NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS CLASS – 12 | GEOGRAPHY INDIA- PEOPLE AND ECONOMY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | CHAPTER- 13 | HUMAN DEVELOPMENT | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 13 HUMAN DEVELOPMENT NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 12 GEOGRAPHY INDIA- PEOPLE AND ECONOMY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON HUMAN DEVELOPMENT

Question 1.
Describe the trend of fertility and mortality rates in India since 1951.
Answer:

Fertility and Mortality rates
(1) Death rate. The crude death rate (number of deaths per thousand of population in a particular year) in India has declined rapidly from 27.1 in 1951 to 7.48 per thousand in 2011.

(2) Decline in infant mortality rate (number of deaths of children under one year of age per thousand live births) has decreased from 148 to 47.5 per thousand.

(3) Child (0-4 years) mortality rate declined from 51.9 per thousand to 22.5. It means risk of death has declined at each stage of life. Certainly it is a definite improvement in health.

(4) The birth rates have also declined but at a slower rate. It came down from 40.8 per thousand to 26.1

(5) Simultaneously, total fertility rate also registered decline from 6 children per woman of child¬bearing age to 2.9.

Question 2.
Examine the causes of comparatively low literacy rates in the country.
Answer:

In India, the literacy rate, according to 2011 census, is 74.04 per cent. The male literacy rate is 82.14 per cent while female literacy rate is 65.46 per cent. Thus there is a gap of 16.68 per cent in male and female literacy rate. Several social and economic factors are responsible for low literacy rate in India.

  • General poverty of people.
  • Low status of women.
  • High ratio of drop-outs from schools.
  • Low female literacy rate.
  • Farm based economy.
  • Prejudices against female education.
  • Fast growing population.

But due to changing socio-economic conditions, the literacy rate is steadily increasing.

Question 3.
Identify the area of high and low literacy in the country.
Answer:

There are wide regional disparities in literacy rate. It varies from 63.82 per cent in Bihar to 93.91 per cent in Kerala (2011).
(1) Kerala maintains its top position closely followed by Lakshadweep (92.28 per cent) and Mizoram (91.58 per cent).

(2) Bihar ranks last in literacy among the states and union territories of India.

(3) Total 22 states and union territories are above the national average while 13 are below it.

(4) Literacy is very high (above 72 per cent) in 17 states and 7 union territories viz., Kerala, Mizoram, Lakshadweep, Tripura, Himachal Pradesh, Maharastra, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu, Nagaland, Manipur, Uttarakhand, Gujarat, Dadar & Nagar Haveli, West Bengal, Punjab, Haryana, Karnataka, Meghalaya, Goa, Delhi, Chandigarh, Puducherry, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Daman and Diu.

Reasons :
(i) These are most urbanised states union territories
(ii) some of them are highly influenced by social and religious organisations.
(iii) Highest level of literacy in Kerala may be attributed to the states’ long tradition of education due to enlightened administration and high proportion of non-agricultural workers.

Question 4.
Why Human Development is necessary? Explain.
Answer:

According to Paul Streeten, human development is necessary on account of the following reasons :
1. The ultimate purpose of the entire exercise of development is to improve the human conditions and enlarge people’s choices.

2. Human development is a means to higher productivity. A well-nourished, healthy, educated, skilled, alert labour force is the most productive asset. Therefore, investments on these sectors are justified on grounds of productivity too.

3. It helps in reducing the rate of growth of population.

4. Human development is friendly to the physical environment also. Deforestation, desertification and soil erosion declines when poverty declines.

5. Improved living conditions and reduced poverty contributes to a healthy civil society, enhanced democracy and greater social stability.

6. Human development also helps in reducing civil disturbances in the society and in increasing political stability.

Question 5.
Distinguish between Economic development and Human development.
Answer:

The basic difference between the concepts of economic development and the human development is :
(i) The first focuses exclusively on the increase in income, while the second embraces the widening of all aspects of human life—economic, social, cultural or political.

(ii) Economic development is essential but in a different perspective. The basic tenet behind this is that it is the use of income and not income itself that is decisive in expanding human choices. Since the real wealth of nations is their people, the goal of development should be the enrichment of human life.

Question 6.
Write a note on indicators of Human development used in India.
Answer:

Indicators of Human Development. The quality of life and the level of human well-being are difficult to measure quantitatively. However, in search of a comprehensive measure that could capture the various dimensions of human development, the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has developed composite index, now known as the Human Development Index (HDI).

It includes
(i) longevity of life
(ii) knowledge base, and
(iii) a decent material standard of living. Initially, life expectancy was chosen as an index of longevity, adult literacy as an index of knowledge and per capita Gross National Product adjusted for Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) as an index of decent life. Therefore, a methodolgy was evolved to construct a composite index rather than several indices.

Question 7.
‘Development is freedom. Discuss.
Or
Explain the Western Euro-Centric view of development.
Answer:

According to Euro-centric Western view, development is freedom. It is believed that “Development is freedom” which is often associated with modernisation, leisure, comfort and affluence.

The present day symbols of develpment are :

  • Computerisation
  • Industrialisation
  • Efficient transport
  • Communication network
  • Larger education development
  • Advanced medical facilities
  • Safety and security of individual.

Every individual, community and government measures its performance or levels of development in relation to the availability and access to some of these things. But, this may be partial and one-sided view of development. It is often called the western or euro¬centric view of development. For a postcolonial country like India, colonisation, marginalisation, social discrimination and regional disparity, etc. show the other face of development.
So, it is said, ‘Development and Environmental degradation are two faces of the same coin.

Question 8.
Which factors determine the nature of human development ?
Answer:

Low scores in the HDI is a matter of serious concern but, some reservations have been expressed about the approach as well as indicators selected to calculate the index values and ranking of the states/ countries.
(1) Lack of sensitivity to the historical factors like colonisation, imperialism and neo-imperialism

(2) Socio-cultural factors like human rights violation, social discrimination on the basis of race, religion, gender and caste.

(3) Social problems like crimes terrorism and war

(4) Political factors like nature of the state, forms of the government (democracy or dictatorship) level of empowerment are some factors that are very crucial in determining the nature of human development. These aspects have special significance in case of India and many other developing countries.

Question 9.
Describe the indicators of a healthy life. Describe the progress made in India in these.
Answer:

Indicators of a Healthy Life. Life free from illness and ailment and living a reasonably long life span are indicative of a healthy life.

  • Availability of pre and post natal health care
  • facilities in order to reduce infant mortality and
  • post delivery deaths among mothers
  • old age health care
  • adequate nutrition and
  • safety of individual are some important measures of a healthy and reasonably long life progress in India.

1. Death Rate. India has done reasonably well in some of the health indicators like decline in death rate from 25.1 per thousand in 1951 to 8.1 per thousand in 1999.

2. Decline in Infant Mortality Rate. Infant mortality from 148 per thousand to 70 during the same period.

3. Life expectancy. Similarly, it also succeeded in increasing life expectancy at birth from 37.1 years to 62.3 years for males and 36.2 to 65.3 years for females from 1951 to 1999. Though, these are great achievements, a lot needs to be done.

4. Birth rate. Similarly, it has also done reasonably well in bringing down birth rate from 40.8 to 26.1 during the same years, but it still is much higher than many developed countries.

Question 10.
Explain the relation between Environ¬ment, Resources and Development. State the views of different writers.
Or
“The prime task before any development activity in India is to maintain parity between population and resources.” Justify the statement.
Or
“Development is a substantive concept once it is achieved it will address all the socio¬cultural and environmental ills of the society.” Analyse the statement.

Answer:
Population, Environment and Development. Development in general and human development in particular is a complex concept used in social sciences. It is complex because for ages it was thought that development is a substantive concept and once it is achieved it will address all the socio-cultural and environmental ills of the society.

Though, development has brought in significant improvement in the quality of’ life in more than one way but increasing regional disparities, social inequalities, discriminations, deprivations, displacement of people, abuse of human rights and undermining human values and environmental degradation have also increased.

Population and Resources. At the other extreme of this approach lie the views expressed by the Neo-Malthusians, environmentalists and radical ecologists. They believe that for a happy and peaceful social life proper balance between population and resources is a necessary condition. According to these thinkers, the gap between the resources and population has widened after eighteenth century.

There have been marginal expansion in the resources of the world in the last three hundred years but there has been phenomenal growth in the human population. Development has only contributed in increasing the multiple uses of the limited resources of the world while there has been enormous increase in the demand for these resources. Therefore, the prime task before any development activity is to maintain parity between population and resources.

