NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS CLASS – 11 | BIOLOGY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | CHAPTER -2 | BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-2 BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 BIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION

Question 1.
What are imperfect fungi?

Answer:
Asexually reproducing fungi belonging to Deuteromycites are imperfect fungi

Question 2.
How many basidiospores are formed after Karyogamy and meiosis?

Answer:4

Question 3.
What is plasmogamy?

Answer:
Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gametes.

Question 4.
What are the slime molds?

Answer:
1. The slime molds are both plant and animal-like.

2. They are plant-like in the production of spores during reproduction and animal-like in the mode of nutrition and rheumatic organization.

3. Their rheumatic structure consists of an acellular, multinucleate mobile mass of protoplasm which lacks a good wall called plasmodium.

4. The reproductive stage consists of sporangia and spores formed after meiosis. The spores on germination produce either flagellated swarm cells or myxamoebae.

5. These divide mitotically, then behave as gametes and fuse in pairs to form a diploid zygote. The zygote nucleus divides mitotically but the nuclear division is not followed by cell wall formation so that all nuclei lie free in the cytoplasm.

6. The enlargement of the zygote into plasmodium takes place which moves freely on the substratum and feeds on bacteria, fungal and algal spores, and also absorbs nutrients directly from the substratum. The plas¬modium then settles on dry places and develops into sporangia. Therefore asexual stage is plant-like and the sexual stage is animal-like.

Question 5.
Write a short note on kingdom Plantae.

Class 11 Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification 1
Kingdom Plantae

Answer:
1. Kingdom Plantae includes all autotrophic plants which are photosynthetic forms called green plants starting from simple algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes to gymnosperm and angiosperms.

2. The plant cell has a cell wall mainly made of cellulose and, eukaryotic structure with prominent chloroplasts. Some plants are heterophilic like insectivorous plants which feed on insects and flies e.g. Bladderwort and Venus flytrap.

(3) The life cycle has two phases-sporophytic and gametophytic which are diploid (2n) and haploid (n) respectively. That means zygote (2n) undergoes meiosis to form haploid (n) spores these spores germinate into a gametophyte, then these gametes (male and female) fuse to form a zygote (2n) again which gives rise to the sporophyte. This phenomenon is called the alternation of generation.

Question 6.
Write a short note on Mycoplasma.

Answer:

  1. Discovered by E.Nocard and E.R. Roux (1998) mycoplasma is the smallest known aerobic prokaryotes without a cell wall.
  2. They were isolated from cattle suffering from bovine pleuropneumonia and hence they were designated as PPLO (pleuropneumonia-like organisms)
  3. They are found in different forms as a spheroid, thin, stellate called pleomorphic.
  4. They occur in soil, sewage, human, and plants.

Question 7.
Write a short note on Kingdom Animalia.

Answer:

  1. Kingdom Animalia includes all animals except the protozoan. The members are multicellular eukaryotes. The cell wall is absent cells, organized into tissue. They directly or indirectly depend on plants for food.
  2. They digest their food in an internal cavity and store food reserves as glycogen or fat. They are heterotrophic and the mode of nutrition is holozoic nutrition. They act as decomposers and help in the recycling of minerals.
  3. Kingdom Plantae includes the multicellular, photosynthetic eukaryotic forms.
  4. They have well-established mechanisms for absorption and Kingdom Animalia includes all animals except the protozoans. They are multicellular eukaryotes and are holozoic. The cells lack walls.

Question 8.
Write a short note on Lichens.

Answer:
Lichens are a symbiotic association between algae and fungi. The algae component is known as phycobiont and the fungal component as mycobiont which are autotrophic and heterotrophic respectively. Algae prepare food for fungi and fungi provides shelter and absorbs mineral nutrient and water for its partner.

On the basis of the structure of thallus, lichens can be classified into three types

  1. Crustose: forms a crust on the substrate which is not easily separated from the substrate e.g. Graphis
  2. Foliose: forms the leafy lobed structure attached to the substrate with the help of rhizines easily separated from substrate eg. Parmelia.
  3. Fruticose: forms shrubby, cylindrical, and branched thallus. They grow erect or hang from the substrate e.g. Usnea. Lichens are the pioneer colonizers of bare rocks. They also colonize tree trunks in temperate climatic regions.

Question 9.
Describe the kingdom Monera.

Answer:
This kingdom comprises single-celled prokaryotic organisms like bacteria, filamentous actinomycetes, and photosynthetic blue-green algae of Cyanobacteria. The salient features are already given in Table 2.1 we will further discuss the following organisms briefly.

Bacteria: Bacteria are single-celled microscope true prokaryotic organisms which are almost omnipresent. They colonize soil, water, and air. These can survive
Class 11 Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification 2
in extreme environmental conditions like high temperature, high salt concentration, in absence of oxygen (anaerobic) or in presence of oxygen (aerobic) in high acidic or alkaline pH, etc. (sometimes these are called Archaebacteria).

Some bacteria can be chemotrophs that derive energy from inorganic compounds in absence of oxygen e.g. methanogenic bacteria produce methane gas (CH4) from CO2 and H2, some live by oxidizing hydrogen supplied eg. Thiothsix.

Some are parasites on plants and animals e.g. Xanthomonas citri and Vibrio Cholera; another form symbiotic association with plant roots e.g. Rhizobium.

The bacteria can be of various sizes and shape i.e. spherical or round, coccus (pi. cocci), rod-shaped and bacillus (pi. Bacilli), spiral-shaped spirillum (pi. Priscilla). Long and helical shaped called spirochetes. Many bacteria have one or more slender, long flagellum (pi. flagella) which helps them to move in the liquid substrate. Some bacteria form endospores under poor nutrient conditions.

Question 10.
Write the distinct characters of protozoa.

Answer:
1. Protozoa are single-celled heterotrophs or ‘first animal’. They can be free-living and parasitic members, mobile with flagellar movement, by pseudopodia, or by ciliary movements e.g. Euglena and Amoeba.

2. Cell wall is absent in some like Amoeba so they can change their shape. The Euglena is autotrophic because of the presence of chlorophyll it performs photosynthesis but in the absence of light, it becomes heterotropic and ingests other protists or food particles.

3. They reproduce asexually by binary fission but some reproduce sexually by fusion of gametes followed by meiosis. Another important member of protists is the malarial parasite, Plasmodium, causing the notorious disease malaria in man, carried by mosquitoes, it multiplies rapidly in the liver of humans and brings about the cyclic fever releasing toxins into the bloodstream of its host.
Class 11 Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification 3
Photograph of Amoeba and Euglenas

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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS CLASS – 11 | BIOLOGY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | CHAPTER -1 | THE LIVING WORLD | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-1 THE LIVING WORLD NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 BIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON THE LIVING WORLD

1. Why are living organisms classified?

Sol. Living organisms are classified because of the following reasons:
(i) Easy identification.
(ii)Study of organisms of other places.
(iii)Study of fossils
(iv)Grouping helps in study of all types of organisms while it is impossible to study individually all of them.
(v) Itbringsoutsimilaritiesanddissimilarities. They help in knowing relationships among different groups.
(vi)Evolution of various taxa can be known.

2. Why are the classification systems changing every now and then?

Sol. From very early days till now biologists use several characters for classification system. These are morphology, anatomy, cytology, physiology, ontogeny, phylogeny, reproduction, biochemistry, etc. But day by day biologists are learning something new about organisms from their fossil records and using” advanced study techniques such as molecular phylogeny, etc. So their point of view about classification keeps changing. Thus the system of classification is modified every now and then.

3. What different criteria would you choose to classify people that you meet often?

Sol. The various criteria that may be chosen to classify people whom we meet often include behaviour, geographical location, morphology, family members, relatives, friends etc.

4. What do we learn from identification of individuals and populations?

Sol. The knowledge of characteristic of an individual or its whole population helps in identification of similarities and dissimilarities among the individuals of same kind or between different types of organisms. It helps us to classify the organisms in various categories depending upon these similarities and dissimilarities.

5. Given below is the scientific name of mango. Identify the correctly written name.
Mangifera Indica Mangifera indica

Sol. The correctly written scientific name of mango is Mangifera indica.

6. Define a taxon. Give some example of taxa at different hierarchical levels.

Sol. A taxonomic unit in the biological system of classification of organism is called taxon (plural taxa). For example a phylum, order, family, genus or species represents taxon. It represents a rank. For example, all the insects form a taxon. Taxon of class category for birds is Aves and taxon of Phylum category for birds is Chordata. The degree of relationship and degree of similarity varies with the rank of the taxon. Individuals of a higher rank, say Order or Family, are less closely related than those of a lower rank, such as Genus or Species.

7. Can you identify the correct sequence of taxonomical categories?
(a) Species —> Order —> Phylum —> Kingdom
(b) Genus—) Species—> OrderKingdom
(c) Species —> Genus —>Order —> Phylum

Sol. The correct sequence of taxonomical categories is
(c) i.e., Species —>Genus —> Order —> Phylum.

8. Try to collect all the currently accepted meanings for the word ‘species’. Discuss with your teacher the meaning of species in case of higher plants and animals on one hand, and bacteria on the other hand.

Sol. Species occupies a key position in classification. It is the lowest taxonomic category. It is a natural population of individuals or group of populations which resemble one another in all essential morphological and reproductive characters so that they are able to interbreed freely and produce fertile offsprings. Each species is also called genetically distinct and reproductively isolated natural population. Mayr (1964) has defined species as “a group of actually or potentially interbreeding populations that are reproductively isolated from other such groups”.
In higher plants and animals the term ‘species’ refers to a group of individuals that are able to interbreed freely and produce fertile offsprings. But, in case of bacteria interbreeding cannot serve as the best criteria for delimiting species because bacteria usually reproduce asexually. Conjugation, transformation and transduction, which are termed as sexual reproduction methods in bacteria, also do not correspond to true interbreeding. Thus, for bacteria many other characters such as molecular homology, biochemical, physiological, ecological and morphological characters are taken into consideration while classifying them.

