made the law?
(a) Laws are made by president
(b) Laws are made by prime minister
(c) Laws are made by sovereign power
(d) None of these

Answer : C

Question. When did Jallianwala Bagh’s massacre take place?
(a) 13 Aprilcorrect
(b) 13 March
(c) 13 May
(d) 13 June

Answer : A

Question. In India incident occurs rapidly because of :
(a) Safety laws are less in India
(b) Safety laws are not enforced
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer : C

Question. What do you mean by repressive law?
(a) Based on force or pressure
(b) Passed against the will of the people
(c) To prevent the person’s right to criticize
(d) All of these

Answer : D

Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 Understanding Laws Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions

1. Who introduced the rule of law in India – the British or the Indians?  
Answer: The Indians introduced the rule of law in their country.

2. How can you say that the Sedition Act of 1870 was arbitrary? [V.Imp.] 
Answer: The Sedition Act of 1870 was arbitrary because under this Act any person protesting or criticising the British government could be arrested without trial.

3. How was the Rowlatt Act an arbitrary law?
Answer: This Act allowed the British government to imprison people without trial.

4. Is the Protection of women from Domestic Violence Act a civil law or a criminal law?
Answer: The Protection of women from Domestic Violence Act is a civil law.

5. Why do people not accept some laws passed by the Parliament? [Imp.]
Answer: It is because they feel that the intention behind such laws is unfair and harmful.

6. What do people do to criticise unfair laws of the Parliament?
Answer: They hold public meeting, write about it in newspapers, report to TV news channels, etc.

7. What is controversial law? [V. Imp.]
Answer: The law that favours one group and disregards the other is known as controversial law.

8. What does the court do if it finds that laws don’t adhere to the Constitution? [V. Imp.]
Answer: The court has the power to modify or cancel such laws.

Short Answer Type Questions

1. ‘In ancient India, there was no rule of law’. Explain. [V. Imp.]

Answer: In ancient India there were several and often overlapping local laws. Different communities enjoyed different degrees of autonomy in administering these laws among their own people. In some cases, the punishment that the two persons received for the same crime varied judgement depending on their caste backgrounds. The lower castes in such circumstances were more  harshly penalised than the upper castes.

2. How was the Rowlatt Act protested by the Indian nationalists? What was its consequence?

Answer: The Rowlatt Act came into effect on 10 March, 1919. This Act allowed the British government to imprison people without due trial. Indian nationalists began to protest this arbitrary Act. In Punjab, the protest was more intensely carried out. On April 10, two leaders of the movement, Dr. Satyapal and Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew were arrested. To protest these arrests, a public meeting was held on 13 April at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar. General Dyer entered the park with his troops and after closing the only exit ordered them to fire on the gathering. As a result several hundreds of people were killed and many more were wounded.

3. How did the Indian legal profession develop by the end of the 19th century? [Imp.]

Answer: By the end of the 19th century, the Indian legal profession developed enough to demand respect in colonial courts. They began to use law to defend the legal rights of Indians. Indian judges also began to play a greater role in making decisions. In due course, the rule of law evolved during the colonial period.

4. What role do citizens play in the evolution of a new law? [V.Imp.]

Answer: The Parliament plays an important role in making laws. There are many ways through which this takes place and it is often different groups in society that raise issue begins to take root, it is brought to the attention of the Parliament which in due course makes a law to crush it. Thus, the role of citizens is important in helping Parliament frame different concerns that people might have into laws. From establishing the need for a new law to its being passed, at every stage of the process the voice of the citizen is an important element.

5. Give one example to show that British law was arbitrary.

Answer: One example of arbitrary that continued to exist as part of British law is the sedition act of 1870. The idea of sedition was understood within this act. Any person protesting or criticizing the British government could be arrested without due trial.

6. What did the Indian nationalists do against the arbitrary laws of British?

Answer: (a) Indian nationalist began protesting and criticizing this arbitrary use of authority by the British.
(b) They began fighting for greater equality and wanted to change the idea of law from a set of rules that they were forced to obey, to law as including ideas of justice.
(c) By the end of 19th century, Indian legal profession also began emerging and demanded respect in colonial courts.

7. Why were the new laws against domestic violence introduced?

Answer: (a) The law recognizes the right of women to live in a shared household, protection against violence women can get monetary relief to meet their expense including medical costs.
(b) Women wanted protection against being beaten, and the right to continue living in a shared household. Thus, the law against domestic violence was introduced to address these issues.

8. Write a short note on Lady Justice.

Answer: Lady Justice or Justitia is the Roman Goddess of Justice. It is a personification of the moral force that underlies the legal system. Her blindfolded eyes symbolize equality under the law and impartiality towards all the people who are governed by it. The weighing scales represent the balancing of people’s interests under the law, and her sword denotes the law’s force of reason.

9. How was the system of law during ancient times in India?

Answer: In ancient India, there were countless and overlapping local laws. Different communities were given the liberty to enforce the laws according to their need. In some cases, the punishment that two persons received for the same crime varied depending on their caste. The lower castes were punished more harshly.

Long Answer Type Questions

1. How are unpopular and controversial laws opposed by the people? [V. Imp.]

Answer: Sometimes the Parliament passes laws that turn out to be very unpopular even though they are constitutionally valid. People do not accept unpopular laws because they feel that the intention behind these laws is unfair and harmful. Hence, they criticise such laws, hold public meetings, write about them in newspapers, report to TV news channels etc.

In a democratic country like India, citizens can express their unwillingness to accept laws which, they think, are repressive. When a large number of people begin to feel that a wrong law has been passed, then the Parliament has to change it.

We can cite here an example. Various municipal laws on the use of space within municipal jurisdiction often declare hawking and street vending illegal. No one will dispute the necessity for some rules to keep the public space open. At the same time, one also cannot deny that hawkers and vendors provide essential services to the people. This is their means of livelihood. Hence, if the law favours one group and disregards the other it will be controversial leading to conflict. People who think that the law is unfair can approach the court to decide on the issue.

2: What are the advantages to foreign companies in setting up production in India? 

Answer: Advantages to foreign companies in setting up production in India are: 
Cheap labour- Wages that the companies pay to workers say in the U.S.A. are far higher than what they have to pay workers in India. 
For lower pay- Companies can get longer hours of work.
Additional expenses such as housing facilities for workers are also fewer. Thus, companies can save costs and earn higher profits. 
Cost cutting can also be done by other more dangerous means. 
Lower working conditions including lower safety measures are used as ways of cutting costs. 

For Example- 
At West Virginia (U.S.A.) computerized working and monitoring systems were in place, whereas the UC plants in Bhopal relied on manual gauges and the human senses to detect gas leaks. At the West Virginia plants, emergency evacuation plan were in place, but non-existent in Bhopal.

2: Do you think the victims of the Bhopal gas tragedy got justice? Discuss. 

Answer: The victim of the Bhopal gas tragedy didn’t get justice. 
1. Despite the overwhelming evidence, pointing to UC as responsible for the disaster, it refused to accept responsibility. 
2. In the ensuring legal battle, the government represented the victims in a civil case against UC. It filled a $3 billion compensation case in 1985, but accepted a lowly $470 million in 1989. 
3. Survivors appealed against the settlement but the Supreme Court ruled that the settlement amount would stand. 
Even if the UC pays the full compensation set, the lives of the innocent would not come back or they won’t come back. 
4. Money cannot be everything or compensation against a life. Neither the government nor UC has provided the survivors safe drinking water for health care facilities and the jobs. The contaminated water is still the same  after 24 yrs. 

3: What do we mean when we speak of law enforcement? Who is responsible for enforcement? Why is enforcement so important? 

Answer:
1. Law enforcement means that to make sure a law or rule is obeyed. If there is a certain law, it is meant for being obeyed and followed. 
2. As a lawmaker and enforcer, the government is supposed to ensure that safety laws are implemented. 
3. It is also the duty of the government to ensure that the Right to life guaranteed under Article 21 of the constitution is not violated.  Enforcement is so important because as seen in the example of the UC plant in Bhopal-

• Government officials refused to recognize the plant as hazardous and allowed it to come up in a populated locality. 
• When some municipal officials in Bhopal objected that the installation of an MIC production unit in 1978 was a safety violation, the position of the government was that the state needs the continued investment of the Bhopal plant, which provides jobs. 
• It was unthinkable, according to them, to ask UC to shift to cleaner technology or safer procedures. 
• Government inspectors continued to approve the procedures in the plant, even when repeated incidents of leaks from the plant made it obvious to everybody that things were seriously wrong. 
• Instead of protecting the interests of the people, their safety was being disregarded both by the government and by private companies. 

4: Explain the various roles played by the government?

Answer: 1. The government has to ensure that all the laws are implemented. This means that the law must be enforced. Enforcement becoming even more important when the law seeks to protect the weak from the strong. 
2. Through making, enforcing and upholding these laws, the government can control the activities of individuals or private companies to ensure social justice. 
3. As the lawmaker and enforcer, the government is supposed to ensure that safety laws are implemented. 
4. It is also the duty of the government to ensure that the Right to life guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution is not violated. 
5. A major role of the government, therefore, is to control the activities of private companies by making, enforcing and upholding laws so as to prevent unfair practices and ensure social justice. 
6. This means that the governments has to make appropriate laws and also has to enforce the laws. 
7. Laws that are weak and poorly unforced can cause serious harm as the Bhopal gas tragedy showed. 
While the government has a leading role in this respect, people can exert pressure so that both private companies and the government act in the interests of society. 

5: How can laws ensure that markets work in a manner that is fair? Explain with the help of an example? 

Answer: Laws are very important in a market situation. 

• Private companies or individuals to make maximum profit may deny workers their rights and not pay them wages. 
• In the eyes of law, it is illegal to deny workers their wages. 
• To ensure that workers are not underpaid, there is a law on minimum wage. A worker has to be paid not less than the minimum wage by the employer. 
• Laws help ensure that the relations between these three parties in the market – the worker, consumer and producer are governed in a manner that is not exploitative. 
• There are also laws to protect the interests of procedure and consumes in the market 
• Shops should sell goods only at MRP price by the producer. 
• Unadulterated products should not be sold. For this a quality mark fixed by the government should be put on every product. 

Why do we need a Parliament? MCQ Questions Class 8 Social Science with Answers

Question. If the president has to resign, he sends his resignation to:-
(a) Prime minister
(b) Vice president
(c) Chief minister
(d) Lok sabha speaker

Answer : A

Question. What is the position of president in the executive?
(a) Head executive
(b) Constitutional head of government
(c) Constitutional head of state
(d) Head of party in power

Answer : A

Question. ”EVM” for the first time used in:-
(a) 2007
(b) 2004
(c) 2003
(d) 1990

Answer : B

Question. What did universal adult franchise mean:-
(a) Right to vote
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Right to equality
(d) Right to adult freedom

Answer : B

Question. The parliament of India has ______ houses
(a) 2
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 3

Answer : A

Question. Rajya sabha is also called
(a) Parliament
(b) House of people
(c) Council of states
(d) None of these

Answer : C

Question. Houses of people is _______
(a) Lok sabha
(b) Vidhan sabha
(c) Rajya sabha
(d) Parliament

Answer : A

Question. Rajya sabha has ________ members
(a) 245
(b) 250
(c) 238
(d) 219

Answer : A

Question. Lok sabha contains:-
(a) 550
(b) 552
(c) 545
(d) None of these

Answer : C

Question. How many members are nominated in Rajya sabha by president?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 20

Answer : B

Question. How many members are nominated in Lok sabha by president?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 7

Answer : A

Question. Parliament of India is _______ law making institution
(a) Midst
(b) Supreme
(c) Lowest
(d) All of above

Answer : B

Question. When was 14th election held?
(a) 2003
(b) 2000
(c) 1999
(d) 2004

Answer : D

Question. Which political party is currently in power?
(a) Congress
(b) BJP
(c) Telugu Desam
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question. The lok sabha is elected after every _______ years
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 2
(d) 4

Answer : A

Question. The president of India holds office for a period of:-
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 7

Answer : B

Question. President electoral college consists of:-
(a) M.P
(b) M.L.A
(c) Members of state legislative
(d) Elected members of parliament & state legislative

Answer : D

Question. A dispute regarding the election of the president is referred to the:-
(a) Election commission
(b) Parliament
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Vice president

Answer : C

Question. Each constituencies elected
(a) 1 person to the parliament
(b) 2 person to the parliament
(c) 3 person to the parliament
(d) 4 person to the parliament

Answer : A

Question. Third lok sabha election held in
(a) 1973
(b) 1962
(c) 1966
(d) 1970

Answer : B

Question. When did the Indian congress demanded the elected members in the legislature?
(a) 1880
(b) 1885
(c) 1896
(d) 1845

Answer : B

Question. The parliament is made up with
(a) Prime minister, BJP
(b) President, Lok sabha, Rajya sabha
(c) Vidhan sabha, Vidhan Mandal
(d) All of these

Answer : B

Question. ____ functions based on representation of states.
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) President
(c) Vidhan Sabha
(d) Rajya Sabha

Answer : D

Question. Representatives to the Parliament are chosen by the
(a) People
(b) Rulers
(c) Government
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question. In the 2014 elections, ____ was the leading party of the country.
(a) Indian National Congress
(b) Bhartiya Janta Party
(c) Communist Party
(d) Swatantra Party

Answer : B

Question. President electoral college consists of:-
(a) M.P
(b) M.L.A.
(c) Members of state legislative
(d) Elected members of parliament & state legislative

Answer : D

Question. When was the EVM used for the first time?
(a) 2007
(b) 2004
(c) 2003
(d) 1990

Answer : B

Question. What is the guiding philosophy of Bharatiya janata party?
(a) Marxism
(b) Revolutionary democracy
(c) Modernisation
(d) none of these

Answer : B

Question. Which political party has won most seats in all states in 8th lok sabha election?
(a) Telugu Desam Party
(b) Independents
(c) Kerala Congress
(d) Muslim League

Answer : A

Question. If the president has to resign, he sends his resignation to:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Vice President
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Lok Sabha Speaker

Answer : B

Question. What do you mean by the Houses of people?
(a) Lok sabha
(b) Vidhan sabha
(c) Rajya sabha
(d) Parliament

Answer : A

Question. The combined strength of all political parties in the Parliament with less than 50% of representatives is
(a) ruling party
(b) opposition
(c) coalition
(d) none of these

Answer : B

Question. Each constituencies elected
(a) 1 person to the parliament
(b) 2 person to the parliament
(c) 3 person to the parliament
(d) 4 person to the parliament

Answer : A

Question. Situation in which there is no easy solutions to the problems is called:
(a) Approval
(b) Coalition
(c) unresolved
(d) Crucial

Answer : C

Question. Member of Parliament are representatives of?
(a) Government
(b) Party
(c) None of these
(d) People

Answer : D

Question. The disputes regarding the election of the President and Vice-President of India are decided by the
(a) Election Commission
(b) Parliament
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Vice President

Answer : C

Question. How many members are nominated in Rajya sabha by president?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 20

Answer : B

Question. In which state lok sabha elections were held in 1984?
(a) Punjab
(b) Assam
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of above

Answer : C

Question. Political party is made by
(a) Members of parliament
(b) Member of legislative assembly
(c) Prime minister
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question. Which is an important way to contro l the executive in Parliament?
(a) Assembly
(b) Zero hour
(c) Question hour
(d) none of these

Answer : C

Question. The Parliament is made up with?
(a) Prime minister, BJP
(b) President, Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
(c) Vidhan Sabha, Vidhan Mandal
(d) All of the above

Answer : B

Question. Rajya Sabha has ____ elected members.
(a) 233
(b) 213
(c) 245
(d) 243

Answer : A

Question. For General elections, electronic voting machines were used for the first time in ____.
(a) 2001
(b) 2005
(c) 2004
(d) 2009

Answer : C

Question. The most important function of lok sabha is
(a) Judiciary
(b) Executive
(c) Legislature
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question. What is the significant function of parliament?
(a) Law making
(b) Socio reform
(c) Child development
(d) none of these

Answer : A

Question. _____ is made up of all the representatives elected by the Indian people.
(a) Rashtrapati Bhavan
(b) White House
(c) House of Commons
(d) Lok Sabha

Answer : D

Question. What did universal adult franchise mean:-
(a) Right to vote
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Right to equality
(d) Right to adult freedom

Answer : B

Question. ‘EVM’ means
(a) Electronic voting machine
(b) Election voting machine
(c) Equal vote measure
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected?
(a) Directly
(b) Indirectly
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer : B

Question. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by whom?
(a) Legislative Assemblies
(b) Parliament member
(c) Advocate
(d) None of these

Answer : A

 Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 Why do We Need a Parliament Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions

1. What is the advantage of the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs)? [V. Imp.]
Answer: Cutting of trees has been stopped.

2. Name the two Houses of the Parliament.
Answer: The Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha.

3. What is the term or tenure of the Lok Sabha?
Answer: The tenure of the Lok Sabha is 5 years.

4. What makes the Indian Parliament powerful?
Answer: It is the representative of the people.

5. What do you mean by the executive? [Imp.]
Answer: The executive is a group of persons who work together to implement the laws made by the Parliament.

6. Who is the leader of the ruling party in the Lok Sabha? [V. Imp.]
Answer: The Prime Minister is the leader of the ruling party in the Lok Sabha.

7. Name the ministries which are housed in the North Block?
Answer: The Minister of Finance and the Ministry of Home Affairs.

8. Who nominates the 12 members of the Rajya Sabha? [Imp.]
Answer: The President of India nominates the 12 members of the Rajya Sabha.

