Yearly Archives: 2022

Short Answer Type Question:

Q1. What are body waves?

Answer

Body waves are earthquake waves which are generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all directions travelling through the body of the earth.

Q2. Name the direct sources of information about the interior of the earth.

Answer

The direct sources of information about the interior of the earth are:

• Mining: It is the process of extracting valuable minerals from the earth. Surface rock or the rocks we get from mining areas provide most easily available solid earth material.

• Drilling: Scientists are working on two major projects such as “Deep Ocean Drilling Project” and “Integrated Ocean Drilling Project”. This and many deep drilling projects have provided large volume of information through the analysis of materials collected at different depths.
• Volcanic eruption: It forms another source of obtaining direct information. As and when the
molten material (magma) is thrown onto the surface of the earth, during volcanic eruption it becomes available for laboratory analysis.

Q3.Why do earthquake waves develop shadow zone?

Answer

Earthquake wave develop shadow zone because P and S waves follow a curved path inside the earth due to increasing capacity. The shadow zone of S-wave is much larger than that of the P-waves.

Q4. Briefly explain the indirect sources of information of the interior of the earth other than those of seismic activity.

Answer
The indirect sources of information of the interior of the earth are:

• Temperature, Pressure and Density: These increase with the increasing distance from the surface towards the interior in deeper depths.
The rate of change of Temprature, pressure and density are known. Knowing the total thickness of the earth, scientists have estimated the values of temperature, pressure and the density of materials at different depths.

• Meteors: These are not from the interior of the earth but the material and the structure observed in the meteors are similar to that of the earth. This make them another source of information about the interior of the earth.

• Gravitation force: It is greater near the poles and less at the equator. The gravity values also differ according to the mass of material. The uneven distribution of mass of material within the earth influences this value.

• Magnetic Field: Magnetic surveys also provide information about the distribution of magnetic materials in the crustal portion, and thus, provide information about the distribution of materials in this part.

Q5.What are the effects of propagation of earthquake waves on the rock mass through which they travel?

Answer

The earthquake waves cause vibration in the body of the rocks through which they pass. P-waves vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave. This exerts pressure on the material in the direction of the propagation. As a result, it creates density differences in the material leading to stretching and squeezing of the material. Other three waves vibrate perpendicular to the direction of propagation. The direction of vibrations of S-waves is perpendicular to the wave direction in the vertical plane. Hence, they create troughs and crests in the material through which they pass. Surface waves are considered to be the most damaging waves.

Q6.What do you understand by intrusive forms? Briefly describe various intrusive forms.

Answer

The lava that is released during volcanic eruptions on cooling develops into igneous rocks. These forms are called intrusive forms.

Various intrusive forms are:

• Batholiths: A large body of magmatic material that cools in the deeper depth of the crust develops in the form of large domes. These are the cooled portion of magma chambers.

• Lacoliths: These are large dome-shaped intrusive bodies with a level base and connected by a pipe-like conduit from below. It resembles the surface volcanic domes of composite volcano, only these are located at deeper depths.

• Lapolith: As and when the lava moves upwards, a portion of the same may tend to move in a horizontal direction wherever it finds a weak plane. It may get rested in different forms. In case it develops into a saucer shape, concave to the sky body, it is called lapolith.

• Phacolith: A wavy mass of intrusive rocks located near the top of an anticline or the bottom of a syncline.

• Sills: The near horizontal bodies of the intrusive igneous rocks are called sill or sheet, depending on the thickness of the material. The thinner ones are called sheets while the thick horizontal deposits are
called sills.

• Dykes: When the lava makes its way through cracks and the fissures developed in the land, it solidifies almost perpendicular to the ground. It gets cooled in the same position to develop a wall-like structure. Such structures are called dykes.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Q1.Explain different types of earthquakes.
Answer:
The various types of earthquakes are:-

• Tectonic earthquake: The most common ones are the tectonic earthquakes. These are generated due to sliding of rocks along a fault plane.
• Volcanic earthquake: A special class of tectonic earthquake is sometimes recognised as volcanic earthquake. However, these are confined to areas of active volcanoes.
• Collapse earthquake: In the areas of intense mining activity, sometimes the roofs of underground mines collapse causing minor tremors. These are called collapse earthquakes.
• Explosion earthquake: Ground shaking may also occur due to the explosion of chemical or nuclear devices. Such tremors are called explosion earthquakes.
• Reservoir Induced earthquake: The earthquakes that occur in the areas of large reservoirs are referred to as reservoir induced earthquakes. Sometimes earthquakes also occur in mines due to mining processes. Sometimes earthquakes also occur below the oceans on surface of the ocean causing tsunamis.

Q2.What are different sources of information | about the interior of the earth?
Answer:
Some of the direct sources are:-

• Mining: It is a process by which commercially variable valuable mineral resources are extracted from Earth’s surface which includes precious stones, rocks and solid fuels.
• Drilling: Scientists world over are working on two major projects such as “Deep Ocean Drilling projects” and “integrated ocean drilling project”. The deepest drill at kola, in Arctic Ocean, has so far reached a depth of 12 km.
• Volcanic Eruptions: When molten material is thrown onto the surface of the earth during volcanic eruption it becomes available for analysis.
  Some of the indirect sources of information: Analysis of properties of matter indirectly provides information about the interior. Knowing the total thickness of the earth, scientists have estimated the values of temperature, pressure and the density of materials at different depths.
  • Meteors that at times reach the earth: However, it may be noted that the material that becomes available for analysis from meteors, is not from the interior of the earth. The material and the structure observed in the meteors are similar to that of the earth. They are solid bodies developed out of materials same as, or similar to, our planet. Hence, this becomes yet another source of information about the interior of the earth.
  • Gravitation: The gravitation force (g) is not the same at different latitudes on the surface. It is greater near the poles and less at the equator. This is because of the distance from the centre at the equator being greater than that at the poles. The gravity values also differ according to the mass of material.
  • Magnetic surveys: Magnetic surveys also provide information about the distribution of magnetic materials in the crustal portion, and thus, provide information about the distribution of materials in this part.

Q3.Explain different types of earthquake waves.
Answer:

Earthquake waves are basically of two types body waves and surface waves.

• Body waves: These are generated due to the release of energy at the focus. They move in all directions in all directions travelling through the body of the earth. These are less destructive than the surface waves.
• Surface waves: The body waves interact with the surface rocks and generate new set of waves called surface waves. These waves move along the surface. These waves are more destruction. The surface waves are the last to report on seismograph. These waves are more destructive. They cause displacement of rocks, and hence, the collapse of structures occurs.
  There are two types of body waves. They are called P- and S-waves,
• P-waves: They move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface. These are also called ‘primary waves’. The P-waves are similar to sound waves. They travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials.
• S-Waves: S-waves arrive at the surface with some time lag. These are called secondary waves. An important fact about S-waves is that they can travel only through solid materials. This characteristic of the S-waves is quite important. It has helped scientists to understand the structure of t he interior of the earth. Reflection causes was es to  rebound whereas refraction makes waves move in different directions. The variations in the direction of waves are inferred with the help of their record on seismograph.

Q4.Explain how does shadow zone emerge. Use a diagram.
Answer:
Earthquake waves get recorded in seismographs located at far off locations. However, there exist some specific areas where the waves are not reported. Such a zone is called the ‘shadow zone’. The study of different events reveals that for each earthquake, there exists an altogether different shadow zone.

Seismographs located at any distance within 105° from the epicentre, recorded the arrival of both P and S -waves. However, the seismographs located beyond 145° from epicentre, record the arrival of P-waves but not that of S-waves. Thus, a zone between 105° and 145° from epicentre was identified as the shadow zone for both the types of waves. Figures given below show the shadow zones of P- and S-waves.

Q5.Explain the interior structure of the earth.
Answer:
The interior structure f the earth can be classified into three parts:
1. Crust; (ii) Mantle; (iii) Core (i) Crust: It is the outermost solid part of the earth. It is brittle in nature. The thickness of the crust varies under the oceanic and continental areas. Oceanic crust is thinner as compared to the continental crust. The mean thickness of oceanic crust is 5 km w’hereas that of the continental is around 30 km. The continental crust is thicker in the areas of major mountain systems. It is as much as 70 km thick in the Himalayan region. It is made up of heavier rocks. It is having density of 3 g/cm3. This type of rock found in the oceanic crust is basalt. The mean density of material in oceanic crust is 2.7 g/cm3.

2. Mantle: The portion of the interior beyond the crust is called the mantle. The mantle extends from Moho’s discontinuity to a depth of 2,900 km. The upper portion of the mantle is called asthenosphere. The word astheno means weak. It is considered to be extending upto 400 km. It is the main source of magma that finds its way to the surface during volcanic eruptions. It has a density higher than the crust’s (3.4 g/ cm3). The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are called lithosphere. Its thickness ranges from 10-200 km. The lower mantle extends beyond the asthenosphere. It is in solid state.

3. Core: The earthquake wave velocities helped in understanding the existence of the core of the earth. The core- mantle boundary is located at the depth of 2,900 km. The outer core is in liquid state while the inner core is in solid state. The density of material at the mantle core boundary is around 5 g/cm3 and at the centre of the earth at 6,300 km, the density value is around 13g/cm3. The core is made up of very heavy material mostly constituted by nickel and iron. It is sometimes also called the nife layer.

Q6.In how many groups are volcanoes classified on the basis of nature of eruption and the form developed at the surface? Explain.
Answer:
Volcanoes are classified on the basis of nature of eruption and the form developed at the surface into following types:

1. Shield Volcanoes: These volcanoes are mostly made up of basalt, a type of lava that is very fluid when erupted. For this reason, these volcanoes are not steep. They become explosive if somehow water gets into the vent; otherwise, they are characterised by low-explosivity. Barring the basalt flows, the shield volcanoes are the largest of all the volcanoes on the earth. The Hawaiian volcanoes are the most famous examples. The upcoming lava moves in the form of a fountain and throws out the cone at the top of the vent and develops into cinder cone.

2. Composite Volcanoes: These volcanoes are characterised by eruptions of cooler and more viscous lavas than basalt. These volcanoes often result in explosive eruptions. Along with lava, large quantities of pyroclastic material and ashes find their way to the ground. This material accumulates in the vicinity of the vent openings leading to formation of layers, and this makes the mounts appear as composite volcanoes.

3. Calderas: These are the most explosive of the earth’s volcanoes. They are usually so explosive that when they erupt they tend to collapse on themselves rather than building any tall structure. The collapsed depressions are called calderas. Their explosiveness indicates that the magma chamber supplying the lava is not only huge but is also in close vicinity. The hills produced by them are similar to the one made by composite volcanoes.

4. Basalt Flood Provinces: These volcanoes outpour highly fluid lava that flows for long distances. Some parts of the world are cohered by thousands of sq. km of thick basalt lava flows. There can be a series of flows with some flows attaining thickness of more than 50 m. Individual flows may extend for hundreds of km. The Deccan Traps from India, presently covering most of the Maharashtra plateau, are a much larger flood basalt province. It is believed that initially the trap formations covered a much larger area than the present.

5. Mid-Ocean Ridge Volcanoes: These volcanoes occur in the oceanic areas. There is a system of mid-ocean ridges more than 70,000 km long that stretches through all the ocean basins. The central portion of this ridge experiences frequent eruptions.

Short Answer Type Questions :

Q1. Why are the terrestrial planets rocky?

Answer

The terrestrial planets are rocky because:

• The terrestrial planets were formed in the close vicinity of the parent star where it was too warm for gases to condense to solid particles. Jovian planets were formed at quite a distant location.

• The solar wind was most intense nearer the sun; so, it blew off lots of gas and dust from the terrestrial planets. The solar winds were not all that intense to cause similar removal of gases from the Jovian planets.

• The terrestrial planets are smaller and their lower gravity could not hold the escaping gases.

Q2. What is the basic difference in the arguments related to the origin of the earth given by :
(a) Kant and Laplace
(b) Chamberlain and Moulton

Answer

The Nebular Hypothesis, proposed by Immanuel Kant and later revised by Laplace in 1796 considered that the planets were formed out of a cloud of material associated with a youthful sun, which was slowly rotating while, in 1900, Chamberlain and Moulton considered that a wandering star approached the sun. As a result, a cigar-shaped material separated from the solar surface. As the passing star moved away, the material separated from the sun, continued to revolve around the sun and it slowly condensed into planets.

Q3. What is meant by the process of differentiation? 
Answer
The process by which earth forming material got separated into different layers is called differentiation. Starting from the surface to the central parts, we have layers like the crust, mantle, outer core and inner core. From the crust to the core, the density of the material increases.

Q4. What was the nature of the earth surface initially? 
Answer
The planet earth initially was a barren, rocky and hot object with a thin atmosphere of hydrogen and helium. This is far from the present day picture of the earth.

Q5.What were the gases which initially formed the earth’s atmosphere?
Answer

Hydrogen and helium were the gases which intially formed the earth’s atmosphere. The early atmosphere, with hydrogen and helium, is supposed to have been stripped off as a result of the solar winds. During the cooling of the earth, gases and water vapour were released from the interior solid earth. This started the evolution of the present atmosphere. 

Q6. Write an explanatory note on the ‘Big Bang Theory’.
Answer
The ‘Big Bang Theory’ also known as expanding universe hypothesis. Edwin Hubble, in 1920, provided evidence that the universe is expanding. The distance between the galaxies is also found to be increasing and thereby, the universe is considered to be expanding.

Various stages in the development of the universe according to Big Bang Theory are:
• In the beginning, all matter forming the universe existed in one place in the form of a “tiny ball” (singular atom) with an unimaginably small volume, infinite temperature and infinite density.