It is not the availability of resources that is as important as their social distribution. Resources everywhere are unevenly distributed. Rich countries and people have access to large resource baskets while the poor find their resources shrinking. Moreover, unending pursuit for the control of more and more resources by the powerful and use of the same for exhibiting ones prowess is the prime cause of conflicts as well as the apparent contradictions between population resource and development.

Indian culture and civilisation have been very sensitive to the issues of population, resource and development for a long time. It would not be incorrect to say that the ancient scriptures were essentially concerned about the balance and harmony among the elements of nature.

Mahatma Gandhi in the recent times advocated the reinforcement of the harmony and balance between the two. He was quite apprehensive about the on-going development particularly the way industrialisation has institutionalised the loss of morality, spirituality, self-reliance, non-violence and mutual co-operation and environment.

In his opinion, austerity for individual, trusteeship of social wealth and non-violence are the key to attain higher goals in the life of an individual as well as that of a nation. His views were also re-echoed in the Club of Rome Report “Limits to Growth” (1972), Schumacher’s book “Small is Beautiful” (1974), Brundtland Commission’s Report “Our Common Future” (1987) and finally in the “Agenda-21 Report of the Rio Conference” (1993).

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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS CLASS – 12 | GEOGRAPHY INDIA- PEOPLE AND ECONOMY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | CHAPTER- 11 | POPULATION: DISTRIBUTION, DENSITY, GROWTH AND POPULATION | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 11 POPULATION: DISTRIBUTION, DENSITY, GROWTH AND POPULATION NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 12 GEOGRAPHY INDIA- PEOPLE AND ECONOMY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON POPULATION: DISTRIBUTION, DENSITY, GROWTH AND POPULATION

Question 1.
‘The decades 1921-1951 are referred to as the period of steady l growth of population, whereas the decades of 1951-81 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India Explain giving reasons.
Answer:

Growth the populations is the change in the number of people living in a particular area between two points. The decadal and annual growth rates of population in India are both very high.

The decades 1921 -1951

  • It is a period of steady growth of population rate.
  • There was an overall improvement in health and sanitation.
  • It brought down the Mortality rate.
  • The crude death rate remained high.

The Decades 1951 -1981

  • It is a period of population explosion in India.
  • There was a rapid fall in Mortality rate.
  • There was a high fertility rate of population.
  • There was improvement in living conditions,
  • Migration from neighbouring countries particularly Bangladesh, Nepal, Pakistan, etc., had contributed to high growth rate of India.
  • Economy rose and development acitivites.

Question 2.
“Apart from birth and death, migration is another way by which the population size changes.” Justify the statement.
Answer:

Migration is one of the major factors that affects the population change. Rural urban migration is important factor contributing to the population growth of cities. Population declines due to out-migration or immigration of people to foreign countries. Population increases due to in-migration or immigration of people from foreign countries.

Internal migration does not make any change but international migration makes the differences in the size of population. Marriage is a social factor which change the size of population if women married to foreigner population decreased and population of her husband country increased. Facilities of education, health, etc. inspire people to migrate. Due to employment facilities people migrate from their birth place.

Question 3.
Describe briefly the factors responsible for the variations in ; density of population in India.
Or
An uneven distribution of population suggests a close relationship between socio-population and physical and economic factors”. Support the statement with suitable examples.
Answer:

Density of population means the average number of people living in a sq. km. area. It is called arithmetic density. It is calculated as under :
Density ol population = Total population  Total area 
Density of population of India in 2011
=1210 crore persons 32.8 lakh sq. km. area =382 persons per sq. km.
With this average density of 382 persons per sq. km, India is considered to be one of the densely populated countries of the world.

Distribution Of Population

The population in India is not evenly distributed among different states. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal and Tamil Nadu are the most populous states of India while Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Sikkim, Nagaland, Meghalaya and Tripura are sparsely populated states. The factors affecting the distribution of population can be grouped into three classes:

  • Physical factors
  • Socio-economic factors
  • Demographic factors

The following factors determine the density of population:

(i) Relief of the Land. Plain areas attract more population than mountains and plateaus. It is so because in plains, it is easy to conduct business, industry and farming. Against this, in the mountainous areas like Himachal Pradesh and Meghalaya the density is low. It is so because in hilly areas facilities like flat land, transport, irrigation, etc. are not available for the conduct of trade, industry and farming. A high density of population is found in the fertile plains of the Ganga and Sutlej.

(ii) Climate. The extremely cold climate of Ladakh and northern Himachal Pradesh, extremely hot climate of Thar Desert in Rajasthan and wet climate of Meghalaya discourage human settlement.

(iii) Rainfall. Areas with regular and moderate rainfall are densely populated. For instance, in West Bengal, density of population is 1029 per sq. km. due to the adequate rainfall which is beneficial for farming.

(iv) Irrigational Facilities. If the rainfall is scanty in an area but irrigational facilities are available, agriculture becomes possible which in turn supports large population. It is for this reason that we find high density in the coastal areas of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu where water is available for irrigation.

(v) Soil. Deep, fertile soils are suitable for agriculture. River valleys, deltas and lowlands are the most productive areas. River valleys are densely populated areas. There is sparse population in region of poor soils.

(vi) Minerals. The presence of mineral deposits supports a high population density. New towns have sprung up in Damodar valley due to presence of minerals. Coal, water power and petroleum help in the location of industries. These industrial areas support a large population.

(vii) Rivers and water supply. Rivers are the main source of water supply. Most of the towns are located along the banks of rivers. The ancient civilisation grew up in the river valleys. Deserts are sparsely populated due to shortage of water.

(viii) Agriculture. Productive areas can generally support dense population. In West Bengal, three crops a year are obtained in rice-cultivating areas. Therefore, West Bengal has high density of population in agricultural areas. Areas adopting modern high yielding crops have high density of population like Punjab.

(ix) Means of transportation. Means of transportation affect industries, agriculture and trade of region. Areas with developed and means of transportation attract population. Inaccessible areas like mountains are sparsely populated.

(x) Demographic factors. Fertility, mortality, migration and urbanisation also affect the distribution of population.

Question 4.
“The spatial distribution of population in India is highly uneven.” Discuss with the help of suitable examples.
Or
Describe the spatial patterns of density of population in India.
Answer:

The distribution of population in India is very unequal. According to 2001 census, the total population of India is 121.02 crores and the density of population is 324 persons per sq. kilometre. The density of population varies according to relief, climate and the agricultural productivity of the land. The density of population depends on the amount of rainfall. The areas of sufficient rainfall can support a large number of people.

Keeping in view, the national average density (382 persons per sq km), three types of population density areas are recognized: —
1. Densely populated areas: These areas have a density of more than 400 persons per sq kilometre. The high density areas make a girdle round the Deccan plateau. Right from Sutlej-Beas plain to Brahamputra valley, the density of population is very high. Three clusters of high density are found :
Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 1 Population Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition Important Questions 4
(а) West Coastal Plain. Kerala has 859 persons per sq. kilometre density of population.
(b) The East Coastal Plain. Tamil Nadu has a density of 555 persons per sq. kilometre. Mahanadi, Godawari and Krishna deltas are clusters of high density.
(c) The Northern Plain. It includes West Bengal (1029), Bihar (1102), Uttar Pradesh (828), Punjab (550), Haryana (573).

Factors favouring high density :

  • Sufficient rainfall.
  • Fertile river valleys and deltas.
  • 2 to 3 crops of rice in a year.
  • Irrigation facilities.
  • Healthy climate.
  • Rich in mineral and power resources.
  • Rural economy.
  • Urban and Industrial development in Kolkata and Delhi.

2. Moderately populated areas. These include the areas with a density between 250 to 500 persons per sq. kilometre. These areas are surrounded by Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats. Maharashtra (365), Andhra Pradesh (308), Karnataka (319), Gujarat (308), Odisha (269), Goa (399), Assam (397) have a moderate density.
Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 1 Population Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition Important Questions 5
Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 1 Population Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition Important Questions 6

Factors for moderate density:

  • Agriculture is not developed due to thin and rocky soils, undulating topography.
  • Rainfall is uncertain.
  • Means of transporation are not developed.
  • Some areas have high density of population due to irrigation and Green Revolution, lava soils, mineral resources and Industrial development.

3. Sparsely populated areas. These areas have a density less than 250 persons per sq. kilometre. The mountainous, arid and forest areas are not attractive to human habitation. An extensive tract of low density extends from the Aravallis to Odisha.

(a) North Eastern India. This region includes Meghalaya (132), Manipur (122), Nagaland (119), Sikkim (86) and Arunachal Pradesh (17).

(b) Rajasthan Desert. Rajasthan has a density of 128 persons per sq. kilometre.

(c) Western Himalayas. It includes Jammu and Kashmir (124), Himachal Pradesh (123).