9. How is the question hour an important mechanism?
Answer: It is through this mechanism that MPs can elicit information about the working of the government.

10.What has been done to give adequate representation to the communities that have been historically marginalised? [V. Imp.]
Answer: Some seats are reserved in the Parliament for people belonging to SC and ST category.

Short Answer Type Questions

1: What are the basic ideals of a democracy?

Answer: The basic ideals of democracy are:

• The participation of the citizens in the government’s decision- making.
• The need for the government to have the consent of its citizens in all major issues taken by it.

2: What is the purpose of a Parliament?
Answer: The Parliament enables citizens of India to participate in decision making and control the government.

3: What was the main principle of the Indian constitution?
Answer: The main principle of the Indian constitution was Universal adult franchise. All adults in free India could vote and participate in decision- making.

4: How can all the citizens participate in the decision–making process of the government?

Answer: In a democracy general elections are held and all adults have a right to vote. The citizens elect a few people to represent them in the Parliament. The Parliament is made up of all these representatives. These representatives are known as Members of the Parliament. One group, from among these elected representatives forms the government. It is through these representatives that the citizens take part in the decision-making of the government.

5: Who designed the Parliament house in India?
Answer: The Parliament house in India was designed by the British architect Herbert Baker.

6: What is an EVM?

Answer: An EVM is an Electronic Voting Machine used for elections in India. Indian voting machines use a two-piece system with a balloting unit presenting the voter with a button for each choice connected by a cable to an electronic ballot box.

7: What is a constituency?
Answer: The country is divided into many areas for election purposes. Each area is called a constituency. A representative is elected from each constituency to serve in the legislative body.

8: Mention the 2 houses of the Indian Parliament.
Answer: The 2 Houses of the Indian Parliament are
(i) The Rajya Sabha
(ii) The Lok Sabha

9: What are the three major duties of the Parliament?

Answer: The three major duties of the Parliament are…

• To Select the National Government
• To Control, Guide and Inform the Government
• Law-Making

10: How is a National government selected?

Answer: After the Lok Sabha elections, a list is prepared showing how many MPs belonging to each political party have won the elections. The Political party which has the majority of MPs will form the National government.
A majority Party should have at least 272 MPs, that is, more than half of the total number of MPs in the Lok Sabha.

11. How do the individuals give approval to the government? [V. Imp.]

Answer: One way of giving approval to the government is through election’s. People would elect their representatives to the Parliament. Then one group from among these elected representatives forms the government. The Parliament, which is made up of all representatives together, controls and guides the government. Thus, people, through their chosen representatives form the government and also control it.

12: Use the term ‘Constituency’ and ‘Represent’ to explain who an MLA is and how the person gets elected?

Answer: An MLA is the Member of Legislative Assembly. Each state is divided into different ‘Constituencies’. The MLA is the elected member who represents a particular constituency.

13. How are the members of the Rajya Sabha elected? 

Answer: The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Legislative assemblies of various states. There are 233 elected members plus 12 members nominated by the President. 

14. Under what circumstances is the coalition government formed? Or Write a note on the coalition government. [V. Imp.]

Answer: The coalition government is a phenomenon of the recent past. At times it so happens that one political party does not get a clear majority that is required to form the government. In such circumstances a group of political parties come together to form a government. These political parties are usually interested in similar concerns. The government formed by these parties is popularly known as the coalition government.

15. Explain the basic idea behind the representative democracy? 

Answer: A representative democracy is a system of government in which all eligible citizens vote on representatives to pass laws for them. All of these elected officials supposedly listen to the populace and do what’s best for the nation, state or jurisdiction as a whole. 

Long Answer Type Questions

1. How is the national government formed?

Answer: After the Lok Sabha elections are declared, a list is prepared showing how many MPs belong to each political party. For a political party to form the government, they must have a majority of elected MPs. The total membership of the Lok Sabha is 545, in which 543 are elected members while 2 are nominated. Thus, a party should have at least half the number i.e., 272 members or more to have a majority. The opposition in Parliament is formed by all the political parties that oppose the majority party or coalition formed. The largest amongst these parties is 
known as the Opposition party.

2. Write a brief note on the Rajya Sabha.

Answer: The Rajya Sabha is also called the Council of States. The Rajya Sabha functions primarily as the representative of the states of India in the Parliament. It can also initiate legislation and a bill is required to pass through the Rajya Sabha in order to become a law. In this way, it plays an important role of reviewing and altering, if alterations are required, the laws initiated by the Lok Sabha. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of various states. The total strength of the Rajya Sabha is 245, in which 233 members are elected while 12 members are nominated by the President. The Rajya Sabha is chaired by the Vice-President of India.

3. What is meant by the Opposition parties? What role do they play in the government? [Imp.]

Answer: After election results are declared, the leader of the party with clear majority of elected members form a government. The other political parties form the opposition. The largest amongst these parties is known as the Opposition party.

The Opposition parties play a crucial role in the healthy functioning of a democracy. They keep a check on the government by highlighting its drawbacks in various policies and programmes. They also mobilise popular support for their own policies.

4. Discuss the role and functions of the Parliament?

 Answer: The parliament is the most important institution in a democracy. It performs the following role and functions:
(i) The Lok Sabha selects the executive, which is a group of persons who work together to implement the laws made by the Parliament.
(ii) The Parliament controls, guides and informs the government. The question hour with which the Parliament in session begins, is an important mechanism through which MPs can elicit information about the working of the government. This is a very important way through which the Parliament controls the executive. By asking questions the government is alerted to its shortcomings and also comes to know the opinion of the people through their representatives in the Parliament.
The government gets valuable feedback and is kept on its toes by the questions asked by the MPs. In addition, in all matters dealing with finances, the Parliament’s approval is crucial for the government. This is one of the several ways in which the Parliament controls, guides and informs the government.
(iii) The Parliament makes law for the entire country.

5: Why do you think our national movement supported the idea that all adults have a right to vote? 

Answer: Under colonial rule, the people had lived in fear of the British govt. & did not agree with many of the decisions that they took.

• But they faced great danger if they tried to criticised these decisions.
• The freedom movement changed this situation & the nationalists began to openly criticise the British govt & make demands.
• They demanded that there be elected members in the legislature with a right to discuss the budget & ask questions.

That is why nationalist movement supported the idea of universal adult franchise, so that the people can take part in the decision making of the country.

6: Discuss with your teacher the difference between a State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and the Parliament (Lok Sabha)

Answer: 

Parliament (Lok Sabha)	State Legislature Assembly (Rajya Sabha)
The Members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people	The members of Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by members of various legislative assemblies
There are 542 members & 2 are nominated by the President	There are 245 members, out of which 12 are nominated by the President
Its term is for 5 years	It’s term is for 6 years
Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the President That is why, it is known as the Temporary House	It cannot be dissolved because it is a Permanent House & 2/3 of its members retire after every two Years & new members join in their place

Vidhan Sabha (State Legislative Assembly)	Parliament (Lok Sabha)
Vidhan Sabha is the lower house of the state	Lok Sabha is known as lower house of the Parliament
The members of Vidhan Sabha are known as MLAs	The members of Lok Sabha are known as MPs

7: From the list below, identify the work of a State government and that of a Central government?

Answer: 

1. The decision of the Indian Govt. to maintain peaceful relations with China. (Central Govt.)
2. The decision of the Madhya Pradesh govt. to discontinue Board exams in Class VIII for all schools under this Board. (State Govt.)
3. Introduction of a new train connection between Ajmer & Mysore (Central govt.)
4. Introduction of a new 1,000 rupee note (central Govt.)

8: Why do we have a system where the representatives are elected for a fixed period and not for life?

Answer: We have a system where the representatives are elected for a fixed period & not for life. This is because –

1. So that the elected representative may not become strong & try to misuse their powers.
2. If we will choose a representative for lifetime, it will be against the democracy.

9: Describe the ways other than participating in elections to express approval or disapproval of the actions of government.

Answer: People participate in ways other than participating in elections & not just through elections to express approval or disapproval of the actions of govt. Three ways in which they do so are

1. For the election of MLA, the area is divided into various constituencies of a state.
2. Elections are held on the basis of Universal Adult Franchise.
3. From every constituency, one MLA is elected.

10. Define the following:

Answer: (i) UAF: It stands forUniversal Adult Franchise. In this principle, all adult citizens of the country have the right to vote. 
(ii) Coalition Government: It refers to the alliance formed by political parties after elections when no party has been able to get the adequate seats to form a clear majority. 
(iii) Executive: It is a smaller group of people who are responsible for implementing the laws and running the govt . They include CM, PM, Council of Minister. 
(iv) Constituency: A state is divided into several parts. From each area a MD is elected to control that area. 
(v) Opposition: The party which loses the election is called the opposition. 

11. What role does the parliament play in the functioning of the government? 

Answer:

1. The Parliament which is made up of all representatives controls and guides the government. 
2. The question of the hour is an important mechanism through which MPs can elicit information about the working of the government.
3. The Parliament also has a significant role in law-making. 
4. The Rajya Sabha primarily functions as the representative of the states of India in the Parliament. 
5. The Rajya Sabha can also initiate legislation and a bill is required to pass through the Rajya Sabha in order to become a law. Therefore, it has an important role of reviewing and altering the laws initiated by the Lok Sabha. 

12. Why do you think reservation of Dalits and women is important in India? 

Answer: 

1. It has been observed that representative democracy cannot produce a perfect reflection of society. 
2. There is a realization that when interests and experiences separate us it is important to ensure that communities that have been historically marginalized are given adequate representation. 
3. Similarly, it has more recently been suggested that there should be reservation of seats for women. 
4. With this in mind, some seats are reserved in the Parliament for SCs and STs. This has been done so that the MPs elected from these constituencies will be familiar with and can represent Dalit and Adivasi interests in Parliament. 

13. What role does the opposition party play in the healthy functioning of a democracy? 

Answer: 
1. They question the ruling government and make them accountable to the public.
2. Their role is to ensure that the government should not take any step which is against the interest of the public.
3. Their duty is to check and ensure the action of the ruling party is for the benefit of the masses and to support the government in such things.

14. Give at least 2 arguments against representative democracy. 

Answer:

1. Representative Democracy does not produce a perfect reflection of society as the interest and experiences separate the communities who have been given adequate representation. 
2. Representative democracy does not allow reservation in Parliament as after the elapse of sixty years of independence one-third reservation of women is still pending and only nine percent members are of Parliament even if half of the population is women. 

15. Why do you think the nationalist movement supported the idea that all the adults have a right to vote? 

Answer: Our national movement supported the idea that all adults have a right to vote because in our struggle for independence people from all walks of life participated. They came from various backgrounds and were unitedin their aspirations for a free,equal and independent nation where decision making would be in the hands of the people. The only way in which this would be possible would be through elections– allowing common people a vantage pointfrom where they can consent to and approveof a government that “they” have a right to choose.

16. Who is a Prime Minister and what role does he/she play in the functioning of the country?

Answer: 

1. The Prime Minister is the leader of the ruling party in Lok Sabha 
2. From the MPs who belong to his/her party, the Prime Minister selects ministers to work with him/her to implement the decisions. 
3. These ministers then take charge of different areas of govt. functioning like health, education etc. 

17. How can you say that composition of Indian parliament has changed recently? 

Answer: The Parliament now has more and more people from different backgrounds. For e.g.: 

1. There are more rural members as also members from any regional parties. 
2. Groups and peoples that were till now unrepresented are beginning to get elected to parliament. 
3. There has also been an increase in the political participation from the Dalit and the backward states and the minorities. 
4. Similarly, it has more recently been suggested that there should be reserved seats for women. 
5. This issue is still being debated. 60 yrs ago only 4% of MPs were women and today it is above 9%. This is a small share when you consider the fact that half the population is women. 

18. Explain the procedure of elections.

Answer: 

1. People would elect their representatives to the parliament, then one group from these elected representatives forms the government. 
2. The Parliament which is made up of all representatives together controls and guides the Govt. In this sense people, through their chosen representatives form the Government. 
3. The country is divided into numerous constituencies. Each of these constituencies elects one person to the parliament. The candidates who contest elections usually belong to different political parties. 

19: What is ‘Question hour’ in Parliament?

Answer: The first hour of every sitting during a Parliament Session is called the Question Hour. During ‘Question hour’ Questions are posed by members to specific government ministries. The concerned Ministries have to answer these Questions on a fixed date.
The Questions asked during ‘Question Hour’ highlights the shortcomings of the Government and also bring to light the opinion of the citizen through their representatives, namely the MPs.
This Question Hour helps the Parliament to control the Executive (Government).

20: Write a brief note on the Members of Parliament.

Answer: The Members of Parliament are from different backgrounds. Many members are from rural areas and from regional parties.
Groups and peoples that were not unrepresented so far, are beginning to get elected to the Parliament. Today there are more number of people from the Dalit and backward castes and the minorities, in Parliament.
It is good to have representatives in the Parliament from all sections of society, so that every Indian will be represented in the decision- making body. 

21: Write a brief note on the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha.

Answer: Rajya Sabha- The Rajya Sabha functions primarily as the representative of the states of India, in the Parliament. There are 233 elected members plus 12 members nominated by the President. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of various states. The Rajya Sabha plays an important role of reviewing and altering the laws initiated by the Lok Sabha.

Lok Sabha- The Lok Sabha, known as the House of the People, with a total membership of 543, is presided over by the Speaker. The country is divided into 543 Lok Sabha constituencies. During a Lok Sabha election, people from different political parties stand for elections. Once elected, these candidates become Members of Parliament or MPs. These MPs together make up the Parliament.

Understanding Secularism MCQ Questions Class 8 Social Science with Answers

Question. How many languages are accepted in Indian constitution ?
(a) 22
(b) 28
(c) 15
(d) 20

Answer: A

Question. Secularism refer to
(a) Freedom to religious
(b) Freedom to cote
(c) Freedom o education
(d) None of these

Answer: A

Question. What could the tyranny of majority result in?
(a) Discrimination
(b) Coercion
(c) None of the above
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: D

Question. Which one of the following is a fundamental right ?
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to property
(c) Right to work
(d) All of the above

Answer : A

Question. What was the names of the Muslim dominant former French colonies.
(a) Tunisia
(b) Morocco
(c) Algeria
(d) All of these

Answer: D

Question. What is celebrated on 2nd October of every year?
(a) Christmas Day
(a) Children’s Day
(a) Gandhi Jayanticorrect
(a) Diwali

Answer: C

Question. What can we not do in government schools?
(a) Sing national anthem
(b) Sing Rashtriya Geet
(c) Celebrate any religious festivalcorrect
(d) None of these

Answer: C

Question. What refers to the State’s effort to influence a particular matter in accordance with the principles of the constitution?
(a) Intervene
(b) Coercion
(c) Meditation
(d) None of these

Answer: A

Question. Hitler had prosecuted _ during his region in Germany.
(a) Muslims
(b) Christians
(c) Jews
(d) Hindus

Answer: C

Question. Secularism means:
(a) State is against to all religious
(b) State accept only one religion
(c) State will not give any special concern with any religion
(d) None of the above

Answer: C

Question. Identify the wrong statement
(a) In India, government spaces promote particular religion
(b) No one can dominate other members of same religious community
(c) government policy of treat all religions equally
(d) None of these

Answer: D

Question. In Saudi Arabia, ____ can’t practise their religion in public.
(a) non-Muslims
(b) Muslims
(c) Government
(d) People

Answer: A

Question. Which is the sect of Jainism?
(a) Arya Samaj
(b) Khalsa
(c) Digamber
(d) Sanatan Dharm

Answer: C

Question. Who were persecuted in Hitler’s Germany?
(a) Jews
(b) Christian
(c) Muslims
(d) Hindus

Answer: A

Question. The right provided by constitution are called ?
(a) Governmental Right
(b) Optional Right
(c) Economic Right
(d) Fundamental Right

Answer : D

Question. What does ‘to force someone to do something’ mean?
(a) Coercion
(b) Intervene
(c) Interpret
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question. What is referred to as the separation of religion from the State?
(a) Diversity
(b) Fraternity
(c) Secularism
(d) Discrimination

Answer : C

Question. In a secular state, one religious state does not ____ the other.
(a) support
(b) discriminate
(c) follow
(d) resist

Answer : B

Question. The important fundamental rights to Equality is mentioned in which article of the constitution ?
(a) Article 19-22
(b) Article 23- 24
(c) Article 29-30
(d) Article 14-18

Answer : D

Question. In _____, there are upper castes who dominate lower castes.
(a) Jainism
(b) Jewism
(c) Parsis
(d) Hinduism

Answer : D

Question. In February 2004, which country has prohibited the wearing of conspicuous religious or political signs by the students?
(a) France
(b) India
(c) America
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question. India constitution guarantees ______to every citizen of the Country.
(a) Fundamental Duty
(b) Fundamental Right
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer : B

Question. _____ is a Republic country
(a) Japan
(b) United Kingdom
(c) United States of America
(d) China

Answer : C

Question. The rights provided by constitution are called:
(a) Governmental Rights
(b) Optional Rights
(c) Economic Rights
(d) Fundamental Rights

Answer : D

Question. Which one of the following is a fundamental right?
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to property
(c) Right to work
(d) All of these

Answer: A

Question. What is the status of U.S legislature in the matters of the religion?
(a) Prohibit making new gender law
(b) Prohibit making new reservation law
(c) Prohibit making new religion law
(d) None of these

Answer: C

Question. Explain the meaning of coercion.
(a) Force by legal authority
(b) Force by parents
(c) Force by Law
(d) None of these

Answer: A

Question. Which country didn’t allow non-Muslims to build their worship places?
(a) India
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Pakistan
(d) None of these

Answer: B

Question. Indian Constitution contains
(a) fundamental rights
(b) discrimination
(c) unequality
(d) all of these

Answer: A

Question. Tunisia was a colony of _____ earlier.
(a) Netherland
(b) France
(c) Spain
(d) United Kingdom

Answer : B

Class 8 Civics Chapter 2 Understanding Secularism Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions

1. What examples does history provide us on the grounds of religion?
Answer: History provides us with several examples of discrimination, exclusion and persecution on the grounds of religion.