At the Big Bang the “tiny ball” exploded violently. This led to a huge expansion. It is now generally accepted that the event of big bang took place 13.7 billion years before the present. The expansion
continues even to the present day. As it grew, some energy was converted into matter. There was particularly rapid expansion within fractions of a second after the bang. Thereafter, the expansion has slowed down. Within first three minutes from the Big Bang event, the first atom began to form.

• Within 300,000 years from the Big Bang, temperature dropped to 4,500K (Kelvin) and gave rise to atomic matter. The universe became transparent.

Q7. List the stages in the evolution of the earth and explain each stage in brief.
Answer
Stage I: The earth was mostly in a volatile state during its primordial stage. Due to gradual increasein density the temperature inside has increased. As a result, the material inside started getting separated depending on their densities.

• This allowed heavier materials (like iron) to sink towards the centre of the earth and the lighter ones to move towards the surface. With passage of time it cooled further and solidified and condensed into a smaller size which led to the formation of the crust.

• During the formation of the moon, due to the giant impact, the earth was further heated up. It is through the process of differentiation that the earth forming material got separated into different
layers. Starting from the surface to the central parts, the crust, mantle, outer core and inner core formed.

Stage II: The early atmosphere, with hydrogen and helium, is supposed to have been stripped off as a result of the solar winds. During the cooling of the earth, gases and water vapour were released from the interior solid earth which started the evolution of the present atmosphere.

• The early atmosphere largely contained water vapour, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, methane, ammonia and very little of free oxygen. The process through which the gases were outpoured from the interior is called degassing.

• As the earth cooled, the water vapour released started getting condensed. The carbon dioxide in the atmosphere got dissolved in rainwater and the temperature further decreased causing more condensation and more rains. The rainwater falling onto the surface got collected in the depressions to give rise to oceans.
• Life was confined to the oceans for a long time. Oceans began to have the contribution of oxygen through the process of photosynthesis.

Stage III: The last phase in the evolution of the earth relates to the origin and evolution of life.
• The origin of life as a kind of chemical reaction, which first generated complex organic molecules and assembled them. This assemblage was such that they could duplicate themselves converting inanimate matter into living substance.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Q1.Explain how did life evolve on the earth?
Answer:
The origin of life as a kind of chemical reaction, which first generated complex organic molecules and assembled them. This assemblage was such that they could duplicate themselves converting inanimate matter into living substance. The record of life that existed on this • planet in different periods is found in rocks in the form of fossils. The microscopic structures closely related to the present form of the blue algae have been found in geological formations m uch older than some 3,000 million years. It can be assumed that life began to evolve sometime 3,800 million years ago.

Q2.Explain different phases of evolution of planets.
Answer:
Evolution of planets can be understood in three stages:

1. Formation of Disc; The stars are localised lumps of gas within a nebula. The gravitational force within the lumps leads to the formation of a core to the gas cloud and a huge rotating disc of gas and dust develops around the gas core.

2. Formation of Planetesimals: In the next stage, the gas cloud starts and getting condensed and the matter around the core develops into small rounded objects. These small rounded objects by the process of collision develop into what is called planetesimals. Larger bodies start forming by collision and gravitational attraction causes the materials to stick together. Planetesimals are a large number of smaller bodies.

3. Formation of Planets: In the final stage, these large number of small planetesimals accrete to form fewer large bodies in the form of planets.

Q3.Explain the earliest theory associated with the origin of the earth.
Answer:
A large number of hypotheses were put forth by different philosophers and scientists regarding the origin of the earth. One of the earlier and popular arguments was by German philosopher Immanuel Kant. Mathematician Laplace revised it in 1796. It is known as Nebular Hypothesis. According to this theory there was a hot and rotating gas cloud called Nebula in the space. From Nebula there was a gradual loss of heat due to its rotation which resulted in cooling of its outer surface. This gradual cooling caused contraction in size of Nebula, but its speed increased due to angular momentum. The outer layer was separated from the remaining part of Nebula.

The centre of Nebula became ‘Sun’ and the planets were formed of the smaller units. The lighter material gases and the heavier dust particle gave the fact of inner and outer planets. In 1950, Otto Schmidt in Russia and Carl Weizasear in Germany somewhat revised the ‘nebular hypothesis’, though differing in details. They considered that the sun was surrounded by solar nebula containing mostly the hydrogen and helium along with what may be termed as dust. The friction and collision of particles led to formation of a disk-shaped cloud and the planets were formed through the process of accretion.

Q4.Explain the modern theory associated with evolution of the earth.
Answer:
In modern theory the evolution of the earth is associated with Big Bang Theory. It was put forth by Edwin Hubble in 1920. In the beginning, all matter forming the universe existed in one place in the form of a ‘tiny ball” \yith an unimaginably- small volume infinite temperature and infinite density. At the Big Bang “tiny ball” exploded violently. This led to a huge” expansion. it is now generally? accepted that the event of big. bang took place 13.7 billion years before the present. The expansion continues even to the present day. As it grew, some energy’ was converted into matter. There was particularly rapid expansion within fractions of a second’ after the bang. Thereafter, the expansion has slowed down. Within first Big Bang event, the first atom began to form.

Within 300,000 years from the Big Bang, temperature dropped to 4,500k and gave rise to atomic matter. The universe became transparent. The expansion of universe means increase in space between the galaxies. An alternative to this was Hoyle’s concept of steady state. It considered the universe to be roughly the same at any point of time. However, with greater evidence becoming available about the expanding universe, scientific community at present favours argument of expanding universe.

Q5.Explain the collision and accretion I hypothesis associated with the evolution of the earth.
Answer:
Collision hypothesis and accretion hypothesis are described below in short.
1.  Collision Hypothesis: It was given by Sir James and Harold Jeffrey.

• According to this theory, a large nebula ’wandering in the space came very close to smaller nebula (Sun) and its huge upsurge of matter on the surface of smaller nebula. The matter was detected from the smaller nebula and on cooling condensed into planets.

2. Accretion Hypothesis: It was given by? Schmidt and Carl Weizascar.

• According to them, solar system started out as a cloud of gas and dust drifting in a space called nebula. This gaseous cloud
  exploded violently to form supernova. The exploitation left the vast spinning cloud and gases and thus to collapse under its own gravity and develop as denser core.
• The denser core became larger and hotter and began to burge. Later it developed into protostar which finally evolved as ‘infant Sun.
•  Away from its central surface, particles of dust began to clump together and converted into first smaller fragments of rocks and then becoming larger bodies which were called planetesimals which collided with one another to form rocky inner planets like Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars and the remaining were outer planets.

Short Answer Type Querstion:

Q1. What important cultural features do you observe while going to school? Are they similar or dissimilar? Should they be included in the study of geography or not? If yes, why?

Answer
While going to school, we see some cultural features like shops, schools, clubs, offices, temples, mosques, houses. These features are dissimilar.Yes, they should be included in the study of geography as they are an essential part of human geography. 

Q2.You have seen a tennis ball, a cricket ball, an orange and a pumpkin. Which one amongst these resembles the shape of the earth? Why have you chosen this particular item to describe the shape of the earth?
Answer
An orange resembles the shape of the earth because all others are almost sphere while pumpkin is long in shape.Earth is not a perfect sphere, it rotates on its axis. It is of geoid shape, flatter toward poles like an orange.

Q3.Do you celebrate Van Mahotsava in your school? Why do we plant so many trees? How do the trees maintain ecological balance?

Answer
Yes, we do celebrate Van Mahotsava in our school.We plant so many trees because trees provide us food, oxygen, clean air, economical products such as rubber and paper. help in making medicine etc.By taking in carbon dioxide and giving oxygen, trees maintain ecological balance.

Q4. You have seen elephants, deer, earthworms, trees and grasses. Where do they live or grow? What is the name given to this sphere? Can you describe some of the important features of this sphere?

Answer
The sphere where elephants, deer, earthworms, trees and grasses live and grow is known as biosphere. Important features of this sphere are:→ The biosphere is the layer of the planet Earth where life exists.→ Since life exists on the ground, in the air, and in the water, thus, biosphere overlaps all other three spheres→ Plants and animals are biotic elements of biosphere while soil, water, air are abiotic elements.

Q5. How much time do you take to reach your school from your house? Had the school been located across the road from your house, how much time would you have taken to reach school? What is the effect of the distance between your residence and the school on the time taken in commuting? Can you convert time into space and vice versa?
Answer
It takes me around half an hour to reach my school. Had my school been located across the road from my house, I could reach there within four minutes. Due to the long distance between my residence and school, a lot of time gets wasted in commuting which affects my studies hour as well as playing hours negatively.
Time can be converted into space, vice versa is also true, i.e., we can convert space into time.

Q6. You observe every day in your surroundings that there is variation in natural as well as cultural phenomena. All the trees are not of the same variety. All the birds and animals you see, are different. All these different elements are found on the earth. Can you now argue that geography is the study of “areal differentiation”?
Answer
There is vast variation in natural as well as cultural phenomena. The study of ‘areal differentiation’ is part of geography, however, geography is not only limited to ‘areal differentiation’. Geography as a discipline is related to space and takes note of spatial characteristics and attributes. It studies the patterns of distribution, location and concentration of phenomena over space and interprets them providing explanations for these patterns. It takes note of the associations and inter-relationships between the phenomena over space and interprets them providing explanations for these patterns. It also takes note of the associations and inter-relationships between the phenomena resulting from the dynamic interaction between human beings and their physical environment.

Geography helps in understanding the reality in totality in its spatial perspective. Geography, thus, not only takes note of the differences in the phenomena from place to place but integrates them holistically which may be different at other places.

Q7.You have already studied geography, history, civics and economics as parts of social studies. Attempt an integration of these disciplines highlighting their interface.
Answer
• Geography and History: Geography influences historical events. Spatial distance itself has been a very potent factor to alter the course of history of the world. Spatial depth provided defence to many countries, particularly in the last century. In traditional warfare, countries with large size in area, gain time at the cost of space. Every geographical phenomenon undergoes change through time and can be explained temporally. The changes in landforms, climate, vegetation, economic activities occupations and cultural developments have followed a definite historical course.

• Geography and Civics: The core concern of political science is territory, people and sovereignty while political geography is also interested in the study of the state as a spatial unit as well as people and their political behaviour.

• Geography and Economics: Economics deals with basic attributes of the economy such as production, distribution, exchange and consumption. Each of these attributes also has spatial aspects and here comes the role of economic geography to study the spatial aspects of production, distribution, exchange and consumption.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Q1.What is the importance of Physical Geography?
Answer:
Physical geography includes study of Lithosphere, Atmosphere, Hydrosphere and Biosphere. Each element is very important for human beings. Landforms provide base for agriculture, industries, transport and communication, and settlements. Mountains provide water to rivers, forests-center for tourist spots. Climate influences on the cropping pattern, livestock, food and clothes of the people. Climate and precipitation influence the type of forests. Oceans provide food, water transport, and influence the climate; they are the source of hydrological cycle.

Each element of physical environment is important for human beings. Landforms provide the base on which human activities are located. The plains are utilised for agriculture. Plateaus provide forests and minerals. Mountains provide pastures, forests, tourist spots and are sources of rivers providing water to lowlands. Climate influences our house types, clothing and food habits.

The study of physical geography is emerging as a discipline of evaluating and managing natural resources. In order to achieve this objective, it is essential to understand the intricate relationship between physical environment and human beings. Physical environment provides resources, and human beings utilise these resources and ensure their economic and cultural development. Accelerated pace of resource utilisation with the help of modern technology has created ecological imbalance in the world. Therefore, abetter understanding of physical environment is essential in study of Geography.

Q2.Physical and human factors both are dynamic not static. Explain.
Answer:
The geographical phenomena, both the physical and human, are not static but highly dynamic. They change over times as a result of the interactive processes between ever changing earth and untiring and ever-active human beings.

1. Primitive human societies were directly dependent on their immediate environment. Human beings have come to terms with nature through adaptation and modification.

2. The present society has passed the stage of primitive .societies, which were directly dependent on their immediate physical environment for sustenance. Present societies have modified their natural environment by inventing and using technology and thus, have expanded the horizon of their operation by appropriate utilisation of the resources provided by nature.

3. With the gradual development of technology, human beings were able to loosen the shackles of their physical environment. Technology helped in reducing the harshness of labour, increased labour efficiency and provided leisure to human beings to attend to the higher needs of life. It also increased the scale of production and the mobility of labour. The interaction between the physical environment and human beings has put their imprints everywhere and created new possibilities in collaboration with nature. Thus, we find humanised nature and naturalised human beings and geography studies this interactive relationship.

4. The space got organised with the help of the means of transportation and communication network. The links (routes) and nodes (settlements of all types and hierarchies) integrated the space and gradually, it got organised.

5. It takes note of the associations and interrelationships between the phenomena over space and interprets them providing explanations for these patterns. It also takes note of the associations and inter-relationships between the phenomena resulting from the dynamic interaction between human beings and their physical environment.

Q3.Explain different branches of Physical geography.
Answer:
It has four sub-branches which are as fallows:

• Geomorphology: It is concerned with the study of landforms, their evolution and related processes.
• Climatology: It is concerned with the study of structure of atmosphere and elements of weather and climates and climatic types and regions.
• Hydrology: It studies the realm of water over the surface of the earth including oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies and its effect on different life forms including human life and their activities.
• Soil Geography: It is concerned with the study of the processes of soil formation, soil types, their fertility status, distribution and use.