9. Define and understand the following terms:
(i) Phylum (ii) Class (iii) Family
(iv) Order (v) Genus

Sol. (i) Phylum – Phylum is a category higher than that of Class. The term Phylum is used for animals. A Phylum is formed of one or more classes, e.g., the Phylum Chordata of animals contains not only the class Mammalia but also Aves (birds), Reptilia (reptiles), Amphibia (amphibians), etc. In plants the term Division is used in place of Phylum.
(ii) Class – A Class is made of one or more related Orders. For example, the Class Dicotyledoneae of flowering plants contains all dicots which are grouped into several orders (e.g., Rosales, Sapindales, Ranales, etc.).
(iii) Family, – It is a taxonomic category which contains one or more related genera. All the genera of a family have some common features or correlated characters. They are separable from genera of a related family by important and characteristic differences in both vegetative and reproductive features. E.g., the genera of cats (Fells) and leopard (Panthera) are included in the Family Felidae. The members of Family Felidae are quite distinct from those of Family Canidae (dogs, foxes, wolves).
Similarly, the family Solanaceae contains a number of genera like Solanum, Datura, Petunia and Nicotiana. They are distinguishable from the genera of the related family Convolvulaceae (Convolvulus, Ipomoea).
(iv) Order – The category includes one or more related families. E.g., the plant Family Solanaceae is placed in the Order Polemoniales alongwith four other related families (Convolvulaceae, Boraginaceae, Hydrophyllaceae and Polemoniaceae). Similarly, the animal families Felidae and Canidae are included under the Order Carnivora alongwith Hyaenidae (hyaenas) and Ursidae (bears).
(v) Genus – It is a group or assemblage of related species which resemble one another in certain correlated characters. Correlated characters are those similar or common features which are used in delimitation of a taxon above the rank of species. All the species of genus are presumed to have evolved from a common ancestor. A genus may have a single living species e.g., Genus Homo. Its species is Homo sapiens – the living or modem man. The Genus Felis has many species, e.g., F. domestica – common cat, F. chaus (jungle cat) etc.

10.How is a key helpful in the identification and classification of an organism?

Sol.‘Key is an artificial analytic device having a list of statements with dichotomic table of alternate characteristics. Taxonomic
keys are aids for rapid identification of unknown plants and animals based on
the similarities and dissimilarities. Keys are primarily based on stable and reliable characters. The keys are helpful in a faster preliminary identification which can be backed up by confirmation through comparison with detailed description of the taxon provisionally identified with. Separate taxonomic keys are used for each taxonomic category like Family, Genus and Species.


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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS CLASS – 11 | CHEMISTRY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS PART-2 | CHAPTER -7 | ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-7 ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 CHEMISTRY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY

1.What is troposphere?

Ans:The lowest region atmosphere in which the human beings along with other organisms live is called troposphere. It extends upto the height of km from sea level.


2.Name some gaseous air pollutants.

Ans:Gaseous air pollutants are oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon, hydrogen sulphide, hydrocarbons, ozone and other oxidants.


3.What are the diseases caused by sulphur dioxide?

Ans:Sulphur dioxide causes respiratory diseases eg. asthma, bronchitis, emphysema in human beings, sulphur dioxide causes irritation to the eyes, resulting in tears and redness.


4.List gases which are responsible for green house effect?

Ans:Carbon dioxide, methane, water vapors, nitrous oxide, CFC’s and ozone are responsible for green house effect.


5.What is the effect of CFC’s on ozone layer?

Ans: 02Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC’s) damage the ozone layer and creates holes in ozone layer.


6.What is greenhouse effect?

Ans:Atmosphere traps the Sun’s heat near the Earth’s surface and keeps it warm. This is Greenhouse effect.


7.Which disease is caused due to ozone layer depletion?

Ans:Ultraviolet rays reaching the earth passing through the ozone hole cause skin cancer.


8.What is smog?

Ans: When smoke with fog, it is called smog.


9.The London smog is caused in which season and time of the day?

Ans: The London smog is caused during summer season and in the afternoon part of the day when it is very hot.


10.Name two gases which form acid rain.

Ans: 04SO2 and NO2.


11.Which acid is present is the acid rain?

Ans: 05The acids present in the acid rain are

H2SO4, HNO3 and HCl.


12.What is PAN?

Ans: 06PAN is Peroxy acetyl nitrate.


13.When does rain water become acid rain?

Ans: 08When pH of rain water becomes as low as 2 to 3.5. It forms acid rain.


14.What is BOD?

Ans: 01BOD stands for Biochemical Oxygen Demand.


15.Define green chemistry.

Ans: 03The branch of chemistry that emphasizes on the processes and products that reduce or eliminate the use and generation of toxic / hazardous substances is called green chemistry.






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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS CLASS – 11 | CHEMISTRY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS PART-2 | CHAPTER -6 | HYDROCARBONS | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-6 HYDROCARBONS NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 CHEMISTRY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON HYDROCARBONS

Question 1.
The following organic compounds are known by their common names

(i) Neopentane
Answer:
Neopentane is
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 20
& its h.U.P.A.C. name is 2, 2—dimethyl propane.

(ii) Acetone
Answer:
Acetone is
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 87
and its I.U.P.A.C. name is Propanone.

(iii) Vinyl chloride
Answer:
Vinyl chloride is CPU = CH — Cl and its I.U.P.A.C. name are chloroethene.

(iv) Tert butyl alcohol. Write their structural formulae and I.U.P.A.C. names.
Answer:
Tert; butyl alcohol
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 21
and its I.U.P.A.C. name is 2-methyl propan-2-ol.

Question 2.
What are the various products expected when propane reacts with fuming nitric acid?

Answer:
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 22

Question 3.
How will you convert methane into
(i) Methanol

Answer:
Conversion of methane into methanol:
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 23

(ii) Methanal.

Answer:
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 24

Question 4.
What is aromatization? How will you convert ^hexane into benzene?

Answer:
Aromatization. It is the process that involves cyclization, isomerization, and dehydrogenation with the application of heat and catalyst to convert alkanes containing six or more carbon atoms into aromatic hydrocarbons.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 25

Question 5.
Give the different conformations of ethane with their
(i) Sawhorse representation and
(ii) Newmann Projection formulae.

Answer:
Sawhorse representation Newmann projection models
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 26
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 27

Question 6.
What are the relative stabilities of different conformations of ethane? Is it possible to isolate these at room temperature?

Answer:
The staggering form of ethane is more stable than the eclipsed form because the force of repulsion between hydrogen atoms on adjacent C atoms is minimum. The energy difference between the staggered form and eclipsed form of ethane is just 12.55 kJ mol-1. Therefore, it is not possible to separate these two forms of ethane at room temperature.

Question 7.
What is Saytzeff Rule? What are the expected products when 2-Bromobutane is dehydrohalogenation with ale. KOH?

Answer:
Saytzeff Rule. Whatever two alkenes are theoretically possible during a dehydrohalogenation reaction, it is always the more highly substituted alkene that predominates.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 28

Question 8.
What is the order of reactivity of H2C = CH2, (CH3)2, H2C = CH2, CH3 – CH = CH2, CH3 – CH = CH – CH3, (CH3)2 C = C (CH3)2, (CH3)2 C = CH CH3 towards electrophilic addition reactions?

Answer:
The order of reactivity of the above alkenes towards electrophilic addition reactions decreases in the order.
(CH3)2 C = C (CH3)2 > (CH33)2 C = CH CH3 > (CH3)2 C = CH2 > CH3 CH – CH – CH3 > CH3 – CH = CH, > CH2 = CH2.

Question 9.
Define Markownikov rule. Explain it with an example.

Answer:
Markownikov rule states. The negative part of the addendum adding to an unsymmetric alkene goes to that C atom of the double bond which is attached to a lesser number of C atoms.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 29

Question 10.
What is the Peroxide effect/Kharasch Effect? Illustrate with an example.

Answer:
In the presence of peroxides such as benzoyl peroxide, the addition of HBr (but not of HCl or HI) to an unsymmetrical alkene takes place contrary to the Markownikov rule. This is known as the peroxide/Kharsch effect.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 30

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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS CLASS – 11 | CHEMISTRY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS PART-2 | CHAPTER -5| ORGANIC CHEMISTRY: SOME BASIC PRINCIPLE AND TECHNIQUE | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-5 ORGANIC CHEMISTRY: SOME BASIC PRINCIPLE AND TECHNIQUE NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 CHEMISTRY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON ORGANIC CHEMISTRY: SOME BASIC PRINCIPLE AND TECHNIQUE

Question 1.
Without using column chromatography, how will you separate a mixture of camphor and benzoic acid?

Answer:
Sublimation cannot be used as both camphor and benzoic acid sublime on heating. Therefore, a chemical method using NaHCO3 solution is used when benzoic acid dissolves leaving camphor behind. The filtrate is then cooled with dilute HCl to get benzoic acid.

Question 2.
Compare inductive & mesomeric effects.

Answer:

Inductive effectMesomeric effect
1. It operates in saturated gp. of compounds.1. It occurs in unsaturated & especially in conjugated compounds.
2. It involves electrons in σ – bonds.2. It involves electrons in π – bonds.
3. Electron pair is slightly displaced & there only partial charges are developed.3. The electron pair is transferred completely with the result full positive & negative charges are created.
4. It is transmitted over only a quite short distance.4. It is transmitted from one end to the other of quite large molecules provided conjugation (i.e. delocalised orbitals) is present through which it can proceed.

Question 3.
What is the difference between distillation, distillation under reduced pressure & steam distillation?

Answer:

DistillationDistillation under reduced pressureSteam distillation
This is used to separate volatile liquid from non-volatile liquid or solid separately.This is used to purify liquids that decompose at or below their boiling points.This is used for purifying substances that are steam volatile & immiscible with water.

Question 4.
How will you purify sugar which has impurities of sodium chloride?

Answer:
Sugar may be purified by the crystallization method. This can be purified by shaking the impure solid with hot ethanol at 345K. The sugar will dissolve whereas common salt remains insoluble. The hot solution is filtered, concentrated & allowed to cool when crystals of sugar will separate out. In this case, hot water has been used as a solvent. The purification of sugar would not have been possible since both sugar’& common salt are soluble in water.

Question 5.
Differentiate between Ionic & free radical reactions.

Answer:

Ionic reactionsFree radical reactions
1. These occur only rarely in the gas phase but mainly in a solution of polar solvents; the reaction is influenced by the polarity of the solvent.1. These occur in gas phases or in non-polar solvents.

Question 6.
For each of the following compounds, write a more condensed formula & also their bond-line formula.
Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 74
(b) HOCH2CH2CH2CHCH3CHCH3CH3
Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 75
Answer:
Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 76

Question 7.
Expand each of the following bond line formulae to show all the atoms including carbon & hydrogen.

Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 77
Answer:
Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 78

Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 79
Answer:
Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 80

Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 81
Answer:
Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 82

Question 8.
Explain why is (CH3) C+ more stable than CH3 C+ H2 & CH3 is the least stable cation?

Answer:
Hyperconjugation interaction in (CH3)3 C+ is greater than in C++ H3 C+ H2 has 9 C -H bonds. In C H3, the C -H bonds are in the nodal plane of the vacant 2p-orbital & hence cannot overlap with it.
Thus C+ H3 is least stable.

Question 7.
The choice of the solvent is of great importance in crystallizing organic substances. What are the characteristics of a suitable solvent?

Answer:
A suitable solvent must have the following characteristics;

  1. The impurities & pure compound must have a large difference in their solubilities.
  2. The pure compound must have low solubility at room temperature but high solubility at its boiling point.
  3. The impurity should either be insoluble at room temperature or must have high solubility so that crystallization may give a high yield.
  4. The solvent should have an average boiling point.
  5. The solvent should neither react with the compound nor with impurities.
  6. The solvent should not be highly inflammable.

Question 8.
Explain the principle of steam distillation.

Answer:
Steam distillation: The process of steam distillation is employed in the purification of substance from non-volatile impurities provided the substance itself is volatile in steam and insoluble in water.

This method is based on the facts that

  1. A liquid boils at a temperature when its vapour pressure becomes equal to the atmospheric pressure.
  2. The vapour pressure of a mixture of two immiscible liquids is equal to the sum of the vapour pressures of the individual liquids.

In the actual process, steam is continuously passed through the impure organic liquid. Steam heats the liquid and it gets practically condensed to water. After some time mixture of the liquid and water begins to boil, because the vapour pressure of the mixture becomes equal to the atmospheric pressure.

Obviously, this happens at a temperature that is lower than the boiling point of the substance or that of water. Thus an organic compound boils below its boiling points and chances of decomposition avoided. For example, a mixture of aniline (b.p 453 K) with decomposition and water (b.p. 373 K) under normal atmospheric pressure boils at 371K. At this temperature the
Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 83
Steam Distillation

water boils at 371 K. At this temperature, the vapour pressure of water is 717 mm and that of aniline is 43 mm and therefore the total pressure is equal, to 760 mm. Thus in steam distillation, the liquid gets distilled at a temperature lower than its boiling point and chances of decomposition avoided. The proportion of water and liquid in the mixture that distils over is given by the relation.

w1w2=P1×18P2×M
where w1 and w2 stand for the masses of water and liquid that distils over. P1 and P2 are vapour pressure of water and of liquid at the distillation temperature and M is the molecular mass of the liquid.

Question 9.
Dehydrobromination of compounds (A) and (B) yield the same alkene (c) Alkene (c) Can regenerate (A) and (B) by the addition of HBr in the presence and absence of peroxide respectively. Hydrolysis of A and B give isomeric products (D) and (E) respectively. 1, 1-Diphenyl ethane is obtained on the reaction of (C) of benzene in the presence of H+ ions. Give structures of A to E with reactions.

Answer:
Alkene (C) on reaction with benzene in the presence of H+ ions gives 1, 1-Diphenyl ethane. Therefore C must be styrene as depicted below
Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 84
Now dehydrobromination of A and B give the same alkene C, i.e.,
styrene.
∴ A and B must be isomeric alkyl bromide.

Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 85
A and B can be obtained by the addition of HBr in the presence and absence of peroxide to styrene.
Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 86
Hydrolysis of A and B give isomeric alcohols (D) & (E) as
Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 87

Question 10.
What are reaction intermediates? How are they generated by bond fission?

Answer:
The species which are generated as a result of bond fission are called reaction intermediates. The important reaction intermediates are:
1. Free Radicals: A free radical may be defined as an atom or group of atoms having an impaired electron. These are obtained as a result of homolytic fission of covalent bonds.
Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 88
These free radicals are neutral particles, extremely transient, (short-lived) and highly reactive. They get consumed as soon as they are formed. They pair up their electron with another electron from wherever it is available. They occur only as a reaction intermediate. Their presence is felt in reactions, but cannot be isolated in a free state. For example dissociation of Cl2 gas in the presence of Ultraviolet light produces free radicals.
Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 89
The alkyl free radicals are obtained when free radical: Cl reacts with alkanes.
Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 90
Free radical may be primary, secondary, tertiary depending upon whether, one, two or three carbon atom attached to the carbon atoms carrying the odd electron.
Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 91
The stability is CH3 < 1° < 2° < 3°.

2. Carbocation or carbonium ion: It is defined as a group of atoms that contain positively charged carbon having only six electrons. It is obtained by heterolytic fission of a covalent bond involving a carbon atom.
Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 92
They are also classified as primary, secondary and tertiary depending upon whether one, two or three carbon atoms are attached to the carbon bearing the positive charge as:
Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 93
Thus the order of stability if CH3+ < 1° < 2° < 3°.

3. Carbanion: A carbanion may be defined as a species containing a carbon atom carrying a negative charge. These are generated by the atom in which the atom linked to carbon goes without the bonding electrons. As a result of this carbon acquires a negative charge. For example, the removal of hydrogen of methyl part of acetaldehyde molecule as H+ ion leaving both the electron on carbon.
Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 94
They are also very reactive species. They are also classified as primary, secondary and tertiary depending upon whether one, two or three carbon atoms are attached to the carbon atom bearing negative
charge.
Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 95
The order of stability is the reverse of free radicals and carbocations
CH > 1° > 2° > 3°.

(iv) Carbenes: The carbenes are reactive neutral species in which carbon atom has six electrons in the valency shell out of which two are shared. The simplest carbene is methylene (CH2). It is formed when diazomethane is decomposed by the action of light.
Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 96
It is very reactive. It reacts with alkenes by adding to the double bond forming cyclopropane.
Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 97

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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS CLASS – 11 | CHEMISTRY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS PART-2 | CHAPTER -4 | THE p-BLOCK ELEMENT | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-4 THE p-BLOCK ELEMENT NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 CHEMISTRY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON THE p-BLOCK ELEMENT

1.Why the elements of group 13 are called p-block elements?

Ans.Group 13 elements are called p-block elements because the last electron is present in the p-orbital (np1). The valence shell configurations are B (2s2 2p1), Al (3s2, 3p1), Ga (4s2, 4p1), In (5s5p1) Tl (6s6p1)


2.The elements B, Al, Ca, In and Tl are placed in the same group of the periodic table. Give reason.

Ans. The elements B, Al, Ga, In and Tl are placed in the same group of the periodic table because each one has the same number of electrons (ns2 np1) in its valance shell.


3.Aluminium forms in not formed why?

Ans. Due to presence of vacant d-orbital’s, Al can expand its octet to form bonds with six fluoride ions whereas B cannot. Boron does not have d-orbital’s.


4.The atomic radius of Ca is less than that of Al. Why?

Ans. This is due to the variation in the inner core of the electronic configuration. The presence of additional 10 d-electrons offer only poor screening effect for the outer electrons from the increased nuclear charge in gallium.


5.C and S are always tetravalent but Ge, Sn And Pb show divalency. Why?

Ans. Inert pair is more prominent as we move down the group in p – block elements. Ge, Sn and Pb show divalency due to inert pair effect.


6.Some halides of group 14 elements form complexes of the type . Give reason.

Ans. The halides of the elements having vacant d-orbital’s can form complexes like because in such a case the central atom can increase its coordination number from 4 to 6 due to availability of vacant d–orbital’s.


7.is lead known whereas not. Give reason.

Ans. The main reasons are that

(i) Six large chloride ions cannot be accommodated around Si4+ due to limitation of its size.

(ii) Interaction between lone pair of chloride ion and Si4+ is not very strong.


8.PbIdoes not exist. Why?

Ans.PbI4 does not exist because Pb – I bond initially formed during the reaction does not release enough energy to unpair 6s2 electrons and excite one of them to higher orbital to have four unpaired electrons around lead atom.


9.Why is carbon different from other member of the group?

Ans. Carbon differs from rest of the members of its group due to its smaller size, higher electro negativity, higher ionization enthalpy and unavailability of d-orbital’s.


10.Why does the covalence of carbon not expand beyond four?

Ans. In carbon, only s and p orbital’s are available for bonding and therefore it can accommodate only four pairs of electrons around it. This limit the maximum covalence to four whereas other members can expand their covalence due to the presence of d-orbital’s.


11.Why does carbon show different allotropic forms?

Ans. Due to property of catenation and pπ – pπ bond formation Carbon is able to show different allotropic forms.


12.Silicon has no allotropic form analogous to graphite. Why?

Ans. Due to large size. Si has little or no tendency for pπ – pπ bonding. Whereas carbon atom forms easily pπ – pπ bonds due to smaller size in graphite structure. Hence, Si does not exhibit graphite structure.


13.Why does graphite conduct electricity?

Ans. Graphite forms hexagonal ring and undergoes sp2 hybridization. The electrons are delocalized over the whole sheet. Electrons are mobile and therefore graphite conducts electricity over the sheet.


14.Graphite is used as lubricant. Give reason.

Ans. Graphite has sp2 hybridized carbon with a layer structure due to wide separation and weak inter – layer bonds the two adjacent layers can easily slide over each other. This makes graphite act as a lubricant.


15.How are silicones manufactured?

Ans.They are manufactured by hydrolysis of chlorosilanes –

where R is a methyl or phenyl group.


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Memories of Childhood SUMMARY NCERT SOLUTION CLASS 12TH ENGLISH VISTAS | EDUGROWN NOTES

Reading with Insight
Q1. The two accounts that you read above are based in two distant cultures. What is the commonality of theme found in both of them?

ANSWER:
The autobiographical accounts included in the “Memories of Childhood” are by two women from socially marginalized sections in two distant cultures of the world. One highlights the evil practice of racial prejudice while the other talks about the hierarchical Indian caste system and untouchability. The first part traces how the author, a Native American, was victimized at the hands of the European staff of her boarding school. The second account gives a picture of the hardships and humiliations faced by the Indian ‘Dalits’ from the eyes of a third standard student.
Although they are set in different cultures, both the stories share a similar theme. They show the sufferings and oppression faced by their respective communities. The practice of social stratification is rebuked by both the authors. Zitkala-Sa’s hair was “shingled” at the behest of Europeans who considered themselves superior to the Native American. On the other hand, Bama witnessed untouchability being practiced openly where people from ‘lower castes’ were considered impious and were not even allowed to touch the people from the upper castes. From a very young age, both Zitkala-Sa and Bama start protesting and resisting in their own ways.