2. What happened in the Jewish state of Israel?
Answer: Muslim and Christian minorities were treated badly in the Jewish state of Israel.

3. How are non-Muslims treated in Saudi Arabia? [V. Imp.]
Answer: In Saudi Arabia, non-Muslims are not allowed to build a temple, church etc. They also cannot gather in a public place for prayers.

4. What does the term ‘secularism’ refer to?
Answer: The term ‘secularism’ refers to the separation of the power of religion from the power of the State.

5. What do you mean by ‘freedom to interpret’? [Imp.]
Answer: ‘Freedom to interpret’ means an individual’s liberty to develop his own understanding and meaning of the religion that one practises.

6. Why cannot government schools celebrate religious festivals?
Answer: Government schools cannot celebrate religious festivals because it will be a violation of government’s policy of treating all religions equally.

7. Why is Paramjit allowed to drive in pagri?
Answer: Paramjit is a Sikh youth and for him wearing a pagri is a very important part of his religion.

8. How is Indian secularism different from that of American secularism?
Answer: Unlike Indian secularism, there is strict separation between religion and the State in American secularism.

9. What is meant by ‘principled distance’? [V. Imp.]
Answer: This means that any interference in religion by the State has to be based on the ideals laid out in the Constitution.

Short Answer Type Questions

1: What is religion?

Answer: Religion is the personal beliefs and practices relating to the divine. It is also people’s beliefs and opinions concerning the existence, nature, and worship of the divine.

2: Name the major religions practiced all over the world.

Answer: Buddhism; Christianity; Hinduism; Islam and Judaism are the major religions practiced all over the world.

3: What is secularism?

Answer: Secularism is the belief that no one should be discriminated on the basis of the religion he or she practises. Every citizen, irrespective of which religion he or she follows, is equal in the eyes of the laws and policies that govern the Nation.

4: State the 4^th point of the Fundamental Rights of the Indian constitution.

Answer: The 4^th point of the ‘Fundamental Rights’ is …
(i) Right to Freedom of Religion
(ii) ‘Every person has the right to practise, profess and propagate the religion of their choice’.

5. What are the three objectives of a secular State? [V. Imp.]

Answer: The three objectives of a secular State are:
(a) One religious community does not dominate another.
(b) Some members do not dominate other members of the same religious community.
(c) The State does not enforce any particular religion nor does it take away the religious freedom of individuals.

6: What are the other reasons for separating the power of the State from religion?

Answer: People should have the freedom to leave the religion they have been practicing and join another religion. They should also have the freedom to interpret religious teachings differently. It is for these reasons that it is important to separate the power of the state from religion.

7: What do you understand from the statement ‘freedom to interpret religious teachings differently’ in context with the practice of untouchability?

Answer: Untouchability refers to the social practice of excluding a minority group (untouchables) by regarding them as “ritually polluted” and segregating them from the mainstream by social custom.

According to the Indian constitution every one has the freedom to interpret religious teachings in their own way. Similarly the Dalits who are called untouchables have the freedom to interpret religion in their own way. The Indian constitution has abolished ‘Untouchability’.

8: What are the objectives of the Indian constitution that advocates secularism?

Answer: The objectives of the Indian constitution that advocates secularism are…
One religious community should not dominate another.
Some members of a religious community should not dominate other members of the same religious community.
The State should not enforce any particular religion nor take away the religious freedom of individuals.

9: What are the strategies followed by the Indian government to establish secularism?

Answer: The strategies followed by the Indian government to establish secularism are…

• Strategy of distancing itself from religion
• Strategy of non-interference
• Strategy of intervention

10: State Article: 17 in the Right to Equality, in the Indian constitution.

Answer: Article 17 in the Right to Equality is related to the ‘Abolition of Untouchability.’
It states: “Untouchability” is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden. The enforcement of any disability rising out of “Untouchability” shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.”

11: Mention a few points in the US constitution related to secularism.

Answer: According to the U.S. Constitution the legislature cannot declare any religion as the official religion. The legislature cannot give preference to one religion and neither the State nor religion can interfere in the affairs of one another. 

Long Answer Type Questions

1. Why is it important to separate religion from the State? Explain with examples.

 Answer: There are two main reasons why the separation of religion from the State is important:

(i) The first is to prevent the domination of one religion over another.

Example: Almost all countries of the world will have more than one religious  groups living in them. Within these religious groups, there will most likely be one group that is in a majority. If this majority religious group has access to State power, then it could quite easily use this power and financial resources to discriminate against and persecute persons of other religions. This would violate Fundamental Rights.

(ii) The second is to protect the freedom of individuals to exit from their religion, embrace another religion or have the freedom to interpret religious teachings differently.

Example: We can give example of untouchability in Hindu religious practice. If state power were in the hands of those Hindus who support untouchability, then it would be a difficult task for anyone to abolish this practice.

2. Explain with an example that in Indian secularism the State can intervene in religious affairs.

Answer: An import ant aspect of India secularism is that the State can intervene in religious affairs. We can prove this fact with an example of untouchability. It was a practice in which the members of the same religion, i.e. upper caste Hindus, dominated other members, i.e. lower caste people, within it. In order to prevent this religion-based exclusion and discrimination of lower castes, the Indian Constitution banned untouchability. In this instance, the State intervened in religion in order to end a social practice that it believed discriminated and excluded and that violated the Fundamental Rights of Lower castes.

3. What is secularism? [Imp.]

Answer: The Indian Constitution contains Fundamental Rights. These rights are very important because they protect us against State power as well as against the tyranny of the majority. The Indian Constitution allows individuals the freedom to live by their religious beliefs and practices as they interpret these. Thus, our Constitution gives religious freedom to all and to maintain it India adopted a strategy of separating the power of religion and the power of the State. Secularism is, in fact, the separation of religion from the State.

4: Secularism is separating religion from the power of the state. Discuss why it is vital to separate the power of the state from religious practices.

Answer: Secularism is very essential for the smooth functioning of a democratic country. In today’s world people go to other countries to work or do business. So you will find that people of different religions live in the same locality.

In the event of people of different religions living together in the same locality there is a possibility that people belonging to one particular religion being in the majority. If this majority has access to State power, there is likelihood that it will use it to discriminate and dominate the minority group which practices another religion.

In a secular democratic country any form of domination or tyranny, based on religion is in violation of the rights that a democratic society guarantees to each and every citizen irrespective of their religion.

Therefore it is important not to allow any one religion, even though it may be the majority, to violate the fundamental rights of all citizens. If this right has to be maintained it is vital to separate the power of the state from religious practices.

6. In what different ways does the Indian State work to prevent religious domination? [V. Imp.]

Answer: Indian secularism works in various ways to prevent religious domination:
(a) It uses a strategy of distancing itself from religion. The Indian State is not ruled by a religious group. It also does not support any one religion. In our country, government places like law courts, police stations, government schools and offices are not supposed to demonstrate or promote any one religion.

(b) The second way in which Indian secularism works to prevent the domination of religion is through a strategy of non-interference. This means that in order to respect the sentiments of all religions and not interfere with religious practices, the State makes certain exceptions for particular religious communities. Just take the example of the Sikh community. For Sikhs, wearing a pagri is a very important part of their religion. The government cannot force them to wear a helmet while driving a two-wheeler.

(c) The third way in which Indian secularism works to prevent the domination of religion is through a strategy of intervention. Untouchability presents a good example where members of the same religion, i.e. upper caste Hindus, dominate other members, i.e. lower castes within it. In order to prevent this religion-based discrimination of lower castes, our Constitution banned untouchability. Here, the State intervened in religion in order to uproot a social practice that it believed discriminated and excluded, and that violated the Fundamental Rights of the people belonging to lower caste.

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The Indian Constitution MCQ Questions Class 8 Social Science with Answers

Question. A constitution which can be amended easily is called :-
(A) Rigid constitution
(B) Flexible constitution
(C) Unwritten constitution
(D) None of these

Answer : B

Question. The words added to the preamble of Indian constitution by the 42nd amendment were :-
(A) Socialist and secular
(B) Democratic and Republic
(C) Secular
(D) Socialist

Answer : A

Question. The Constitution of India grants
(A) dual citizenship
(B) single citizenship
(C) both single and dual citizenship
(D) international and national citizenship.

Answer : B

Question. Fundamental Rights are
(A) basic rights for economic equality
(B) basic rights that are necessary for human happiness
(C) basic rights to keep people united
(D) basic rights which enable each individual to realise his best

Answer : D

Question. Fundamental Rights are given to citizens so that they
(A) get full opportunity for growth and development
(B) can be free from exploitation
(C) can gain social and economic equality
(D) can move anywhere they want.

Answer : A

Question. In parliamentary government the real power is exercised by :-
(A) The President
(B) The council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
(C) Both of them
(D) None of these

Answer : B

Question. In a secular country :-
(A) All religious receive due protection and respect
(B) The country puts ban on religion
(C) There is one state religion
(D) None of these.

Answer : A

Question. The constitution of a country is a –
(A) collection of rules and laws.
(B) historical document of laws.
(C) system of fundamental laws adopted by the people according to which the country is governed.
(D) system of government according to which the country is governed.

Answer : C

Question. On which date did the Constituent Assembly meet for the first time?
(A) 9 August 1942
(B) 15 August 1942
(C) 9 December 1946
(D) 26 January 1950

Answer : C

Question. The Constituent Assembly that drafted our Constitution was elected on the recommendation of
(A) the Cripps proposals
(B) the Cabinet Mission
(C) the Indian Independence Act
(D) the Wavell Plan.

Answer : B

Question. The first President of the Constituent Assembly was
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Shri K.M. Munshi
(D) Dr. Sachidanand Sinha.

Answer : D

Question. When was the Indian Constitution adopted or passed?
(A) 15 August 1947
(B) 9 December 1946
(C) 26 November 1949
(D) 26 January 1950

Answer : C

Question. The Constitution of India came into force from
(A) 15 August 1947
(B) 26 November 1949
(C) 26 January 1949
(D) 26 January 1950

Answer : D

Question. Which of the following served as the background for the Indian Constitution?
(A) The Government of India Act, 1935
(B) Constitution of USA
(C) Proposals of Cabinet Mission in 1946
(D) Bill of Indian Independence of 1947

Answer : A

Question. The Preamble to the Constitution is
(A) a description of the Constitution
(B) a summary of the Constitution
(C) an introduction that gives the aims and objectives of the Constitution
(D) a directive to the Government

Answer : C

Question. If the Preamble to the Indian Constitution is violated,
(A) no remedy is available
(B) one can file a writ of habeas corpus
(C) only the Supreme Court can help
(D) the Supreme Court and the High Courts can help.

Answer : A

Question. The Indian Constitution describes India as a
(A) Federal State
(B) Unitary State
(C) quasi Federal State
(D) Union of States.

Answer : D

Question. Which one of the following statements about the Indian Constitution is not correct?
(A) It is partly federal and partly unitary.
(B) It is neither rigid nor too flexible.
(C) It is written and lengthy.
(D) Parliament can amend any of its parts.

Answer : D

Question. The Indian Constitution ensures a stronger Centre because
(A) the Centre can raise more financial resources
(B) the Centre has more subjects in its list
(C) residuary powers of legislation are with the central legislature or Parliament
(D) defence is the responsibility of the Centre.

Answer : C

Question. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(A) The Indian Constitution envisages Parliamentary form of government.
(B) The Indian Constitution is federal in character.
(C) The Indian Constitution favours presidential government.
(D) The Indian Constitution envisages an independent judiciary.

Answer : C

Question. The Indian Constitution is
(A) flexible
(B) rigid
(C) partly flexible, partly rigid
(D) quasi rigid.

Answer : C

Question. The Indian Constitution is secular because
(A) the Government cannot formulate any policies that discriminate between different religions
(B) the makers of the Constitution were from all religions
(C) all are given equal rights
(D) there is no state religion.

Answer : A

Question. Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution have been taken from the constitutions of
(A) Ireland and USA
(B) Spain and Ireland
(C) UK and USA
(D) Canada and USA.

Answer : B

Question. Which one of the following Directive Principles does not form a part of Gandhian philosophy?
(A) Prohibition of intoxicating drinks and drugs
(B) Establishment of village panchayats
(C) Separating judiciary from the executive
(D) Setting up and promoting cottage industries

Answer : C

Question. Which one of the following is enforceable in a court of law?
(A) Directive Principles
(B) Fundamental Rights
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) Preamble

Answer : B

Question. Which one of the following is not an essential feature of the parliamentary form of government?
(A) It has an independent judiciary.
(B) It has the supreme power of making laws.
(C) The executive is responsible to the Parliament or the elected representatives of people.
(D) It has two chambers.

Answer : D

Question. The Federal system adopted by our Constitution is working successfully because
(A) the judiciary is independent
(B) there is a clear division of power between the Centre and the units or the states.
(C) the Press is free to criticise violation of Constitutional provisions.
(D) there is a division of power between the legislature and the executive.

Answer : B

Question. The Indian Constitution can be amended by
(A) A majority vote in each House of Parliament
(B) At least two thirds majority of the members present and voting in each House of Parliament
(C) At least two thirds majority of the members present and voting in each House of Parliament and ratified by at least half of the legislatures of the states.
(D) special majority in Parliament.

Answer : C

Question. Which of these statements is not correct? In a parliamentary form of government,
(A) Members of Parliament are responsible to the Prime Minister
(B) the Council of Ministers or the executive has collective responsibility
(C) Ministers are selected by the Prime Minister
(D) the President is indirectly elected by the people.

Answer : A

Question. In a parliamentary form of government, the executive can remain in office only if
(A) it enjoys the confidence of the ruling party
(B) it pleases the head of the state
(C) it has the confidence of the legislature and pleases the head of the state
(D) it enjoys the confidence of the people.

Answer : C

Question. A minister or member of Cabinet in a democracy is not supposed to
(A) disagree with other members in the Cabinet
(B) question the major policy decisions of the government
(C) defend his colleagues in Parliament
(D) compromise his views in the Cabinet meetings.

Answer : B

Question. Which of the following statements is not correct? A minister in a parliamentary form of government must
(A) Be a member of any of the two houses of Parliament
(B) Have the confidence of the Prime Minister
(C) Share collective responsibility
(D) Have basic knowledge of law.

Answer : D

Question. Majority of Rajya Sabha members are
(A) elected by the people
(B) elected by the state legislatures
(C) appointed by the President
(D) elected by Lok Sabha

Answer : B

Question. The term of a member of Rajya Sabha or the Upper House of Parliament is
(A) five years
(B) six years
(C) two years
(D) four years.

Answer : B

Question. The Indian Constitution provides
(A) only one constitution for all the states and the Centre
(B) a separate constitution for each state
(C) one constitution for the Centre and union territories
(D) choice of a constitution to the states.

Answer : A

Question. The Indian Constitution has divided the subjects between Centre and the states by providing
(A) three different lists
(B) powers to the courts to decide the subjects
(C) Parliament with the power to allot some subjects to the states
(D) powers to the courts to divide the subjects between the states.

Answer : A

Question. If there is a conflict between Centre and state laws, the Constitution says
(A) laws of the Centre will be valid
(B) the state has option to continue with its laws or use central laws
(C) the court decides which law will be enforced
(D) both laws will be declared valid. ‘.

Answer : A

Question. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution declares India to be a
(A) Sovereign Democratic Republic
(B) Sovereign Socialist Democratic Republic
(C) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
(D) Sovereign Socialist Democratic Federal Republic.

Answer : C

Question. With the preamble of which country’s constitution does our Preamble closely resemble?
(A) UK
(B) USA
(C) Ireland
(D) France

Answer : B

Question. Which new words were added to the Preamble to the Indian Constitution through the 42nd Amendment Act?
(A) Sovereign, Democratic and Republic
(B) Secular and socialist
(C) Liberty, Equality and Fraternity
(D) Justice, social, economic and political

Answer : B

Question. In the case of subjects not mentioned in any of the three lists, the power to enact laws rests with
(A) the Centre
(B) the states
(C) both Centre and states
(D) the Courts.

Answer : A

Question. Indian Constitution is federal because
(A) it is a written Constitution
(B) the states are autonomous
(C) the judiciary safeguards the Constitution and protects the rights of the states and the Centre
(D) the states are responsible for law and order.

Answer : C

Question. Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution can make the Constitution more unitary in nature?
(A) A strong Centre
(B) All India services
(C) Emergency powers of the President
(D) Centre’s responsibility of defence

Answer : C

Question. The President of India can declare a state of Emergency
(A) whenever he wants
(B) in case of external aggression or internal disturbances
(C) in case of conflict between him and Parliament
(D) when he does not agree with the Prime Minister.

Answer : B

Question. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(A) In the Indian Constitution, the judiciary is independent
(B) The High Court and Supreme Court Judges are elected by Parliament.
(C) In case of constitutional disputes the Supreme Court decides the case.
(D) The verdict of the Supreme Court is [mal.

Answer : B

Question. In the Indian Constitution the judiciary is independent because
(A) it can act independently
(B) it cannot be influenced by the party in power
(C) it enjoys security of tenure and cannot be removed except by a special procedure
(D) Judges are not members of any political party.