Q4.What matters are studied under Human Geography?
Answer:
Following facts are studied under Human Geography:

• Social/Cultural Geography: It is concerned with the study of society and its spatial dynamics as well as the cultural elements contributed by the society.
• Population Geography: It studies population growth, distribution, density, sex ratio, migration and occupational structure, etc.
• Settlement Geography: It studies the characteristics of rural and urban settlements.
• Economic Geography: It studies economic activities of the’people including agriculture, industry, tourism, trade, and transport, infrastructure and services, etc.
• Historical Geography: It studies the historical processes through which the space gets organised. In other words, it studies how history has influenced the geography of a region.
• Political Geography: It studies the impact of political events and studies boundaries, space relations between neighbouring political units, delimitation of constituencies, election scenario and develops theoretical framework to understand the political behaviour of the population.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-22 CHEMICAL COORDINATION AND INTEGRATION NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 BIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON CHEMICAL COORDINATION AND INTEGRATION

Question 1.
What hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland? What function do they serve? Where are these hormones actually produced? How these hormones are transported to the region from which they are released?
Answer:
1. Vasopressin: Released from the axon terminals of hypothalamic neurons into the blood in the posterior lobe of the pituitary. It reduces the volume of urine by increasing the reabsorption of water from the urine, collecting tubules, and collection ducts in the kidney, hence called Antidiuretic hormone.

2. Oxytocin: It is released from the axon terminals of hypothalamic neurons into the blood in the posterior lobe of the pituitary due to the distension of the uterus by the full-term fetus.

It helps in childbirth. It is also known as milk ejection hormone.

Question 2.
What are the examples of antagonistic hormones associated with basal metabolism? How does each pair function?
Answer:
Para hormone (PTH) and thyroid hormone calcitonin act agonistically to regulate the calcium phosphorous balance in the blood. The release of parathormone increases the blood calcium to normal by drawing calcium from the bones into the plasma, by increasing calcium absorption in the digestive tract, and by reducing loss of calcium in the urine. It lowers calcium-phosphorus balance and is necessary for the growth of bones and teeth.

Calcium is vital for blood clotting, muscle tone, and for normal nervous activity. It is also needed for the activities of many enzymes.

Question 3.
What two hormones are produced by the adrenal medulla? What non-hormonal function do they serve?
Answer:
The hormone Adrenaline and Nor-adrenaline are secreted by the adrenal medulla.
Function: These hormones act on organs and tissues supplied by sympathetic fibers and produce effects like those of sympathetic stimulation.

Question 4.
From what chemical compounds are ail steroid hormones derived? Mention at least two examples of steroidal hormones.
Answer:
The adrenal cortex is the outer layer of the adrenal gland. It secretes steroidal hormones. Examples, Glucocorticoids, and mineralocorticoids.

The adrenal cortex produces steroid hormones through the modification of cholesterol.

Question 5.
In general, how the steroid hormones affect changes in their target cells?
Answer:
Steroid hormones have minor differences, the various hormones have strikingly different functions. They bind to different receptors in the target cell and affect sets of chemical reactions.

Cortical steroids can be grouped into three functional categories.

1. Mineralocorticoids: They regulate saltwater balance through their effect on kidney and blood pressure.
2. Glucocorticoids: They regulate carbohydrate, protein, and lipid metabolism.
3. Ganado corticoids: It is a sex hormone and helps chemically and functionally to the sex.

Question 6.
What hormones are produced when the body’s blood glucose levels drop below normal? How do these hormones act to return the level to normal? What hormone is produced when the body’s blood glucose levels become elevated? How does this hormone act to return the level to normal?
Answer:
B-cells secrete insulin.
T-cells secrete somatostatin.

These two hormones regulate the level of glucose in the blood:

1. When the blood glucose level becomes excessive, insulin acts on the three target tissues: liver, muscle, and adipose cells. Insulin causes the liver to take up glucose and convert it into glycogen and fat. It facilitates the liver to take up glucose in the muscle and adipose cells causing the levels of the glucose in the blood lowered.
2. Somatostatin: acts as a paracrine, to inhibit the secretion of glycogen and insulin, decreases secretion, mortality, and absorption in the digestive tract.

Question 7.
What is diabetes? What is the ultimate hormonal deficiency in these diseases? How does this affect an individual’s ability to use glucose? What are some possible treatments for adult-onset diabetes?
Answer:
Diabetes mellitus is a group of disorders that lead to an increase in the level of glucose in the blood. The deficiency of insulin hormone causes diabetes mellitus.

In this disease, the patient cannot use or store glucose. Thus, glucose accumulates in the blood from where it is excreted by kidneys in die urine.

Glucose increases the osmotic pressure of urine, causing loss of water from the body in urine. This produces excessive thirst. Degradation of fats increases, producing ketone bodies such as acetoacetate and acetone. Blood cholesterol rises, injuries may change into gangrenes. Healing power is ^ impaired leading to the damage of tissues.

A diabetic person has blurred vision and is weak, tired, irritable, nauseated, and underweight. In extreme cases, the patient may pass into a coma and die.

Treatment: Administration of insulin gives relief by lowering blood glucose levels.
Diabetes caused by insufficient insulin production is called Insulin-dependent diabetes.
Diabetes due to a person’s ability to use insulin is termed as insulin ) independent diabetes. It is more common than insulin-dependent diabetes.
Diabetes mellitus may also be caused by the failure of insulin to move glucose from the blood into the cells for storage or consumption.

This is due to the defective insulin receptors or cell surfaces, starving the cells of glucose, or to an abnormality in pancreatic protein amylin, which regulates insulin’s activity.

Question 8.
What are thyroids? Describe the disorders of thyroids hormones.
Answer:
The thyroid gland is situated in the neck close to the trachea in human beings. It consists of two elongated oval lobes joined together by a narrow band called ISTHMUS. It highly vascular organ and contains many- spherical or oval sac-like follicles.

Cells of the follicle secrete jelly-like semi-fluid called Colloid of Thyroid stored in the lumen of the follicle. This contains iodinated forms of an amino acid called THYRONINE. When required, two thyroid hormones, THYROXINE, and TRIIODOTHYRONINE are released from the colloid to the blood.

(a) and (b) Thyroid gland

Disorders:

1. Failure of the thyroid from infancy or childhood causes a disease called cretinism. In it, there is slow body growth and mental development. There is also a low metabolic rate.
2. The deficiency of thyroid hormones in adults produces Myxedema. The patient shows a puffy appearance and lacks intelligence, lateness, and initiative. There is also a low metabolic rate.
3. The deficiency of iodine produces enlargement of thyroids causing Iodine Deficiency to Goitre.
4. Some thyroid enlargement is accompanied by a bulging of the eyeball.
   The disease is called Grave’s Disease or Exophthalami Goitre. The excessive amount of thyroid is secreted. ,

Question 9.
Give an account of the primary male sex organ in man and mention briefly the functions of the hormone testosterone.
Answer:
The testis is the primary sex organ. There are pair of tests. Each testis is covered by a thick connective tissue sheath, Tunica Albuginea. Both testes normally remain suspended in a pouch called Scrotum outside the abdominal cavity. Each testis consists of many small and highly convoluted tubules, called seminiferous tubules, constituting its spermatogenic tissue.

Cells lining the tubules give rise to spermatozoa, which are released into the lumen of the tubule. These are present groups of polyhedral cells.

Interstitial cells of Leydig in the connective tissue around the seminiferous tubules. This constitutes the endocrine tissue of the testis. These cells secrete Testosterone into the blood. Somniferous tubules unite to form a large number of straight tubules, which open into irregular cavities in the posterior part of the testis. The vasa efferentia arise from these cavities and conduct spermatozoa out from the testis.

Functions of Testosterone:

1. It stimulates the growth and development of male secondary sex organs (prostate, seminal vesicles, and penis).
2. It stimulates and maintains the normal function of secondary sex organs in reproduction.
3. It also stimulates and maintains the development of external male characters such as beards, mustaches, and low-pitch male voices in males and combs and wattles in cock.
4. It also stimulates the formation of sperms in the testes.
5. It promotes the growth of many body tissues including bones and muscles.

T.S. of testis of an adult man

Question 10.
Distinguish between
(a) Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone.
Answer:
Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone:

Stimulating hormone (FSH)	Luteinizing hormone
(i) It stimulates the testes in the male to produce sperms.	(i) It stimulates the testes to secrete the male sex hormone.
(ii) It stimulates the ovaries in the female to produce ova.	(ii) It stimulates the ovaries to secrete the female sex hormone- progesterone.

(b) Somatostatin and somatomedin
Answer:
Somatostatin and somatomedin:

Somatostatin	Somatomedin
(i) It is secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary.	(i) It is secreted by the hypothalamus.
(ii) It stimulates body growth	(ii) It inhibits the secretion of the growth hormone from the anterior pituitary.

(c) Vasopressin and Oxytocin
Answer:
Vasopressin and Oxytocin:

Vasopressin	Oxytocin
(i) Vasopressin is released from the axon terminal of hypothalamic neurons into the blood in the posterior lobe of the pituitary due to the rise in blood osmotic pressure caused by the loss of water from the body.	(i) Oxytocin is released from the axon terminals of hypothalamic neurons into the blood in the posterior lobe of the pituitary due to distension of the uterus by the full-term fetus or due to the sucking of the breast by an infant.
(ii) It reduces the volume of urine by increasing the reabsorption of water from the urine in the distal convoluted tubules, collecting tubules, and collection ducts in the kidney, hence called Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH).	(ii) It helps in childbirth by causing uterine contractions at the end of pregnancy, hence called birth hormones.
(iii) It increases arterial blood pressure by causing constriction or narrowing of arterioles.	(iii) It causes the contractions of the mammary gland and muscles that help in the flow of stored milk from the mammary gland to the mouth of the sucking infant, hence called milk ejection hormone.

(d) Estrogen and progesterone
Answer:
Estrogens and Progesterone:

Estrogens	Progesterone
(i) These are secreted by the cells of maturing Grrafian follicle.	(i) Corpus luteum and placenta secrete progesterone.
(ii) Estrogen stimulates growth, maturation, and functions of female secondary sex organs at puberty.	(ii) Progesterone brings about most of the pregnancy changes such as uterine growth, attach¬ment of the embryo to the uterine wall, placenta formation.
(iii) These also develop and maintain external female sex characters like the high pitch female voice and the female pattern of body hair distribution.	(iii) No such action.

(e) Glucocorticoids and mineralcorticoids
Answer:
Glucocorticoids and Mineralocorticoids:

Glucocorticoids	Mineralocorticoids
(i) Glucocorticoids such as cortisols regulate the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins.	(i) Mineralocorticoids such as Aldosterones regulate the metabolism of sodium and potassium.
(ii) These are secreted from the middle cellular layer (ZONA Fasciculate) of the adrenal cortex

(f) Diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus
Answer:
Diabetes mellitus and Diabetes insipidus:

Diabetes mellitus	Diabetes insipidus
(i) It is due to failure of insulin secretion.	(i) It is due to the failure of secretion of vasopressin.
(ii) The blood sugar is abnormally high and the glucose appears in the urine.	(ii) The blood sugar is normal and no glucose appears in the urine.
(iii) There are high blood cholesterol and ketone body formation.	(iii) There is no such phenomenon.

(g) Exophthalamia goiter and iodine deficiency goiter
Answer:
Exophthalmic Goitre and Iodine Deficiency goiter:

Exophthalmic Goitre	Iodine Deficiency goiter
(i) It is accompanied by a bulging of eyeballs, i.e., exophthalmos.	(i) It is accompanied by cretinism in children and myxedema in adults.
(ii) The thyroid is overactive and secretes an excessive amount of thyroid hormones.	(ii) The dietary deficiency of iodine causes the deficiency of thyroid hormones.

(h) Cretinism and dwarfism.
Answer:
Cretinism and dwarfism:

Cretinism	Dwarfism
(i) It is due to over secretion of so gonadotropin from childhood.	(i) It is due to the failure of secretion of somatotropin from an early age.
(ii) There is an abnormal elongation of all long bones.	(ii) There is stoppage of growth of long bones and of the body prematurely making the patient dwarf

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-21 NEURAL CONTROL AND CORDINATION NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 BIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON NEURAL CONTROL AND CORDINATION

Question 1:

Briefly describe the structure of the following:

1. Brain (b) Eye (c) Ear

ANSWER:

(A) Brain: Brain is the main coordinating centre of the body. It is a part of nervous system that controls and monitors every organ of the body. It is well protected by cranial meninges that are made up of an outer layer called dura mater, a thin middle layer called arachnoid, and an inner layer called pia mater.

It is divided into three regions − forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain.

Forebrain: It is the main thinking part of the brain. It consists of cerebrum, thalamus, and hypothalamus.

(a) Cerebrum:

Cerebrum is the largest part of the brain and constitutes about four-fifth of its weight. Cerebrum is divided into two cerebral hemispheres by a deep longitudinal cerebral fissure. These hemispheres are joined by a tract of nerve fibre known as corpus callosum. The cerebral hemispheres are covered by a layer of cells known as cerebral cortex or grey matter. Cerebrum has sensory regions known as association areas that receive sensory impulses from various receptors as well as from motor regions that control the movement of various muscles. The innermost part of cerebrum gives an opaque white appearance to the layer and is known as the white matter.

(b) Thalamus:

Thalamus is the main centre of coordination for sensory and motor signalling. It is wrapped by cerebrum.

(c) Hypothalamus:

It lies at the base of thalamus and contains a number of centres that regulate body temperature and the urge for eating and drinking. Some regions of cerebrum, along with hypothalamus, are involved in the regulation of sexual behaviour and expression of emotional reactions such as excitement, pleasure, fear, etc.

Midbrain:

It is located between the thalamus region of the forebrain and pons region of hindbrain. The dorsal surface of midbrain consists of superior and inferior corpora bigemina and four round lobes called corpora quadrigemina. A canal known as cerebral aqueduct passes through the midbrain. Midbrain is concerned with the sense of sight and hearing.