Factors for low density:

  • The hilly nature of the land.
  • Dense forests.
  • Low rainfall.
  • Poor economic development.
  • Absence of minerals.
  • Lack of irrigation and agriculture.
  • Cold climate.

Ranking of States and Union Territories by Population : 2011

Rank in 2011Indian States/Union TerritoriesPopulation 2011Percent to total population of INDIADensity of Population
121,21,01,93,422
3
100.00
4
382
5
INDIA1,21,01,93,422100.00382
1.Uttar Pradesh19,95,81,47716.49828
z.Maharashtra11,23,72,9/29.29365
3.Bihar10,38,04,6378.581,102
4.West Bengal9,13,47,7367.551,029
5.Andhra Pradesh4,93,86,7994 00308
6.Madhya Pradesh7,25,97,5656.00236
7.Tamil Nadu7,21,38,9585.96555
8.Rajasthan6,86,21,0125.67201
9.Karnataka6,11,30,7045.05319
10.Gujarat6,03,83,6284.99308
11.Odisha4,19,47,3583.47269
12.Kerala3,33,87,6772.76859
13.Jharkhand3,29,66,2382.72414
14.Assam3,11,69,2722.58397
15.Punjab2,77,04,2362.29550
16.Chhattisgarh2,55,40,1962.11189
17.Haryana2,53,53,0812.09573
18.NCT of Delhi*1,67,53,2351.3811,297
19.Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh*1,25,48,9261.04124
20.Uttarakhand1,01,16,7520.84189
21.Himachal Pradesh68,56,5090.57123
22.Tripura36,71,0320.30350
23.Meghalaya29,64,0070.24132
24.Manipur27,21,7560.22122
25.Nagaland19,80,6020.16119
26.Goa14,57,7230.12394
27.Arunachal Pradesh13,82,6110.1117
28.Puducherry*12,44,4640.102,598
29.Mizoram10,91,0140.0952
30.Chandigarh*10,54,6860.099,252
31.Sikkim6,07,6880.0586
32.Andaman & Nicobar Islands*3,79,9440.0346
33.Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu*585,7640.05970
34.Lakshadweep*64,4290.012,013
35.Telangana *Union Territories3,52,86,7573.00307

# Note: The erstwhile state of Jammu & Kashmir reorganised into two Union Territories – Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh. As per Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union territories) Act, 2019, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu have been merged.

Question 5.
Describe the geographical distribution of different language families in India.
Answer:

The people of India display a high degree of diversity in their languages. The languages spoken by the people can be classified into four language families.

1. Austric Family. The Austric languages are spoken by 6.2 million people in India. These include languages spoken by tribal people.

  • Munda language is spoken by tribal groups of Santhals, Mayurbhanj, Ranchi, Betul and Baudh Khondmahals (Jharkhand).
  • The Mon Khmer Khasi language is spoken in Khasi and Jaintia hills of Meghalaya.
  • Nicobari language is spoken in Nicobar Island.

2. Sino-Tibetan Family. These languages are spoken by tribal groups of Himalayan Region.

  • Tibeto-Himalayan group includes Tibetan, Balthi, Ladakhi, Lahauli and Bhutia : Lahauli, Kanauri and Lepcha. Ladakhi has the largest number of speakers.
  • North-Assam group includes Aka, Drafla, Abor, Miri and Mishmi Mishing mostly spoken in Arunachal Pradesh.
  • The Assam-Burmese group includes Bodo, Naga, Kochin and Kukichin.

3. Dravidian Family. These languages are spoken in Deccan plateau region. It includes Tamil (Tamil Nadu), Malayalam (Kerala), Kannada (Karnataka) and Telugu (Andhra Pradesh). There is less diversity in this group of languages. It also includes Kin, Parji, Khond, Tulu, Kurgi, etc.

4. Aryan Family. It has two main branches :
(i) Dardic
(ii) Aryan

The majority of people speak these languages. Hindi is the principal language spoken by the majority of people. Hindi is the main language in Northern plains. Urdu, Sindhi, Marathi, Konkani, Oriya, Bangla, Punjabi, Rajasthani, Marwari are other important languages in different regions. Hindi occupies the fourth place in the World. Urdu is very akin to Hindi and is widely spoken in this belt.

Question 6.
Discuss the religious composition of Indian population and its spatial distribution.
Answer:

Religious Composition : Important aspect of India’s population is the multiplicity of religious faiths. It is commonly known that the religion of the land is Hinduism. India witnessed successive penetration by other religions (Christianity, Judaism, Zorastrianism, Islam) and sections of Indian population embraced these faiths from time to time.

(1) The earliest to appear was Christianity. Historical records show that the Syrian Christians appeared on the west coast of India in the very first century of the Christian era.

(2) The Arab traders brought the message of Islam to the people of India living on the west coast much before the Muslim conquest of India.

(3) Buddhism which was once upon a time a major religion of the land is today confined to a few pockets only.
It is thus obvious that the religious composition of population has been changing with conversions from one faith to another, due to migration and partition of the country.

Different Religions. The religious groups of India include Hindus, Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists and Jains, although other religious faiths such as Judaism and Zorastrianism are also represented. Several tribal communities adhere to animism and totemism. Hindus account for 82 per cent of the total population. They are distributed in all parts of India. However, in some districts they are less numerous than the Muslims, Christians, Sikhs or Buddhists.

The Muslims are the largest minority group and account for 12.12 per cent of the total population. The proportion of Christians is 2.34 per cent while Sikhs account for 1.93 per cent of the total population. Buddhists and Jains account for 0.76 and 0.39 per cent of the total population, respectively. It may be noted that while Hindus are found everywhere, other religious groups have their concentration in a few pockets only.

(1) Hindus : Hindus remain the most numerous groups everywhere.

(a) In many parts of the country such as a few districts of Orissa and Madhya Pradesh the proportion of Hindus population goes up to 95 per cent or even above. It is lowest (5 %) in Mizoram.

(b) In the sub-Himalayan districts of Uttar Pradesh and Himachal Pradesh the proportion of Hindu population is high above 95 per cent.

(c) The Hindu percentage remains well above 90 per cent in eastern Madhya Pradesh, eastern Gujarat, southern Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and coastal Andhra Pradesh.

(d) There are, however, certain districts on the west coast where the Hindu percentages fall below 70 per cent and even below 50 per cent. Hindus are in minority in Punjab, Jammu & Kashmir, Meghalaya, Nagaland and North East Tribal areas.

(2) Muslims : According to the 1991 Census, Muslim population numbered 101.5 million which accounted for 12.12 per cent of the country’s total population. The major areas of Muslims concentration are situated in the Kashmir Valley, parts of the upper Ganga plain (Uttar Pradesh) and a number of districts in West Bengal where the Muslim proportion ranges between 20 and 40 per cent. In Murshidabad (West Bengal), the Muslim proportion goes as high as 61.40 per cent. In the upper Ganga Valley, Muslims are fairly predominant in several districts.

(3) Christians : Of the 19.64 million Christians of India, about 29 per cent live in the state of Kerala alone. Other areas of Christian concentration are in Goa and Tamil Nadu.

About 30 per cent of population of Goa consists of Christians. Several Tribal districts of Odisha and Bihar have significant proportion of Christian population. Likewise, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland and Manipur have very high proportion of Christians. In Nagaland for example, their share in the total population is as high as 87.47 percent.

Mizoram with 85.73 per cent of its population consisting of Christians follows closely. Percentages remain very high in the districts of Meghalaya and some districts of Manipur (between 50 and 98 per cent). Several districts of Uttar Pradesh and Punjab have small Christian population.

(4) Sikhs : The 1991 Census returns show that there are 16.25 million Sikhs in the country. While there is no part in India where the Sikhs are not found, their major concentration is seen in the states of Punjab and neighbouring districts of Haryana. This is obvious because Sikhism arose from the soil of Punjab.

Minor pockets of Sikh concentration are found in the Tarai region of Uttar Pradesh, Ganganagar, Alwar and Bharatpur districts of Rajasthan. Sikhs account for 4.84 per cent of the total population of the Union Territory of Delhi. In the urban areas of other states, Sikhs live in small numbers.

(5) Buddhists, Jains and Parsis : India has about 6.38 million Buddhists, 3.55 million, Jains and about 72,000 Parsis. Of the total Buddhists of India, 79 per cent live in Maharashtra alone. These are Neo-Buddhists who embraced this religion after large scale conversion under the influence of the movement launched by Baba Saheb Ambedkar. The main pockets of traditional Buddhism, however, lie in Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh and Tripura.