Answer : C

Question. The difference between Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Rights is
(A) they are written separately
(B) the former cannot be enforced by law while the latter are enforceable by law
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy come under the jurisdiction of state governments while Fundamental Rights are the responsibility of the Centre
(D) Directive Principles cannot be changed with times while Fundamental Rights can be changed.

Answer : B

Question. Who played a major role in the drafting of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B). Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) . Dr. Bhimrao Ainbedkar
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Answer : C

Question. In a Republic the Government derives its powers from
(A) the people
(B) the Constitution
(C) the Judiciary
(D) the President.

Answer : A

Question. Which one of the following countries is a democratic republic?
(A) India
(B) Japan
(C) UK
(D) Sweden

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The President is a mere ceremonial head and has no powers.
(B) The Supreme Court can make or enact laws.
(C) Parliament has control over the Council of Ministers.
(D) The President can reject a bill passed by Parliament.

Answer : C

Question. One of the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution. Which one is it?
(A) Federal government
(B) Parliamentary form of government
(C) Independent judiciary
(D) Presidential government

Answer : D

Question. Directive Principles of State Policy are there
(A) to keep the Government within its limits
(B) to protect the rights of ordinary people
(C) to safeguard the interests of state Governments
(D) to direct the Government to adopt policies which will help establish a just society.

Answer : D

Question. Which one of the following is not a necessary attribute of the citizen of a country?
(A) He has to inhabit that country.
(B) He participates in the process of government of that country.
(C) He has political rights in that country and abides by its laws.
(D) He should be in a democratic state.

Answer : A

Question. What should a good citizen not do?
(A) Participate in the process of government
(B) Abide by the laws of the country
(C) Perform his duties
(D) Demand his rights even at the cost of others

Answer : D

Question. Indian Citizenship Act of 1955 does not give Indian citizenship to
(A) children born of Indian citizens abroad
(B) children of diplomatic personnel born in India on or after 26 January 1950
(C) women who are or have been married to citizens of India
(D) persons of Indian origin who ordinarily reside in any country or place outside divided India.

Answer : B

Question. A citizen of any country should be loyal to
(A) the community
(B) the state
(C) the caste
(D) his religion.

Answer : B

Question. Among the following subjects there is one subject which falls under concurrent list.
(A) Public health
(B) Railways
(C) Trade and Commerce
(D) Education

Answer : D

Question. On the subjects under the concurrent list, a law can be enacted by
(A) the Union government
(B) state governments
(C) both Central and state governments.
(D) both President and state governors.

Answer : C

Question. Which one of the following does not come under the jurisdiction of the Central government?
(A) Defence
(B) Law and order
(C) Post and telegraph
(D) Foreign affairs

Answer : B

Question. Which of these statements is not correct?
(A) Fundamental Rights are guaranteed in the Constitution.
(B) Fundamental Rights cannot be violated by any government
(C) Fundamental Rights are enforced through courts.
(D) Fundamental Rights mean freedom to do anything one wants.

Answer : D

Question. Under which Fundamental Right is the practice of untouchability made punishable by law?
(A) Right to equality
(B) Right to freedom
(C) Right against exploitation
(D) Right to freedom of religion

Answer : A

Question. In the Indian Constitution developing of the scientific temper and attitude of humanism forms part of the
(A) Preamble
(B) Fundamental Rights
(C) Directive principles of State Policy
(D) Fundamental Duties.

Answer : D

Question. Which one of the following does not form a part of the right to freedom?
(A) Freedom of speech and expression
(B) Freedom to form unions and associations
(C) Freedom to turn out people speaking languages other than the one spoken by the majority in that particular region
(D) Freedom to practise any profession or occupation

Answer : C

Question. Which of the following statements is not correct about the right against exploitation?
(A) Children of poor parents can be employed in any trade.
(B) ‘Begar’ or work without wages will not be allowed.
(C) The State can organise compulsory service for public purposes.
(D) Children below the age of fourteen should not be employed in any dangerous jobs.

Answer : A

Question. Freedom of religion means
(A) All citizens are free to practise their religion
(B) the State is free to sponsor any religion
(C) religious education can be given by the State under the Constitution
(D) the government is free to make appointments on the basis of religion.

Answer : A

Question. Right to conserve and develop one’s language and script is guaranteed by the
(A) right to equality
(B) right to freedom
(C) cultural and educational right
(D) right against exploitation.

Answer : C

Question. Right to vote is a
(A) Fundamental Right
(B) Fundamental Duty
(C) part of Directive Principles
(D) legal right only.

Answer : A

Question. Right against exploitation comes under
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) non-fundamental rights such as the right to property.

Answer : A

Question. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right according to the Indian Constitution?
(A) Right to have judicial remedy
(B) Right to property
(C) Right to assembly
(D) Right to equality

Answer : B

Question. Which constitutional right is violated by discrimination against women?
(A) Right to freedom
(B) Right against exploitation
(C) Right to equality
(D) Right to constitutional remedy

Answer : C

Question. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women is a part of
(A) Fundamental Right to equality
(B) Fundamental Right against exploitation
(C) Directive Principles of the State Policy
(D) Fundamental Duties.

Answer : A

Question. Right to work is a part of
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Preamble
(C) Directive Principles
(D) Fundamental Duties.

Answer : C

Question. Which of the following is guaranteed by Article 17 of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Protection of individual freedom
(B) Right to equality
(C) Abolition of untouchability
(D) Right to constitutional remedies

Answer : C

Question. Right to property was omitted by
(A) 42nd Amendment Act of 1976
(B) 25th Amendment Act of 1971
(C) 44th Amendment Act of 1978
(D) 4th Amendment Act of 1955.

Answer : C

Question. When Fundamental Rights are violated, a citizen
(A) can approach the Supreme Court for a remedy
(B) can approach both the Supreme Court and the High Courts
(C) may mobilise public .opinion
(D) acquires the right to violate fundamental duties.

Answer : B

Question. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution
(A) in place of Fundamental Rights
(B) in place of Directive Principles
(C) a separate entity
(D) as an integral part of Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.

Answer : C

Question. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?
(A) To abide by the Constitution
(B) To develop scientific temper, humanism and tolerance
(C) To defend the country
(D) To amass property

Answer : D

Question. Fundamental Duties are provided
(A) by laws of the Supreme Court
(B) by a law passed by the Parliament
(C) by the Constitution through the 42nd Amendment Act
(D) by the convention evolved over the years by the citizens themselves.

Answer : C

Question. Which one of the following is not correct?
(A) Rights and duties are complementary to each other.
(B) Rights are demanded from the government by the citizens whereas duties are demanded by the government from its citizens.
(C) Rights are an integral part of the Constitution while duties are directives.
(D) No right can be enjoyed without performing duties.

Answer : B

Question. Directive Principles of State Policy were incorporated in the Constitution
(A) to establish a socialistic welfare state
(B) to ensure freedom to the citizens from an excess of governance
(C) to make India a secular and democratic state
(D) to give directions to the citizens in performing their duties.

Answer : A

Question. What are the objectives for implementing the fundamental rights according to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
(a) To ensure every citizen is benefited
(b) To ensure every citizen is rich
(c) To ensure every citizen has ration card
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question. What do you mean by Right to equality?
(a) Rich people are higher than poorer
(b) All are equal before law
(c) Government officer are superior
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question. Where the Hindu worship their God?
(a) Temple
(b) Masjid
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question. The Constituent of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up:
(a) By the Indian National Congress
(b) Through a resolution of the provisional government
(c) Under the Indian Independence Act, 1947
(d) Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946

Answer : D

Question. When did the Maoists join other political parties in Nepal to sign a 12-point agreement?
(a) April 2006
(b) October 2007
(c) Nov, 2005
(d) Feb 2005

Answer : C

Question. Who was the first governor general of independent India?
(a) Dr. Rajender Parsad
(b) Dr. S. Radhskishna
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Mount Batan

Answer : D

Question. Which forms defines the Rule of people by the people?
(a) Preamble
(b) Democracy
(c) Constitution
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question. After 42th amendment the first line of Indian preamble is ”we people of India _______
(a) Sovereign
(b) Secularism
(c) Democratic
(d) All of these

Answer : D

Question. What is the name of the Kingship or rule of a king?
(a) Democracy
(b) Constitution
(c) Monarchy
(d) None of these

Answer : C

Question. In which country Non-Muslim are not allowed?
(a) USA
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) India
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question. Which of the following are included in right to freedom of religion?
(a) Right to freedom of conscience
(b) Freedom against forced religious instructions
(c) Practice & propagation of religion
(d) All of these

Answer : D

Question. What refers to a goal or a principle in its most excellent or perfect form?
(a) Arbitrary
(b) Ideal
(c) Polity
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question. What kind of role citizens of India play in electing representatives?
(a) Indirect
(b) No Role
(c) Directcorrect
(d) Submissive

Answer : C

Question. Separation of same religion from the state in democratic societies is because of-
(a) To interrupt religious teaching
(b) To protect the freedom of individual exit from their religion
(c) Both (1) & (2)
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question. Jurisdiction of which among the following high courts covers the Union Territory of Lakshadweep ?
(a) Tamil Nadu High Court
(b) Kerala High Court
(c) Calcutta High Court
(d) Bombay High Court

Answer : B

Question. Panchayati Raj is the tier of which government?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth

Answer : C

Question. What type of government India practiced?
(a) Monarchy
(b) Democracy
(c) Anarchy
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question. The Indian Constitution was enforced on :
(a) 15th Aug, 1947
(b) 26th Nov, 1949
(c) 26th Jan, 1950
(d) 30th Jan, 1950

Answer : C

Question. The members of the Constituent Assembly were :
(a) Elected by Provincial Assemblies
(b) Only representatives of the princely states.
(c) Elected directly by people.
(d) Nominated by the government.

Answer : A

Question. Buying and selling of human beings include in which right?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) None of these

Answer : C

Question. Shri Jagjivan Ram was the first _____ minister of India.
(a) labour
(b) health
(c) Parliamentary Affairs
(d) Home

Answer : A

Question. The elected representatives in India are part of ____.
(a) Judiciary
(b) Legislature
(c) Executive
(d) Cabinet

Answer : B

Question. The system of courts in the country is collectively referred as ______.
(a) Judiciary
(b) Congress
(c) Ministers
(d) Executive

Answer : A

Question. Which of the following are Fundamental Rights?
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Right against exploitation
(d) All of these

Answer : D

Question. What refers to a goal or a principle in its most excellent or perfect form?
(a) Arbitrary
(b) Idealcorrect
(c) Polity
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question. What refers to independent people in a democratic form of government?
(a) Sovereign
(b) Ideal
(c) Polity
(d) Trafficking

Answer : A

Question. The father of Indian Constitution is ____.
(a) B R Ambedkar
(b) Liaquat Ali Khan
(c) Rajendra Prasad
(d) S C Sinha

Answer : A

Question. Define the term Sovereign as referred to in Indian Constitution.
(a) Equal opportunities to every one in the country
(b) People of India govern themselves through their elected representatives
(c) No discrimination on the basis of religion
(d) An independent India, no longer governed by any external authority

Answer : D

Question. Bi-Hinduism started in the year
(a) 1870
(b) 1878
(c) 1865
(d) 1861

Answer : B

Question. Separation of religion from the state means
(a) Socialism
(b) Democracy
(c) Secularism
(d) All of these

Answer : C

Class 8 Civics Chapter 1 The Indian Constitution Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions

1: In politics, what is a constitution?
Answer: In Politics a Constitution can be described as a document outlining the basic laws or principles by which a country is to be governed.

2: In Nepal, when did the Interim Constitution come into effect?
Answer: In Nepal, the Interim Constitution came into effect from January 15, 2007.

3: What are the negative points of a democratic society?
Answer: In a democratic society Power can be misused. Sometimes the Majority can undermine the minority. The citizens need certain rules to save themselves from folly.

4. What do you mean by federalism?
Answer: The term federalism refers to the existence of more than one level of government in the country.

5. What is Right to Equality? [V. Imp.]
Answer: Right to Equality means that all persons are equal before the law.

6. What is Right against Exploitation?
Answer: Under this Right the Constitution prohibits trafficking, forced labour and children working under 14 years of age.

7. How has the section on Fundamental Rights often been referred to?
Answer: It has often been referred to as the conscience of the Indian Constitution.

8. How are Fundamental Rights important? Give one point.
Answer: Fundamental Rights protect citizens against the arbitrary and absolute exercise of power by the state.

9. What does the word ‘State’ refer to? [Imp.]
Answer: The word ‘State’ refers to a political institution that represents a sovereign people who occupy a definite territory. For example, the Indian State.

10. What caused fear among the members of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer: They feared that the executive might become too strong and ignore its responsibility to the legislature.

11. What did the members of the Constituent Assembly do to come out of their fear?
Answer: They included several provisions in the Constitution to limit and control the actions taken by the executive branch of government as a whole.

12. What do you mean by a secular state? [V. Imp.]
Answer: A secular state does not officially promote any one religion as the state religion.

13. Why do the people of Nepal not want to adhere to their previous Constitution.
Answer: The previous Constitution does not reflect the ideals of the country that want Nepal to be, and that they have fought for.

14: What is secularism?
Answer: Secularism is the right of the citizens to practice any religion. A secular state is one in which the state does not officially promote any one religion as the state religion.

Short Answer Type Questions

1: How can a leader misuse power in a democratic country?

Answer: A leader misusing his power may send his security guards to beat up his neighbours for a personal reason or ask the police not to take action against a relative who has committed a crime.

2: Differentiate between a monarchy and a democracy? 

Answer: A country which is governed by a king or a queen is called a monarchy.  While Democracy is forms of government where people can vote to select their respective representative well govern the state on their behalf. 

3: How does the Indian Constitution safe guard the minorities of the country?

Answer: The Indian constitution ensures that the dominant group does not use its power against other, less powerful people or groups.
The Constitution contains rules that ensure that minorities are not excluded from anything that is routinely available to the majority. It also prevents the domination of the majority over the minority.

4: What will happen if there is no restriction to the powers of elected representatives? 

Answer: If there would have been no restrictions to powers of elected representatives, they may have misuse their powers. They could have used their powers in doing wrong deeds. They could even have supported a single religion. 

5: What is universal adult franchise?

Answer: Universal adult franchise is every adult citizen having a right to vote irrespective of sex, caste, creed, education and financial status.

6: What do you mean by the legislature, the executive and the judiciary?

Answer: The legislature refers to our elected representatives.
The executive is a smaller group of people who are responsible for implementing laws and running the government.
The judiciary refers to the system of courts in this country.

7: Mention the key features of the Indian Constitution.

Answer: The key features of the Indian constitution are:

• Federalism
• Parliamentary Form of Government
• Separation of Powers
• Fundamental Rights
• Secularism

8: What are the factors the drafting committee had to take into consideration while drafting the constitution?

Answer: The committee had to keep in mind that India was a land of many communities, languages and many religions. India was a land of diverse cultures and the Princely states in India had to be considered. The partition of the country into India and Pakistan was about to happen and the drafting committee had to bear this in mind. Finally, the biggest consideration was the socio-economic condition of a majority of Indians which was in a bad state.

9: What are the key components of fundamental rights?

Answer: The key components of Fundamental rights are:

• Right to Equality
• Right to Freedom
• Right against Exploitation
• Right to Freedom of Religion
• Cultural and Educational Rights
• Right to Constitutional Remedies

10: Explain the functions of organs of government. 

Answer: According to the constitution, there are three organs of the state. These are the legislature, the executive and the judiciary. 

• The legislature refers to our elected representatives. 
• The executive is a smaller group of people who are responsible for implementing laws and running the government. 
• The judiciary, refer to the system of courts in this country. 

11: What do you mean by tyranny of majority? 

Answer: Every society is prone to the tyranny of the majority. The constitution usually contains rules that ensure that minorities are not excluded from anything that is routinely available to the majority. The constitution is precise to prevent this tyranny or domination by the majority of a minority.  

Long Answer Type Questions

1. What is a Constitution? What purposes does it serve? [Imp.]

Answer: A Constitution is a written document containing certain rules. It serves several purposes. It tells us what the fundamental nature of our society is. A country is usually made up of different communities of people who share certain beliefs but they may not necessarily agree on all issues. A Constitution helps serve as a set of rules and principles that all persons in a country can agree upon as the basis of the way in which they want the country to be governed.
The second important purpose of a Constitution is to define the nature of a country’s political system. In countries that have adopted a democratic form of government, the Constitution lays out certain important guidelines that govern decision-making within these societies.

2. Why did Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar urge Scheduled Castes to join the government as well as the civil services? [V. Imp.]

Answer: Dr. Ambedkar was an important member of the Constituent Assembly. He believed that his participation in the Assembly helped the Scheduled Castes get some safeguards in the draft Constitution. But he also stated that although the laws might exist, scheduled castes still had reason to fear because the administration of these laws were in the hands of upper caste Hindu officers. Therefore, he urged scheduled castes to join the government as well as the civil services. It would give them a chance to play their role in law-making.

3. What were the challenges before the members of the Constituent Assembly?

Answer: The following were the challenges before the members of the Constituent Assembly: (a) The country was made up of several different communities who spoke different languages, practised different religions and had distinct cultures. (b) At the time the Constitution was being written, the country was going through considerable turmoil. The partition of the country was imminent, some of the Princely States remained undivided about their future.(c) The socio-economic condition of the vast mass of people appeared dismal. (d) Poverty was another major challenge.