Hindbrain:

It consists of three regions − pons, cerebellum, and medulla oblongata.

(a) Pons is a band of nerve fibre that lies between medulla oblongata and midbrain. It connects the lateral parts of cerebellar hemisphere together.

(b) Cerebellum is a large and well developed part of hindbrain. It is located below the posterior sides of cerebral hemispheres and above medulla oblongata. It is responsible for maintaining posture and equilibrium of the body.

(c) Medulla oblongata is the posterior and simplest part of the brain. It is located beneath the cerebellum. Its lower end extends in the form of spinal cord and leaves the skull through foramen magnum.

(B) Eye: Eyes are spherical structures that consist of three layers.

(a) The outer layer is composed of sclera and cornea.

(i) Sclera is an opaque tissue that is usually known as white of the eye. It is composed of a dense connective tissue.

(ii) Cornea is a transparent anterior portion of eye that lacks blood vessels and is nourished by lymph from the nearby area. It is slightly bulged forward and helps in focusing light rays with the help of lens.

(b) The middle layer of eye is vascular in nature and contains choroid, ciliary body, and iris.

(i) Choroid lies next to the sclera and contains numerous blood vessels that provide nutrients and oxygen to the retina and other tissues.

(ii) Ciliary body: The choroid layer is thin over posterior region and gets thickened in the anterior portion to form ciliary body. It contains blood vessels, ciliary muscles, and ciliary processes.

(iii) Iris: At the junction of sclera and cornea, the ciliary body continues forward to form thin coloured partition called iris. It is the visible coloured portion of eye.

The eye contains a transparent, biconvex, and elastic structure just behind the iris. It is known as lens. The lens is held in position by suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary body. The lens divides the eye ball into two chambers – an anterior aqueous and posterior vitreous chamber.

(c) The innermost nervous coat of eye contains retina. Retina is the innermost layer. It contains three layers of cells – inner ganglion cells, middle bipolar cells, and outermost photoreceptor cells. The receptor cells present in the retina are of two types – rod cells and cone cells.

(a) Rod cells –The rods contain the rhodopsin pigment (visual purple) that is highly sensitive to dim light. It is responsible for twilight vision.

(b) Cone cells –The cones contain the iodopsin pigment (visual violet) and are highly sensitive to high intensity light. They are responsible for daylight and colour visions.

The innermost ganglionic cells give rise to optic nerve fibre that forms optic nerve in each eye and is connected with the brain.

(C) Ear: Ear is the sense organ for hearing and equilibrium. It consists of three portions – external ear, middle ear, and internal ear.

1. External ear:

It consists of pinna, external auditory meatus, and a tympanic membrane.

(a) Pinna is a sensitive structure that collects and directs the vibrations into the ear to produce sound.

(b) External auditory meatus is a tubular passage supported by cartilage in external ear.

(c) Tympanic membrane is a thin membrane that lies close to the auditory canal. It separates the middle ear from external ear.

2. Middle ear:

It is an air-filled tympanic cavity that is connected with pharynx through eustachian tube. Eustachian tube helps to equalize air pressure in both sides of tympanic membrane. The middle ear contains a flexible chain of three middle bones called ear ossicles. The three ear ossicles are malleus, incus, and stapes that are attached to each other.

3. Internal ear:

It is also known as labyrinth. Labyrinth is divided into bony labyrinth and a membranous labyrinth. Bony labyrinth is filled with perilymph while membranous labyrinth is filled with endolymph. Membranous labyrinth is divided into 2 parts.

(a) Vestibular apparatus

Vestibular apparatus is a central sac-like part that is divided into utriculus and sacculus. A special group of sensory cells called macula are present in sacculus and utriculus.

Vestibular apparatus also contains three semi-circular canals. The lower end of each semi-circular canal contains a projecting ridge called crista ampularis. Each ampulla has a group of sensory cells called crista. Crista and macula are responsible for maintaining the balance of body and posture.

(b) Cochlea:

Cochlea is a long and coiled outgrowth of sacculus. It is the main hearing organ. Cochlea consists of three membranes. The organ of corti, a hearing organ, is located on the basilar membrane that has hair cells.

Question 2:

Compare the following:

(a) Central neural system (CNS) and Peripheral neural system (PNS)

(b) Resting potential and action potential

(c) Choroid and retina

ANSWER:

(a) Central neural system (CNS) and Peripheral neural system (PNS)

	Central neural system		Peripheral neural system
1.	It is the main coordinating centre of the body.	1.	It is not the main coordinating centre of the body.
2.	It includes brain and spinal cord.	2.	It includes cranial and spinal nerves that connect central nervous system to different parts of the body.

(b) Resting potential and action potential

	Resting potential		Action potential
1.	It is the potential difference across the nerve fibre when there is no conduction of nerve impulse.	1.	It is the potential difference across nerve fibre when there is conduction of nerve impulse.
2.	The membrane is more permeable to K+ ions than to Na+ ions.	2.	The membrane is more permeable to Na+ ions than to K+ ions.

(c) Choroid and retina

	Choroid		Retina
1.	Choroid is the middle vascular layer of eye.	1.	Retina is the innermost nervous coat of eye.
2.	It contains numerous blood vessels that provide nutrients and oxygen to retina and other tissues.	2.	It contains photoreceptor cells, rods and cones that are associated with twilight and colour vision respectively.

Question 3:

Explain the following processes:

(a) Polarisation of the membrane of a nerve fibre

(b) Depolarisation of the membrane of a nerve fibre

(c) Conduction of a nerve impulse along a nerve fibre

(d) Transmission of a nerve impulse across a chemical synapse

ANSWER:

(a) Polarisation of the membrane of a nerve fibre

During resting condition, the concentration of K⁺ ions is more inside the axoplasm while the concentration of Na⁺ ions is more outside the axoplasm. As a result, the potassium ions move faster from inside to outside as compared to sodium ions. Therefore, the membrane becomes positively charged outside and negatively charged inside. This is known as polarization of membrane or polarized nerve.

(b) Depolarisation of the membrane of a nerve fibre

When an electrical stimulus is given to a nerve fibre, an action potential is generated. The membrane becomes permeable to sodium ions than to potassium ions. This results into positive charge inside and negative charge outside the nerve fibre. Hence, the membrane is said to be depolarized.

(c) Conduction of a nerve impulse along a nerve fibre

There are two types of nerve fibres – myelinated and non-myelinated. In myelinated nerve fibre, the action potential is conducted from node to node in jumping manner. This is because the myelinated nerve fibre is coated with myelin sheath. The myelin sheath is impermeable to ions. As a result, the ionic exchange and depolarisation of nerve fibre is not possible along the whole length of nerve fibre. It takes place only at some point, known as nodes of Ranvier, whereas in non-myelinated nerve fibre, the ionic exchange and depolarization of nerve fibre takes place along the whole length of the nerve fibre. Because of this ionic exchange, the depolarized area becomes repolarised and the next polarized area becomes depolarized.

(d) Transmission of a nerve impulse across a chemical synapse

Synapse is a small gap that occurs between the last portion of the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of next neuron. When an impulse reaches at the end plate of axon, vesicles consisting of chemical substance or neurotransmitter, such as acetylcholine, fuse with the plasma membrane. This chemical moves across the cleft and attaches to chemo-receptors present on the membrane of the dendrite of next neuron. This binding of chemical with chemo-receptors leads to the depolarization of membrane and generates a nerve impulse across nerve fibre.

The chemical, acetylcholine, is inactivated by enzyme acetylcholinestrase. The enzyme is present in the post synaptic membrane of the dendrite.

It hydrolyses acetylcholine and this allows the membrane to repolarise.

Question 4:

Draw labelled diagrams of the following:

(a) Neuron (b) Brain (c) Eye (d) Ear

ANSWER:

(a) Neuron

(b) Brain

(c) Eye

(d) Ear

Question 5:

Write short notes on the following:

(a) Neural coordination (b) Forebrain (c) Midbrain

(d) Hindbrain (e) Retina (f) Ear ossicles

(g) Cochlea (h) Organ of Corti (i) Synapse

ANSWER:

(a) Neural coordination

The neural system provides rapid coordination among the organs of the body. This coordination is in the form of electric impulses and is quick and short lived. All the physiological processes in the body are closed linked and dependent upon each other. For example, during exercise, our body requires more oxygen and food. Hence, the breathing rate increases automatically and the heart beats faster. This leads to a faster supply of oxygenated blood to the muscles. Moreover, the cellular functions require regulation continuously. These functions are carried out by the hormones. Hence, the neural system along with the endocrine system control and coordinate the physiological processes.

(b) Forebrain

It is the main thinking part of the brain. It consists of cerebrum, thalamus, and hypothalamus.

(i) Cerebrum:

Cerebrum is the largest part of the brain and constitutes about four-fifth of its weight. Cerebrum is divided into two cerebral hemispheres by a deep longitudinal cerebral fissure. These hemispheres are joined by a tract of nerve fibres known as corpus callosum. The cerebral hemispheres are covered by a layer of cells known as cerebral cortex or grey matter. Cerebrum has sensory regions known as association areas that receive sensory impulses from various receptors as well as from motor regions that control the movement of various muscles. The innermost part of cerebrum gives an opaque white appearance to the layer and is known as the white matter.

(ii) Thalamus:

Thalamus is the main centre of coordination for sensory and motor signalling. It is wrapped by cerebrum.

(iii) Hypothalamus:

It lies at the base of thalamus and contains a number of centres that regulate body temperature and the urge for eating and drinking. Some regions of cerebrum, along with hypothalamus, are involved in the regulation of sexual behaviour and expression of emotional reactions such as excitement, pleasure, fear, etc.

(c) Midbrain

It is located between the thalamus region of the forebrain and pons region of hindbrain. The dorsal surface of midbrain consists of superior and inferior corpora bigemina and four round lobes called corpora quadrigemina. A canal known as cerebral aqueduct passes through the midbrain. Midbrain is concerned with the sense of sight and hearing.

(d) Hindbrain

It consists of three regions – pons, cerebellum, and medulla oblongata.

(i) Pons is a band of nerve fibres that lies between medulla oblongata and midbrain. It connects the lateral parts of cerebellar hemisphere together.

(ii) Cerebellum is a large and well developed part of hindbrain. It is located below the posterior sides of cerebral hemispheres and above the medulla oblongata. It is responsible for maintaining posture and equilibrium of the body.

(iii) Medulla oblongata is the posterior and simplest part of the brain. It is located beneath the cerebellum. Its lower end extends in the form of spinal cord and leaves the skull through foramen magnum.

(e) Retina

Retina is the innermost layer. It contains three layers of cells – inner ganglion cells, middle bipolar cells, and outermost photoreceptor cells. The receptor cells present in the retina are of two types – rod cells and cone cells.

(i) Rod cells –The rods contain rhodopsin pigment (visual purple), which is highly sensitive to dim light. It is responsible for twilight vision.

(ii) Cone cells –The cones contain iodopsin pigment (visual violet) and are highly sensitive to high intensity light. They are responsible for daylight and colour visions.

The innermost ganglionic cells give rise to optic nerve fibre that forms optic nerve in each eye and is connected with the brain. In this region, the photoreceptor cells are absent. Hence, it is known as the blind spot. At the posterior part, lateral to blind spot, there is a pigmented spot called macula lutea. This spot has a shallow depression at its middle known as fovea. Fovea has only cone cells. They are devoid of rod cells. Hence, it is the place of most distinct vision.

(f) Ear ossicles

The middle ear contains a flexible chain of three middle bones called ear ossicles. The three ear ossicles are as follows.

(i) Malleus

(ii) Incus

(iii) Stapes

The malleus is attached to tympanic membrane on one side and to incus on the other side. The incus is connected with stapes. Stapes, in turn, are attached with an oval membrane, fenestra ovalis, of internal ear. The ear ossicles act as a lever that transmits sound waves from external ear to internal ear.

(g) Cochlea

Cochlea is a long, coiled outgrowth of sacculus. It is the main hearing organ. The cochlea forms three chambers.

(i) Upper − scala vestibule

(ii) Middle − scala media

(iii) Lower − scale tympani

The floor of the scala media is basilar membrane while its roof is Reissner’s membrane. Reissner’s membrane gives out a projection called tectorial membrane. The organ of corti, a hearing organ, is located on the basilar membrane. Organ of corti contains receptor hair cells. The upper scala vestibule and lower scala tympani contain perilymph.

(h) Organ of corti

Organ of corti is the hearing organ. It is located on the basilar membrane that contains hair cells. Hair cells act as auditory receptors. They are present on the internal side of organ of corti.

(i) Synapse

Synapse is a junction between the axon terminal of one neuron and the dendrite of next neuron. It is separated by a small gap known as synaptic cleft.

There are two types of synapses.

(a) Electrical synapse

(b) Chemical synapse

In electrical synapses, the pre and post synaptic neurons lie in close proximity to each other. Hence, the impulse can move directly from one neuron to another across the synapse. This represents a faster method of impulse transmission.

In chemical synapses, the pre and post synaptic neurons are not in close proximity. They are separated by a synaptic cleft. The transmission of nerve impulses is carried out by chemicals such as neurotransmitters.

Question 6:

Give a brief account of:

(a) Mechanism of synaptic transmission

(b) Mechanism of vision

(c) Mechanism of hearing

ANSWER:

(a) Mechanism of synaptic transmission

Synapse is a junction between two neurons. It is present between the axon terminal of one neuron and the dendrite of next neuron separated by a cleft.

There are two ways of synaptic transmission.