Of the total population of India, 28.80 per cent live in Maharashtra, 16.78 per cent in Rajasthan and 14.65 per cent in Gujarat. These three states account for 60.23 per cent of the Jain population of the country. An interesting feature of the distribution of Jains is that their majority live in the urban areas. The Parsis are the smallest religious group. They are most concentrated in Western parts of India in Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Question 7.
Discuss the trend of urbanisation in India with special reference to the post independence period.
Answer
:
Urbanisation in India : According to census, the population is classified into two groups; rural and urban. People living in towns are included
in urban population. A town is an area which has a municipal committee, corporation etc. ; it has a population more than 5000 and 75% people are engaged in occupations other than agriculture.

India is primarily an agricultural country. Most of people live in villages. Villages have been the basis of Indian culture. India has a large urban population. According to census of 2011, the total urban population in India was 39 crores. It is almost equal to the urban population of U.S.A. (25,9 crore) India ranks the largest urbanised country in the world. But the degree of urbanisation in India is low as compared to other countries of the world.

CountryUrban population %
U.S.A.82.6
Brazil84.9
Egypt 43.7
Pakistan36.7
India31.7

Growth of urban population :

With the rapid increase in population, the urban population has also rapidly increased. During the last 110 years (1901-2011), the total population of India increased three times, but the urban population has increased eleven times during the same period.

Rural and Urban Population : 1901-2011

Census yearPopulation (million)Percentage of total population
RuralUrbanRuralUrban
19012132689.210.8
19112262689.710.3
19212232888.811.2
19312463388.012.0
19412754486.113.9
19512996282.717.3
19613607982.018.0
197143910980.119.9
198152415976.723.3
199162921874.325.7
200174128572.227.8
201183337768.831.7

The rate of growth of urbanisation has been slow during the period 1901.-61. But during the period of 20 years (1961-81) there has been a rapid growth of urbanisation in India. The urban population increased from 7.8 crores to 15.6.

The percentage of urban population increased from 17.9% to 23.3%. In 2001 the urban population has increased to 28.5 crores (27.8% of the total population). The growth of towns has helped rapid growth of urbanisation. Many industrial towns have been established. The Indian towns have been classified into 6 groups.

ClassPopulation
Class I Class IIMore than 1 Lakh 50000 – 99999
Class III20000 – 49999
Class IV10000-19999
Class V5000 – 9999
Class VILess than 5000

After independence, the number of big towns is increasing while the number of small towns is decreasing. In 1991, there were 299 class I towns out of 4689 towns. In 1981, there were 218 class I towns, but in 1901 there were only 24 class I towns. The number of million towns in India is 35.

These towns have a population of 10 crores which is about 1.3rd of total urban population of India. Kolkata, Mumbai, ‘Delhi, Chennai, Bangalore, Ahmedabad, Hyderabad, Pune, Kanpur, Nagpur, Jaipur, Lucknow are million towns in India.

Question 8.
‘Dense population is found in states in Ganga and Sutlej plain.’ Explain.
Answer:

West Bengal (1029 persons per sq. km) and Bihar (1102 persons) are the two states with dense population in Northern plains, Uttar Pradesh (20 crores population) is the state with highest population of India with density of population of 828 persons per sq. km. Punjab has density of population of 550 persons per sq. km. while Haryana has a density of population of 573 persons per sq. km. All the states he in Ganga Sutlej Basin.

Question 9.
Identify the challenges of the adolescent population before the society. Enlist a few measures to overcome these problems.
Answer:

The share of adolescents is about 20.9% of the population. The adolescent population though regarded as the youthful population, having high potential is quite vulnerable if not quided properly. The National youth policy looks into the overall development of our large youth population. It stresses on an all round improvement of the youth and adolescent enabling them to shoulder responsibility towards constructive development of the country.

  • It reinforces the qualities of patriotism and responsible citizenship.
  • Special emphasis was given in empowering women and girl child to bring parity in the male and the female status.
  • Efforts were made to look into health. Sports and recreation creativity and awareness about new innovations in the spheres of science and technologies.

Question 10.
Show the following on the outline map of India and label these.
Answer:

(1) Most populated state.
(2) Least populated state.
(3) State with highest density of population.
(4) State with lowest density of population.
(5) State with highest growth rate of population.
(6) State with lowest growth rate of population.
(7) State with highest percentage of rural population.
(8) Most urbanised state.
(9) State with highest sex ratio.
(10) State with lowest sex ratio.
Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 1 Population Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition Important Questions 7
Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 1 Population Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition Important Questions 8

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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS CLASS – 12 | GEOGRAPHY INDIA- PEOPLE AND ECONOMY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | CHAPTER- 12 | MIGRATION : TYPES , CAUSES AND CONSEQUENCES | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 12 MIGRATION : TYPES , CAUSES AND CONSEQUENCES NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 12 GEOGRAPHY INDIA- PEOPLE AND ECONOMY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON MIGRATION : TYPES , CAUSES AND CONSEQUENCES

Question 1.
Explain the main reasons for the migration of males and females separately in India. All Indio 2014
Answer:

The main reasons for the migration of males and females separately in India are as follows:

  • They migrate mainly because of employment/work. Only 2% of males migrate because of marriage (only in Meghalaya).
  • About 65% of women migrate because of marriage. Only 3% of women migrate for employment.

Question 2.
Explain any three push factors that have caused rural to urban migration in India.
OR
Explain any three ‘push factors’ which compel the people to migrate from one area to another area in India.
Answer:

Push factors are those that force people to leave their place of residence or origin. Push factors may include:

  1. Poverty and hunger are one of the main reasons in push factors of migration.
  2. When people do not find means of livelihood in their home villages, they are pushed out to the nearby or distant towns.
  3. Political disturbances and inter-ethnic conflicts drive people away from their homes.

Question 3.
Why do people migrate? State the four streams of migration in India. All India 2012
Answer:

People migrate from one place to another mainly due to poverty, poor economic activity, lack of basic infrastructure like health care, education, etc. Apart from these factors, natural disasters like Tsunami, earthquake, etc and war or local conflicts are also strong reasons for migration.

The four streams of migration are:

  • Rural to Rural
  • Rural to Urban
  • Urban to Rural
  • Urban to Urban

Question 4.
How is migration a response to the uneven distribution of opportunities over a space? Explain the economic consequences of migration in India.
Answer:

Migration is the permanent or semi-permanent change of a person’s place of residence. The main cause for male migration is unemployment. People migrate for work and employment. The main cause for female migration is marrige. About 65% for female move out from their parental house following their marriages. Migration act as agents of social change.

The new ideas related to new technologies, family planning, girls education, etc get diffused from urban to rural areas through them. Migration leads to inter-mixing of people from diverse cultures. It widen up the mental horizon of people at large.
For economic consequences of migration,

Consequences of migration are discussed below:
Positive

  1. Remittances are imported for the economy of a country as migrants sent remittances to their family members for food, repayment of loans/debts, treatment, marriages, children’s education, agricultural inputs, construction of houses, etc.
  2. Green revolution in the rural areas of Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh was a success because of the migrants from rural areas of Eastern Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha.

Negative

  1. Overcrowding due to unregulated migration.
  2. Development of unhygenic slums in industrially developed states like Maharashtra, Gujarat, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Delhi.

Question 11.
Explain why the causes of male and female migration are different in India. Find out the environmental consequences of migration. (Delhi 2016)
OR
Explain with examples any three environmental consequences of migration of people in India. (Delhi 2000)
Answer:
Causes of male and female migration are different in India as according to census 2001, about 65% of women migrate because of marriage. Only 3% of women migrate for employment. Whereas the majority of 38% of males migrate because of employment/work. Only 2% of males migrate because of marriage, (mainly in Meghalaya).

There are some environmental consequences of migration, which have degraded the quality of life especially in urban areas which are:

  • Over crowding of people, due to rural-urban migration, has put pressure on existing social and physical infrastructure.
  • Unplanned growth of cities and development of illegal and unhygenic slums result of a this.
  • Cities are facing some major environmental problems like over use depletion of natural resources, pollution of ground water, air pollution, noise pollution, disposal of sewage and management of solid wastes.

Question 5.
Examine the economic and social consequences of migration in India.
Answer:

For economic consequences of migration,
Consequences of migration are discussed below:
Positive

  1. Remittances are imported for economy of a country as migrants sent remittances to their family members for food, repayment of loans/debts, treatment, marriages, children’s education, agricultural inputs, construction of houses, etc.
  2. Green revolution in the rural areas of Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh was a success because of the migrants from rural areas of Eastern Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha.

Negative

  1. Overcrowding due to unregulated migration.
  2. Development of unhygenic slums in industrially developed states like Maharashtra, Gujarat, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Delhi.

Social consequences of migration are discussed below:
Positive

  1. Migrants work as an agent of social change. They diffuse new ideas of science and technology, family planning, girl’s education, etc from one place to another place.
  2. People also bring different cultures with them which help to break the narrow considerations and broaden up the mental horizon of the people.