Q2. It may take a long time for oppression to be resisted, but the seeds of rebellion are sowed early in life. Do you agree that injustice in any form cannot escape being noticed even by children?

ANSWER:
However, their keen observant eye is capable enough to notice any form of injustice and discrimination. When subjected to such evil practices, their sensitive minds and hearts are deeply affected. Perplexed, they often resist in their own simple ways.
In the lesson, the two girls describe their encounters with inequality. Zitkala-Sa, in the very first line reports that her first day in school was “bitter-cold”. For her, it not only describes the weather, but also represents the atmosphere of the boarding school. The overly disciplined students of the school and the European staff were unfriendly or “cold” towards her, and the vain struggle against her hair being shingled was a “bitter” experience for her. On the other hand, Bama walked on her brother’s footsteps to protest against the practice of untouchability through education. She studied wholeheartedly to reach a position where people would forget her “caste” and feel proud to befriend her.

Q3. Bama’s experience is that of a victim of the caste system. What kind of discrimination does Zitkala-Sa’s experience depict? What are their responses to their respective situations?

ANSWER:
While Bama was subjected to caste discrimination and untouchability, Zitkala-Sa was a victim of racial prejudice. Zitkala-Sa was packed off to a European missionary school where, being a local tribal, she was looked down upon. Her precious, long and heavy hair, which was her pride, was shingled. She tried to resist with all her might but, ultimately, she was forced to give up her struggle. On the contrary, Bama, who witnessed the malpractice of untouchability, decided to blur the difference of castes with the light of education. Under the guidance and supervision of her elder brother, she judiciously utilized her anger and sense of rebellion to study hard and outwit any form of prejudice. She understood that a social change would be possible only if these so-called lower castes make an effort to study and, thus, make progress.
It can easily be noticed that though both the protagonists tried to protest against the injustice they faced, the paths they chose are remarkably different. Through this journey of rebellion, Zitkala-Sa is forced to give in; on the contrary, Bama successfully implemented her brother’s advice to finally top in her class. While Zitkala-Sa continued to rebel by criticizing the evils of racial prejudice through her works, Bama opted for a more subtle way to carry forth her silent yet effective remonstration.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS :


Q1. What does Zitkala-Sa remember about her ‘first day in the land of apples’?
  ANSWER: It was a bitter-cold day. The snow still covered the ground. The trees were bare. A large bell rang for breakfast. Its loud metallic sound crashed through the belfry overhead and penetrated into their sensitive ears.

Q2. How did Zitkala-Sa react to the various sounds that came when the large bell rang for breakfast?
ANSWER:  The annoying clatter of shoes on bare floors disturbed the peace. There was a constant clash of harsh noises and an undercurrent of many voices murmuring an unknown tongue. All these sounds made a bedlam within which she was securely tied. Her spirit tore itself in struggling for its lost freedom.

Q3. Where were the girls taken and how ?
Ans. The girls were marching into the dining room in a line. The Indian girls were in stiff shoes and tightly sticking dresses. The small girls wore sleeved aprons and shingled hair. They did not seem to care that they were indecently dressed.

Q4. “I felt like sinking to the floor”, says Zitkala-Sa. When did she feel so and why ?
ANSWER: It was her first day at school. She was marching into the dining room with other girls in a line. She walked noiselessly in her soft moccasins. But she felt that she was immodestly dressed, as her blanket had been removed from her shoulders. So, she felt like sinking to the floor.

Q5. “But this eating by formula was not the hardest trial in that first day”, says Zitkala-Sa. What does she mean by ‘eating by formula’ ?
ANSWER:  The ringing of a large bell summoned the students to the dining room. Then a small bell tapped. Each pupil drew a chair from under the table. Then a second bell was sounded. All were seated. A man’s voice was heard at one end of the hall. They hung their heads over the plates. The man ended his mutterings. Then a third bell tapped. Everyone picked up his/her knife and fork and began eating.

Q6. How did Zitkala-Sa find the ‘eating by formula’ a hard trial?
ANSWER:  She did not know what to do when the various bells were tapped and behaved unlike others. When the first bell rang, she pulled out her chair and sat in it. As she saw others standing, she began to rise. She looked shyly around to see how chairs were used. When the second bell was sounded, she had to crawl back into her chair. She looked around when a man was speaking at the end of the hall. She dropped her eyes when she found the paleface woman looking at her. After the third bell, others started eating, but she began to cry.

Q7. What did Judewin tell Zitkala-Sa? How did she react to it?
ANSWER: Judewin knew a few words of English. She had overheard the paleface woman. She was talking about cutting their long, heavy hair. Judewin said, “We have to submit, because they are strong.” Zitkala-Sa rebelled. She declared that she would not submit. She would struggle first.

Q8. ‘Why, do you think, was Zitkala-Sa so opposed to cutting of her hair?
ANSWER:  Zitkala-Sa had heard from her mother that only unskilled warriors, who were captured, had their hair shingled by the enemy. Among their people, short hair was worn by mourners, and shingled hair by cowards. Since she was neither, she was dead against cutting of her long hair.

Q9. How did Zitkala-Sa try to avoid the inevitable loss of her long hair ?
ANSWER:  She crept up the stairs and passed along the hall. She did not know where she was going. She turned aside to an open door. She found a large room with three white beds in it. The windows were covered with dark green curtains. She went to the comer farthest from the door and crawled under the bed in the darkest corner.

Q10. How was the search made for Zitkala-Sa?
ANSWER:  First, they called out her name in the hall in loud voices. Then the steps were quickened. The voices became excited. The sounds came nearer. Women and girls entered the room. They opened closet doors. They peeped behind large trunks. Someone threw up the curtains. The room was filled with sudden light. Someone stooped, looked under the bed and found her there.

Q11. How was Zitkala-Sa treated on being traced from her hiding place ?
ANSWER: Zitkala-Sa was dragged out. She tried to resist by kicking and scratching wildly. But she was overpowered. She was carried downstairs and tied fast in a chair. She cried aloud and kept shaking her head.

Q12. What did Zitkala-Sa feel when her long hair was cut? ‘
ANSWER: When she heard them remove one of her thick braids, she lost her spirit. She had suffered utmost indignities there. People had stared at her. She had been tossed about in the air like a wooden puppet and now her long hair was shingled like a coward’s. In her anguish, she moaned for her mother. She felt herself as one of the many little animals driven by a herder.

Q13. Which words of her brother made a deep impression on Bama? [Delhi 2014]
ANSWER:  While returning home, Bama’s elder brother told her that although people do not get to decide the family they are bom into, they can outwit the indignities inflicted upon them. It left a deep impression on her.

Q14. Name some of the novelties and oddities in the streets that attracted Bama?
ANSWER:  These included the performing monkey, the snakecharmer’s snake, the cyclist who had kept on biking for three days, the spinning wheels, the Maariyaata temple and the huge bell hanging there. She also noticed the pongal offerings being cooked in front of the temple.

Q15. What were the articles in flit stalls and shops that fascinated Bama?
ANSWER:  She saw the dried fish stall by the statue of Gandhiji; the sweet stall, and the stall selling fried snacks. There were many other shops next to each other. Then there was the narikkuravan huntergypsy. He had his wild lemur in cages. He sold needles, clay beads and instruments for cleaning out the ears.

Q16. What sort of shows or entertainments attracted the passers-by?
ANSWER:  Sometimes various political parties put up a stage. They addressed people through their mikes. There might be a street play, a puppet show, or a “no magic, no miracle” stunt performance. There was some entertainment or the other happening there from time to time.

Q17. Which actions of the people would Bama watch keenly in the bazaar?
ANSWER: She watched how each waiter in the various coffee clubs would cool the coffee. He would lift a tumbler high up. Then he would pour its contents into another tumbler held in the other hand. She observed how the people, chopping up onion, would turn their eyes elsewhere to avoid irritation in their eyes.

Q18. Why was Zitkala-Sa in tears on the first day in the land of apples? [All India 2014]
ANSWER:  On the first day in the land of apples, Zitkala-sa was in tears. The main reason of tears was that her hair was mercilessly cut. She had heard from her mother that only unskilled warriors, who were captured, had their hair shingled by the enemy. That is why she shook her head in resistance.

Q19. Which fruit or sweet delicacies did she observe in the bazaar?
ANSWER: There would be mango, cucumber, sugar-cane, sweet potato, palm-shoots, gram, palm- syrup, palm-fruit, guavas and jack-fruit, according to the season. She would see people selling sweet and savoury fried snacks, payasam, halva, boiled tamarind seeds and iced lollies each day.

Q20. How were the threshing proceedings going on in the corner of the street?
ANSWER: There was a threshing floor set up in the comer of the street. People were hard at work. They were driving cattle in pairs, round and round, to tread out the grain from the straw. The animals were muzzled so that they couldn’t eat the straw. Bama stood there watching for fun. The landlord was watching the proceedings. He was seated on a piece of sacking spread over a stone ledge.

Q21. What, do you think, made Bama want to double up and shriek with laughter?
ANSWER:  Bama saw an elder of their street coming along from the direction of the bazaar. He was a big man. He was carrying a small packet, holding it out by its string. The manner in which he was walking along made Bama want to double up. She wanted to shriek with laughter at the funny sight.

Q22. How did the elder approach the landlord and offer him the packet?
ANSWER:  The elder went straight up to the landlord. Then he bowed low and extended the packet towards him. He cupped the hand that held the string with his other hand. The landlord opened the parcel and began to eat the vadais.

Q23. What explanation did Bama’s elder brother Annan give her about the elder’s “funny” behaviour?
ANSWER:  Annan told Bama that the man was not being funny when he carried the package by the string for his landlord. The upper caste people believed that others must not touch them. If they did, they would be polluted. That was the reason why he (the elder man) had to carry the package by its string.

Q24. How did Bama react on learning about untouchability?
ANSWER:  Bama became sad on listening how the upper caste people behaved towards low caste persons like them. She felt provoked and angry. She wanted to touch those vadais herself. She wondered why their elders should run errants for the miserly rich upper caste landlords and hand them over things reverently, bowing and shrinking all the while.