(1) Chemical transmission

(2) Electrical transmission

1. Chemical transmission – When a nerve impulse reaches the end plate of axon, it releases a neurotransmitter (acetylcholine) across the synaptic cleft. This chemical is synthesized in cell body of the neuron and is transported to the axon terminal. The acetylcholine diffuses across the cleft and binds to the receptors present on the membrane of next neuron. This causes depolarization of membrane and initiates an action potential.

2. Electrical transmission – In this type of transmission, an electric current is formed in the neuron. This electric current generates an action potential and leads to transmission of nerve impulse across the nerve fibre. This represents a faster method of nerve conduction than the chemical method of transmission.

(b) Mechanism of vision

Retina is the innermost layer of eye. It contains three layers of cells – inner ganglion cells, middle bipolar cells, and outermost photoreceptor cells. A photoreceptor cell is composed of a protein called opsin and an aldehyde of vitamin A called retinal. When light rays are focused on the retina through cornea, it leads to the dissociation of retinal from opsin protein. This changes the structure of opsin. As the structure of opsin changes, the permeability of membrane changes, generating a potential difference in the cells. This generates an action potential in the ganglionic cells and is transmitted to the visual cortex of the brain via optic nerves. In the cortex region of brain, the impulses are analysed and image is formed on the retina.

(c) Mechanism of hearing

The pinna of the external region collects the sound waves and directs it towards ear drum or external auditory canal. These waves strike the tympanic membrane and vibrations are created. Then, these vibrations are transmitted to the oval window, fenestra ovalis, through three ear ossicles, named as malleus, incus, and stapes. These ear ossicles act as lever and transmit the sound waves to internal ear. These vibrations from fenestra ovalis are transmitted into cochlear fluid. This generates sound waves in the lymph. The formation of waves generates a ripple in the basilar membrane. This movement bends the sensory hair cells present on the organ of corti against tectorial membrane. As a result of this, sound waves are converted into nerve impulses. These impulses are then carried to auditory cortex of brain via auditory nerves. In cerebral cortex of brain, the impulses are analysed and sound is recognized.

Question 7:

Answer briefly:

(a) How do you perceive the colour of an object?

(b) Which part of our body helps us in maintaining the body balance?

(c) How does the eye regulate the amount of light that falls on the retina?

ANSWER:

(a) Photoreceptors are cells that are sensitive to light. They are of two types – rods and cones. These are present in the retina. Cones help in distinguishing colours. There are three types of cone cells – those responding to green light, those responding to blue light, and those responding to red light. These cells are stimulated by different lights, from different sources. The combinations of the signals generated help us see the different colours.

(b) Vestibular apparatus is located in the internal ear, above the cochlea and helps in maintaining body balance. Crista and macula are the sensory spots of the vestibular apparatus controlling dynamic equilibrium.

(c) Pupil is the small aperture in the iris that regulates the amount of light entering the eye. Cornea, aqueous humour, lens, and vitreous humour act together and refract light rays, focussing them onto the photoreceptor cells of the retina.

Question 8:

Explain the following:

(a) Role of Na⁺ in the generation of action potential.

(b) Mechanism of generation of light-induced impulse in the retina.

(c) Mechanism through which a sound produces a nerve impulse in the

inner ear.

ANSWER:

(a) Sodium ions play an important role in the generation of action potential. When a nerve fibre is stimulated, the membrane potential decreases. The membrane becomes more permeable to Na⁺ ions than to K⁺ ions. As a result, Na⁺ diffuses from the outside to the inside of the membrane. This causes the inside of the membrane to become positively-charged, while the outer membrane gains a negatively charge. This reversal of polarity across the membrane is known as depolarisation. The rapid inflow of Na⁺ ions causes the membrane potential to increase, thereby generating an action potential.

(b) Retina is the innermost layer of the eye. It contains three layers of cells – inner ganglion cells, middle bipolar cells, and outermost photoreceptor cells. Photoreceptor cells are composed of a protein called opsin and an aldehyde of vitamin A called retinal. When light rays are focused on the retina through the cornea, retinal gets dissociated from opsin. As a result, the structure of opsin gets changed. This in turn causes the permeability of the membrane to change, thereby generating a potential difference in the cells. Consequently, an action potential is generated in the ganglion cells and is transmitted to the visual cortex of the brain via the optic nerves. In the cortex region of the brain, the impulses are analysed and the image is formed on the retina.

(c) The pinna of the external ear collects the sound waves and directs them to the tympanic membrane (ear drum) via the external auditory canal. The ear drum then vibrates the sound waves and conducts them to the internal ear through the ear ossicles. The ear ossicles increase the intensity of the sound waves. These vibrating sound waves are conducted through the oval window to the fluid in the cochlea. Consequently, a movement is created in the lymph. This movement produces vibrations in the basilar membrane, which in turn stimulate the auditory hair cells. These cells generate a nerve impulse, conducting it to the auditory cortex of the brain via afferent fibres. The auditory cortex region interprets the nerve impulse and sound is recognised.

Question 9:

Differentiate between:

(a) Myelinated and non-myelinated axons

(b) Dendrites and axons

(c) Rods and cones

(d) Thalamus and Hypothalamus

(e) Cerebrum and Cerebellum

ANSWER:

(a) Myelinated and non-myelinated axons

	Myelinated axons		Non-myelinated axons
1.	Transmission of nerve impulse is faster	1.	Transmission of nerve impulse is slower
2.	Myelinated axon has a myelin sheath.	2.	Myelin sheath is absent
3.	Node of Ranvier is present between adjacent myelin sheaths.	3.	Node of Ranvier is absent
4.	Found in the brain, the spinal cord, the cranial and spinal nerves	4.	Found in autonomous and somatic neural systems
5.	Schwann cells are observed inside the myelin sheath	5.	Schwann cells are not observed inside the myelin sheath

(b) Dendrites and axons

	Dendrites		Axons
1.	Dendrite is a small projection arising from the neuron. It conducts the nerve impulse toward the cell body.	1.	Axon is a single, long projection that conducts the nerve impulse away from cell body to the next neuron.
2.	Nissl’s granules are present in dendrites.	2.	Nissl’s granules are absent from axons.
3.	Dendrites are always non-myelinated.	3.	Axons can be myelinated or non-myelinated.

(c) Rods and cones

	Rods		Cones
1.	Rods help in twilight vision.	1.	Cones help in colour vision.
2.	They have visual purple pigment called rhodopsin.	2.	They have visual violet pigment called iodopsin.
3.	Rods are the photoreceptor cells of the retina that are sensitive to dim light.	3.	Cones are the photoreceptor cells of the retina that are sensitive to bright light.

(d) Thalamus and Hypothalamus

Thalamus	Hypothalamus
Thalamus is the part of the forebrain that receives nerve impulses of pain, temperature, touch, etc., and conducts them to the cerebral hemisphere.	Hypothalamus is the part of the forebrain that controls involuntary functions such as hunger, thirst, sweating, sleep, fatigue, sexual desire, temperature regulation, etc.

(e) Cerebrum and Cerebellum

Cerebrum	Cerebellum
It is the part of the forebrain that controls voluntary functions. It is the place where intelligence, will power, memory, etc., reside.	It is the part of the hindbrain that controls voluntary functions and controls the equilibrium.

Question 10:

Answer the following:

(a) Which part of the ear determines the pitch of a sound?

(b) Which part of the human brain is the most developed?

(c) Which part of our central neural system acts as a master clock?

ANSWER:

(a) Cochlea determines the pitch of a sound.

(b) Forebrain is largest and the most developed part of the human brain.

(c) Hypothalamus acts as a master clock in the human body.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter- 20 LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 BIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT

Question 1:

Draw the diagram of a sarcomere of skeletal muscle showing different regions.

ANSWER:

The diagrammatic representation of a sarcomere is as follows:

Question 2:

Define sliding filament theory of muscle contraction.

ANSWER:

The sliding filament theory explains the process of muscle contraction during which the thin filaments slide over the thick filaments, which shortens the myofibril.

Each muscle fibre has an alternate light and dark band, which contains a special contractile protein, called actin and myosin respectively. Actin is a thin contractile protein present in the light band and is known as the I-band, whereas myosin is a thick contractile protein present in the dark band and is known as the A-band. There is an elastic fibre called z line that bisects each I-band. The thin filament is firmly anchored to the z line. The central part of the thick filament that is not overlapped by the thin filament is known as the H-zone.

During muscle contraction, the myosin heads or cross bridges come in close contact with the thin filaments. As a result, the thin filaments are pulled towards the middle of the sarcomere. The Z line attached to the actin filaments is also pulled leading to the shortening of the sarcomere. Hence, the length of the band remains constant as its original length and the I-band shortens and the H-zone disappears.

Question 3:

Describe the important steps in muscle contraction.

ANSWER:

During skeletal muscle contraction, the thick filament slides over the thin filament by a repeated binding and releases myosin along the filament. This whole process occurs in a sequential manner.

Step 1: Muscle contraction is initiated by signals that travel along the axon and reach the neuromuscular junction or motor end plate. Neuromuscular junction is a junction between a neuron and the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre. As a result, Acetylcholine (a neurotransmitter) is released into the synaptic cleft by generating an action potential in sarcolemma.

Step 2: The generation of this action potential releases calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in the sarcoplasm.

Step 3: The increased calcium ions in the sarcoplasm leads to the activation of actin sites. Calcium ions bind to the troponin on actin filaments and remove the tropomyosin, wrapped around actin filaments. Hence, active actin sites are exposed and this allows myosin heads to attach to this site.

Step 4: In this stage, the myosin head attaches to the exposed site of actin and forms cross bridges by utilizing energy from ATP hydrolysis. The actin filaments are pulled. As a result, the H-zone reduces. It is at this stage that the contraction of the muscle occurs.

Step 5: After muscle contraction, the myosin head pulls the actin filament and releases ADP along with inorganic phosphate. ATP molecules bind and detach myosin and the cross bridges are broken.

Stage 6: This process of formation and breaking down of cross bridges continues until there is a drop in the stimulus, which causes an increase in calcium. As a result, the concentration of calcium ions decreases, thereby masking the actin filaments and leading to muscle relaxation.

Question 4:

Write true or false. If false change the statement so that it is true.

(a) Actin is present in thin filament

(b) H-zone of striated muscle fibre represents both thick and thin filaments.

(c) Human skeleton has 206 bones.

(d) There are 11 pairs of ribs in man.

(e) Sternum is present on the ventral side of the body.

ANSWER:

(a) Answer: True

(b) Answer: False

H -zone of striated muscle fibre is the central part of the thick filament that is not overlapped by the thin filament.

(c) Answer: True

(d) Answer: False

There are 12 pairs of ribs in a man.

(e) Answer: True

Question 5:

Write the difference between:

(a) Actin and Myosin

(b) Red and White muscles

(c) Pectoral and Pelvic girdle

ANSWER:

(a) Actin and Myosin

	Actin		Myosin
1	Actin is a thin contractile protein.	1	Myosin is a thick contractile protein.
2.	It is present in light bands and is called an isotropic band.	2	It is present in dark bands and is called an anisotropic band.

(b) Red and White muscles

	Red muscle fibre		White muscle fibre
1	Red muscle fibres are thin and smaller in size.	1	White muscle fibres are thick and larger in size.
2	They are red in colour as they contain large amounts of myoglobin.	2	They are white in colour as they contain small amounts of myoglobin
3	They contain numerous mitochondria.	3	They contain less number of mitochondria.
4	They carry out slow and sustained contractions for a long period.	4	They carry out fast work for short duration.
5	They provide energy by aerobic respiration.	5	They provide energy by anaerobic respiration.

(c) Pectoral and Pelvic girdle

	Pectoral girdle		Pelvic girdle
1	It is a skeletal support from where the forelimbs of vertebrates are attached.	1	It is a skeletal support form where the hind limbs of vertebrates are attached.
2	It is composed of twoBones namely, clavicle or collar bones and scapula or shoulder bone.	2	It is composed of three bones, upper ileum, inner pubic, and ischium.

Question 6:

Match Column I with Column II :

	Column I		Column II
(a)	Smooth muscle	(i)	Myoglobin
(b)	Tropomyosin	(ii)	Thin filament
(c)	Red muscle	(iii)	Sutures
(d)	Skull	(iv)	Involuntary

ANSWER:

	Column I		Column II
(a)	Smooth muscle	(iv)	Involuntary
(b)	Tropomyosin	(ii)	Thin filament
(c)	Red muscle	(i)	Myoglobin
(d)	Skull	(iii)	Sutures

Question 7:

What are the different types of movements exhibited by the cells of human body?

ANSWER:

Movement is a characteristic feature of living organisms. The different types of movement exhibited by cells of the human body are:

• Amoeboid movement: Leucocytes present in the blood show amoeboid movement. During tissue damage, these blood cells move from the circulatory system towards the injury site to initiate an immune response.
• Ciliary movement: Reproductive cells such as sperms and ova show ciliary movement. The passage of ova through the fallopian tube towards the uterus is facilitated by this movement.
• Muscular movement: Muscle cells show muscular movement.

Question 8:

How do you distinguish between a skeletal muscle and a cardiac muscle?

ANSWER:

	Skeletal muscle		Cardiac muscle
1.	The cells of skeletal muscles are unbranched.	1.	The cells of cardiac muscles are branched.
2.	Intercalated disks are absent.	2.	The cells are joined with one another by intercalated disks that help in coordination or synchronization of the heart beat.
3.	Alternate light and dark bands are present.	3.	Faint bands are present.
4.	They are voluntary muscles.	4.	They are involuntary muscles.
5.	They contract rapidly and get fatigued in a short span of time.	5.	They contract rapidly but do not get fatigued easily.
6.	They are present in body parts such as the legs, tongue, hands, etc.	6.	These muscles are present in the heart and control the contraction and relaxation of the heart.