Question 6.
Define the term migration. Explain the social and environmental consequences of migration in India.
Answer:

The movement of population from one place to another is known as migration. Migration may be permanent or temporary. When people migrate permanently from one place to another is called as permanent migration. On the other hand, temporary migration may be annual, seasonal, or daily. Census of India determines the migration by place of birth or residence.

For social and environmental consequences,

Migration is the movement of people from one place in the world to another for the purpose of taking up permanent or semi-permanent residence.
For economic consequences of migration,

Consequences of migration are discussed below:
Positive

  1. Remittances are imported for the economy of a country as migrants sent remittances to their family members for food, repayment of loans/debts, treatment, marriages, children’s education, agricultural inputs, construction of houses, etc.
  2. Green revolution in the rural areas of Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh was a success because of the migrants from rural areas of Eastern Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha.

Negative

  1. Overcrowding due to unregulated migration.
  2. Development of unhygienic slums in industrially developed states like Maharashtra, Gujarat, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Delhi.

The demographic consequences are both positive as well as negative:
Positive

  1. Migration leads to redistributing of the population within a country.
  2. The process of urbanisation is dependent on rural-urban migration. Thus, it gives acceleration to urbanisation as well as industrialisation.

Negative

  1. Imbalance in an age of sex composition are also brought in the recipient areas,
  2. Aged skill selective out-migration from rural areas have an adverse effect on the rural demographic structure.
  3. Imbalance in demographic structure.
  4. Age and skill selective out-migration created an imbalance in the demographic structure of rural areas.
  5. Age and sex-composition are seriously affected in states of Uttarakhand, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Eastern Maharashtra due to migration.
  6. The same situation happens in the recipient states.

Question 7.
Examine any five push factors that cause migration of population in India. Delhi 2013
Answer:

Push factors are those that force people to leave their place of residence or origin. Push factors may include:

  • The abject poverty and hunger is one of the main reasons in push factors of migration.
  • When people do not find means of livelihood in their home villages, they are pushed out to the nearby or distant towns.
  • Political disturbances and inter-ethnic conflicts drive people away from their homes.
  • Environmental problems and natural disasters like drought, floods etc often are caused the loss of money, homes and jobs and render people helpless.
  • When a place is having heavy population pressure on land resources, then finally the natural resources tend to exhaust in near future overused by population and became extinct, which ultimately forced people to move from that place to another place.

Question 8.
What is migration? What are the four streams of migration in India? Write the main features of each?
Answer:

Migration is the movement of people from one place in the world to another for the purpose of taking up permanent or semi-permanent residence.
The four streams of internal migration in India with their features are as follows

Rural to Rural In this stream, people move from a rural area to another rural area in India. The short distance of this stream is dominated by females because of marriage. Male migrants are less in this streams About 64% of females migrate in India because of marriage.

Rural to Urban In this stream, people move from a rural area to urban area. Most rural-urban migrants are males. They migrate because of work and employment. Urban areas attract them by opportunities existing in those areas. Another reason is education. Female migration for education is less.

Urban to Urban In this stream, people usually move out from a small urban area to large urban area to gain more opportunities. Millions of people in India migrate from small cities to large metropolitan cities for higher wages and salary

Urban to Rural In this stream, people move from urban area to rural area. In India,’ this type of migration is usually done by retired and old age people due to overcrowding, pollution and others.

Data Based Questions

Question 9.
Study the given diagram, showing intra state migration streams in India and answer the questions that follow.

Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 12 Migration Types, Causes and Consequences 1
(i) Which migration stream shows the highest number of migration both male and female categories?
(ii) Why does this migration stream show the highest migration in both categories? Give one reason for each.
(iii) Why do female migrants dominate in all four streams of migration? Give two reasons.
Answer:
(i) Rural to rural stream shows the highest numbers of migration in both male and female categories.
(ii) Rural to rural stream has the highest numbers of a female because of marriage. While male had the highest number because of work.
(iii) Female migrants dominate in all four streams of migration because of:

  • Marriage
  • Move with household
  • Better education
  • High wages
  • Better opportunities

Question 10.
Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow.

Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 12 Migration Types, Causes and Consequences 2
(i) Which are the four streams of migration in India?
(ii) What is the common feature shown among all the migration stream?
(iii) In which stream is the number of female migrants is the highest? Give the main reason for it.
Answer:
(i) Rural to Rural (R-R), Rural to Urban (R-U), Urban to Rural (U-R), and Urban to Urban (U-U) are four streams of migration in India.
(ii) The common feature is the dominance of female migrants in all the streams.
(iii) Rural to rural stream has highest numbers of female because of marriage.

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Chapter -6 Changes Around Us | Class 6th | NCERT Science Solutions | EDUGROWN

Here students can get info about NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science so that they can get to know the answers to the questions in case they are not able to find it. You can find the best Class 6th Science NCERT Solutions explained in conformance with the CBSE curriculum for Class 6.

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 6 Changes Around Us

1. To walk through a waterlogged area, you usually shorten the length of your dress by folding it. Can this change be reversed?
Ans: Yes, it can be reversed by unfolding the dress.

2. You accidentally dropped your favourite toy and broke it. This is a change you did not want. Can this change be reversed?
Ans: No, this change (breaking of toy) cannot be reversed.

3. Some changes are listed in the following table. For each change, write in the blank column, whether the change can be reversed or not.
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 6 Changes Around Us Q3

4. A drawing sheet changes when you draw a picture on it. Can you reverse this change?
Ans: No, we cannot get fresh drawing sheet once a picture is drawn on it with paint/ oil or water. However, we can reverse the change, if soft pencil is used to draw the picture.

5. Give examples to explain the difference between changes that can or cannot be reversed.
Ans: Examples of reversible and irreversible changes
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 6 Changes Around Us Q5

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 6 Changes Around Us Q5.1

6. A thick coating of a paste of Plaster of Paris (POP) is applied over the bandage on a fractured bone. It becomes hard on drying to keep the fractured bone immobilised. Can the change in POP be reversed?
Ans: No, the change in POP cannot be reversed since it is a chemical change.

7. A bag of cement lying in the open gets wet due to rain during the night. The next day the sun shines brightly. Do you think the changes, which have occurred in the cement, could be reversed?
Ans. No, these are irreversible chemical changes.

EXTRA QUESTIONS for Class 6 Science Chapter 6

Class 6 Science Chapter 6 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Give two examples of slow changes.
Ans:
(a) Growing of plants
(b) Ripening of fruits.

2. Give two examples of fast changes.
Ans:
(a) Blowing of balloon
(b) Rolling out roti from dough ball.

3. Give two examples of reversible changes.
Ans:
(a) Drying of wet clothes
(b) Heating of milk.

4: Give two examples of irreversible changes.
Ans:
(a) Milk to cheese
(b) Cooking of food.

5. Can you say deforestation is an irreversible or reversible change?
Ans: It is an irreversible change.

6. Does the size of the paper change after making an aeroplane by folding it or by cutting it?
Ans: Yes.

7. Can you change the shape of a eraser after erasing?
Ans: Yes.

8. Why does a blacksmith heat the metal rim to fix it on a cart wheel?
Ans: A blacksmith heats the metal rim to fix it onto a cart wheel because a metal rim is made slightly smaller. On heating, the rim expands and fits onto the wheel. Then on cooling, the rim contracts and fits tightly onto the wheel.

9. What are slow and fast changes? Give examples.
Ans: The changes which take place in a long period of time are called slow changes whereas that changes which take place in a short period of time are called fast changes.
Examples:
(a) Rusting of iron, formation of day and night, ripening of fruits, growing of trees are slow changes.
(b) Burning of paper, stretching of rubber band, blowing of balloons, bursting of crackers are fast changes.

10. Classify the following into slow and fast changes:
(i) Spinning of top
(ii) Formation of day and night
(iii) Formation of curd from milk
(iv) Change of season
(v) Making curd from milk by adding lemon juice.
Ans:
(i) Fast change
(ii) Slow change
(iii) Slow change
(iv) Slow change
(v) Fast change.

11. Classify the following as slow or fast change:
(i) Bearing of heart
(ii) Change of seasons
(iii) Burning of paper
(iv) Weathering of rocks
(v) Melting of wax
(vi) Cooking of food
(vii) Burning of wax
(viii) Melting of ice cream
(ix) Curding of milk
(x) Formation of day and night
Ans:
(i) Fast
(ii) Slow
(iii) Fast
(iv) Slow
(v) Fast
(vi) Slow
(vii) Fast
(viii) Fast
(ix) Slow
(x) Slow

12. Write some changes happening in our body.
Ans:
(a) Our nails grow
(b) Our hair grows
(c) We grow taller
(d) Our weight increases.