4. Who do you mean by federal form of government? Why is it important?

Answer: Our Constitution provides for a federal form of government. This means that the responsibility of governing our country has been divided into the central government and the state governments. Panchayati Raj is the third tier of government.
India is a vast country. Different communities of people live here. Hence, a system of government needed to be devised that did not involve only persons silting in the capital city of New Delhi and making decisions for everyone. Instead, it was necessary to have another level of government in the states so that decisions could be made for that particular area. In this way, it will be easier to make positive efforts for the development of the country as well as the states.

5. Explain Right to Equality in detail.

Answer: Our Constitution states that all persons are equal before the law. This means that all persons shall be equally protected by the laws of the country. The Constitution also states that no citizen can be discriminated against on the basis of their religion, caste or sex. Every person has an access to all public places such as hotels, playgrounds, shops, etc. The state cannot discriminate against anyone in matters of employment.

6: Write a brief note on the making of the Indian Constitution.

Answer: The Indian Constitutional Assembly was convened in December 1946. The members of this Assembly were only Indians. This Assembly started drafting the Constitution for Independent India. Dr. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Constitution drafting committee.
The constitution declares India to be a sovereign, democratic republic and establishes the structure, procedures, powers and duties, of the government and duties of citizens.
The 308 members of the Assembly signed two hand-written copies of the document (one each in Hindi and English) on the January 24, 1950. Two days later, on January 26, 1950, the Constitution of India became the law of all the Indian lands.

7: Write a brief note on the struggle for freedom in Nepal.

Answer: In Nepal, there was a people’s struggle for freedom in 1990. Democracy was established and it lasted for 12 years until 2002.
In October 2002, King Gyanendra began taking over the government with the assistance of the army. In 2005 King Gyanendra took over as the head of the government.
In 2006, people’s movement for democracy began gaining immense force. In April 2006 the King restored the Third Parliament and asked the political parties to form a government. In 2007, Nepal adopted an Interim Constitution and Nepal gained political freedom.

8: What is a constitutional monarchy? Give an example.

Answer: In constitutional monarchy, a country is ruled by a king or a queen but the country has a constitution which the king follows. 

Example: – Until quite recently, Nepal was monarchy. The previous constitution of Nepal, which had been adopted in 1990, reflected the fact that the final authority rested with the king. A people’s movement in Nepal fought for several decades to establish democracy and in 2006 they finally succeeded in putting an end to the powers of the king. Now the people have to write a new constitution to establish Nepal as a democracy. The reason that they do not want to continue with the previous constitution is because it does not reflect the ideals of the country that they want Nepal to be, and that they have fought for.

9: Explain how the constitution of India gets made? 

Answer: The long experience of authoritarian rule under the colonial state convinced Indians that free India should be a democracy in which everyone should be treated equally and be allowed to participate in government.  This was not done by one person but by a group of around 300 people who become members of the constituent assembly had a huge task before them.

The country was made up of several different communities who spoke different languages, belonged to different religions, and had district culture. Also, when the constitution was being written, India was going through considerable turmoil. 

10: What is the importance of constitution? 

Answer: The constitution plays an important role in laying out certain guidelines that govern decision making within the society. 
1. It lays down rules that guard against the misuse of power by our political leaders. 
2. It also contains rules to prevent tyranny. 
3. It also helps to protect us against certain adverse effect on the larger principal that the country believes in. 

11. Describe the key features of the Indian Constitution.

Answer: The key features of the Indian Constitution are given below:

(a) Federalism. Our Constitution has provided for a federal form of government. This means that we have government at the state level and at the centre. Panchayati Raj is the third tier of government. India is a large  country with a vast number of communities living together in it. Hence, a system needed to be devised that did not involve only persons sitting in the capital city of New Delhi and making decisions for everyone. Instead, it was important to have another level of government in states so that decisions could be made for that particular area. While each state in India enjoys autonomy in exercising powers on certain issues, subjects on national concern require that all of these states follow the laws of the central government. Under federalism, the states are agents of the federal government and they draw their authority from the Constitution.

(b) Parliamentary form of Government. The different tiers of government consists of representatives who are elected by the people. The Constitution of India guarantees universal adult franchise for all citizens. This means that people of India have a direct role in electing their representatives. At the same time, every citizen of the country, irrespective of his/ her social background, can also contest in elections. These representatives are accountable to the people.

(c) Separation of Powers. There are three organs of the state— the legislature, the executive and the judiciary. In order to prevent the misuse of power by any one branch of the state, the Constitution says that each of these organs should exercise different powers. In this way, each organ acts as a check on the other organs of the state and this establishes a balance of power between the three.

(d) Fundamental Rights. Fundamental Rights are called the conscience of the Indian Constitution. These Rights protect against the absolute exercise of power by the state. The Constitution thus guarantees the rights of individuals against the state as well as against other individuals.

(e) Secularism. It is an important feature of our Constitution. A secular state is one in which the state does not officially promote any one religion as the state religion.

12. Describe all the Fundamental Rights mentioned in the Constitution. [V.Imp.]

Answer: The Constitution of India guarantees certain basic rights to all its citizens. These rights are called Fundamental Rights. There are altogether six Fundamental Rights:

(a) Right to Equality. All persons are equal before the law. It means that all persons shall be equally protected by the laws of the country. It also states that no citzen can be discriminated against on the basics of their religion, caste or sex. Every person has access to all public places such as restaurants, parks, etc. The state cannot discriminate against anyone on matters of employment.

(b) Right to Freedom. Everyone has the right to freedom of speech and expressions, the right to move freely and reside in any part of the country and the right to practise any profession, occupation or business.

(c) Right against Exploitation. The Indian Constitution prohibits trafficking, child labour and children working under 14 years of age.

(d) Right to Freedom of Religion. Everyone has the right to enjoy religious freedom. It means that everyone has the right to practise, profess and propagate the religion of their choice.

(e) Cultural and Educational Rights. Our Constitution states that all minorities, religious or linguistic, can set up their own educational institutions in order to preserve and develop their own culture.

(f) Right to Constitutional Remedies. A person has the right to go to the court for justice if he/she feels that his/her Fundamental Rights are being violated.

12: Describe in detail the various features of Indian constitution. 

Answer: FEDERALISM: This refers to the existence of more than one level of government in the country. In India, we have governments at the state level and at the center. Panchayati Raj is the third tier of government. 

The vast number of communities in India meant that a system of government needed to be devised that did not involve only persons sitting in the capital city of New Delhi and making decisions for everyone. Instead, it was important to have another level of government in the states so that   decision could be made for that particular area. While each state in India enjoys autonomy in exercising powers on certain issues, subjects of national concern require that all of these states follow the laws of the central government. 

The constitution contains lists that detail the issues that each tier of government can make laws on. In addition, the constitution also specifies where each tier of government can get the money from for work that it does. Under federalism, the states are not merely agents of the federal government but draw their authority from the constitution as well. All persons in India are governed by laws and policies made by each of these levels of government. 

PARLIAMENTARY FORM OF GOVERNMENT: The different tiers of government consist of representative who are elected by the people. The constitution of Indian guarantees universal adult   suffrage for all citizens. When they were making the constitution, the members of the constituent assembly felt that the freedom struggle had prepared the masses for universal adult suffrage and that this would help encourage a democratic mindset and break the clutches of traditional caste, class and gender hierarchies. This means that the people of India have a direct role in electing their representatives. Also, every citizen of the country, irrespective of his/ her social background, can also contest in elections. These representatives are accountable to the people. 

SEPARATION OF POWERS: According to the Constitution, there are three organs of the state. These are the legislature, the executive and the judiciary. The legislature refers to our elected representatives. The executive is a smaller group of people who are responsible for implementing laws and running the government. The judiciary refers to the system of courts in this country. In order to prevent the misuse of power by any one branch of the state, the constitution says that each of these organs should exercise different powers. 

Through this, each organ acts as a check on the other organs of the state and this ensures the balance of power between all three. 

• Central government
• State government
• Panchayati raj

FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS: The section on Fundamental Right has often been referred to as the ‘conscience’ of the Indian Constitution. Colonial rule had created a certain suspicion of the state in the minds of the nationalists and they wanted to ensure that a set of written rights would guard against the misuse of state powers in independent India. Fundamental Right, therefore protects citizens against the arbitrary and absolute exercise of power by the state. The constitution, thus, guarantees the rights of individuals against the state as well as against other individuals.

In addition to fundamental right, the constitution also has a section called directive principles of state policy. This section was designed by the members of the constituent assembly to ensure greater social and economic reform and to serve as a guide to the independent Indian. State to institute laws and policies that help to reduce the poverty of the masses. 

SECULARISM: A secular state is one in which the state does not officially promote any one religion as the state religion. 

Human Resources MCQ Questions Class 8 Social Science with Answers

Q1- Union Human Resource Development Ministry was created in 
(a) 1987
(b) 1985
(c) 1990
(d) 1986

Answer : B

Question. Land covers only about ____ percent of the total area of the earth’s surface
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 35

Answer : C

Question. A few factors on which the productivity of a nation’s human resources depends are given below. Pick out the one that is not a factor.
(a) Health
(b) Census
(c) Literacy
(d) Possession of technical skills

Answer : B

Question. When was Human Resource Development Ministry formed in India at central level of Government?
(a) In 1990
(b) In 1985correct
(c) In 2004
(d) In 2009

Answer : B

Question. Human resources differ from one another in respect of 
(a) educational level
(b) age
(c) sex
(d) all of these

Answer : D

Question- ___ per cent of the global population resides in 10 countries.
(a) 75
(b) 60
(c) 65
(d) 80

Answer : B

Question. How have USA and Australia gained in respect of population growth?
(a) By immigrationcorrect
(b) By tourism
(c) By both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question. Life expectancy refer to
(a) The number of working people in the country
(b) The number of literate people in the country
(c) The number of years that an average person can expect to live
(d) The number of illiterate and uneducated people in the country

Answer : C

Question- Chang Jiang plains in ____ is one of the most densely populated regions across the globe.
(a) Taiwan
(b) China
(c) Japan
(d) Vietnam

Answer : B

Question- _____ is a country whose population growth declined because of low birth and death rates.
(a) Indonesia
(b) United Kingdom
(c) South Africa
(d) Russia

Answer : B

Question. Using resources carefully, judicially & giving them time to get renewed is called _________

(a) Resource Development

(b) Sustainable Conservation

(c) Sustainable Development

(d) Resource Conservation

Answer : D

Question- _____ has reported an annual rate of natural increase of population at 3% per annum.
(a) Mexico
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Israel
(d) US

Answer : B

Question- Population increases when the _____ is higher.
(a) Emigration
(b) Death Rate
(c) Birth rate
(d) water availability

Answer : C

Question. When a person leaves a country it is known as:
(a) immigration
(b) integration
(c) emigrant
(d) emigration

Answer : B

Question. Which one from the following refers to Census?
(a) The process of counting the number of states in a country
(b) The process of taking a count of total number of people in a country
(c) The process of counting the land area in a country
(d) The process of counting the mountains and hilly terrains in a country

Answer : B

Question. Land covers only about ____ percent of the total area of the earth’s surface
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 35

Answer : C

Question. Which of the following is not the region where very few people live?
(a) High altitudes areas
(b) Plainscorrect
(c) High mountains
(d) Equatorial forest area

Answer : B

Question. Which is densely populated area?
(a) Ganga plain
(b) Andes
(c) Alps
(d) Himalayan

Answer : A

Question. More than 90% of World’s population lives in about of land surface?
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 50%
(d) 35%

Answer : B

Question. What is the average population density of the world?
(a) 51 persons per sq. km
(b) 300 persons per sq. km
(c) 100 persons per sq. km.
(d) 14 persons per sq. km

Answer : A

Question. The population of the world is
(a) 77 billions
(b) 7.0 billions
(c) 0.77 billions
(d) 0.077 billions

Answer : B

Question. Which country has high population growth rate?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Kenya
(c) India
(d) China

Answer : B

Question. A population pyramid
(a) Shows the difference between the birth rate and death rate
(b) Shows the percent of males and females in a country with there are groups
(c) The number of years that an average person can expect to live
(d) Shows the structure of population with respect to their age

Answer : D

Question. Which of the following countries has slow growth rate of population?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) United Kingdomcorrect
(d) Brazil

Answer : C

Question. When was Human Resource Development Ministry formed in India at central level of Government?
(a) In 1990
(b) In 1985correct
(c) In 2004
(d) In 2009

Answer : B

Question. The movement of people in and out of an area is referred to as
(a) Death rate
(b) Migration
(c) Population density
(d) Birth Rate

Answer : B

Question. On what criterions do the human resources all over the world differ?
(a) Basis of sex
(b) Basis of age
(c) Basis of education
(d) All of the above

Answer : D

Question. The highest density of the population in the world is in
(a) Europe
(b) South America
(c) South central Asiacorrect
(d) none of these

Answer : C

Question. The number of deaths per 1,000 people refer to
(a) Migration
(b) Birth Rate
(c) Death rate
(d) Population change

Answer : C

Question. If the birth rate is high and the death rate is low in a country then the population pyramid will
(a) Narrow at the base
(b) Not narrow at the base
(c) Not narrow rapidly towards the top
(d) Narrow rapidly towards the top

Answer : C

Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions

1. In what respects do different human beings differ?
Answer: Human beings differ from each other in age, sex, education, ethnicity, culture, physical and mental strength, etc.

2. With the help of figures, describe how population varies across continents.
Answer: Around 61% of the world’s population lives in Asia, 12% in Europe, 13% in Africa, 8% in Central/South America, 5% in North America and 1% in Oceania.

3. If 600 people live in your colony, and the area of your colony is 2 sq km, what is the population density of your colony?
Answer: If 600 people live in a 2 sq km area, on an average, 300 people live in 1 sq km. So density of population is 300 persons per sq km.

4. Compare the population density of the world with that of India.
Answer: The population density of the world is around 45 persons per sq km, whereas that of India is over 320 persons per sq km.

5. How does climate affect the population distribution of an area?
Answer: People prefer to live in regions with a moderate climate, and not places of extreme cold and hot climate. So moderate climate regions are densely populated.

6. What is life expectancy?
Answer: Life expectancy is the number of years an average person can expect to live, based on data.

7. What is the general trend of migrations from one country to another? Why is it so?
Answer: Generally, people migrate from less developed countries to more developed ones. This is done for better employment opportunities and other facilities.

8. What is an age-sex pyramid?
Answer: An age-sex pyramid is a graph showing the number of males and females under certain defined age groups.

9. Which of these countries is more densely populated: one with a small population in a large area, or one with a large population in a large area?
Answer: A country with a large population in a small area is more densely populated out of the two.

Short Answer Type Questions

1. Describe how various factors affect population distribution.

Answer: Topography, favourable climate, fertility of soils, availability of fresh water, minerals are major geographical factors affecting population density of a region.
People prefer to live on plains more than mountains or plateaus and they live more in moderate climates than extreme hot or cold. From the agriculture point of view, fertile lands are preferred. Areas with mineral deposits are more populated. Some social factors that boost the density of population in a region are better housing, education and health facilities. Places with cultural or historical significance are usually populated. Employment opportunities are another attraction for large chunks of population.

2. Describe how the population of the world has grown in history. What has caused the population explosion?

Answer: The world population grew steadily initially. It reached a billion in the year 1820. But the next two billion were added in just a hundred and fifty years. By 1970 the population was 3 billion. In the next 29 years, i.e. by the year 1999, the population had
doubled to 6 billion. The population explosion has been mainly caused by the growth in medical facilities, which has decreased the death rate by a large extent.

3. What are the factors affecting the population change in a region? [Imp.]

Answer: Factors affecting the population change in a region are birth rate, death rate and migrations. Birth rate is a statistic that measures the number of live births per 1000 people. Death rate is a statistic that measures the number of deaths per 1000 people. Along with birth and death rate, another factor affecting population change is migration. Migration refers to the movement of people from one area to another. People leaving a country are called emigrants and the phenomenon is called emigration. People arriving in a country are called immigrants and the phenomenon is called immigration.

Long Answer Type Questions

1. What is a population pyramid? What is its significance and what information can it give?

Answer: A population pyramid is a pictorial way to describe the population composition. An age-sex pyramid gives information about the distribution of different age groups of people based on gender. The shape of the age-sex pyramid of a country is indicative of a lot of information about the country. The size towards the bottom may be used to estimate the birth rate, while the size towards the top to estimate the death rate.

A population pyramid in which the base is broad and the top part is narrow means that although a large amount of births take place, not all grow up to be adults and old; it means many die before reaching these ages. This indicates a large death rate and Kenya shows such a pyramid. This means a high population growth rate.
In countries like India, the death rate is decreasing, so the pyramid is broad in the younger age groups, and the size of the pyramid decreases steadily.