Question 9:

Name the type of joint between the following:-

(a) atlas/axis

(b) carpal/metacarpal of thumb

(c) between phalanges

(d) femur/acetabulum

(e) between cranial bones

(f) between pubic bones in the pelvic girdle

ANSWER:

(a) atlas/axis: Pivotal joint

(b) carpal/metacarpal of thumb: Saddle joint

(c) between phalanges: Hinge joint

(d) femur/acetabulum: Ball and socket joint

(e) between cranial bones: Fibrous joint

(f) between pubic bones in the pelvic girdle: Cartilaginous joint

Question 10:

Fill in the blank spaces:

(a) All mammals (except a few) have __________ cervical vertebra.

(b) The number of phalanges in each limb of human is __________

(c) Thin filament of myofibril contains 2 ‘F’ actins and two other proteins namely __________ and __________.

(d) In a muscle fibre Ca⁺⁺ is stored in __________

(e) __________ and __________ pairs of ribs are called floating ribs.

(f) The human cranium is made of __________ bones.

ANSWER:

(a) All mammals (except a few) have cervical vertebra.

(b) The number of phalanges in each limb of a human is.

(c) Thin filament of myofibril contains 2 ‘F’ actins and two other proteins, namely and.

(d) In a muscle fibre, Ca⁺⁺ is stored in the.

(e) And  pairs of ribs are called floating ribs.

(f) The human cranium is made up of bones.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-19 EXCRETORY PRODUCTS AND THEIR ELIMINATION NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 BIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON EXCRETORY PRODUCTS AND THEIR ELIMINATION

Question 1.
State the importance of counter-current systems in renal functioning.

Answer:
Vasa rectal is responsible for the concentration of urine. The vase rectal is in the form of loops. Therefore, the blood flows in the opposite directions in two limbs of each vasa Fecta; the blood entering its descending limb comes into close contact with the outgoing blood in the ascending limb. This is called a Counter-Current System. The two limbs of the loops of Henle form another Counter-Current System.

Importance: The counter-current system significantly contributes to concentrating urine in mammals.

Question 2.
Describe the hormonal feedback circuits in controlling renal functions.

Answer:
Two important hormonal control of the kidney function by negative feedback circuits can be identified:
1. Control by Antidiuretic Hormone ADH: ADH produced in the hypothalamus of the brain and released into the blood from the pituitary gland, enhances fluid retention by making the kidneys reabsorb more water. The release of ADH is triggered when osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect an increase in the osmolarity of the blood.

The osmoreceptors cells also promote thirst. Drinking reduces the osmolarity of the blood which inhibits the secretion of ADB, thereby completing the feedback circuit.

2. Control by Juxtaglomerular Apparatus (JGH): It operates a multihormonal Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS). JGA responds to decrease the blood pressure and release enzyme renin into the blood. In the blood, the enzyme initiates chemical reactions that convert a plasma protein called angiotensinogen to a peptide called angiotensin II which works as a hormone.

Angiotensin II increases blood pressure and stimulates the adrenal gland to release aldosterone, a hormone. This leads to an increase in blood volume and pressure completing the feed¬back circuit by supporting the release of renin.

Still another hormone, a peptide called Atrial Natriuretic Factor ANF), opposes the regulation by RAAS.

Thus, ADH, the RAAS, and ANF provide an elaborate system of checks and balance that regulate the kidney functioning to control body fluid, osmolarity, salt concentration, blood pressure, and blood volume.

Question 3.
State the normal and abnormal constituents of human urine.

Answer:
Urine is a pale yellow colored slightly acidic watery fluid.

• Abnormal Urine: Various metabolic errors of kidney malfunctioning changes the composition of urine.
• Proteinuria: Excess of protein level.
• Albuminuria: The presence of albumin, usually occurs in nephritis.
• Glycosuria: Presence of glucose in urea as in case of diabetes mellitus.
• Ketonuria: Presence of abnormally high ketone bodies.
• Hematuria: Presence of blood or blood cells in urine.
• hemoglobinuria: Presence of hemoglobin in urine.
• Uremia: Presence of excess urea.
• Normal Urine: Normal urine is slightly heavier than water. It gives an aromatic odor due to the presence of volatile, bad-smelling organic substances, the ruined water, organic and inorganic materials are the main constituents of normal urine.

The other nitrogenous constituents of normal urine are ammonia, uric acid, hippuric acid, and creatinine.

Non-nitrogenous substances are vitamin C, oxalic acid, phenolic substances. In inorganic substances, sodium chloride is the principal mineral salt in the urine.

Question 4.
State the role of skin and lungs in excretion.

Answer:
Role of Skin: Human skin possesses glands for secreting sweat and sebum (from the sebaceous gland). Sweat contains NaCl, lactic acid, urea, amino acids, and glucose. The volume of sweat various negligible to 14 L a day. The principal function of sweat is the evaporative cooling of the body surface.

Sebum is a waxy protective secretion to keep the skin oily and this secretion eliminates some lipids, such as waxes, sterols, other hydrocarbons, and fatty acids. Integument in many animals is excreting ammonia into the surrounding by diffusion.

Role of lungs in excretion: Human lungs eliminate around 18L of CO₂ per day and about 400 ml of water in normal resting conditions. Water loss via lungs is small in hot humid climates and large in cold dry climates. The rate of ventilation and ventilation pattern also affects the water loss through the lungs. Different volatile materials are also readily eliminated through the lungs.

Question 5.
Briefly state the mechanism of urine formation in the human kidney.

Answer:
Three main processes are involved in urine formation
1. Glomerular filtration: Kidneys filter the equivalent of blood volume every 4 – 5 minutes. Filtration slits are formed by the assemblages of fine cellular processes of podocytes (foot cells). The process of ultra-filtration depends upon two main factors, first the net hydrostatic pressure difference between the lumen of the capillary and the lumen of the Bowman’s capsule favor filtration.

The glomerular ultrafiltrate contains essentially all the constituents of the blood except for blood corpuscles and plasma proteins. Nearly 15% – 25% of the water and salutes are removed from the plasma that flows through the glomerulus. The glomerular filtration rate is about 125 ml min1 or about 180 L day^-1 in human kidneys.

2. Two important intrinsic mechanisms provide autoregulation of glomerular filtration rate.
(a) Myogenic mechanism: Increase in blood pressure will tend to stretch the efferent arteriole, which would increase the blood flow to the glomerulus. The diameter of the arteriole is reduced, increasing the resistance to flow. This myogenic mechanism thus reduced variations inflow to the glomerulus in case of fluctuations in blood pressure.

(b) Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA): This specialized cellular apparatus is located where the distal convoluted tubule passes close to the Bowman’s capsule between the afferent and efferent arterioles. JGA cells secrete substances like renin that modulate blood pressure and renal blood flow and GFR are regulated.

Myogenic and juxtaglomerular mechanisms work together to autoregulate the GFR over a wide range of blood pressure. In addition to these extrinsic neural control also regulates the filtration rate.

3. Tubular re-absorption: The selective transport of substances across the epithelium of the excretory tubule from the ultrafiltrate to the interstitial fluid is called re-absorption. Nearly all the sugar, vitamins, organic substances (nutrients), and most of the water are reabsorbed.

4. Tubular secretion: It is a very selective process involving both passive and active transport. The filtrate travel through the nephron, substances that are transported across the epithelium from the surrounding interstitial fluid and join it. The net effect of renal secretion is the addition of plasma solutes to the filtrate within the tubule.

Question 6.
Explain the following:
(a) Skin functions as an accessory excretory organ.

Answer:
The skin retains some excretory role in many animals. Human skin possesses two glands for secreting fluid on its surface. These are; sweat from sweat glands and sebum from sebaceous glands.

(b) Mammals can eliminate hypotonic and hypertonic urine according to body needs.
Answer:
When the animal takes a large quantity of water the kidneys excrete a very high amount of hypotonic urine. At the same time when the animal takes a small number of water kidneys to excrete a very high amount of hypertonic urine.

At the same time when the animal takes a small number of water kidneys to excrete a small amount of hypertonic urine, as kidneys need to conserve water. In this way, the osmotic concentration of blood is maintained by the kidneys. This flexibility of kidney nephrons is highly observed in mammals.

Hypotonic urine removes excess water from the body in order to raise the osmotic concentration of the blood to normal. Excess of water in body fluids generally lowers the osmotic pressure of blood and increases the volume of blood. This increase in the volume of blood raises the blood pressure and hydrostatic pressure which increases the rate of ultrafiltration. In this way, a large amount of hypotonic urine is produced in order to bring the volume of fluids to normal.

(c) Micturition is a reflex process but is under some voluntary control.
Answer:
It is the process of passing out urine. Nephrons produce urine and drain. When enough urine collects in the bladder the distension of its walls raises enough pressure which generates a spontaneous nervous activity under the stimulation of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system. This nervous stimulation causes the smooth muscles on the urinary bladder to rise too high to control.

Similarly, micturition can voluntarily be initiated even before enough urine has accumulated in the bladder. Backflow of the urine into the ureters from the urinary bladder is prevented because the terminal part of each ureter passes through the bladder and gets closed as soon as the contraction of the bladder occurs.

(d) Mammals are ureotelic, but birds are uricotelic.
Answer:
Mammals are ureotelic animals as they eliminate nitrogen mainly urea. It is very soluble in water and needs a considerable amount of water for its elimination. Mammals can thus form hypertonic urine which they excrete. While the birds cannot excrete urine as hypertonic since nitrogen occurs mainly in the form of uric acid. The uric acid is insoluble in water and does not require much water for its elimination.

Question 7.
Describe the functional anatomy of a human nephron.

Answer:
Nephrons are structural and functional units of each kidney to form the urine. Each nephron is fine; microscopic highly coiled tubular structure differentiated into malpighian body and the renal tubule. The malpighian body comprises a large double-walled cup-shaped structure the Bowman’s capsule present in the renal cortex. It is lined by thin, semipermeable epithelial cells, the podocytes. Bowman’s capsule receives the blood supply through a branch of the renal artery.

The afferent arteriole forms a fine capillary network in the form of glomerules with high hydrostatic pressure. The lumen between two layers of Bowman’s capsule is continuous with the lumen of the tubule. The Bowman’s capsule and the glomerulus together form a globular body, the Malpighian body or the renal capsules.

The capillaries forming the glomerulus at the exit of Bowman’s capsule unite to form a narrow efferent arteriole which breaks up into a peritubular network of capillaries with low hydrostatic pressure.

The renal tubule is a long highly coiled tubular structure differentiated into proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) Henle’s loop, distal convoluted tubule (DCT). The U-shaped loop-like structure, descending and ascending from the renal tubule is called Henle’s loop.

Collecting tubules of several nephrons open into a wider duct called the collecting duct. A number of collecting ducts unite with each other in the medulla to form the ducts of Bellini, which drains down the urine into the ureter from each kidney to be stored in the urinary bladder.

The efferent arteriole emerges out from the glomerules breaks up into a peritubular capillary network around the renal tubule in the cortex. These capillaries also form a thin-walled, straight capillary the vasa recta. The vasa recta help in retaining the reabsorbed ions and urea in medullary interstitial fluid to maintain high osmotic pressure in kidneys.

Glomerular filtrate undergoes tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion for the formation of urine. (See diagram opposite page)

Uriniferous tubules Or nephron of the kidney

Question 8.
Describe the gross anatomical features of the human kidney with a suitable diagram.

Answer:
Kidney: Kidney is chocolate brown, bean-shaped, large-sized about 10 cm long and 5 – 7 cm broad, 3 – 4cm thick flattened, metamorphic. The weight of each kidney is 150 to 170 gm. They are situated against the back wall of the abdominal cavity, just below the diaphragm, between the 12th thoracic and 3rd lumbar vertebrae.

The outer margin is convex. The inner concave presents a longitudinal opening called the hilum. The renal artery and renal vein respectively enter and leave the kidney through its hilum.

The two kidneys are slightly asymmetrical in position because the right kidney is slightly at a lower level than the left. Kidneys are held in position by a mass of adipose tissue called Renal fat. These rest against the abdominal muscles. Each kidney is covered on the ventral side by the peritoneum and is thus retroperitoneal in nature.

Surrounding the kidneys and the renal fat is a sheath of fibro elastic tissue known as renal fascia or capsule. They protect the kidney. The renal fat forms a shock-absorbing cushion. The renal fascia fixes the kidney to the abdominal wall.

Longitudinal section (Diagrammatic of Kidney)

Question 9.
(a)What is the role of the liver in excretion in mammals?

Answer:
Role of liver in excretion: The liver changes ammonia into urea which is less toxic than ammonia. Urea is eliminated from the body by the kidneys through urine.

The liver is the principal organ of excretion of cholesterol, bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin) some vitamins, drugs, and inactivated products of steroid hormones. The liver excretes these substances in the bile which carries them to the small intestine. Ultimately, these substances get eliminated along with feces.

(b) What are the diseases associated with the urinary system?
Answer:
Diseases associated with the urinary system:
1. Polynephritis: It is a bacterial infection, which causes inflammation of renal pelvic nephrons and medullary tissues of the kidney. It affects the counter-current mechanism. Its main symptoms are frequent and painful urination, fever, and pain in the lumbar region.

2. Uremia: It causes the presence of a high concentration of urea, uric acid, creatinine, etc, in the blood due to some bacterial infection or some obstruction in the passage of the urinary system. Urea poisons the cells. It is not passed in the urine and accumulates in the blood.