Q25. How did the landlord’s man behave with Annan?
  ANSWER: The man thought that Annan looked unfamiliar, and asked his name respectfully. However, his manner changed as soon as Annan told his name. The man immediately asked the name of the street he lived in. The purpose was to identify his caste from the name of the street.

Q26. How, according to Annan, was the caste system discriminatory? How can one overcome the indignities?
ANSWER: Annan said that the lower caste people were never given any honour or dignity or respect. They were deprived of all that. Thus, the caste system was discriminatory. But, if they studied and made progress, they could throw away those indignities.

Long Answer type Question:

Q1. Why did Zitkala-Sa feel oppressed in new establishment?
  ANSWER: Since the day, the author was taken away from her mother, she had suffered extreme indignities. People had stared at her. She had been tossed about in the air like a wooden puppet. Her blanket had been removed from her shoulders. She felt that she was immodestly dressed. She was so shocked and oppressed that she felt like sinking to the floor. Later, her soft moccasins were taken away. These were the traditional footwear of the local Indian American. They were replaced by squeaking shoes. She saw other Indian girls in stiff shoes and tightly sticking dresses. The small girls wore sleeved aprons and shingled hair. The worst indignity she suffered was the cutting of her long hair. The coward’s shingled hair made her moan with anguish. She felt she was not a human being but one of the little animals driven by a herder. The systematic erosion of their culture and disrespect to women was quite oppressive.

Q2. “But this eating by formula was not the hardest trial in that first day”, says Zitkala-Sa.What do you understand by ‘eating by formula’ and how did she find it a hard trial?
ANSWER:  There was a fixed procedure laid down for breakfast. Zitkala-Sa calls it ‘eating by formula’. The ringing of a large bell summoned the inmates to the dining room. Boys and girls entered the dining room in lines from separate doors. Then a small bell was tapped. Each of the pupil drew a chair from under the table. The writer also did so. She supposed this act meant they were to be seated. So she slipped into the chair. She found others standing. Just when she began to rise, looking shyly, the second bell sounded and all sat down. Then she heard a man’s voice at one end of the hall. She looked around to see him. But all the others hung their heads over their plates. She found the paleface woman watching her. When the man ceased his mutterings, a third bell was tapped. Everyone picked up his knife and fork and began eating. She began to cry. She was so afraid that she could not do anything further. Her discomfiture was caused by her unfamiliarity with the procedure. However, she found it a difficult experience—a sort of trial.

Q3.“I will not submit! I will struggle first!” says Zitkala-Sa. What was she going to resist and why? What efforts did she make and what was the outcome?
ANSWER: Zitkala-Sa had long, heavy hair. Her Mend Judewin had overheard the paleface woman talk that their hair was to be shingled. Zitkala-Sa decided to resist it. Among their people, short hair was worn by mourners, and shingled hair by cowards. Unskilled warriors captured by the enemy also got their hair shingled. Cutting a woman’s long hair was thus against their tradition and culture.
She tried to avoid it. She crept up the stairs quietly and hid herself under the bed in a room with dark green curtains. She had crawled to the comer farthest from the door and lay close in the darkest comer. Soon she heard her name shouted in the hall. Then the steps were quickened and voices became excited. Women and girls entered the room. They opened closet doors and peeped behind large trunks. Someone threw up the curtains. The room was filled with sudden light. Someone stooped, looked under the bed and saw her there. She was dragged out though she resisted by kicking and scratching wildly. She was carried downstairs and tied fast in a chair. She cried aloud and kept shaking her. head till the scissors cut her long hair.

Q4. What diversions in the streets, shops and the bazaar attracted Bama, tethered her legs and stopped her from going home?
ANSWER:  There were many novelties and oddities that attracted Bama. These included the performing monkey, the snakecharmer’s snake, the narikkuravan huntergypsy’s wild lemur in cages, -the cyclist who had been pedalling for three days, the spinning wheels, the Maariyaata temple and its huge bell. She also noticed the pongal offerings being cooked in front of the temple. There was a dried fish stall near the statue of Gandhiji. There was a sweet stall and a stall selling Med snacks. There were many shops next to each other.
The public meetings of political parties, street plays, puppet shows, and stunts were other entertainments. She would watch how the waiters would pour coffee from a tumbler held high to another low down to cool it. Then she saw people who chopped onion kept their eyes to another side to avoid irritation. She admired the various fruits that came to the bazaar according to the season. She also noticed people selling sweet and savoury fried snacks. These were the usual scenes and sights that tethered her legs and stopped her from going home.

Q5. How did Bama react to the threshing proceedings in a corner of their street and the spectacle of a big man carrying a packet by its string ?
ANSWER:  Bama watched the threshing floor, people working with cattle to tread out the grain and the muzzled animals with a child’s curiosity. She stood there watching the fun. The landlord was also watching the proceedings. He was seated on a piece of sacking spread over a ledge.
Then she saw a big man, an elder of her street, coming along from the direction of the market. The manner in which he was walking along made her want to double up. She wanted to shriek with laughter at the sight of such a big man carrying a small packet by its string, without touching. She thought that the package might come undone and its contents fall out. ‘
Then the elder went straight upto the landlord, bowed low and extended the packet towards him. He cupped the hand that held the string with his other hand. The landlord opened the parcel and began to eat the vadais. She found the whole scene quite funny and amusing. She related it to her brother in all its comic details.

Q6. How did Bama’s brother explain the elder’s behaviour to her? What was her immediate reaction?
ANSWER:  Bama’s elder brother, Annan, told her that the big man was not being funny when he carried the package by the string for his landlord. The upper caste people believed that others must not touch them. If they did so, they (people belonging to upper caste) would be polluted. That was why he did not touch the contents but held the packet by its string. Bama didn’t want to laugh any more now. She felt terribly sad. She could not understand how the vadai, first wrapped in a banana leaf and then parcelled in a paper, would become disgusting if one of them held that package in his hands. She felt so provoked and angry that she wanted to touch those vadais herself straightaway. She wondered why they had to fetch and carry for these people. She was infuriated that an important elder of theirs went meekly to the shops to fetch snacks and then handed them over reverently, bowing and shrinking to the fellow who sat there and stuffed them in his mouth. She felt that they too were human beings. Their people should not do petty jobs for the miserly rich upper castes. They should work in their fields, take home their wages and leave it at that.

Q7. What indignities did the caste system heap on the lower castes? How could they end the discrimination? How did Bama react to her brother’s advice?
ANSWER: According to Annan, the caste system was highly discriminatory. It put the lower castes in a very disadvantageous position. They were never given any honour, dignity or respect. They were deprived of all that. The only way to end this social discrimination was self¬improvement. They should study hard and make progress. Then they could throw away all those indignities.
He advised Bama to study with care and learn all that she could. If she was always ahead in her lessons, people would come to her of their own accord and attach themselves to her. The words “work hard and learn” became the guiding principles of Bama’s life. She studied hard with all her breath and being. She was almost in a frenzy. She stood first in her class and, because of that, many people became her friends. This was the beginning of her illustrious career.

Q8. What oppression and discrimination did Zitkala-Sa and Bama experience during their childhood? How did they respond to their respective situations?
ANSWER:  Zitkala-Sa was a victim of social and cultural oppression by the victors who had overpowered them by their sheer strength. They were prejudiced towards Native American culture and women.
They adopted force and oppression to compel the natives to shed their age-old traditions and customs. The cutting of the long hair of Zitkala-Sa is a symbol of their oppression. She opposed this prejudice and oppression by rebelling against it. She protested with all her strength.
Bama was a victim of caste system. She had seen, felt and experienced the evils of untouchability when she was studying in the third standard. She felt humiliated by what it was. She struggled hard against this social discrimination. She studied hard and topped in her class. Many students became her friends.
Thus, both Zitkala-Sa and Bama fought the existing circumstances with courage and determination and ended the prejudice, discrimination and oppression.

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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS CLASS – 11 | CHEMISTRY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS PART-2 | CHAPTER -3 | THE s-BLOCK ELEMENTS | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-3 THE s-BLOCK ELEMENTS NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 CHEMISTRY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON THE s-BLOCK ELEMENTS

Question 1.
Why the solubility of alkaline metal hydroxides increases down the group?

Answer:
If the anion and the cation are of comparable size, the cationic radius ‘vill influence the lattice energy. Since lattice energy decreases much more than the hydration energy with increasing ionic size, solubility will increases as we go down the group. This is the case of alkaline earth metal hydroxides.

Question 2.
Why the solubility of alkaline earth metal carbonates and sulphates decreases
down the group?

Answer:
If the anion is large compared to the cation, the lattice; energy will remain almost constant within a particular group. Since the hydration energies decrease down the group, solubility will decrease as found for alkaline earth metal carbonates and sulphates.

Question 3.
Why cannot potassium carbonate be prepared by the SOLVAY process?

Answer:
Potassium carbonate cannot be prepared by the SOLVAY process because potassium bicarbonate (KHCO3) is highly soluble in water, unlike NaHCO3 which was separated as crystals. Due to its high solubility KHCO3 cannot be precipitated by the addition of ammonium bicarbonate to a saturated solution of KCl.

Question 4.
What are the main uses of calcium and magnesium?

Answer:
Main uses of calcium:

  1. Calcium is used in the extraction of metals from oxides which are difficult to reduce with carbon.
  2. Calcium, due to its affinity for O2 and N2 at elevated temperatures, has often been used to remove air from vacuum tubes.

Main uses of Magnesium:

  1. Magnesium forms alloys with Al, Zn, Mn and Sn. Mg-Al alloys being light in mass are used in aircraft construction.
  2. Magnesium (powder and ribbon) is used in flashbulbs, powders incendiary bombs and signals.
  3. A suspension of Mg(OH)2 in water is used as an antacid in medicine.
  4. Magnesium carbonate is an ingredient of toothpaste.

Question 5.
What is meant by the diagonal relationship in the periodic table? What is it due to?

Answer:
It has been observed that some elements of the second period show similarities with the elements of the third period situated diagonally to each other, though belonging to different groups. This is called a diagonal relationship.
The s-Block Elements Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 2
The cause of the diagonal relationship is due to the similarities in properties such as electronegativity, ionisation energy, size etc. between the diagonal elements. For example on moving from left to right across a period, the electronegativity increases, which on moving down a group, electronegativity decreases. Therefore on moving diagonally, two opposing tendencies almost cancel out and the electronegativity values remain almost the same as we move diagonally.