 13. Some common changes are given in Table 6.1. Which of these changes do you think can be reversed?
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 6 Changes Around Us VSAQ Q13

Class 6 Science Chapter 6 SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. What is a physical change? Explain with example.
Ans: The changes in which only physical properties of substances are changed and no new substance is formed is called physical change. It is a reversible change. Example: Boiling and freezing of water.
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 6 Changes Around Us SAQ Q1

2. What is a chemical change? Explain with example.
Ans: The changes in which new substance with new chemical properties are formed are called chemical changes.
Example: Reaction between washing soda and lemon juice in which C02 and other substances are formed.
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 6 Changes Around Us SAQ Q2

3. What happens when sugar is heated?
Ans: When sugar is heated continuously then a black powdery substance is formed. This is a chemical change.
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 6 Changes Around Us SAQ Q3

Class 6 Science Chapter 6 LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Explain how a metal rim slightly smaller than a wooden wheel can be fixed on it.
Ans: The metal rim is always made slightly smaller than the wooden wheel. The metal rim is heated. On heating, the rim expands and fit onto the wheel. Cold water is then poured over the rim. Due to cooling the metal rim contracts and fits tightly onto the wheel.
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 6 Changes Around Us LAQ Q1
2. How does curd being set? Is this change reversible?
Ans: A small quantity of curd is added to warm milk. The milk is stirred and is set aside undisturbed for a few hours at a warm place. In a few hours, the milk changes into curd.
Curd formed from milk cannot be changed into milk again. So, this an irreversible (cannot be reversed) change.

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Chapter -5 Separation of Substances | Class 6th | NCERT Science Solutions | EDUGROWN

Here students can get info about NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science so that they can get to know the answers to the questions in case they are not able to find it. You can find the best Class 6th Science NCERT Solutions explained in conformance with the CBSE curriculum for Class 6.

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances

1. Why do we need to separate different components of a mixture? Give two examples.
Ans: Among different components of mixture there are many substances which are harmful or not useful for us. To remove these harmful or unuseful components we need to separate them. For example:
(a) Tea leaves are separated from the liquid with a strainer while preparing tea.
(b) Stone pieces from wheat, rice or pulses are picked out by hand.

2. What is winnowing? Where is it used?
Ans: Winnowing is used to separate heavier and lighter components of a mixture by wind or by blowing air. This process is used by farmers to separate lighter husk particles from heavier seeds of grain.
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances Q2

3. How will you separate husk or dirt particles from a given sample of pulses before cooking?
Ans: Husk or dirt particles can be separated by winnowing, being lighter they wall fly away from pulses.

4. What is Sieving? Where can it be used?
Ans. Sieving is a process by which fine particles are separated from bigger particles by using a sieve. It is used in flour mill or at construction sites. In flour mill, impurities like husks and stones are removed from wheat. Pebbles and stones are removed from sand by sieving.
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances Q4

5. How will you separate sand and water from their mixture?
Ans. We will separate sand and water by sedimentation and decantation method. First we leave this mixture for some time. After some time, the sand which is; heavier is settled down at the bottom. After that we wall pour water into another container and the mixture will be separated.
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances Q5

 6. Is it possible to separate sugar mixed with wheat flour? If yes, how will you do it?
Ans. Sugar can be separated from wheat flour by sieving. Due to difference in the size of particles, sugar will stay on sieve and wheat flour will pass through it.

7. How would you obtain clear water from a sample of muddy water?
Ans. We will obtain clear water from a sample of muddy water by the process of filtration.
A filter paper is one such filter that has very fine pores in it. Figure 5.12(a, b) shows the steps involved in using a filter paper. A filter paper folded in the form of a cone is fixed in a funnel. The mixture is then poured on the filter paper. Solid particles in the mixture do not pass through it and remain on the filter.
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances Q7

8. Fill in the blanks:
(a) The method of separating seeds of paddy from its stalks is called .
(b) When milk, cooled after boiling, is poured onto a piece of cloth the cream (malai) is left behind on it. This process of separating cream from milk is an example of ______. 
(a) Salt is obtained from sea water by the process of ____________ .
(b) Impurities settled at the bottom when muddy water was kept overnight in a bucket. The clear water was then poured off from the top. The process of separation used in this example is called ____________.
Ans.
(a) threshing
(b)filtration
(b) evaporation
(d) sedimentation and decantation

9. True or false?
(a) A mixture of milk and water can be separated by filtration.
(b) A mixture of powdered salt and sugar can be separated by the process of winnowing.
(c) Separation of sugar from tea can be done with filtration.
(d) Grain and husk can be separated with the process of decantation.
Ans.

(a) False
(b) False
(c) False
(d) False

10. Lemonade is prepared by mixing lemon juice and sugar in water. You wish to add ice to cool it. Should you add ice to the lemonade before or after dissolving sugar ? In which case would it be possible to dissolve more sugar ?
Ans. We should add ice after dissolving sugar. When the temperature is high then more sugar can be dissolved. After mixing ice it gets cool and less sugar will dissolve in it.

EXTRA QUESTIONS for Class 6 Science Chapter 5

Class 6 Science Chapter 5 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. What is strainer?
Ans. Strainer is a kind of sieve which is used to separate a liquid from solid.

2. Name the method used to separate cream from curd.
Ans. Centrifugation.

3. How will you separate mango from a mixture of mango and apple?
Ans. By picking.

4. You are given a mixture of salt and sand. Can you separate them by picking?
Ans. No, we cannot separate them by picking.

5. Name the method used to separate the pieces of stone from grain.
Ans. Handpicking.

6. How can you separate grains from stalk?
Ans. We separate grains from stalk by threshing.

7. What types of material can we separate by using handpicking?
Ans. The materials having different size and colour can be separated by handpicking.

8. Name the other methods used to separate solid materials of different size.
Ans. Sieving.

9. Name the process used to separate heavier and lighter components of a mixture.
Ans.
 Winnowing.

10. Can the above stated method be used if both the components have same weight?
Ans. No, this method cannot be used.

11. What is evaporation?
Ans. The process of conversion of water into vapour is called evaporation.

12. Name the method by which we get salt from ocean water.
Ans. Evaporation.

13. Define condensation.
Ans. The process of conversion of water vapour into liquid form is called condensation.

14. Write opposite process of evaporation.
Ans. Condensation.

Class 6 Science Chapter 5 SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

l. What is mixture?
Ans. When two or more than two substances are mixed together in any ratio then it is called a mixture.

2. Write various methods of separation of components from their mixture.
Ans.

  1. Handpicking
  2. Threshing
  3. Winnowing
  4. Sedimentation
  5. Decantation
  6. Filtration
  7. Evaporation
  8. Condensation

3. Define the term handpicking.
Ans. The process used to separate slightly larger particles from a mixture by hand is called handpicking. For example: Stone pieces can be separated from wheat or rice by handpicking.

4. What do you mean by threshing? Where is it used?
Ans. Threshing is a process in which we separate grain from stalks. This process is used by farmer to separate gram, wheat, rice, mustard seeds in his field.

5. Write three methods of separation.
Ans. Handpicking, threshing and winnowing.

6. How will you separate oil and water from their mixture?
Ans. Oil, being lighter than water, will float on it. Two distinct layers are formed and slowly oil is allowed to flow into another container and is separated from water. Separating funnel can also be used to separate the two.
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances SAQ Q6

 7. What is evaporation?
Ans. The process of conversion of water into vapour is called evaporation. This process takes place continuously where water is present. Common salt from sea water is obtained using this method.

8. Define winnowing.
Ans. The process is used to separate components from a mixture in which one component is heavier or lighter than other is called winnowing. Winnowing is done with the help of wind or by blowing air.

 9. What do you mean by sieving? Give an example.
Ans. Sieving allows the fine flour particles to pass through the holes of the sieve while the bigger particles or impurities remain on the sieve. For example, in a flour mill, impurities like husk and stones are removed from wheat before grinding it.

10. Match the column:
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances SAQ Q10

Class 6 Science Chapter 5 LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. What is threshing?
Ans. Threshing is a process that is used to separate grain from stalks. In this process the stalks are beaten to free the grain seeds. Sometimes threshing is done with the help of bullocks. Machines are also used to thresh large quantities of grain.
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances LAQ Q1

2. Describe the method to obtain salt from sea water.
Ans. Sea water contains many salts mixed in it. One of them is common salt, when sea water is allowed to stand in shallow pits, water gets evaporated by sunlight and slowly turns into water vapour. In a few days, the water evaporates completely leaving behind the solid salts. Common salt is then obtained from this mixture of salts by further purification.