---

Industries MCQ Questions Class 8 Social Science with Answers

Question. Which metal is often called the backbone of modern industry?
(a) Steelcorrect
(b) Gold
(c) Silver
(d) Aluminium

Answer :   A

Question . With limited capital, a food processing unit is set up in a particular village in Gujarat. This unit generates employment to that particular village. Name the type of classification of industry under which this food processing unit will come under.
(a) Forest based industry
(b) Agro based industry
(c) Small Scale industry
(d) Large Scale industry

Answer :   C

Question. TISCO was started in 1907 at
(a) Sakchi
(b) Mandakni
(c) Godavari
(d) Nagpur

Answer :   A

Question. Why is steel called the backbone of modern industries?
(a) Everything we use is related with steel
(b) Steel is cheaper
(c) Steel is available everywhere in the world
(d) None of the above

Answer :   A

Question. Which factors affect the location of industry ?
(a) Land
(b) Labour
(c) Capital
(d) All of these

Answer :   D

Question. Basket weaving falls in the category of
(a) Small-scale industry
(b) Cottage industry
(c) Large-scale industry
(d) None of these

Answer :   B

Question . Where were the iron and steel industry located before 1850?
(a) Availability of raw material
(b) Availability of power supply
(c) Availability of running water
(d) All of the above

Answer :   D

Question. Major IT hub of India is
(a) Mumbai
(b) Nagpur
(c) Patna
(d) Bengaluru

Answer :   D

Question .Processing sea food and manufacturing fish oil can be considered as examples of :
(a) Agro based industries
(b) Marine based industries
(c) Mineral based industries
(d) Forest based industries

Answer :   B

Question .Name the important Northern industrial region in India
(a) Delhi ,Gurgaon- Meerut region
(b) Bangalore- Tamil Nadu region
(c) Ahmedabad- Vadodara region
(d) Damodar Valley belt

Answer :   A

Question. Anand Milk Union Limited is a type of:
(a) State Owned
(b) Joint Owned
(c) Cooperative Sector
(d) Private Owned

Answer :   C

Question. Which one of the following is a Private Sector Industry?
(a) Maruti Udyog Limited
(b) Anand Milk Union Limited
(c) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
(d) Tata Iron and Steel Industry

Answer :   D

Question . Which of the following best describes an agro based industry?
(a) Industries depending on ores like Cement, iron and steel etc.
(b) Industries that depend upon the primary products from forests for their raw materials
(c) Industries depending on agricultural products ie plant and animal products
(d) Industries that use products from the sea and oceans as raw materials

Answer :   C

Question. Marine-based industries are based on
(a) Minerals
(b) Forest products
(c) Agricultural products
(d) Oceanic products

Answer :   D

Question. Which of the following is a secondary activity?
(a) Coal mining industry
(b) Tourism industrycorrect
(c) Fishing
(d) Agriculture

Answer :   B

Question. Joint sector Industries are owned and operated by the state and individuals or a group of individuals. From the given list fo industries, which one can be called a Joint sEctor industry ?
(a) Iron and Steel industry
(b) Tata Group of Companies
(c) Reliance Industries
(d) Maruti Udyog Limited

Answer :   D

Question. Which one of the following is a natural fiber?
(a) Nylon
(b) Jute
(c) Acrylics
(d) Rayon

Answer :   B

Question. ITI is the full form of –
(a) Indian Training Institute
(b) Institute of Technology of India
(c) Indian Telephone Industrycorrect
(d) Industrial Technology Institute

Answer :   C

Question. In the light of various factors that influence industrial location, some industries have a tendency to grow close to each other. Name such areas.
(a) Industrial Structures
(b) Industrial Regions
(c) Industrial Systems
(d) Industrial Organisms

Answer :   B

Question. Which of the following can be considered as an example of the economic activity extraction of minerals from the industry sector?
(a) Tourism industry
(b) Iron and Steel industry
(c) Banking industry
(d) Coal mining industry

Answer :   D

Question. Fish is a product of the
(a) mineral-based industries
(b) agro-based industries
(c) marine-based industriescorrect
(d) forest-based industries

Answer :   C

Question.What is referred to as an economic activity that is concerned with production of goods, extraction of minerals or the provision of services?
(a) Industry
(b) Agriculture
(c) Private industry
(d) None of the above

Answer :   A

Question. Which of the following can be considered as an example of the economic activity service provider from the industry sector?
(a) Textile industry
(b) Banking industry
(c) Iron and Steel industry
(d) Coal mining industry

Answer :   B

Question. What does an industrial system consists of?
(a) Inputs
(b) Processes
(c) Output
(d) All of these

Answer :   D

Question. ____________ sector industries are owned, managed and controlled by the state or central government .
(a) Cooperative
(b) Public
(c) Joint
(d) Private

Answer :   B

Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions

1. Define industry.
Answer: Industry refers to an economic activity that is concerned with production of goods, extraction of minerals or provision of services.

2. Name three common methods of classifying industries.
Answer: Industries are classified according to raw material used, size and ownership.

3. Expand the abbreviation AMUL. Where are its headquarters?
Answer: Anand Milk Union Limited. Its headquarters are in Anand, Gujarat.

4. Name four common processes involved in a textile industry.
Answer: Ginning, spinning, weaving, dyeing are processes involved in a textile industry.

5. Name an industrial region in northern India.
Answer: The Gurgaon-Delhi-Meerut region is an industrial region in northern India.

6. Name some elements alloyed with steel.
Answer: Aluminium, nickel and copper are elements that are alloyed with steel.

7. What products do industrial plants in Jamshedpur produce?
Answer: Industrial plants produce chemicals, locomotive parts, agricultural equipment, machinery, tinplate, etc.

8. What is the link between the mines and the industry in Pittsburgh?
Answer: The Great Lakes of North America lie between the mines and industrial plant in Pittsburgh.

9. Name two natural fibres and two human-made fibres.
Answer: Two natural fibres: wool, silk. Two human-made fibres: nylon, polyester.

10. Give a reason for the fact that cotton textile industry in India could not compete with that in the West initially.
Answer: The production of hand woven cotton textile in India was expensive and time-consuming, so it could not compete with the Western standards.

11. What industries have started replacing the textile industry in Osaka?
Answer: Iron and steel, machinery, shipbuilding, automobiles, electrical equipment and cement industry have begun to replace the textile industry in Osaka.

12. Why is Bangalore called “Silicon Plateau”?
Answer: Bangalore is called Silicon Plateau because of the IT industry there, and the word “plateau” refers to the Deccan Plateau where it is located.

Short Answer Type Questions

1. Describe briefly the classification of industries on basis of raw material used.

Answer: On the basis of raw material used, industries are classified into agro, mineral, marine and forest-based. The raw material of agro-based industries consists of plant and animal based products. Some examples are food processing, cotton textile industry and leather industry. The raw material used in mineral- based industries consists of mineral ores. An example: iron and steel industry.

Marine-based industries use products obtained from the sea and oceans as raw materials. Sea food industry is one such industry.
A forest-based industry uses forest produce as raw material. Examples are paper industry and furniture.

2. Describe briefly the classification of industries on basis of ownership.

Answer: On the basis of ownership, industries are classified into private sector, state owned (public sector), joint sector and cooperative sector. Private sector industries are owned by individuals or a group of individuals. Public sector industries are owned by the government. Joint sector industries are owned and operated by the state and individuals. Maruti Udyog is an example of such an industry. Cooperative sector industries are owned and operated by the producers or-suppliers of raw materials, workers or both. AMUL is one such industry.

3. Describe the inputs, processes and outputs in an industrial system with an example.

Answer: An industrial system consists of inputs, processes and outputs. Raw materials, labour, costs, transport, power and infrastructure are inputs. In a cotton textile industry for example, inputs are cotton, human labour, transport cost, etc. Processes are activities done to convert raw material into finished products. In a cotton textile industry, ginning, spinning, weaving, dyeing, etc are processes. The finished product and all profits earned are the outputs. In a cotton textile industry, the outputs are clothes we wear.

4. Give examples of industrial regions in India and the world.

Answer: The major industrial areas of the world are eastern North America, western and central Europe, eastern Europe and eastern Asia. In India, major industrial regions are Mumbai-Pune cluster, Bangalore-Tamil Nadu region, Hugli region, Ahmedabad-Baroda region, Chhotanagpur industrial belt, Vishakhapatnam-Guntur Belt, Gurgaon-Delhi-Meerut region and the Kollam-Thiruvananthapuram industrial cluster.

5. Write the properties and significance of steel.

Answer: Steel has these properties: it is tough, it can easily be shaped (malleability), cut or made into wire (ductility). Adding certain other elements makes it harder, tougher, and rust-retention capability.

Steel is the backbone of modern industry. We use a lot of steel objects in daily life. Ships, trains and most other vehicles, tiny needles and safety pins, machinery and equipment, buildings, etc utilise steel as a main or sole constituent.

6. What factors supported Sakchi being chosen to set up the steel plant by TISCO?

Answer: Sakchi was chosen for various reasons. It was close to the Kalimati Railway Station. It was also close to iron ore, coal and manganese deposits. Kolkata, a source of large market, was not far away. Jharia coal fields, and limestone, dolomite, limestone and manganese from Orissa and Chhattisgarh were easily accessible. The nearby rivers (Kharkai and Subamarekha) provided sufficient water supply.

Long Answer Type Questions

1. Describe the cotton textile industry with special reference to its history and spread in India.

Answer: Cotton is a natural fibre crop. The cotton textile industry is the industry which involves in making clothes out of the fibre. It is one of the oldest industries of the world. India has a glorious history of producing excellent quality cotton textiles. The Muslins of Dhaka, Chintzes of Masulipatnam,

Calicos of Calicut and gold-wrought cotton of Burhanpur, Vadodara and Surat had world-famous quality and design. The traditional Indian cotton textile industry, however, could not compete with the Western textile mills, due to the high cost of the hand woven textile. The process involved, moreover, was time-consuming.

The first successful mechanised textile mill in India was established in Mumbai in 1854. The factors that led to the success were the warm and moist climate, the presence of a nearby port for importing machinery, the availability of raw material and skilled labour. Humidity was a main reason why the industry was initially limited to Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Today the industry has spread to various other parts of the country, due to the artificial production of humidity. The important cotton textile centres are in Coimbatore, Kanpur, Chennai, Ahmedabad, Mumbai, Kolkata, Ludhiana, Puducherry and Panipat.

2. Write short notes on (a) iron and steel industry in Pittsburgh and (b) cotton textile industry in Osaka.

Answer: (a) Pittsburgh is an important steel city in the USA. Most raw materials such as coal are available locally. Iron ore is brought from the iron mines in Minnesota. The shipping of ore is also a convenient pathway: the Great Lakes of North America. From the lakes to the industrial area, trains are there to carry the ore. Rivers like the Ohio, the Monogahela and the Allegheny provide adequate water supply.Finished steel is transported to the market by both land and water routes.

(b) Osaka is an important textile centre in Japan. It is called the “Manchester of Japan”. Like every important centre, geographical factors played an important role in the establishment of industry here. The plains around Osaka meant land was easily available for growth of cotton mills. Warm and humid climate is well suited to the spinning and weaving of cotton. The river Yodo provides adequate water supply. Easily available labour and location of port are also significant factors. The industry however depends completely on imports. The finished product is exported and is not very expensive.

Agriculture MCQ Questions Class 8 Social Science with Answers

Question. What is cultivation of grapes called’?
(a) Sericulture
(b) Viticulture
(c) Floriculture
(d) Horiculture

Answer : B

Question. Agriculture or farming can be looked at as a system. Which one among the following is not an important input of agriculture
(a) Profit
(b) Fertilisers
(c) Seeds
(d) Labour

Answer : A

Question. This type of farming is practiced in the arid and semi-arid regions of Sahara, Central Asia, and Rajasthan etc. Herdsmen move from place to place with their animals for fodder and water along defined routes due to climatic constraints and terrain. Which type of farming is being referred to?
(a) Plantation agriculture
(b) Shifting Cultivation
(c) Commercial Farming
(d) Nomadic Farming

Answer : D

Question. …………….. is also knowh as a paddy
(a) Wheat
(b) Jowar
(c) Rice
(d) Bajra

Answer : C

Question. Which type of soil is good for growing wheat?
(a) Desert
(b) Loamy
(c) Sandy
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question – Across the globe, more than ___% of people are engaged in agriculture
(a) 25
(b) 40
(c) 50
(d) 30

Answer : C

Question – Jhumming is practised in ____ India.
(a) North – East
(b) South
(c) West
(d) South- west\

Answer : A

Question. What is another name of shifting agriculture in Mexico?
(a) Ladang
(b) Milpa
(c) Jhumming
(d) Roca

Answer : B

Question . Which Of the following are primary activities?
(a)  Agriculture
(b)  Mining
(c) Fishing
(d) All of these

Answer : D

Question . Name the term given to the commercial rearing of silk worms to supplement the income of the farmer.
(a) Horticulture
(b) Viticulture
(c) Sericulture
(d) Pisciculture

Answer : C

Question. The word agriculture is derived from the Latin words ager or agri and Culture meaning Cultivation. What does the word agri literally mean?
(a) Natural resource
(b) Seeds
(c) Soil
(d) Product

Answer : C

Question . Which fibre requires frost free days to grow?
(a)  Cottoncorrect
(b) Jute
(c) Nylon
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question. Name the type of farming practiced to meet the needs of the farmer’s family i.e.
(a) Mixed Farming
(b) Subsistence Farming
(c) Commercial Farming
(d) Plantation agriculture

Answer : B

Question – Cultivation of grapes is defined as
(a) Horticulture
(b) Viticulture
(c) Sericulture
(d) Agriculture

Answer : B

Question . Name the type of farming practiced to meet the needs of the farmer’s family i.e.
(a) Mixed Farming
(b) Subsistence Farming
(c) Commercial Farming
(d) Plantation agriculture

Answer : B

Question – Growing flowers are identified under
(a) Horticulture
(b) Pisciculture
(c) Sericulture
(d) Viticulture

Answer : A

Question.What are tertiary activities?
(a) Provide support to only primary activities
(b) Provide support to primary and secondary activities
(c) Provide support to only secondary activities
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question . Which of these is not commercial farming?
(a) Commercial Grain
(b) Mixed
(c) Organic
(d) Plantation

Answer : C

Question – Nomadic Herding is practised in which of the following states
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Tamilnadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Telangana

Answer : A

Question – In India, wheat is grown during ____ season.
(a) Spring
(b) Autumn
(c) Winter
(d) Summer

Answer : C

Question. Commercial rearing of silk worms is known as
(a) pisciculture
(b) viticulture
(c) horticulture
(d) sericulture

Answer : D

Question. A few statements with respect to the farm in USA are given below. Pick out the one that is not True
(a) The farmer generally resides in the farm
(b) The farmer does not store the produce and sells even when the markets are not favorable to them.
(c) The average size of a farm in USA in much larger that that of an Indian farm is about 25 hectares.
(d) The farmer from time to time sends soil samples to the laboratory to check the nutrients

Answer : B

Question . Type of farming to meet family needs is known as:
(a) Subsistensecorrect
(b) Mixed
(c) Organic
(d) None of these

Answer : A

Question . Pick out the approximate percentage of the world’s population engaged in agriculture
(a) 10 percent
(b) 50 percent
(c) 30 percent
(d) 70 percent

Answer : B

Question – _____ is one of the important inputs of farming.
(a) Fertilizers
(b) crops
(c) plain region
(d) fruits

Answer : A

Question – ______ is one of the crops grown under commercial farming.
(a) potato
(b) onion
(c) Wheat
(d) Tomato

Answer : C

Question – Growing ______ is a type of plantation.
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) coffee
(d) maize

Answer : C

Question. Name the term given to Growing of Vegetables flowers and fruits for commercial use.
(a) Pisciculture
(b) Horticulture
(c) Viticulture
(d) Sericulture

Answer : B

Question . Which of the following are coarse grains?
(a) Jowar
(b) Bajra
(c) Ragi
(d) All of these

Answer : D

Question . The word agriculture is derived from the Latin words ager or agri and Culture meaning Cultivation . What does the word agri literally mean?
(a) Natural resource
(b) Seeds
(c) Soil
(d) Product

Answer : C

Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions

1. What is the basic function of the three basic types of economic activities?
Answer: The three types of economic activities are involved in the transformation from a plant to a finished product.

2. What are tertiary activities?
Answer: Tertiary activities are those which provide support to primary and secondary activities.

3. In what sorts of areas are agricultural activities concentrated?
Answer: Agricultural activities are concentrated in those areas of the world which have suitable conditions of growing crops.

4. What is arable land?
Answer: The land on which crops are grown is called arable land.

5. How is subsistence farming classified?
Answer: Subsistence farming is classified into intensive and primitive subsistence agriculture.

6. In what sort of areas is nomadic herding practised?
Answer: Nomadic herding is practised in semi- arid and arid regions of Sahara, Central Asia and some parts of India.

7. Why is mixed farming called so?
Answer: In mixed farming the land is used for growing crops as well as rearing livestock.

8. What is the main feature of plantation agriculture?
Answer: In plantation agriculture only a single crop is grown.

9. What weather conditions are required in the growing and harvesting seasons of wheat?
Answer: In the growing season wheat requires moderate temperature and rainfall and in the harvesting season it needs bright sunshine.

10. Which two countries lead in the production of jute?
Answer: India and Bangladesh are the leading producers of jute.

Short Answer Type Questions

1. Write a short note on the types of economic activities. Give examples.

Answer: The three types of economic activities are primary, secondary and tertiary.

Primary Activities. Activities which involve direct extraction and production of natural resources are called primary activities. Examples: agriculture, fishing, mining.

Secondary Activities. Activities which are concerned with the processing of natural resources are called secondary activities. Examples: manufacturing of finished products.

Tertiary Activities. Activities which fall neither in the primary category nor the secondary category are called tertiary activities. They form a support to primary and secondary activities. Examples: selling goods, advertising and banking.

2. Name the inputs and outputs of agriculture in general. Also mention the various operations involved.

Answer: The inputs in agriculture are seeds, fertilisers, machinery, labour, etc. The operations involved in agriculture are ploughing, sowing, irrigation, weeding and harvesting. As outputs of the farming activity, a farmer gets crops, wool, dairy products and poultry products.

3. Explain shifting cultivation.

Answer: Shifting cultivation is a class of primitive subsistence agriculture. In this, a plot of land is cleared by the farmer. This is done by felling the trees and burning them. The ashes are then mixed with soil and crops are grown. After some time, the land is abandoned and the farmer moves to a different place. This type of farming is common in the thickly forested areas of the Amazon basin, tropical Africa, parts of south-east Asia and north-east India. It is also called “slash and burn” agriculture, because of the process of felling and burning the trees is involved.