3. Renal stones: When uric acid precipitates and accumulates in the nephrons of kidneys in the form of renal stones or when calcium phosphates and oxalates accumulate in the nephrons of the kidneys in the form of renal stones. It causes blockage or frequent painful urination along with blood in the urine. Renal stone causes severe colic pain starting in the back and radiating down to the front of the thigh or vulva or testicle on that side.

4. Glomerulonephritis: It is characterized by the inflammation of Glomeruliduct, some injury to the kidney, abnormal allergic reaction, or by some streptococci bacteria infection. Proteins and red blood corpuscles become filtered into the glomerular filtrate. It may lead to kidney failure in severe infection.

5. Oedema: It is characterized by the increased volume of interstitial fluid mainly caused by retention of excess Na+ ions which in turn causes water retention. Blood pressure increases dining edema.

Question 10.
Write a short account on hemodialysis.

Answer:
In case of renal failure, an artificial kidney is used for removing excess urea from the blood of the patient by a process called hemodialysis. Blood is taken out from the artery of the patient, cooled to 0°C, mixed with an anticoagulant such as heparin, and then pumped into the apparatus called artificial kidney. In this apparatus, blood flows through channels

Working of artificial kidneys for hemodialysis

bounded by cellophane membrane. The membrane is impermeable to macromolecules but permeable to small solutes. The membrane separates the blood flowing inside the channels from a dialyzing fluid flowing outside the membrane. The wastes like urea, uric acid, and creatinine diffuse from the blood to the dialyzing fluid across the cellophane membrane.

Thus the blood is considerably cleared of nitrogenous waste products without losing plasma proteins. Such a processor separation of macromolecules from small solute particles with the help of a permeable membrane is called dialysis. The blood coming out of the artificial kidney is warmed to body temperature, mixed with an Antiheparin to restore its normal coagulability, and returned to a vein of the patient.

Hemodialysis saves and prolongs the life of many uremic patients.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-18 BODY FLUIDS AND CIRCULATION NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 BIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON BODY FLUIDS AND CIRCULATION

Question 1:

Name the components of the formed elements in the blood and mention one major function of each of them.

ANSWER:

The component elements in the blood are:

(1) Erythrocytes:

They are the most abundant cells and contain the red pigment called haemoglobin. They carry oxygen to all parts of the body. Red blood cells are produced continuously in some parts of the body such as the marrow of long bones, ribs, etc. There are about 4 – 6 million RBCs per cubic millimetre of blood.

(2) Leukocytes

Leucocytes are colourless cells. These cells do not contain haemoglobin. They are the largest cells of the body and are divided into two main categories.

(a) Granulocytes

These leucocytes have granules in their cytoplasm and include neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophiles. Neutrophils are phagocytic cells that protect the body against various infecting agents. Eosinophils are associated with allergic reactions, while basophiles are involved in inflammatory responses.

(b) Agranulocytes

Lymphocytes and monocytes are agranulocytes. Lymphocytes generate immune responses against infecting agents, while monocytes are phagocytic in nature.

(3) Platelets

Platelets are small irregular bodies present in blood. They contain essential chemicals that help in clotting. The main function of platelets is to promote clotting.

Question 2:

What is the importance of plasma proteins?

ANSWER:

Plasma is the colourless fluid of blood which helps in the transport of food, CO₂, waste products, and salts. It constitutes about 55% of blood. About 6.8% of the plasma is constituted by proteins such as fibrinogens, globulins, and albumins.

Fibrinogen is a plasma glycoprotein synthesised by the liver. It plays a role in the clotting of blood.

Globulin is a major protein of the plasma. It protects the body against infecting agents.

Albumin is a major protein of the plasma. It helps in maintaining the fluid volume within the vascular space.

Question 3:

Match column I with column II:

Column I		Column II
(a)	Eosinophils	(i)	Coagulation
(b)	RBC	(ii)	Universal Recipient
(c)	AB Group	(iii)	Resist Infections
(d)	Platelets	(iv)	Contraction of Heart
(e)	Systole	(v)	Gas transport

ANSWER:

Column I		Column II
(a)	Eosinophils	(iii)	Resist infections
(b)	RBC	(v)	Gas transport
(c)	AB Group	(ii)	Universal Recipient
(d)	Platelets	(i)	Coagulation
(e)	Systole	(iv)	Contraction of heart

Question 4:

Why do we consider blood as a connective tissue?

ANSWER:

Connective tissues have cells scattered throughout an extra-cellular matrix. They connect different body systems. Blood is considered as a type of connective tissue because of two reasons.

(i) Like the other connective tissues, blood is mesodermal in origin.

(ii) It connects the body systems, transports oxygen and nutrients to all the parts of the body, and removes the waste products. Blood has an extra-cellular matrix called plasma, with red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets floating in it.

Question 5:

What is the difference between lymph and blood?

ANSWER:

	Lymph		Blood
1.	It is a colourless fluid that does not contain RBCs.	1.	It is a red-coloured fluid that contains RBCs.
2.	It contains plasma and lesser number of WBCs and platelets.	2.	It contains plasma, RBCs, WBCs, and platelets.
3.	It helps in body defence and is a part of the immune system.	3.	It is associated with the circulation of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
4.	Its plasma lacks proteins.	4.	Its plasma has proteins, calcium, and phosphorus.
5.	It transports nutrients from the tissue cells to the blood, through lymphatic vessels.	5.	It transports nutrients and oxygen from one organ to another.
6.	The flow of lymph is slow.	6.	The flow of blood in the blood vessels is fast.

Question 6:

What is meant by double circulation? What is its significance?

ANSWER:

Double circulation is a process during which blood passes twice through the heart during one complete cycle. This type of circulation is found in amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals. However, it is more prominent in birds and mammals as in them the heart is completely divided into four chambers – the right atrium, the right ventricle, the left atrium, and the left ventricle.

The movement of blood in an organism is divided into two parts:

(i) Systemic circulation

(ii) Pulmonary circulation

Systemic circulation involves the movement of oxygenated blood from the left ventricle of the heart to the aorta. It is then carried by blood through a network of arteries, arterioles, and capillaries to the tissues. From the tissues, the deoxygenated blood is collected by the venules, veins, and vena cava, and is emptied into the left auricle.

Pulmonary circulation involves the movement of deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery, which then carries blood to the lungs for oxygenation. From the lungs, the oxygenated blood is carried by the pulmonary veins into the left atrium.

Hence, in double circulation, blood has to pass alternately through the lungs and the tissues.

Significance of double circulation:

The separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood allows a more efficient supply of oxygen to the body cells. Blood is circulated to the body tissues through systemic circulation and to the lungs through pulmonary circulation.

Question 7:

Write the differences between:

(a) Blood and Lymph

(b) Open and Closed system of circulation

(c) Systole and Diastole

(d) P-wave and T-wave

ANSWER:

(a) Blood and lymph

	Blood		Lymph
1.	Blood is a red-coloured fluid that contains RBCs.	1.	Lymph is a colourless fluid that lacks RBCs.
2.	It contains plasma, RBCs, WBCs, and platelets. It also contains proteins.	2.	It contains plasma and lesser number of WBCs and platelets. It lacks proteins.
3.	Blood transports nutrients and oxygen from one organ to another.	3.	Lymph plays a role in the defensive system of the body. It is a part of the immune system.

(b) Open and closed systems of circulation

	Open system of circulation		Closed system of circulation
1.	In this system, blood is pumped by the heart, through large vessels, into body cavities called sinuses.	1.	In this system, blood is pumped by the heart, through a closed network of vessels.
2.	The body tissues are in direct contact with blood.	2.	The body tissues are not in direct contact with blood.
3.	Blood flows at low pressure. Hence, it is a slower and less efficient system of circulation.	3.	Blood flows at high pressure. Hence, it is a faster and more efficient system of circulation.
4.	The flow of blood is not regulated through the tissues and organs.	4.	The flow of blood can be regulated by valves.
5.	This system is present in arthropods and molluscs.	5.	This system is present in annelids, echinoderms, and vertebrates.

(c) Systole and diastole

	Systole		Diastole
1.	It is the contraction of the heart chambers to drive blood into the aorta and the pulmonary artery.	1.	It is the relaxation of the heart chambers between two contractions. During diastole, the chambers are filled with blood.
2.	Systole decreases the volume of the heart chambers and forces the blood out of them.	2.	Diastole brings the heart chambers back into their original sizes to receive more blood.

(d) P-wave and T-wave

	P-wave		T-wave
1.	In an electrocardiogram (ECG), the P-wave indicates the activation of the SA node.	1.	In an electrocardiogram (ECG), the T-wave represents ventricular relaxation.
2.	During this phase, the impulse of contraction is generated by the SA node, causing atrial depolarisation.	2.	During this phase, the ventricles relax and return to their normal state.
3.	It is of atrial origin.	3.	It is of ventricular origin.

Question 8:

Describe the evolutionary change in the pattern of heart among the vertebrates.

ANSWER:

All vertebrates possess a heart – a hollow muscular organ composed of cardiac muscle fibres. The function of the heart is to pump oxygen to all parts of the body. The evolution of the heart is based on the separation of oxygenated blood from deoxygenated blood for efficient oxygen transport.

In fishes, the heart was like a hollow tube. This evolved into the four-chambered heart in mammals.

Piscean heart
Fish has only two chambers in its heart – one auricle and one ventricle. Since both the auricle and the ventricle remain undivided, only deoxygenated blood passes through it. The deoxygenated blood enters the gills for oxygenation from the ventricle. It has additional chambers such as sinus venosus and conus arteriosus.

Amphibian heart
Amphibians, such as frogs, have three-chambered hearts, with two auricles and one ventricle. The auricle is divided into a right and a left chamber by an inter-auricular septum, while the ventricle remains undivided.
Additional chambers such as sinus venosus and conus arteriosus are also present. The oxygenated blood from the lungs enters the left auricle and simultaneously, the deoxygenated blood from the body enters the right auricle. Both these auricles empty into the ventricle, wherein the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood get mixed to some extent.

Reptilian heart
Reptiles have incomplete four-chambered hearts, except for crocodiles, alligators, and gharials. They have only one accessory chamber called sinus venosus. The reptilian heart also shows mixed blood circulation.

Avian and mammalian hearts
They have two pairs of chambers for separating oxygenated and deoxygenated bloods. The heart is divided into four chambers. The upper two chambers are called atria and the lower two chambers are called ventricles. The chambers are separated by a muscular wall that prevents the mixing of the blood rich in oxygen with the blood rich in carbon dioxide.

Question 9:

Why do we call our heart myogenic?

ANSWER:

In the human heart, contraction is initiated by a special modified heart muscle known as sinoatrial node. It is located in the right atrium. The SA node has the inherent power of generating a wave of contraction and controlling the heart beat. Hence, it is known as the pacemaker. Since the heart beat is initiated by the SA node and the impulse of contraction originates in the heart itself, the human heart is termed myogenic. The hearts of vertebrates and molluscs are also myogenic.

Question 10:

Sino-atrial node is called the pacemaker of our heart. Why?

ANSWER:

The sino-atrial (SA) node is a specialised bundle of neurons located in the upper part of the right atrium of the heart. The cardiac impulse originating from the SA node triggers a sequence of electrical events in the heart, thereby controlling the sequence of muscle contraction that pumps blood out of the heart. Since the SA node initiates and maintains the rhythmicity of the heart, it is known as the natural pacemaker of the human body.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-16 DIGESTION AND ABSORBTION NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 BIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON DIGESTION AND ABSORBTION

Q1. Correct the statement given below by the right option shown in the bracket against them.
a. Absorption of amino acids and glycerol takes place in the (small intestine/ large intestine).
b. ‘The faeces in the rectum initiate a reflex causing an urge for its removal, (neural /hormonal)
c. Skin and eyes turn yellow in infection, (liver/stomach)
d. Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice in (infants/adults).
e. Pancreatic juice and bile are released through (intestinepancreatic/ hepato-pancreatic duct).
f. Dipeptides, disaccharides and glycerides are broken down into simple substances in region of small intestine, (jejunum/duodenum)
Ans: a. Absorption of amino acids and glycerol takes place in the small intestine.
b. The faeces in the rectum initiate a neural reflex causing an urge for its removal.
c. Skin and eyes turn yellow in infection of liver. .
d. Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice in infants.
e. Pancreatic juice and bile are released through hepato-pancreatic duct.
f. Dipeptides, disaccharides and glycerides are broken down into simple substances in duodenum region of small intestine.

Q2. What are three major types of cells found in the gastric glands? Name their secretions.
Ans: The mucosa of stomach has gastric glands. Gastric glands have three major types of cells namely
(i) mucus neck cells which secrete mucus;
(ii) peptic or chief cells which secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen; and
(iii) parietal or oxyntic cells which secrete HC1 and intrinsic factor (factor essential for absorption of vitamin B12).

Q3. How are the activities of gastro-intestinal tract regulated?
Ans: The activities of the gastro-intestinal tract are under neural and hormonal control for proper coordination of different parts. The sight, smell and/or the presence of food in the oral cavity can stimulate the secretion of saliva. Gastric and intestinal secretions are also, similarly, stimulated by neural signals. The muscular activities of different parts of the alimentary canal can also be moderated by neural mechanisms, both local and through CNS. Hormonal control of the secretion of digestive juices is carried out by local hormones produced by the gastric and intestinal mucosa.

Q4. Distinguish between constipation and indigestion. Mention their major causes.
Ans: Constipation: In constipation, the faeces are retained within the rectum as the bowel movements occur irregularly.
Indigestion: In this condition, the food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness. The causes of indigestion are inadequate enzyme secretion, anxiety, food poisoning, over eating, and spicy food.