3. What is decantation?
Ans. Decantation is a process, of separation of insoluble solids from liquid. The suspension of solid particles in liquid is allowed to stand for some time. The solid particles then settle down at the bottom of the container and clean water goes up. Without disturbing the settled particles the clean water is transferred into other container.

 4. Where is decantation used? Give two examples.
Ans.
(i) Decantation is used to separate insoluble solids or liquid from liquid. Rain water is a mixture of mud and water. It is purified by decantation.
(ii) Oil and water also get separated by this method because oil floats up.

 5. How will you prepare cheese (paneer)?  
Ans. For making paneer, a few drops of lemon juice sire added to milk as it boils. This gives a mixture of particles of solid paneer and liquid. The paneer is then separated by filtering the mixture through a fine cloth or strainer.

6. Explain the method that can be used for separating the following mixture:
(i) Sand and husk
(ii) Wheat, sugar and stalk
(iii) Water and petrol
(iv) Rice and salt
(v) Sand and salt
Ans.
(i) Mixture of sand and husk: Sand and husk can be separated by the method of winnowing.
(ii) Mixture of wheat, sugar and stalk: For separating stalk from the mixture we should follow the winnowing method because milk is lighter than other two components and get separated. Wheat and sugar can be separated by sieving because they are in different sizes.
(iii) Mixture of water and petrol: Water does not dissolve in petrol. So, it can be separated by the use of separating funnel.
(iv) Mixture of rice and salt: Rice and salt can be separated by sieving.
(v) Mixture of sand and salt: Sand and salt is mixed with water, salt dissolves in water and sand can be separated solution by sedimentation and decantation followed by filtration. After that using evaporation common salt is separated.

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Chapter -4 Sorting Materials Into Groups | Class 6th | NCERT Science Solutions | EDUGROWN

Here students can get info about NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science so that they can get to know the answers to the questions in case they are not able to find it. You can find the best Class 6th Science NCERT Solutions explained in conformance with the CBSE curriculum for Class 6.

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 4 Sorting Materials Into Groups

Q. 1. Name five objects which can be made from wood.
Ans.
(i) Table
(ii) Chair
(iii) Doors
(iv) Boat
(v) Bed

Q.2. Select those objects from the following which shine:
Glass bowl, plastic toy, steel spoon, cotton shirt
Ans. Glass bowl and steel spoon are shining objects.

Q.3. Match the objects given below with the materials from which they could be made. Remember, an object could be made from more than one material and a given material could be used for making many objects.
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 4 Sorting Materials Into Groups Q3

Q. 4. State whether the statements given below are ‘true’ or ‘false’.
(i) Stone is transparent, while glass is opaque.
(ii) A notebook has lustre while eraser does not
(iii) Chalk dissolves in water.
(iv) A piece of wood floats on water.
(v) Sugar does not dissolve in water.
(vi) Oil mixes with water. 
(vii) Sand settles down in water.
(viii) Vinegar dissolves in water.
Ans.
(i) False
(ii) False
(iii) False
(iv) True
(v) False
(vi) False
(vii) True
(viii) True

Q. 5. Given below are the names of some objects and materials:
 Water, basket ball, orange, sugar, globe, apple and earthen pitcher Group them as:
(a) Round shaped and other shapes
(b) Eatables and non-eatables
Ans.
(a) (i) Round shaped: Basket ball, apple, orange, globe, earthen pitcher.
(ii) Other shapes: Water, sugar.
(b) (i) Eatables: Water, orange, sugar and apple.
(ii) Non-eatables: Basket ball, globe and earthen pitcher.

Q. 6. List all the items known to you that float on water. Check and see if they will float on an oil or kerosene.
Ans. (A) List of some items that float on water:

  1. Paper
  2. Wood
  3. Thin plastic sheets
  4. Wax
  5. Ice
  6. Thermocol
  7. Oil

(B) List of items that float on an oil:

  1. Paper
  2. Plastic sheet
  3. Wax
  4. Thermocol
  5. Wood

(C) List of items that float on kerosene:

  1. Paper
  2. Thermocol
  3. Thin plastic sheet

Q. 7. Find the odd one out from the following:
(a) Chair, Bed, Table, Baby, Cupboard
(b) Rose, Jasmine, Boat, Marigold, Lotus
(c) Aluminium, Iron, Copper, Silver, Sand
(d) Sugar, Salt, Sand, Copper sulphate
Ans.
(a) Baby (all others are non-living)
(b) Boat (all others are flowers)
(c) Sand (all others are metals)
(d) Sand (all others are soluble in water)

EXTRA QUESTIONS for Class 6 Science Chapter 4 

Class 6 Science Chapter 4 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Why do we need to group materials? Give one reason.
Ans: We often group materials for our convenience. It helps to describe their properties.

2. Suggest two bases on which we can group objects.
Ans:
(i) Material used in making the object, e.g. wood or metal/plastic.
(ii) Material of the object is soft or hard, or substance is soluble or insoluble in water.

3. Is a substance which can be compressed soft or hard?
Ans: Soft.

4. Select a lustrous material out of the following substances:
Ans: Aluminium.

5. Which material is generally used for making pens?Wood, aluminium, plastic, cotton 
Ans:Plastic or metal.

6. Is oil soluble in water?
Ans: Oil does not dissolve in water so it is insoluble in water but floats on the surface of water.

7. Name two objects which are made from opaque materials.
Ans: Wooden doors, blackboard/steel plate.

8. What is common between salt and sand?
Ans: Both have mass and are in solid state.

9. List three liquids which are transparent.
Ans. Water, alcohol and Acetone/Benzene.

10. Write two substances which are made from leather.
Ans: Belt and shoes.

11. Name some substances which are made from plastics.
Ans: Toys, plates, cups, buckets, baskets.

12. Which is more hard, sponge or iron?
Ans: Iron is harder than sponge.

13. Write two gases which are soluble in water.
Ans: Oxygen, Carbon dioxide.

14. Name two gases which are insoluble in water.
Ans: Hydrogen and Nitrogen.

Class 6 Science Chapter 4 SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Write any four properties of materials.
Ans:
(a) Appearance
(b) Hardness
(c) Solubility
(d) Float or sink in water
(e) Transparency

2. Why is a tumbler not made with a piece of cloth?
Ans: We use tumblers made of glass, plastic and metal to keep a liquid. These substances can hold a liquid.
A tumbler made of cloth cannot hold a liquid because:
(i) Cloth piece is not hard enough to hold liquids and
(ii) Cloth piece has very minute pores through which the’liquid oozes out.

3. What are the similarities between iron, copper and aluminium?
Ans:
(a) They all have lustre,
(b) They are all metals,
(c) They are hard.

4. Mention some materials which are made up of paper.
Ans: Books, notebooks, newspapers, toys, calendars, etc.

5. Why is water important for our body?
Ans: Water can dissolve a large number of substances, so it is needed by the body. It is also major part of our body cells.

6. What is the basis for sorting materials?
Ans: Materials are grouped on the basis of similarities or dissimilarities in their properties.

7. What is the reason for grouping materials?
Ans: Materials are grouped for our convenience to study their properties and also observe any patterns in these properties.

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 4 Sorting Materials Into Groups SAQ Q8

9. Make a table of different types of objects that are made from the same material.
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 4 Sorting Materials Into Groups SAQ Q9

10. Make a table and find out whether the following materials mix with water: Vinegar, Lemon juice, Mustard oil, Coconut oil, Kerosene.
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 4 Sorting Materials Into Groups SAQ Q10

 11. Metals have lustre (shine). Give reason why some metal articles become dull and loose their shine.
Ans: Metals when exposed to air react with moisture and gases present in it, thereby forming a dull layer of some other compound on it.

12. Kerosene, coconut oil, mustard oil do not dissolve in water, even on shaking. They separate after sometime forming two different layer. Explain why.
Ans: The molecules of water do not intermingle (mix) with the molecules of oil. The space between the molecules of water is not taken by oil, so they are immiscible in water.

13. Name a non-metal that has lustre.
Ans: Iodine.

14. Metals generally occur in solid state and are hard. Name a metal that exists in liquid state and a metal that is soft and can be cut with knife.
Ans: Mercury is a metal that exists in liquid state. Sodium and Potassium are soft metals and can be cut with knife.

15. Name the naturally occuring hardest substance known.
Ans: Diamond, it is made up of carbon (non-metal).

16. Why is water called a universal solvent?
Ans: Water dissolves a large number of substances in it. So it is called universal solvent.

Class 6 Science Chapter 4 LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. ‘Grouping of objects helps the shopkeeper.’ Justify the statement.
Ans: Proper grouping of objects helps shopkeeper in the following ways:
(i) He can locate the required object easily and quickly.
(ii) He can easily come to know what stocks are going to finish and he should purchase them for his customers.