4. Enlist the climate conditions required for the proper cultivation of rice. Mention the main regions of its production.

Answer: Rice is a major food crop in tropical and sub-tropical parts of the world. Its cultivation needs high temperature, high humidity and rainfall. Its growth is best in alluvial clayey soils, since they have water retention capacity. China and India are the leading producers in the world. In favourable climatic conditions, even two to three crops are grown in a year.

5. What do you understand by agricultural development?

Answer: Agricultural development refers to efforts made to increase production in farms so as to meet the ever growing demand of the population. The activities that come under this development are increasing the cropped area, growing more crops, improving irrigation, using fertilisers, sowing HYV (high-yielding variety) of seeds and by promoting mechanisation. Mechanisation ensures that little labour is done by the farmers; instead machines are used to provide efficiency.

Long Answer Type Questions

1. Describe subsistence farming and its types in detail.

Answer: The two main types of farming are: Subsistence farming and commercial farming.

Subsistence farming is practised solely to meet the needs of the farmer’s family. Therefore, the practices involved are usually old- fashioned. Use of modern technology is minimum and most work is done by household labour.

In intensive, subsistence agriculture, simple tools and huge labour are used by a farmer to cultivate a small plot of land. More than one crop is grown annually in favourable conditions. Rice is the major crop. This form of agriculture is seen in the thickly populated areas of the monsoon regions of south, south-east and east Asia. Shifting cultivation is a class of primitive subsistence agriculture. In this, a plot of land is cleared by felling the trees and burning them. The ashes are then mixed with soil and crops are grown. After some time, the land is abandoned and the farmers move to a different place. This type of farming is common in the thickly forested areas of the Amazon basin, tropical Africa, parts of south-east Asia and north-east India. It is also called “slash and burn” agriculture.

Nomadic herding refers to the practice in which herdsmen move from place to place with their animals for fodder and water. Animals usually reared are the yak, sheep, camel and goats.

2. Describe commercial farming and its types in detail.

Answer: Commercial farming is the practice in which crops are grown exclusively for commercial purpose, i.e., for sale in the market. A large area is cultivated and huge capital is involved unlike subsistence farming. Machines are used to a large extent.

Commercial grain farming is a class of commercial farming. Crops like wheat and maize are grown for commercial purpose. The temperate grasslands of North America, Europe and Asia are some common areas where it is seen.

Mixed farming is another type of commercial farming. The land is used for growing food and fodder crops and rearing livestock. Some areas where it is followed are Europe, eastern USA, Argentina, south-east Australia, New Zealand and South Africa. Plantations are a type of commercial farming where only a single crop (like tea, coffee, sugarcane, cashew, rubber, banana or cotton) is grown. Large amount of labour and capital are required. The produce is processed in the farm itself or nearby factories.

Mineral and Power Resources MCQ Questions Class 8 Social Science with Answers

Question.Why has quarrying become a major environmental concern?
(a) Because minerals are pollutants
(b) Due to dust raised from the quarrying activities
(c) Because it is done by displacing people
(d) None of these

Answer :  B

Question. The difference between tidal energy and wave energy is that
(a) Wave energy uses the gravitational pull of the Earth and moon to generate energy
(b) Tidal energy uses the kinetic force of waves to produce energy
(c) Tidal energy uses the gravitational pull of the Earth, moon, and sun to generate energy
(d) None of the above

Answer :  C

Question. Geothermal energy is the thermal energy present________.
(a) On the surface of the earth
(b) In the interior of the earth
(c) On the surface of the ocean
(d) None of the above

Answer :  B

Question .Which among the following is a leading producer of tin in the world?
(a) Indonesia
(b) Malaysia
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) China

Answer :  D

Question.Which one of the followings is not the way of saving energy at home?
(a) Switching off lights when not in use
(b) Keeping gas off when not in use
(c) Cooking food in an open pan on low flame
(d) Switching on lights during daytime

Answer :  C

Question. What is the name of the mineral that is extracted from Bauxite?
(a) Silver
(b) Manganese
(c) Aluminium
(d) Copper

Answer :  C

Question. A naturally occuring substance that has a definite chemical composition is a
(a) ore
(b) rock
(c) mineral
(d) copper

Answer :  C

Question.Which of the following are non-conventional resources?
(a) Wind energy
(b) Solar energy
(c) Tidal energy
(d) All of these

Answer :  D

Question.Gold is an example of minerals.
(a) ferrous
(b) non-ferrous
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer :  B

Question.Which is one of the deepest gold mine of the world?
(a) Kolar
(b) Jharia
(c) Raniganj
(d) Bikaner

Answer :  A

Question. The process of taking out minerals from rocks buried under the surface of the earth is named as
(a) mining
(b) pumping
(c) extracting
(d) None of the above

Answer :  A

Question.What are the fossil fuels?
(a) Fuels used for domestic purpose
(b) Fuel found in highly area
(c) Created by buried organism
(d) None of these

Answer :  C

Question.From which mineral is silicon obtained?
(a) Coal
(b) Bauxite
(c) Thorium
(d) Quartz

Answer :  D

Question. What is the process in which minerals lying near the surface are dug?
(a) Drilling
(b) Off-shore drilling
(c) Quarrying
(d) Extraction

Answer :  C

Question. Which one of the following countries in Europe has the largest deposits of iron?
(a) Portugal
(b) Russia
(c) Germany
(d) Hungary

Answer :  B

Question. Which is the rarest diamond on this earth?
(a) Black diamond
(b) Blue diamond
(c) Red diamond
(d) Green diamond

Answer :  D

Question. Which of the following countries do not have huge reserves of Petroleum and natural gas?
(a) Iran
(b) Iraq
(c) China
(d) Saudi Arabia

Answer :  C

Question. Minerals can be identified on the basis of their physical properties. Which one among the following is not a physical property with respect to the minerals?
(a) Colour
(b) Presence of Sulphides
(c) Hardness
(d) Density

Answer :  B

Question- Minerals found in ______ are not accessible.
(a) Greenland
(b) Serbia
(c) Antarctica
(d) Japan

Answer :  C

Question- Limestone is a ____ mineral.
(a) ferrous
(b) metallic
(c) non-metallic
(d) non – ferrous

Answer :  C

Question- ___ is found in China.
(a) Gold
(b) bauxite
(c) Antimony
(d) Copper

Answer :  C

Question- _____ is the largest producer of diamond among all continents.
(a) Asia
(b) South America
(c) Africa
(d) Australia

Answer : C

Question- _____ is an example of conventional energy sources.
(a) Firewood
(b) Technology
(c) iron
(d) Silver

Answer : A

Question- Gypsum is an example of _____ mineral.
(a) metallic
(b) ferrous
(c) non-metallic
(d) non-ferrous

Answer :  C

Question. ________is the extraction of valuable minerals or other geological materials from the earth.
(a) Mining
(b) Smelting
(c) Quarrying
(d) Excavating

Answer :  A

Question- To reach mineral deposits at great depths, deep bores have to be made. This process is called _____
(a) shaft mining
(b) drilling
(c) quarrying
(d) Open cast mining

Answer :  A

Question- ______ produces more than half of the world’s tin.
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Antarctica
(d) Europe

Answer :  B

Question. The National Metallurgical Laboratory of India located at____________.
(a) Jamshedpur
(b) Dhanbad
(c) Roorkee
(d) Ranchi

Answer :  A

Question. Give two examples of non- metallic mineral fuels from the options given below:
(a) Manganese Ore, Bauxite
(b) Gold, Silver
(c) Coal, Petroleum
(d) Iron Ore, Bauxite

Answer :  C

Question. Which of the following gas is present in large quantities of biogas?
(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Methane
(d) Oxygen

Answer :  C

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions

1. Differentiate between a rock and an ore.
Answer: A rock is an aggregate of one or more minerals. An ore is a rock from which minerals are mined.

2. Define quarrying.
Answer: Quarrying is a process of extraction in which minerals lying near the surface are simply dug out.

3. Name the leading tin producers in Asia.
Answer: China, Malaysia and Indonesia are leading tin producers in Asia.

4. Name two areas in Australia, which have large deposits of gold.
Answer: Two areas in Western Australia having large deposits of gold are Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie.

5. Name two minerals in whose production India contributes a significant part.
Answer: India has vast deposits of high grade iron ore, and it is also a leading producer of salt.

6. In which industry is silicon important? From which ore is it obtained?
Answer: Silicon is important in the computer industry. It is obtained from quartz.

7. Why are minerals considered non-renewable?
Answer: Minerals take thousands of years to form. The rate of formation is much smaller than rate of consumption. So, we classify them as non-renewable.

8. Why is coal called “buried sunshine”?
Answer: Coal is called “buried sunshine” because it is found buried under the earth, and is as important a source of energy as sunshine.

9. Why are petroleum and its derivatives called “black gold”?
Answer: Petroleum and its derivatives are black in colour but as valuable as gold, so we refer to it as “black gold”.

10. What is natural gas?
Answer: Natural gas is a fossil fuel obtained with petroleum deposits in oil fields.

11. Which was the first country to develop hydroelectricity?
Answer: Norway was the first country to develop hydroelectricity.

12. Name some important hydel power stations in India.
Answer: Bhakra Nangal, Gandhi Sagar, Nagaijunasagar and Damodar Valley Projects are important hydel power stations in India.

13. Name nuclear power stations in India.
Answer: Kalpakkam, Tarapur, Ranapratap Sagar, Narora and Kaiga are the nuclear power stations in India.

14. Give one advantage of biogas over natural gas.
Answer: Biogas is a renewable source of energy whereas the amount of natural gas is limited.

Short Answer Type Questions

1. Name and describe briefly methods of extraction.

Answer: Mining, drilling and quarrying are methods of extraction. Mining is a process of extraction of taking out minerals from rocks under the earth’s surface.
Open cast mining: In this, minerals lying at shallow depths are taken out by removing the surface layer.

Shaft mining: In this, deep bores (called shafts) are made to reach mineral deposits lying at large depths. Drilling: In this, deep wells are bored to take out minerals.
Quarrying: It is the process of extraction in which minerals lying veiy close to the surface are extracted just by digging them out.

2. Where are minerals found?

Answer: Minerals are found in different types of rocks. Metallic minerals are usually found in igneous and metamorphic rocks that form large plateaus. Examples: iron ore is found in north Sweden, copper and nickel in Canada. In igneous and metamorphic rocks in South Africa, iron, nickel, chromites and platinum are found. Non-metallic minerals are found in sedimentary rock formations. Limestone deposits are found in France. Mineral fuels such as coal and petroleum are found in sedimentary strata.

3. Describe the mineral distribution in North America.

Answer: The mineral deposits in North America are found in three zones: the Canadian region in the north of the Great Lakes, the Appalachian region and the Rocky Mountains in the West. Iron ore, nickel, gold, uranium and copper are mined in the Canadian Shield Region, coal in the Appalachian region. Western Cordilleras have vast deposits of copper, lead, zinc, gold and silver.

4. Write common uses of minerals.

Answer: Minerals are important in many industries. Minerals used in gems are usually very hard. These are then set in varying styles of jewellery. Iron and copper are metals used in almost everything. Copper is present in everything from coins to pipes and electricity wires. Silicon, obtained from the mineral quartz, is the base of computer industry. Aluminium, obtained from bauxite ore, and its alloys are used in aeroplanes due to their light weight. Aluminium is also used in kitchen cookware.

5. How is hydroelectricity, produced?

Answer: Hydroelectricity is produced from the energy possessed by water falling from great heights. River water is stored in dams. When rain water or river water falls from heights, it flows over turbine blades placed at the bottom of the dam. The moving blades are connected to a generator which produces electricity from this energy. This electricity is called hydroelectricity. The water discharged after its production is used for irrigation.

Long Answer Type Questions

 1. Name and describe some non- conventional sources of energy.

Answer: Non-conventional power sources are those power sources that have come into use recently due to the depleting conventional resources and growing awareness. Solar energy, wind energy, geothermal energy, nuclear power and tidal energy are examples of non- conventional power sources.

Solar energy is the heat and light energy captured from the sun. Solar cells help to convert this energy to electricity. Solar energy is used in solar heaters, solar cookers, solar dryers, etc.

Wind energy is the energy possessed by moving air (wind). Windmills are used to convert wind energy to electricity. Wind farms having clusters of windmills located in coastal regions and mountain passes.

Nuclear power is energy possessed by the nuclei of atoms of naturally occurring radioactive elements like uranium-, thorium, etc.

Geothermal energy is the heat energy obtained from the inside of the earth. The temperature inside the earth increases as we go deeper. This heat is used to produce electricity. It is accessed in the form of hot springs. Tidal energy is the energy generated from tides. It is harnessed by building dams at narrow openings of the sea. Biogas is a gaseous fuel obtained from the decomposition of organic waste like dead plant and animal material or animal dung and kitchen waste. It is an excellent fuel for cooking and lighting, and is environment-friendly.

2. Write the advantages and disadvantages of non-conventional sources of energy.
Answer:
Advantages:

• Non-conventional sources of energy are usually inexhaustible. They do not pollute the environment.
• Nuclear power is emitted in large amounts.
• Most non-conventional sources of energy cost less.
• These forms of energy are safe to use and clean.

Disadvantages:

• Wind mills are costly to set up. So using them to harness wind energy is costly, even though the electricity generated from it is cheap.
• Setting up windmills disturbs radio and TV broadcast.
• Harnessing tidal energy destroys natural habitats of wildlife.
• Moreover, tidal energy is difficult to harness.
• Obtaining nuclear energy from radioactive material generates radioactive waste. It is expensive too.
• Biogas, although useful and renewable, contributes to greenhouse effect.

Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources MCQ Questions Class 8 Social Science with Answers

Question. In which of the following continents is Tanzania situated?
(a) Europe
(b) Asia
(c) Africa
(d) South America

Answer :   C

Question. The main reason for land degradation in Uttar Pradesh is__________.
(a) Mining
(b) Excessive irrigation
(c) Salinity
(d) Dense population

Answer :   B

Question.Large scale destruction of forests cover and arable land has occured due to the following:
(a) Growing population
(b) Ever growing demand of the population
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer :   C

Question. What is a biosphere reserve?
(a) Protected area linked through global network
(b) Land use for production
(c) Farmers Land
(d) None of these

Answer :   A

Question.Peter belongs to which country?
(a) India
(b) USA
(c) Germany
(d) New Zealand

Answer :   D

Question. Choose the correct option to complete the sentences given below: Which one is not the Atmosphere layer?
(a) The Biosphere
(b) The Troposphere
(c) The Stratosphere
(d) The Mesosphere

Answer :   A

Question.Which of the following is a famous bird sanctuary?
(a) Kaziranga National Park
(b) Tiger Park at Dudhwa
(c) Gir forest
(d) Bharatpur Sanctuary

Answer :   D

Question. The example of common property resource is
(a) community landcorrect
(b) individual building
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer :   A

Question. Which of the following is used of soil conservation?
(a) Mulching
(b) Shelter belts
(c) Contour ploughing
(d) All of these

Answer :   D

Question. Which one of the following is not a biosphere reserve?
(a) Dachigam
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Nanda Devi
(d) Sundarban

Answer :   A

Question. A few physical factors that determine the use of land are given below. Pick out the one that is not a physical factor
(a) Availability of capital
(b) Minerals and Availability of Water
(c) Topography and Soil
(d) Climate

Answer :   A

Question. is the use of land for different purposes like agriculture, forestry, mining, construction of buildings, houses, industries and road.
(a) Land degradation
(b) Land use
(c) Landfilling
(d) Land digging

Answer :   B

Question. 90% of the total world population resides in ……………… of the land area.
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%

Answer :  C

Question. What determines the thickness of the soil profile?
(a) Time
(b) Climate
(c) Relief
(d) Formation

Answer :   A

Question- How much percent of earth’s area is occupied by land?
(a) 45
(b) 30
(c) 66
(d) 70

Answer :   B

Question. Why is it necessary to increase the area under forests?
(a) To maintain ecological balance
(b) Forest absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere
(c) Forest help in raising the level of precipitation
(d) All of these

Answer :   D

Question- The type of soil is determined by
(a) landforms
(b) soil erosion
(c) water sources
(d) Globalisation

Answer :   A

Question. Natural Vegetation and wildlife exist only in the narrow zone called ………………
(a) Lithosphere
(b) Hydrosphere
(c) Atmosphere
(d) Biosphere

Answer :   D

Question. What percentage of the total area of the earth?s surface is covered by the most important natural resource Land?
(a) About 20 %
(b) About 30 %
(c) About 40 %
(d) About 70 %

Answer :   B

Question- Mass movement of rocks down the hills could be a sign of
(a) Landslides
(b) Floods
(c) Deforestation
(d) Weathering

Answer :   A

Question. Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
(a) Intensive cultivation
(b) Deforestation
(c) Over irrigation
(d) Overgrazing

Answer :    C

Question- Overgrazing is responsible for causing
(a) soil depletion
(b) Floods
(c) earthquake
(d) andslide

Answer :   A

Question. Trees in these ……………… shed their leaves in a particular season in order to conserve loss of moisture through transpiration: (select the incorrect one)
(a) Evergreen Forests
(b) Tundra
(c) Deforestation
(d) Deciduous Forests

Answer :   D

Question. What does the term Land degradation refer to?
(a) Decline in the use of fertilizers
(b) The decline in the productivity of cultivated land or forest land
(c) Presence of rocks and minerals in the soil
(d) The slope of the land

Answer :   B

Question- The evaporation of water takes place due to
(a) Nitrogen Cycle
(b) Water Cycle
(c) Cooling of Ice
(d) Floods

Answer :   B

Question- Low-lying areas are susceptible to
(a) water logging
(b) landslides
(c) illegal mining
(d) Weathering

Answer :   A

Question- ____ is one of the ways to prevent soil erosion.
(a) Trees cutting
(b) clearing of forest for agriculture
(c) Counter ploughing
(d) building dams

Answer :   C

Question. It is the uppermost layer, Rich in humus & minerals and Consists of Sand, Silt & Clay.
(a) Sub Soil
(b) Top Soil
(c) Alluvial Soil
(d) Black Soil

Answer :   B

Question.What percentage of the total area of the earth’s surface is covered by the most important natural resource Land?
(a) About 20 %
(b) About 30 %
(c) About 40 %
(d) About 70 %

Answer :   B

Question. Name the term that can be given to Land that is suitable for crop production.
(a) Untilled Land
(b) Pasture Land
(c) Forest Land
(d) Arable Land

Answer :   D

class 8th Geography Chapter 2 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions

1. What are the possible reasons behind the uneven distribution of population around the world?
Answer: The reasons behind uneven population distribution are mainly the varied conditions of land and climate.