Q5. Describe the enzymatic action on fats in the duodenum.
Ans: In the duodenum fats are broken down by pancreatic lipases with the help of bile into di- and monoglycerides.

Q6. A person had roti and dal for his lunch. Trace the changes in those during its passage through the alimentary canal.
Ans: The process of digestion is accomplished by mechanical and chemical processes. The buccal cavity performs two major functions, mastication of food and facilitation of swallowing. The teeth and the tongue with the help of saliva masticate and mix up the food thoroughly. Mucus in saliva helps in lubricating and adhering the masticated food particles into a bolus. The bolus is then conveyed into the pharynx and then into the oesophagus by swallowing or deglutition. The bolus further passes down through the oesophagus by successive waves of muscular contractions called peristalsis. The gastro-oesophageal sphincter controls the passage of food into the stomach. The saliva secreted into the oral cavity contains electrolytes and enzymes, salivary amylase and lysozyme. The chemical process of digestion is initiated in the oral cavity by the hydrolytic action of the carbohydrate splitting enzyme, the salivary amylase. About 30% of starch is hydrolysed here by this enzyme (optimum pH 6.8) into a disaccharide – maltose.
• The stomach stores the food for 4-5 hours. The food mixes thoroughly with the acidic gastric juice of the stomach by the churning movements of its muscular wall and is called the chyme. The proenzyme pepsinogen, on exposure to hydrochloric acid gets converted into the active enzyme pepsin, the proteolytic enzyme of the stomach. Pepsin converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides).
• The bile, pancreatic juice and the intestinal juice are the secretions
released into the small intestine. Pancreatic juice and bile are released through the hepato-pancreatic duct. The pancreatic juice contains inactive enzymes—trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidases,
amylases, lipases and nucleases. Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin, which in turn activates the other enzymes in the pancreatic juice.
Proteins proteoses and peptones (partially hydrolysed proteins) in the chyme reaching the intestine are acted upon by the proteolytic enzymes of pancretic juice as given below.

Q7. What are the various enzymatic types of glandular secretions in our gut helping digestion of food? What is the nature of end products obtained after complete digestion of food?
Ans: Enzymatic types of glandular secretions in our gut:
a. Salivary glands: Saliva is mainly produced by three pairs of salivary glands, the parotids (cheek), the sub-maxillary/sub-mandibular (lower jaw) and the sublinguals (below the tongue). These glands situated just outside the buccal cavity secrete salivary juice into the buccal cavity.
b. Gastric glands: The mucosa of stomach has gastric glands. Gastric glands have three major types of cells namely
(i) mucus neck cells which secrete mucus;
(ii) peptic or chief cells which secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen; and
(iii) parietal or oxyntic cells which secrete HC1 and intrinsic factor (factor essential for absorption of vitamin B12).
c. The bile, pancreatic juice and the intestinal juice are the secretions
released into the small intestine. Pancreatic juice and bile are released through the hepato-pancreatic duct. The pancreatic juice contains inactive enzymes—trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidases,
amylases, lipases and nucleases. Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin, which in turn activates the other enzymes in the pancreatic juice. The bile released into the duodenum contains bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin), bile salts, cholesterol and phospholipids but no enzymes.

Q8. Discuss mechanisms of absorption.
Ans: Mechanisms of absorption: Absorption is the process by which the end products of digestion pass through the intestinal mucosa into the blood or lymph. It is carried out by passive, active or facilitated transport mechanisms. Small amounts of monosaccharides like glucose, amino acids and some electrolytes like chloride ions are generally absorbed by simple diffusion. The passage of these substances into the blood depends upon the concentration gradients. However, some substances like glucose and amino acids are absorbed with the help of carrier proteins. This mechanism is called the facilitated transport.
Transport of water depends upon the osmotic gradient. Active transport occurs against the concentration gradient and hence requires energy. Various nutrients like amino acids, monosaccharides like glucose, electrolytes like Na+ are absorbed into the blood by this mechanism.

Q9. Discuss the role of hepato-pancrdatic complex in digestion of carbohydrate, protein and fat components of food.
Ans: The bile, pancreatic juice and the intestinal juice are the secretions released into the small intestine. Pancreatic juice and bile are released through the hepato-pancreatic duct. The pancreatic juice contains inactive enzymes— trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidases, amylases, lipases and nucleases. Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin, which in turn activates the other enzymes in the pancreatic juice.
The bile released into the duodenum contains bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin), bile salts, cholesterol and phospholipids but no enzymes. Bile helps in emulsification of fats, i.e., breaking down of the fats into very small micelles. Bile also activates lipases.
Proteins proteases and peptones (partially hydrolyzed proteins) in the chime reaching the intestine are acted upon by the proteolytic enzymes of pancreatic juice as given below:

Q10. Explain the process of digestion in the buccal cavity with a note on the arrangement of teeth.

Ans: The process of digestion in the buccal cavity: The buccal cavity performs two major functions, mastication of food and facilitation of swallowing. The teeth and the tongue with the help of saliva masticate and mix up the food thoroughly. Mucus in saliva helps in lubricating and adhering the masticated food particles into a bolus. The bolus is then conveyed into the pharynx and then into the oesophagus by swallowing or deglutition. The bolus further passes down through the oesophagus by successive waves of muscular contractions called peristalsis. The gastro-oesophageal sphincter controls the passage of food into the stomach. The saliva secreted into the oral cavity contains electrolytes and enzymes, salivary amylase and lysozyme. The chemical process of digestion is initiated in the oral cavity by the hydrolytic action of the carbohydrate splitting enzyme, the salivary amylase. About% of starch is hydrolysed here by this enzyme (optimum pH 6.8) into a disaccharide—maltose. Lysozyme present in saliva acts as an antibacterial agent that prevents infections.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-17 BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 BIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES

Question 1.
What is chloride shift? Write its significance during respiration.

Answer:
The chloride ions (CI^–) inside RBC combine with potassium ion (K⁺) to form potassium chloride (KCL), whereas hydrogen carbonate ions (HCO^–₃) in the plasma combine with Na’ to form sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO₃) Nearly 70% of carbon dioxide is transported from tissues to the lungs in this form.

In response to chloride ions (CI^–) diffuse from plasma into erythrocytes to maintain the ionic balance. This is called the chloride shift.

Significance: It maintains electrochemical neutrality during respiration.

Question 2.
What is the role of the carbonic anhydrase enzyme in the transport of gases during respiration?

Answer:
Carbon dioxide produced by the tissues diffuses passively into the bloodstream and passes into the red blood corpuscles where it reacts with water to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃). This reaction is catalysed by the enzyme, carbonic anhydrase found in the erythrocytes and takes less than one second to complete the process. Immediately after its formation, carbonic acid dissociates into hydrogen (H⁺) and bicarbonate (HCO₃^–) ions. The majority of bicarbonate ions (HCO₃^– ) formed within the erythrocytes diffuse out into the plasma along a concentration gradient. These combine with haemoglobin to form the haemoglobin acid (H.Hb).

Question 3.
What is partial pressure? How does it help in gaseous exchange during respiration?

Answer:
During inspiration and expiration, gases move freely by the process of diffusion. Diffusion of any molecule takes place from high to low concentration. The process of diffusion is directly proportional to the pressure caused by the gas alone. The pressure exerted by an individual gas is called partial pressure. It is represented as PO₂, PCO₂, and PN₂, for oxygen, carbon dioxide and nitrogen respectively.

The inspired air ultimately reaches the alveoli of the lung, which in turn receives the blood supply of the pulmonary circulation. At this stage the oxygen of the inspired air is taken in by the blood and carbon dioxide is released into the alveoli for expiration.

In this way, the gases exchange takes place due to partial pressure.

Question 4.
How does hemoglobin help in the transport of oxygen from the lung to tissues?

Answer:
Blood is the medium for the transport of oxygen from the respiratory organ to the different tissues and carbon dioxide from tissues to the respiratory organs. 97% of the oxygen is transported from the lungs to the tissues in combination with hemoglobin (Hb + O₂ — HbO₂), oxyhemoglobin and 3% is transported in dissolved condition by the plasma.

Under high partial pressure oxygen easily binds with hemoglobin in the pulmonary capillaries. When this oxygenated blood reaches the different tissues, the partial pressure of oxygen declines and the bonds holding oxygen to hemoglobin become unstable. As a result, oxygen is released from the capillaries.

Question 5.
Explain breathing disorders in brief.

Answer:

1. Asthma is caused by an allergic reaction. There is difficulty in breathing.
2. Pneumonia is caused by bacterial infection. There are fever, pain and severe cough.
3. Tuberculosis is an infectious bacterial disease of the lungs and in serious cases, blood may come out while coughing.

Question 6.
In what form O₂ is carried in blood? What happens to it when blood reaches the tissue?

Answer:
O₂ is carried in combination with the hemoglobin of RBCs and forms oxyhemoglobin.

In tissues, there is the dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin and release of Or It diffuses into the tissue cells where it is used in oxidation.

Question 7.
Explain gas transport in the blood.

Answer:
It may be explained in two steps.
(a) Transport of O₂ from lungs to tissues.
(b) Transport of CO₂ from tissues to lungs.

A. Oxygen Transport

1. O₂ is transported in the blood via haemoglobin.
2. O₂ diffuses into RBC and combines with haemoglobin to form oxyhaemoglobin.
3. Oxyhaemoglobin breaks into haemoglobin and oxygen at the tissues, where there are high PCO₂ and PO₂.
4. In the lungs, oxyhaemoglobin is formed due to high PO₂ and low PCO₂.

B. CO₂ Transport: CO₂ is transported in 3 ways with blood.

1. 70% of CO₂ in RBC reacts with H₂O to form H₂CO₃
   
2. The rest 30% CO₂ combining with Hb to form carbon haemoglobin. (HCO₃^– carried by RBC and plasma)
3. Some CO₂ dissolves in plasma on reaching the lungs.
   HCO₃^– + H + H₂CO₃
   H₂CO₃ CO₂ + 2H₂O
   And this CO₂ is expelled out through the lungs.

Question 8.
Name and explain the respiratory organs of the following,
(i) Insect

Answer:
Insect: The integument of insects is thick and highly impermeable to minimise the loss of water through the environment. The exchange of gases cannot take place through the skin covering of these insects. These insects have a highly developed complex system called the tracheal. This mode of respiration is called tracheal respiration.

(ii) Neries
Answer:
Neries: Parapodia is the respiratory oxygen in neries. In this organism respiratory occurs through the skin covering the parapodia (Locomotory organs), which is again very thin, moist, permeable and highly vascular.

(iii) Prawn
Answer:
Prawn: Gills, in the animals like prawns, certain molluscs, fishes, tadpoles, the process of gaseous exchange occur by special respiratory organs called gills. These are richly supplied with blood and readily absorb oxygen found dissolved in water and release CO₂ back into the water.

(iv) Birds
Answer:
Birds: (lungs). In birds and mammals, the skin is impermeable. These have a high metabolic rate and their oxygen requirement is very high. Birds have spongy lungs to have a more extensive respiratory surface. These lungs always remain in the body to keep the respiratory surface moist, which is necessary for the exchange of respiratory gases.

(v) Fishes
Answer:
Oxygen and carbon dioxide dissolves in water, and most fishes exchange dissolved oxygen and carbon dioxide in water by means of the gills.

(vi) Earthworm.
Answer:
Earthworms do not have lungs. They breathe through their skin. Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass through the earthworm’s skin by diffusion

Question 9.
Define the following terms:
(a) Anaerobic respiration,

Answer:
Anaerobic respiration: It is a process that does not involve the use of molecular oxygen. Food is not completely oxidised to CO₂ and water. Less energy is present in anaerobic respiration.

(b) Breathing,
Answer:
Breathing: It is a physical process, which brings in fresh air to the respiratory surface and removes foul impure airs from the outside. It occurs outside the cells and is thus an extracellular process.

(c) Vital capacity,
Answer:
Vital capacity: It is defined as an important measure of pulmonary capacity. It is the maximum amount of air a person can expel from the lungs after first filling the lungs to their maximum extent.

Vital capacity is the sum total of inspiration reserve volume, tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume.
(1 + 1 + VC = IRV = TV/ERV)

(d) Tidal volume,
Answer:
Tidal volume: It is defined as the volume of air normally inspired or expired in one breath without doing any effort. It is about 500 ml in an adult person. It represents the volume of air, which is renewed in the respiratory system during every breathing.

(e) Respiratory centre.
Answer:
Respiratory centre: A number of groups of neurons located bilaterally in the medulla oblongata control the respiratory. These are called respiratory centres. These centres are named the dorsal respiratory group. Ventral respiratory group and pneumatic centre.

Question 10.
Write the role of the diaphragm and its Costals muscles in the breathing process.

Answer:
During breathing, when the lungs contract their volumes decrease resulting in the increase of air pressure in the lungs. Hence, the air is exhaled from the lungs. These two processes are called inspiration and expiration. During normal breathing, the downward and upward movement of the diaphragm takes place. When the diaphragm, contracts, the lower surface of the lung is pulled downward consequently the volume of the lungs increases.

This causes the inhalation of air or inspiration. When the diaphragm relaxes, lungs are compressed and air exhaled, expiration takes place. The demand for extra oxygen is fulfilled by the expansion of the rib cage, during exercise when the rate of breathing increases.

During expiration, high pressure is generated in the lungs and air moves out. The upward movement of the rib cage is caused mainly by the external intercostals muscles present between the ribs along with the assistance of few other adjacent muscles.

Similarly, the downward movement of the rib cage is facilitated by the internal intercostals, external oblique and internal oblique muscles, position of the diaphragm, ribs and sternum during breathing as shown in the diagram

Position of diaphragm, ribs and sternum during breathing