Question 6.
Why is the density of potassium less than that of sodium?

Answer:
Generally, in a group density increases with the atomic number, but potassium is an exception. It is due to the reason that the atomic volume of K is nearly twice Na, but its mass (39) is not exactly double of Na (23). Thus the density of potassium is less than that of sodium.

Question 7.
The hydroxides and carbonates of sodium and potassium are easily soluble in water while the corresponding salts of magnesium and calcium are sparingly soluble in water. Explain.
Answer:
Sodium and potassium ions (Na+ and K+) are larger than the corresponding Mg2+ and Ca2+ ions. Due to this lattice energy of Mg(OH)2, Ca(OH)2, MgCO3 and CaCO3. (Lattice energy is defined as the energy required to convert one mole of the ionic lattice into gaseous ions.

Thus lattices with smaller ions have higher lattice energies). The hydration energies of Mg2+ and Ca2+ are higher than Na+ and K+ because of their smaller sizes. But the difference in lattice energies is much more. Therefore, the hydroxides and carbonates of Mg2+ and Ca2+ are insoluble in water because of their higher lattice energies.

Question 8.
Why is it that the s-block elements never occur in free state/nature? What are their usual modes of occurrence and how are they generally prepared?

Answer:
The elements belonging to the s-block in the periodic table (i.e. alkali and alkaline earth metals) are highly reactive because of their low ionisation energy. They are highly electropositive forming positive ions. So they are never found in a free state.

They are widely distributed in nature in the combined state. They occur in the earth’s crust in the form of oxides, chlorides, silicates and carbonates.

Generally, a group I metals are prepared by the electrolysis of fused solution.
For example:

1. The s-Block Elements Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 3
At cathode: Na+ + e → Na
At anode: Cl → Cl + e
Cl + Cl → Cl2

2. KOH ⇌ K+ + OH
At cathode: K+ + e– → K
At anode: 4OH → 4OH + 4e
4OH → 2H2O + O2
or
4OH → 2H2O + O2 + 4e
These metals are highly reactive and therefore cannot be extracted by the usual methods, because they are strong reducing agents.

Question 9.
Explain what happens when

(i) Sodium hydrogen carbonate is heated.
Answer:
The s-Block Elements Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 4

(ii) Sodium with mercury reacts with water.
Answer:
2Na-Hg + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2 ↑ + 2Hg

(iii) Fused sodium metal reacts with ammonia.
Answer:
The s-Block Elements Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 5

Question 10.
What is the effect of heat on the following compounds?

(a) Calcium carbonate
Answer:
The s-Block Elements Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 6

(b) Magnesium chloride hexahydrate
Answer:
The s-Block Elements Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 7

(c) Gypsum
Answer:
The s-Block Elements Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 8

(d) Magnesium sulphate heptahydrate.
Answer:
The s-Block Elements Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 9

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CHAPTER 4 : The Central Islamic Lands NCERT SOLUTION CLASS 11TH HISTORY | EDUGROWN NOTES

Short Answer Type Question:

Q1. How were Islamic architectural forms different from those of the Roman Empire?

ANSWER:

• Roman Empire Architectural Forms: The Romans emperors were great builders . solidity and magnificence of conception are two important features of their architecture e.g- city of Rome.
(i)They introduced two architecture  features, the arch and cupolas or domes.
(ii) Art of painting murals was highly developed so much so that some of their murals practically covered the whole wall.
(iii) Their buildings were multistoried with one row of arches standing over another, examples- Pompeys Theatre.
(iv) Inventors of concrete and could firmly cement, bricks and stones together ,examples- pantheon.

2.Islamic Architectural Forms:
(i) The Islamic art right forms  Spain to central Asia showed some basic architectural features horseshoe arches, bulbous domes ,small minarets, twisted columns and open courtyard.
(ii ) Religious buildings – mosques, shrines and tomb were the greatest architectural symbols of this world.
(iii) Another features was decorative forms of writing e.g.- calligraphy and arabesque i.e geometric and vegetal designs, to decorate architecture, and manuscripts.
(iv) The places were modeled on romans and sasanian architectural features e.g.-palace at Baghdad. They were richly decorated with sculptures, mosaics and paintings.


Q2.Describe the main teachings of Islam.
ANSWER: Main teachings of Islam are given below:

  • Allah should be worshiped.
  • No Muslim should practice idol worship. It is a sin.
  • Muslims should believe that all Muslims are equal. They should regard themselves as brothers.
  • All Muslims should follow the same rules regarding marriage and divorce.
  • All Muslims should lead a simple life.


Q3.Describe in brief how Prophet Muhammad’s religion was a factor in the growth of Arab unity.
ANSWER:
Prophet Muhammad’s religion was a responsible factor in the growth of Arab unity as;

  • The religion started by Him was denoted by a term Islam implied to complete submission.
  • He told that there is only one God, i.e. Allah.
  • He emphasised on the principles of equality and unity, for those who accepted Allah and the Prophet.


Q4.What do you know about Arab tribe? Write in short.
ANSWER:
The entire Arab society was divided into tribes known as Qabila, headed by a chief. The chief of Qabila (Tribe) was elected on the basis of his family, wisdom and courage. Besides these, his personality also played a crucial role. Each tribe had its own religious beliefs. They worshiped their own gods and goddesses in mosques.

The tribes were nomadic, and kept on moving from one region to another in search of food and fodder for their camels. Some of them settled and practiced trade or agriculture. Muhammad’s own tribe was Qurayash who had reigned its supremacy in Mecca. It established its control over Kaba, a cublic like structure in which idols were placed. Even the tribes outside Mecca considered the Kaba installed their own idols at this shrine, making annual pilgrimage (Hajj) to the shrine.


Q5.What were Crusades? Describe its two impact on the Christian Muslim relations.
ANSWER:
Crusades meant the military expeditions. It was organized in western Christendom to recover the holy places of Palestine from Muslim occupation. The four Crusades were fought, as given below.

  1. First Crusade – 1095 to 1099 CE
  2. Second Crusade – 1147 to 1148 CE
  3. Third Crusade – 1189 to 1192 CE
  4. Fourth Crusade – 1202 to 1204 CE

Impact on Christian-Muslim relations

  • Ever since the Crusade, the people of western Christendom developed a stereotypical and distorted Islamic image.
  • These wars resulted in harsher attitude of the Muslim state towards its Christian subjects.


Q6.Write any four factors responsible for the rise of Arab empire.
ANSWER:
The following factors were responsible for the rise of Arab empire:

  • The Arabs were skilled warriors.
  • The Arabs were successful merchants, who maintained their trade relations with the far off countries.
  • The spread of Islam in different countries, also helped them in consolidating their empire.
  • They collected information from the available sources and developed it still further.


Q7.Why did the early Caliph follow an expansionist policy? Which factors contributed to their success?
ANSWER:
The early Caliph followed an expansionist policy because:

  • They were well aware about the fact that ‘Umma’ could not be maintained but the modest income taken through trade and taxes.
  • They realised that a rich booty could be obtained by expediting raids.
  • The Byzantine and Sassarian empires patronised Christianity and Zoroastrianism respectively. On the eve of Arab’s
  • invasion both these empires began to decline. This provided an opportunity to the Arabs to expand their empire.

The following factors contributed to their success:

  • Arabs used camels which could work easily in desert regions.
  • Both Byzantine and Sassarian empires were not in a position to face the determined challenges of Arab, because they were on the way to their decline.


Q8.Describe some features of administrative structure of Arabs under the early Khalifa.
ANSWER:
Features of administrative structure:

  • Arab states were headed by governors called amirs and the tribal chieftains called ashraf.
  • Tax paid by the Muslims and the share obtained from the booty were the main sources of income for the central authority.
  • The ruling class and the soldiers (who participated in the raids) received their share in the booty and monthly payment.
  • The non-Muslims residing in the Arab administration had to pay taxes. These taxes were Jaziya and Kharaj.
  • Christians and Jews were declared as protected citizens. Both were given autonomy in conducting communal affairs.


Q9.Write in brief about the contribution of the Arab civilization to the world in the field of science.
ANSWER:

  • The Arab astronomers proved that earth is round and it revolves round the sun.
  • They discovered compounds like sodium carbonate, silver nitrate, nitric and sulphuric acids.
  • In the field of mathematics, they excelled in numbers and trigonometry. They spread this knowledge to other parts of the world.
  • Two great Arab physicians Al-Razi and Ibn Sina told about small-pox and tuberculosis.


Q10.List the responsible factors which enabled the Umayyad to come to power.
ANSWER:
The Umayyad dynasty was founded by Muawiya in 661 CE. Between the years 661- 750 all Caliphs were from Umayyad dynasty. Following factors enabled Umayyads to coming into power.

  • With the territorial expansion, the Umma unity was broken up.
  • Conflicts over the distribution of resources began to increase among the Umma.
  • The Meccan character of the early Islamic state by Uthman, who packed his administration with his own men, to his exclusion of other tribes men, to secure greater central.
  • Opposition of tuber men in Iraq and Egypt combined with opposition in Medina, led to assassination of Uthman. After his assassination Ali became the fourth Caliph. The rifts deepened and after his assassination Muwaiya successfully made him the next Caliph, to exclusion of Ali’s son Hussain, founding Umayyad dynasty.


Q11.Write an evolutionary note on the regime of the fourth Caliph, Ali.
ANSWER:
Ali was the fourth Caliph. He fought two wars against those who were representing the aristocracy of Mecca. As a result of these wars, the rifts among the Muslims depened. Later on his supporters and enemies got divided into two sects. These two sects were: Shias and Sunnis. Ali established himself at Kufar and defeated Aisha’s (Muhammad’s wife) army in the Battle of Camel in 657.

Although Ali won this war but he was unable to suppress the group led by Muawiya, a kinsman of Uthman and the governor of Syria. Then he fought another war with him at Siffin, which ended in a truce. After the War of Siffin, Ali’s followers got divided into two groups. Some remained loyal to them, while others who left them came to be known as Kharjis.