2. Give three common forms of land use.
Answer: Three common land use forms are: (i) As cropland (ii) Pasture (iii) Forests.

3. What human factors determine land use pattern?
Answer: Human factors affecting land use pattern are population and technology.

4. Define soil.
Answer: The thin layer of grainy substance covering the surface of the earth is called soil.

5. What is required to make soil fertile?
Answer: The right mix of minerals and organic matter is needed to make soil fertile.

6. What is parent rock?
Answer: The rock from which soil is derived is called parent rock.

7. What are the factors threatening soil as a resource?
Answer: Two factors that threaten soil as a resource are soil erosion and its depletion.

8. What method of soil conservation may be used in coastal and dry regions?
Answer: Shelter belts are used to protect the soil in coastal and dry regions.

9. Why is the earth called the “water planet”?
Answer: The earth’s surface has about three- fourths water, so it is called “water planet”.

10. In what forms is fresh water found on the earth?
Answer: Fresh water is found in the forms of groundwater, water in rivers and lakes and as water vapour.

11. What is the name given to the process involved in rain formation?
Answer: The process involved in the formation of rain is called “water cycle”.

12. Name some regions of water scarcity in the world.
Answer: Africa, West Asia, South Asia, parts of western USA, northwest Mexico, parts of South America and Australia face water scarcity.

13. Name a method to save surface run-off.
Answer: Water harvesting is a method to save surface run-off.

14. How is a bird like vulture important for the ecosystem?
Answer: A vulture feeds on dead livestock and so it cleanses the environment.

15. What is the distinguishing feature between evergreen and deciduous forests?
Answer: Evergreen forests never shed their leaves whereas deciduous forests shed their leaves once a year.

16. What is the Vanamahotsava?
Answer: The social programme of planting trees, organised at community level is called vanamahotsava.

Short Answer Type Questions

1. How is land being degraded? Suggest methods to conserve land resource.

Answer: The ever-growing population has increased demand for living space, due to which forests are being destroyed, thus causing land degradation. The rate of degradation of land resources can be checked by promoting afforestation, land reclamation, regulated use of chemical pesticide and fertilizers and checking overgrazing.

2. What is weathering?

Answer: Weathering refers to the breaking up and decay of exposed rocks. This breaking up and decay is caused by temperature fluctuations between too high and too low, frost action, plants, animals and even human activity. Weathering is the major process involved in the formation of soil. It takes millions of years to form soil by this process.

3. How is water an important resource?

Answer: Water is an indispensable resource of life. Firstly water serves the most basic purpose of drinking, without which life is impossible. It is helpful in cleaning our bodies, clothes and utensils. Farmers depend on water for irrigation. Water is also used in cooking food. Water is a source of electricity as well. Plants require water for their growth. Water is required for various industrial purposes in factories.

4. Write a short note on wildlife.

Answer: The animal kingdom, which consists of animals, birds, aquatic creatures and insects, is called wildlife. These creatures provide us various important products such as milk, meat, hides and wool. Bees give us honey and help in pollination. They play the role of decomposers in the environment. Birds like the vulture are scavengers and they help in cleansing the environment. All forms of wildlife are an integral part of our ecosystem.

5. What are the major types of vegetation in the world? Describe vegetation in different rainfall conditions.

Answer: The major types of vegetation in the world are grouped as forests, grasslands, scrubs and tundra.” In areas of heavy rain, huge trees can be found. Forests are abundant in areas of heavy rainfall. With moisture and rainfall the density of forests declines. In moderate rainfall areas, grasslands are found. In dry areas we find thorny shrubs and scrubs. Plants here have deep roots and leaves have thorny surface to reduce loss of moisture. The tundra vegetation consists of mosses and lichens.

Long Answer Type Questions:

1. Describe methods of soil conservation.

Answer: Some common methods of soil conservation are mentioned below: Mulching. Mulching is the process of covering the bare ground between plants with a layer of organic matter like straw. It contributes in retaining soil moisture.
Terrace Farming. Terrace farming is the method of farming in which broad flat steps or terraces are made on the steep slopes so that flat surfaces are available to grow crops 4 They reduce run-off and soil erosion. 

Intercropping: In intercropping, different crops are grown in alternate rows and are sown at different times to protect the soil from being washed away by rain.

Contour Ploughing: Ploughing parallel to the contours of a hill slope to form a natural barrier for water to flow down a slope is called contour ploughing.

Shelter Belts: Rows of trees that are planted in certain areas to check wind movement are called shelter belts. Contour Barriers. Stones, grass and soil are used to build barriers along contours. Trenches are made in front of the barriers to collect water.

Rock Dams: This prevents gullies and further soil loss since rocks are piled up to slow down the flow of water. 

2. What is the threat to vegetation and wildlife? What is the need to conserve them? How can we do this? [V. Imp.]

Ans. Forests and wildlife are an important resource. Climate change and human interference in the animal kingdom can cause loss of natural habitat for plants and animals. Certain species have become endangered and many have become extinct now. Poaching incidents contribute to their extinction. Plants and animals are an important part of the ecosystem. Plants provide food, oxygen and shelter to humans and animals.

Animals provide us important products such as milk, meat, honey, etc. There exists a balance in the environment if we do not disturb the natural number of species living on the earth. A single extinction can affect the ecosystem badly. So animals and plants obviously need to be conserved. The government has introduced national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserves for this purpose. Poaching should be severely dealt with. Indiscriminate killings need to be discouraged. Social awareness must be created about importance of trees, social forestry. Students should be involved in vanmahotsavas at regional and community levels. 

Resources MCQ Questions Class 8 Social Science with Answers

Question. Which of the regions in India does not produce Natural gas?
(a) Krishna Godavari delta
(b) Jaisalmer in Rajasthan
(c) Digboi in Assam
(d) b and c both

Answer :  C

Question. Which of these have economic value?
(a) Landscape
(b) Home remedies
(c) Metals
(d) None of these

Answer :  C

Question. The organic waste is decomposed by bacteria in bio-gas digesters to emit biogas, which is essentially a mixture of?
(a) Methane and Ethane
(b) Methane and Oxygen
(c) Methane and Hydrogen.
(d) Methane and Carbon Dioxide

Answer :  D

Question. Which of these have some utility?
(a) Water
(b) electricity
(c) Vegetables
(d) All of these

Answer :  D

Question. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Smelting?
(a) Smelting is the process in which metals are extracted from their ores by cooling below the boiling point.
(b) Smelting is the process in which metals are extracted from their ores by heating beyond the melting point.
(c) Smelting is the process of producing refined goods.
(d) Smelting is the major process used in Nuclear Reactors.

Answer :  B

Question. Dark soils of the Deccan plateau in Maharashtra is a good example of ____________
(a) Renewable Resources
(b) Actual Resources
(c) Potential Resources
(d) Human made Resources

Answer :  B

Question. Which of the following combinations is wrong?
(a) Petroleum – Bombay High, Basein, Digboi, Ankaleshwar
(b) Cement – Katni,Lakheri, Jabalpur, Guntur
(c) Manganese – Orissa
(d) Uranium – Bihar

Answer :  C

Question. Resources used carefully and giving them time to get renewed is called
(a) resource depletion
(b) resource conservationcorrect
(c) resource pollution
(d) none of these

Answer :  B

Question. The rich deposit of coal in Ruhr region of which country.
(a) India
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) U.S.A

Answer :  C

Question. Name the term that can collectively refer to consist of all living and nonliving things that surround an organism.
(a) Environment
(b) Stock
(c) Value
(d) Resource

Answer :   A

Question. Which of the following explains the importance of shelter belts?
(a) Shelter belts are flat steps made on the steep slopes
(b) Shelter belts are rows of trees planted in coastal or dry regions to check wind movement to protect soil cover.
(c) Shelter belts are water harvesting structures in dry areas.
(d) Shelter belts are rows of trees planted to protect the soil from rain wash.

Answer :  B

Question.The resources whose quantities are known, named as
(a) potential resources
(b) actual resources
(c) stock
(d) all of these

Answer :  B

Question. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about minerals?
(a) They are created by natural processes
(b) They have a definite chemical composition
(c) They are inexhaustible
(d) Their distribution is uneven

Answer :  C

Question. From the given list of options, which one can be considered as an example of a Natural Resource?
(a) Railway Tracks
(b) Bridges
(c) Sunlight
(d) Roads

Answer :  C

Question. Which one of the following is a human made resource?
(a) Medicines to treat cancer
(b) Spring water
(c) Tropical forest

Answer :  A

Question. Nitrogen fixation can be done by
(a) Industries
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Lightening
(d) All of the above

Answer :  D

Question. The basis of classification of resources are
(a) level of development and use
(b) origin
(c) stock and distribution
(d) all of these

Answer :  D

Question. Balancing the needs to use resources and also conserve them for future generation is called
(a) development
(b) devaluation
(c) sustainable development
(d) all of these

Answer :  C

Question. Petroleum found in the West Asian areas is a good example of ____________.
(a) Renewable Resources
(b) Actual Resources
(c) Human made Resources
(d) Potential Resources

Answer :  B

Question- The resources which can be used directly without any modification are called _____
(a) Non-renewable resources
(b) Natural resources
(c) Sustainable resources
(d) Both B and C

Answer :  B 

Question- When natural substances change form to become resources, they are called
(a) Renewable resources
(b) Non – renewable resources
(c) Human – made resources
(d) Conservative Resources

Answer :  C

Question. Find any one among the following which is considered as an important factor that can change substances into resources.
(a) Technology
(b) Stock
(c) Distribution
(d) Origin

Answer :  A

Question. Resources created by human beings are called ………………
(a) Natural Resource
(b) Useful Resource
(c) Industrial Resource
(d) Man Made Resource

Answer :  D

Question4. Resources drawn from nature and used without much modification are called
(a) human made resources
(b) natural resourcescorrect
(c) cultural resources
(d) none of these

Answer :  B

Question- Sustainable Development is
(a) A right Balance between use of resources and conservation of resources
(b) Allow the resources to be renewed
(c) Promote recycling of technological devices
(d) Allow clearing of forests to construct apartments

Answer :  A

Question- The number and ability of people is usually referred as
(a) Human resources
(b) Stock of resources
(c) Natural resources
(d) Renewable resources

Answer :  A

Question. The number of resources available for use are called
(a) Conservative resources
(b) Stock of resources
(c) Sustainable resources
(d) Man-made resources

Answer :  B

Question- Improving the quality of human lives is an example of
(a) Stock of resources
(b) Human resources
(c) Sustainable development
(d) Utility

Answer :  C

Question. Give an example of biotic resources.
(a) rocks
(b) minerals
(c) soils
(d) animals

Answer :  D

Question. Which one of the following is not a “Value”?
(a) Aesthetic Value
(b) Economic Value
(c) Artistic Value
(d) Ethical Value

Answer :  C

Question. Atmosphere maintain the temperature of earth because
(a) It contains water vapor
(b) It hold air, which is bad conductor of heat
(c) It reflects the heat rays
(d) It absorbs the heat rays

Answer :  B

CBSE Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions

1: What is the condition for a substance to be called a resource?
Answer: A substance needs to have some utility to be called a resource.

2: What do you understand by the word “utility”?
Answer: If a substance can be used in any way, it is said to have a utility.

3: What are natural resources?
Answer:  Resources that are drawn directly from nature are called natural resources.

4: What is the name given to the type of resources that have limited stock?
Answer: The resources having limited stock are called non-renewable resources.

5: How are resources classified according to their distribution?
Answer: On the basis of their distribution, resources are classified into ubiquitous and localized.

6: Give three examples of abiotic resources.
Answer: Air, land, soils.

7: How are human-made resources different from natural resources?
Answer: Human-made resources have been created by human beings, whereas natural resources are provided by nature.

8: What is human resource development?
Answer: Improving the quality of human skills in order to make them more useful is called human resource development.

Short Answer Type Questions

1: Define resource conservation.

Answer: Resource conservation is the cautious use of the natural resources and giving them time to get renewed. In short, resource conservation implies saving resources for the future generation.

2: Human resources are an important entity, why?

Answer: Human resources refer to people and their contributions. Human resources are important as they are skilled to be able to make the best use of nature in order to enhance the existing resources and also create more resources using the knowledge and technology that they possess. Hence, human resources are considered highly significant.

3: Explain the terms resource conservation and sustainable development.

Answer: Resource conservation is the concept of using resources carefully so that they do not end up quickly. The future generations also need the resources, but if we keep using them at a fast pace, they may end up, thus posing problems for the future. We should use resources in such a balanced way that we satisfy our needs as well as conserve them for future. This concept is called sustainable development.

4: Why are human being resources?

Answer: Human beings are intelligent living beings. They can use their intelligence to realize the utility of substances. Had there been no humans, the resources would not have been resources. Human beings are interdependent on each other, and they prove useful to each other. For example, a postman renders us an important service, so he is a resource.

5: Explain how resources are classified broadly.

Answer: Resources are broadly classified into natural, human-made and human. Natural resources are those that are taken from nature. They are used without modifying them, i.e., in the same form as they exist in. Rivers, lakes, air, soils, minerals, trees, mountains, etc. are natural resources. Human-made resources have not been provided to us by nature. Human beings have used their intelligence to manufacture them for their own use. Examples include vehicles, buildings, roads, telephone, etc.
Human resources include people who serve us in any way. A teacher, doctor, carpenter, cobbler, etc. are human resources.

6: Write a short note on the significance of time and technology in making a substance a resource.

Answer: Time and technology are important factors in making substances resources. With time, technology develops. As technology develops, we begin to discover new ways to make life better. In this process, certain substances which were useless to us earlier become useful. An invention and discovery gives us new resources. An example is hydroelectricity. This technology has made water a source of electricity.

7: As human beings, how can we ensure sustainable development?

Answer: Since we live on the earth, it is our duty to practice sustainable development. We can do this by ensuring that:
(a) The usage of renewable resources is sustainable,
(b) The diversity of life on earth is maintained,
(c) The damage caused to nature by our activities is as low as possible.

Long Answer Type Questions

1: What is a resource? What are the criteria (requirements) for any substance to become a resource?

Answer: All those substances which have some utility or usability are resources for us.
The different criteria required for anything to be resource for us are:
(i) Utility or usability
(ii) Economic value or any other value
(iii) Time and technology inherent, which can make the substance important for present or future requirements of the people. For example: Discovery of fire led to the practice of cooking, Invention of wheel ultimately resulted in the development of newer modes of transport etc.

2: Explain the different types of resources.

Answer: In general there are three types of resources: Natural, Human – made, and Human.

(i) Natural Resources:
Resources that are drawn from nature and used without much modification are called Natural Resources. For example: Air we breathe, Water in well, Rivers and Lakes, Soil, Minerals etc. Natural resources are further divided into various types such as Actual, Potential, Abiotic, Biotic, Renewable, Non-renewable, Ubiquitous and Localized resources.

(ii) Human – Made Resources:
Such resources which have been changed from their original form by human effort are called as Human – Made Resources. For example: Buildings, Roads, Bridges etc. Technology is also an important example of Human – Made Resources.

(iii) Human Resources:
People are the greatest resource of the nation. All other resources of nature become significant only when people extract its usefulness. It is people with their demands and abilities that turn them into resources. Hence, human resource is the ultimate resource.

4: How do we classify natural resources on the basis of their stock?

Answer: On the basis of stock natural resources are further classified or subdivided into Renewable and Non-renewable types.

Renewable Resources: These are the resources which do not depend on the human consumption. These resources get renewed with the use of Human. But there are some kind of renewable resources which are affected with human consumption such as water, soil and forest. Other examples of renewable resources are solar and wind energy.

Non-Renewable Resources: These resources have a limited stock in the nature and may take thousands of years to get renewed. Since this period is much more than human life spans, so, they are called Non-Renewable Resources. For example, coal deposits, petroleum deposits etc. 

5: What do you understand by sustainable development? Also mention its basic principles.

Answer: Balancing the need to use resources and also conserve them for the future is called sustainable development. In other words, Carefully, utilizing resources so that besides meeting the present requirements it also takes care of the need of future generation is known as sustainable development. The basic principles of sustainable development are given below:

1. Respect and care for all forms of life.
2. Improve the quality of human life.
3. Conserve the earth’s vitality and diversity.
4. Minimise the depletion of natural resources.
5. Change personal attitude and practices towards the environment.
6. Enable communities to care for their own environment.