Q12.During Abbasids, Arab influence began to decline. Why?
ANSWER:
During Abbasids, the Arab influence began to decline on account of the following reasons:

  • The Abbasids established their capital at Baghdad, near the ruins of ancient Iranian metropolis, Ctesiphon. As a result of this, the Iranian influence of culture began to increase under Abbasids.
  • The Abbasids ruler strengthened the religious status and functions of the caliphate and patronized Islamic institutions and scholars.
  • The army and bureaucracy were recognized on a non-tribal basis to ensure greater participation by Iraqi and Khuraseni.
  • The Abbasids maintained the magnificent imperial architecture of Umayyads. They also elaborated court ceremonials of Umayyads.

Long Answer Type Question:


Q1.Describe the major beliefs and practices that characterized Sufism.
ANSWER:
Sufi’s were a group of religious minded people turned to asceticism and mysticism.
Their major beliefs and practices are given below:

  • The Sufi’s laid emphasis on seeking of salvation through devotion of God.
  • They laid emphasis on celibacy and ignored the rituals and observed extreme form of asceticism.
  • They considered every one equal in the eyes of God. God is one and almighty. Everyone in the universe is his creation.
  • They interpreted the Quran on the basis of their own experiences.
  • They maintained a distance from worldly power.
  • They used to go for Ziyarat. They remembered God by reciting the divine names or evoking his presence through Sama.
  • They regarded Prophet Muhammad as a perfect human being and preached to follow his teachings.
  • Sufi’s were in favor of Sama, singing and dance.


Q2.What do you know about the main teachings of Islam?
ANSWER:
Main teachings of Islam:

  • Idol-worship is a curse, according to Islam.
  • God, i.e. Allah is almighty. He is all wise and merciful.
  • Islam believes in life after death, in hell or in heaven. The sinner will go to the hell and face many hardships. The religious and honest people will go to the heaven. They will be served by beautiful damsels.
  • The Quran is the divine book of Islam. The sayings of Prophet Muhammad are regarded as God.
  • All are equal. No one is superior or inferior. Islam preached the principle of equality and brotherhood.
  • There is no restriction on keeping slaves in Islam, but Muhammad asked his followers to treat them kindly.


Q3.Write your argument to justify the following statement:
“Prophet Muhammad laid down the foundation of a new political structure.”
ANSWER:
Prophet Muhammad laid down the foundation of a new political structure as:

  • He replaced the tribal organisation with a state. The state was encompassed with a number of tribes.
  • Umma constituted the armed forces.
  • He was a religious leader as well as a law-giver.
  • His followers (The Umma) were converted into a wide community to include polytheists and Jews of Madina.
  • The conquest of Mecca established him both as a religious as well as political leader.
  • He maintained the independence of the state by fixing the booty to l/15th (which directly went to him).
  • Tax like ‘Zakat’ was imposed on tribes who had accepted Muhammad’s leadership. All Muslim tribes had to pay it.
  • With his efforts and influence, he was able to convert many Bedouins into Islam. In a short span of time, he was able to unite a large part of peninsula.


Q4.“Throughout the history of human beings their interest in religion often went hand in hand”. Justify the statement by giving examples.
ANSWER:

  • From the very beginning, evidence has been traced out that Indian traders traveled to the different countries of South East Asia for trade in gold, tin, spices, etc. While travelling and trading to these nations they also took with them the ideas and practices of the religion. The ideology of Buddhism and Hinduism became the part and parcel of their culture. These two religions were adopted by the people of Jawa, Cambodia, Sri Lanka, etc.
  • The Arab traders in the medieval period established their trade relations with India and many other countries of Europe and Asia. They carried with them the ideas of newly founded religion, i.e. Islam. Due to its simplicity in principle, Islam was adopted by many Indians and in the same way it spread into Spain, Syria, Iran and Iraq.
  • The traders of the western countries, i.e. the traders of England, Holland, France, etc. spread their trading relations in many countries. They brought with them the ideas of Christianity. While trading, they also spread Christianity into different countries. Today this religion is adopted by the people of different countries of Asia and Africa.Keeping the above examples in mind, we can conclude that throughout the history human being’s interest in religion went hand in hand.


Q5.Discuss the main sources of income of the state in detail.
Or
What do you know about agriculture of the Central Islamic lands?
ANSWER:
Agricultural was the main occupation of the settled population, since long. It also remained a major occupation in newly acquired territories. The bulk of income of the state was derived from the agricultural land.

Land was owned by the small and big farmers and in some cases by the state. After Islamic conquests, big estates were abandoned and acquired by the state. Later on these states were handed over to Muslim elites. The chief among them were the members of Khalifa’s (Caliph’s) army.

The land conquered by the Arabs, which remained in the hands of the owners were subjected to a tax, called Kharaj, varied from 1/2 to 1/5th of the produce. While the land cultivated by the Muslims were levied 1/10th of tax, known as ushr as land
revenue. When non-Muslims started converting to Islam, the land revenue income fell dramatically. To meet the shortfall, the Caliphs decided to discourage the conversions and later adopted a uniform land revenue policy.

After 10th century, the state authorised its officials to claim salaries from the agricultural territories called Iqtas (The person who held the Iqtas came to be known as Iqtadars). Agricultural prosperity and political stability went hand-in-hand. To ensure agricultural prosperity it took several measures such as canals were constructed, dams were built, the digging of wells, etc. were done. Tax concessions were granted to those people who brought land under cultivation. By the initiatives of peasants and state support the agriculture began to increase. Many new crops such as cotton, oranges, bananas, watermelon, spinach and brinjal began to grow and even exported to Europe.

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CHAPTER 3 : An Empire Across Three Continents NCERT SOLUTION CLASS 11TH HISTORY | EDUGROWN NOTES

Short Answer Type Question:

Q1. Suppose the emperor Trajan had actually managed to conquer India and the Romans had held on to the country for several centuries. In what ways do you think India might be different today?

ANSWER:

If roman emperor Trajan had actually managed to conquer India, India would be different today on following aspects:
(i) Changes in art, architecture, literature and law as was evident even in the case of Indo Greek.
(ii) Exchange of ideas , roman law would have helped growth of Indian law.
(iii) Conversion and Christianization.
(iv) Concept of public baths and entertainment.
(v) Slavery would probably have become more rampant as roman society was known to use slave labour in every sector- agriculture, mining ,handicrafts etc.
(vi) Indian agriculture would have benefitted from roman diversified application of water.
(vii) The hitherto caste and class differences would have been further stratified.
(viii) The pattern of Indian trade ,would probably have under grown vast changes.

Q2. Go through the chapter carefully and pick out some basic features of Roman society and economy which you think make it look quite modern.

ANSWER:

Basic features of the Roman society:
(i) The concept of amusement.
(ii) Prevalence of vast diversity in religious cults.
(iii) The considerable legal rights women enjoyed in owning and managing property.
(iv) Divorce was relatively easy and needed no more than a notice of intent to dissolve the marriage by either husband or wife.

Basic features of the Roman economy:
(i) Preference to live in urban centres.
(ii) Cities as bedrock of the imperial system.
(iii) Disputes between the rich and poor.
(iv) Widespread use of money , such as silver denarius, and gold solidi.
(v) Competition amongst regions for control of the markets in olive oil.


Q3.What does ‘Post – Roman’ mean in the 540’s?
ANSWER:
The general prosperity was especially marked in the East where population was still expanding till the sixth century, despite the impact of the plague which affected the Mediterranean in the 540’s. In the West, by contrast, the empire fragmented politically as Germanic groups from the North took over all the major provinces and established kingdoms that are best described as ‘Post-Roman’.


Q4.Who was Columella?
ANSWER:
Columella, a first-century writer who came from the south of Spain, recommended that landowners should keep a reserve stock of implements and tools, twice as many as they needed to improve the better situation of laborers.


Q5.What had occurred after Prophet Muhammad’s death by 642?
ANSWER:
By 642, barely ten years after Prophet Muhammad’s death, large parts of both the Eastern Roman and Sasanian empires had fallen to the Arabs in a series of confrontations. Though, those conquests, which eventually a century later extended up to Spain, Sind and Central Asia, began in fact with the subjection of the Arab tribes by the emerging Islamic state, first within Arabia and then in the Syrian desert on the fringes of Iraq.


Q6.What is Frankincense?
ANSWER:
Frankincense is the European name for an aromatic resin used in incense and perfumes. It is tapped from Boswellia trees by slashing the bark and allowing the exuded resins to harden. The best quality of it came from the Arabian peninsula.


Q7.Define the territorial position of the Roman empire.
ANSWER:
The continents of Europe and Africa are separated by a sea, called the Mediterranean that stretches all the way from Spain in the west to Syria in the east and it was the heart of Rome’s empire. To the north, the boundaries of the empire were formed by two great rivers, the Rhine and the Danube and to the south, by the huge expanse of desert called the Sahara. This vast stretch of territory was the Roman empire.


Q8.What does the term ‘Republic’ refer to in the history of the Roman empire?
ANSWER:
The Republic was the name for a regime in which the power lay with the Senate, a body dominated by a small group of wealthy families who formed the ‘nobility’. The Republic represented the government of the nobility, exercised through the body called the Senate. The Republic lasted from 509 BCE to 27 BCE, when it was overthrown by Octavian, the adopted son and heir of Julius Caesar.


Q9.How army was the important key institution of imperial rule in the Roman empire?
ANSWER:
The Roman had a paid professional army where soldiers had to put in a minimum of 25 years of service. The existence of paid army was a distinctive feature of the Roman empire. It was an organized body in the empire by the fourth century and had the power to determine the fate of emperors. The soldiers would trouble for better wages and service conditions. These agitations often took the form of revolt.


Q10What was the policy of taxation in the Roman empire?
ANSWER:
The great urban centers of the Mediterranean were the base of the grand system of the Roman empire. It was through the cities that ‘government’ was able to tax the regional countrysides which generated much of the wealth of the empire. The local upper classes actively collaborated with the Roman state in administering their own territories and raising taxes from them.


Q11.How had the Roman survived their lives during famine?
ANSWER:
The famine for many successive years in many provinces had clearly displayed for men of any understanding the effect of malnutrition in generating illness. So the city- dwellers, collected and stored enough grain for the next year immediately after the harvest, carried off all the wheat, barley, beans and lentils, and left to the peasants various kinds of pulses-after taking quite a large proportion of these to the city. After consuming what was left in the course of the winter, the country people had to resort to unhealthy foods in the spring. They ate twigs, shoots of trees and bushes and roots of inedible plants.


Q12.What was the typical form of marriage in the third century of Rome?
ANSWER:
Males married in their late twenties or early thirties; while women were married in the late teens or early twenties. There was an age gap between husband and wife. As a result, there was inequality. Marriages were generally arranged, and there is no doubt that women were often subject to domination by their husbands. Divorce was relatively easy and needed no more than a notice of intent to dissolve the marriage by either husband or wife.


Q13.How was the economic condition in the early Roman empire?
ANSWER:
The empire had a substantial economic infrastructure of harbors, mines, quarries, brickyards, olive oil factories, etc. Wheat, wine and olive-oil were traded and consumed in huge quantities, and they came mainly from Spain, the Gallic provinces, North Africa, Egypt and to a lesser extent, Italy where conditions were suitable for these crops. Liquids like wine and olive oil were transported.


Q14.How had the Roman empire been considered the wealthiest empire in case of fertility of land?
ANSWER:
The Roman empire included many regions that had a reputation of exceptional fertility. Campania in Italy, Sicily, the Fayum in Egypt, Galilee, Byzacium (Tunisia), Southern Gaul (called Gallia Narbonensis) were among the most densely settled or wealthiest parts of the empire, like Strabo and Pliny. The best kinds of wine came from Campania. Sicily and Byzacium exported large quantities of wheat to Rome. Galilee was densely cultivated, and Spanish olive oil came mainly from numerous estates {fundi) along the banks of the river Guadalquivir in the south of Spain.

Long Answer Type Question:


Q1.What do you think about the importance of Latin and Greek languages in the Roman empire?
ANSWER:
“Greek East” and “Latin West” are the terms that are used to distinguish between the two parts of the Greco-Roman world, especially the eastern regions where Greek was the lingua franca, and the western parts where Latin filled this role. During the Roman empire a division had persisted between Latin and Greek speaking areas. This division was encouraged by administrative changes in the empire’s structure between the third and fifth centuries, which led ultimately to the establishment of separate Eastern and Western Roman empires.

Latin and Greek were the dominant languages of the Roman empire. The language of the ancient Romans was Latin, which served as the “language of power”. Latin was omnipresent in the Roman empire as the language of the law courts in the West, and of the military everywhere. A great number of Roman citizens would have lacked Latin, though they were expected to acquire at least token knowledge, and Latin remained a marker of “Romanness”.

Greek had become a shared language around the Eastern Mediterranean and into Asia Minor as a consequence of the conquests of Alexander the Great. The “linguistic frontier” dividing the Latin West and the Greek East passed through the Balkan peninsula. Educated Romans, particularly those of the ruling elite, studied and often achieved a high degree of fluency in Greek, which was useful for diplomatic communications in the East even beyond the borders of the empire. The use of Greek at international level was one condition that enabled the spread of Christianity, as indicated for example by the choice of Greek. With the dissolution of the empire in the West, Greek became the dominant language of the Eastern Roman empire.


Q2.What do you know about Augustus? Explain.
ANSWER:
Augustus was the founder of the Roman empire and its first Emperor, ruling from 27 BCE until his death in 14 CE. He was born Gaius Octavius into an old and wealthy equestrian branch of the Plebeian Octavii family. In 44 BCE he was adopted posthumously by his maternal great-uncle Gaius Julius Caesar following Caesar’s assassination. Together with Mark Antony and Marcus Lepidus, he formed the Second Triumvirate to defeat the assassins of Caesar. Following their victory at Phillipi, the Triumvirate divided the Roman Republic among them and ruled as military dictator.

Lepidus was kept into exile and stripped of his position and Antony committed suicide following his defeat at the Battle of Actium by Augustus in 31 BC.

After the demise of the Second Triumvirate, Augustus restored the outward facade of the free Republic, with governmental power vested in the Roman Senate, the executive magistrates, and the legislative assemblies. In reality, however, he retained his autocratic power over the Republic as a military dictator. By law, Augustus held a collection of powers granted to him for life by the Senate, including supreme military command, and those of tribune and censor. It took several years for Augustus to develop the framework within which a formally republican state could be led under his rule. He rejected monarchial titles, and instead called himself Princeps Civitatis (“First Citizen”). The resulting constitutional framework became known as the Principate, the first phase of the Roman Empire.


Q3.How was the reign of Augustus by 27 BC? Discuss.
ANSWER:
The reign of Augustus initiated an era of relative peace known as the Pax Romana (The Roman Peace). Despite continuous wars or imperial expansion on the empire’s frontiers and one year-long civil war over the imperial succession, the Roman world was largely free from large-scale conflict for more than two centuries. Augustus dramatically enlarged the empire, annexing Egypt, Dalmatia, Pannonia, Noricum, and Raetia, expanded possessions in Africa and Germania, and completed the conquest of Hispania.

Beyond the frontiers, he secured the empire with a buffer region of client states, and made peace with the Parthian empire through diplomacy. He reformed the Roman system of taxation, developed networks of roads with an official courier system, established a standing army, and also the Praetorian Guard, created official police and fire-fighting services for Rome, and rebuilt much of the city during his reign.

Augustus died in 14 AD at the age of 75. He might have died from natural causes. He was succeeded as emperor by his adopted son (also steps on and former son-in-law), Tiberius.


Q4.Explain the system of administration governed by politicians of senatorial rank in Rome.
ANSWER:
In ancient Rome, provinces were generally governed by politicians of senatorial rank, usually former consuls. A later exception was the province of Egypt, incorporated by Augustus. After the death of Cleopatra it was ruled by a governor of equestrian rank only, perhaps as a discouragement to senatorial ambition as Egypt was considered Augustus’s personal property, following the tradition of earlier, hellenistic kings.

The territory of people who were defeated in war might be brought under various forms of treaty, in some cases entailing complete subjection. The formal annexation of a territory created a “province” in the modern sense of an administrative unit that was geographically defined. Republican provinces were administered in one-year term by the consuls and praetors who had held office the previous year.

Rome started expanding beyond Italy during the First Punic War. The first permanent provinces to be annexed were Sicily in 241 BC and Sardinia in 237 BC. Military expansionism kept increasing the number of these administrative provinces, until there were no longer enough qualified individuals to fill the posts.
The terms of provincial governors often had to be extended for multiple years, and on occasion the Senate awarded imperium even to private citizens, most notably Pompey The Great. Prorogation undermined the republican constitutional principle of annual elected magistracies, and the amassing of disproportionate wealth and military power by a few men through their provincial commands was a major factor in the transition from a republic to imperial autocracy.


Q5.What was the policy of education in the Roman empire?
ANSWER:
Education in the Roman empire contributed to the social mobility that characterized the earlier period of Imperial history known as the Principate.

Education was available only for those who could pay for it, since there was no state- supported system of schools with public funding.

A higher rate of literacy is indicated among military personnel than among the general population. Educated women were not unusual, and there was an expectation that upper-class girls would at least attend primary school, probably in the same classes as boys. Only an elite few, regardless of gender, went on to receive secondary education.

Modest number of slaves were educated and they played a key role in promoting education and the culture of literacy. Teachers, scribes, and secretaries were likely to be slaves. The education of slaves was not discouraged, and slave-children might attend classes with the children of their masters. Book stores were already well-established in Rome by the beginning of the Imperial period, and are found also in urban centers of the provinces.

Books were expensive, but by the later period, popular genres of literature indicated reading for pleasure among non-elites. Emperor sponsored libraries that were to some extent public, and a wealthy individual might donate a library for a community, or accumulate impressive private collections to which in-house scholars might be attached. Literacy is thought to have declined in late antiquity during the transition away from the classical institutions and practices that supported it.


Q6.How was the infrastructure during the Roman empire?
ANSWER:
The infrastructure system in ancient Rome was complex. A system of thirteen Roman aqueducts provided the inhabitants of Rome with water of varying quality, the best being reserved for potable supplies. Water was used in public baths and in latrines. Inferior types of latrine systems have been found in many places, such as house steads, a Roman fort on Hadrian’s Wall in Pompeii, Herculaneum, and elsewhere that flushed waste away with a stream of water. Romans used sea sponges on a stick and dipped in vinegar after defecation.

The Romans had a complex system of sewers covered by stones. They recycled public bath waste water by using it as part of the flow that flushed the latrines. Terracotta piping was used in the plumbing that carried waste water from homes. The Romans were the first to seal pipes in concrete to resist the high water pressures developed in siphons and elsewhere. Beginning around 5th century BC, city officials called aediles supervised the sanitary systems. They were responsible for the efficiency of the drainage and sewage systems, the cleansing and paving of the streets, prevention of foul smells, and general oversight of brothels, taverns, baths, and other water supplies. Roman rubbish was often left to collect in alleys between buildings in the poor districts of the city. It sometimes became so thick that stepping stones were needed.

The empire of Rome, especially the city itself, had a huge demand for water. The average Roman consumed over 200 gallons of water per day. Wealthy households had water supplied to their settlements unlike many poor who could not afford this. Even these people enjoyed the luxuries of Rome’s public baths, fountains, and public toilets equipped with sinks.

River Tiber was the city’s main water source before any aqueducts were constructed. As the population of Rome increased, however, the Romans taste for water became too much for the river to supply.
The paved roads were all constructed so they would require minimal amount of repair and provide a very smooth surface for travelling.


Q7.How was economic scenario of the Roman empire?
ANSWER:
The Roman economy was underdeveloped and underachieved, as subsistence agriculture, urban centers that consumed more than they produced in terms of trade and industry, low status artisans, slowly developing technology, and lack of economic rationality.

Some cities were known for particular industries or commercial activities, and the scale of building in urban areas indicates a significant construction industry. Papyri preserve complex accounting methods that suggest elements of economic rationalism and the Empire was highly monetized. Although the means of communication and transport were limited in antiquity, transportation in the 1st and 2nd centuries expanded greatly, and trade routes connected regional economies.

Economic dynamism opened up one of the avenues of social mobility in the Roman empire. Social advancement was thus not dependent solely on birth, patronage, good luck, or even extraordinary ability. Although aristocratic values permeated traditional elite society, a strong tendency toward plutocracy is indicated by the wealth requirements for census rank. Prestige could be obtained through investing one’s wealth in ways that advertised it appropriately: grand country estates or town houses, durable luxury items such as jewels and silver ware, public entertainments, funerary monuments for family members or co-workers, and religious dedication such as altars. Guilds and corporations provided support for individuals to succeed through networking, sharing sound business practices, and willingness to work.

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