2. Describe an experiment to prove that water is transparent.
Ans: Take a beaker half-filled with clean water. Put a coin in beaker of water.
Place the beaker undisturbed for a few minutes where enough light is present. Now, observe the coin immersed in water from the top of the beaker. Are you able to see the coin? You can clearly see the coin immersed in water. This proves that water is a transparent liquid.
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 4 Sorting Materials Into Groups LAQ Q2

3. Write an experiment to show that our palm is translucent.
Ans: Cover the glass of a torch with your palm at a dark place. Switch on the torch and observe from the other side of palm. We see that the light of torch passes through palm but not clearly. This experiment shows that our palm becomes translucent when a strong beam of light passes through it.
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 4 Sorting Materials Into Groups LAQ Q3

4. How can you show that some solids like sugar, salt are soluble in water whereas solids like chalk powder and sand are not soluble in water?
Ans: Collect samples of sugar, salt, chalk powder and sand. Take four beakers. Fill each one of them about two-third with water. Add a teaspoonful of sugar to the first beaker, salt to the second, chalk powder to the third and sand to the fourth. Stir the contents of each beaker with a spoon/stirrer.
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 4 Sorting Materials Into Groups LAQ Q4
Wait for a few minutes and observe what happens to the substances added to the’ water.
Note down your observations in the following table.
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 4 Sorting Materials Into Groups LAQ Q4.1
Inference:
(i) Sugar and salt are soluble in water.
(ii) Chalk powder and sand are insoluble in water.

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Chapter -3 Fibre to Fabric | Class 6th | NCERT Science Solutions | EDUGROWN

Here students can get info about NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science so that they can get to know the answers to the questions in case they are not able to find it. You can find the best Class 6th Science NCERT Solutions explained in conformance with the CBSE curriculum for Class 6.

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Textbook Questions Solved

Q.1. Classify the following fibres as natural or synthetic: nylon, wool, cotton, silk, polyester, jute.
Ans. Natural fibres: wool, cotton, jute, silk.
Synthetic fibres: nylon, polyester.

Q.2. State whether the following statements are ‘true’ or false’:
(a) Yam is made from fibres.
(b) Spinning is a process of making fibres.
(c) Jute is the outer covering of coconut.
(d) The process of removing seeds from cotton is called ginning.
(d) Weaving of yam makes a piece of fabric.
(e) Silk fibre is obtained from the stem of a plant.
(g) Polyester is a natural fibre.
Ans.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) False
(d) True
(e) True
(f) False
(g) False

Q.3. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Plant fibres are obtained from____________ and___________ .
(b) Animal fibres are___________ and___________ .
Ans.
(a) cotton plants, jute plants
(b) wool, silk

Q. 4. From which part of the plant cotton and jute are obtained?
Ans.
(i) Cotton – Cotton bolls (from the surface of cotton seeds) (fruit)
(ii) Jute – Stem

Q.5. Name two items that are made from coconut fibre.  
Ans.
(i) Ropes
(ii) Mats

Q.6. Explain the process of making yam from fibre.
Ans. Yarns are made up of thin strands called fibres. The process of making yam from fibres is called spinning. In this process, a mass of cotton wool are drawn out and twisted. This brings the fibres together to form yarn.

EXTRA QUESTIONS for Class 6 Science Chapter 3

Class 6 Science Chapter 3 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

Q.1. Name two varieties of cloth materials which are commonly used.
Ans. Cotton, silk/wool.

Q.2. What are fabrics?
Ans. Fabrics mean a woven material, textile or other materials resembling woven cloth.

Q.3. Name some fabrics in your surroundings.
Ans. Bed-sheets, blankets, curtains, table clothes, towels and dusters.

Q. 4.  Name the thing which is used to make fabric.
Ans. Yarns.

Q.5. What are yarns made of?
Ans. Yarns are made up of thin strands called fibres.

Q.6. How many types of fibres are there?                                                        ,
Ans. There are two types of fibres:
(i) Natural fibres
(ii) Synthetic fibres

Q.7. Name two natural fibres.
Ans. 
(i) Cotton
(ii) Jute

Q.8. Name two synthetic fibres.
Ans. 
(i) Polyester
(ii) Nylon

Q.9. What material you use for making wicks for oil lamps?
Ans. Cotton wool.

Q.10. Where does cotton wool come from.?
Ans. Cotton wool comes from cotton bolls.

Q.11. What are fruits of cotton plants called?
Ans. Cotton bolls.

Q.12. What type of soil is used to grow cotton plants?
Ans. Black soil.

Q.13. Define ginning of cotton.
Ans. The process of separating fibres from the seeds of cotton is called ginning of cotton.

Q.14. What is jute?
Ans. Jute is a fibre obtained from the stem of a jute plant.

Q.15. Name the states where jute plants are mainly grown in India.
Ans. West Bengal, Bihar and Assam.

Q.16. What is spinning?
Ans. The process of making yarns from fibres is called spinning.

Q.17. Name two hand-operated devices used for spinning.
Ans.
(i) Takli
(ii) Charkha

Q.18. How are fabrics prepared?
Ans. Fabrics are prepared from the yarns by weaving or knitting.

Q. 19. Name the process used to prepare fabrics from yams.
Ans. The processes which used to prepare fabrics are: (i) Weaving and (ii) Knitting.

Q.20. What is weaving?
Ans. The process of arranging two sets of yarns together to make a fabric is called weaving.

Q.21. What is knitting?
Ans. The process in which a single yarn is used to make a piece of fabric is called knitting.

Q.22. Name two methods of knitting.
Ans.
(i) By hands
(ii) By machines

Q.23. Where were the cotton and flax plants cultivated in ancient Egypt?
Ans. Cotton and flax plants were cultivated near the river Nile in ancient Egypt.

Q.24. Name some modem fabrics formed by unstitched piece of fabric. .
Ans. Saree, dhoti, lungi and turban.

Q.25. How are natural fibres better than synthetic fibres?
Ans. The natural fibre absorbs sweat, gives cooling effect and comfort in any season.

Q.26. Are all fibres produced by plants?
Ans. No.

Q.27. Cotton on burning gives paper burning smell and cotton is obtained from plants. Is paper also obtained from plants?
Ans. Yes, paper is also obtained from plants.

Class 6 Science Chapter 3 SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

Q.1. What do you observe when you are visiting a nearby tailoring shop?
Ans. In a tailoring shop we observe that there are many cuttings of fabrics left over after stitching. We see that some cuttings are of cotton, some are of silk or wool and some are of synthetic fibres.

Q.2. List the steps involved in the preparation of fabric.
Ans. The following steps are involved in the preparation of fabrics:
(i) Obtaining fibre,
(ii) Preparation of yarn from fibres by spinning,
(iii) When two sets of yarn are involved, yarns are woven on looms to make a fabric. When a single yam is used, the fabric is prepared by knitting.

Q.3. What are natural fibres? Explain with examples.
Ans. The fibres obtained from plants and animals are called natural fibres. For example, cotton from cotton bolls, jute from jute plant, silk from cocoon of silkworm and wool from hair of animals like sheep or goat.

Q.4. What are synthetic fibres?
Ans. The fibres which are made from chemical substances or which are not obtained from the plant and animal sources are called synthetic fibres. For example, polyester, nylon, and acrylic, etc.

Q.5. Explain how jute is obtained from the jute plant.
Ans. The jute plant is normally harvested at flowering stage. The stems of harvested plants are bundled and immersed in water for 10 to 15 days. The stems rot (the process is called retting) and fibres are separated by hand. These fibres are converted into yarns to make fabrics (Fig. 3.10).
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric SAQ Q5

Q. 6. What are looms?
Ans. The devices on which weaving of fabrics takes place are called looms. The looms are either hand operated or power operated.

Q. 7. What happens when a yam from a tom sock is pulled?
Ans. When we pull a yarn from a torn sock then a single yarn, gets pulled out continuously as the fabric gets unravelled. Socks are made up of knitted fabrics from a single yam.

Q. 8. What were the materials used by people in ancient times in place of clothes?
Ans. It appears that in those days people used the bark and big leaves of trees or animal skin and furs in place of clothes.

Q. 9. What happened when people began to settle in agricultural communities?
Ans. When people began to settle in agricultural communities then they learnt to weave twigs and grass into mats and baskets. Vines, animal fleece or hair were twisted together into long strands. These strands were woven into fabrics.

Q. 10. When we bum wool why do we get the smell of hair bum?
Ans. Wool is obtained from the fleece (hair) of sheep, goat, yak etc. This is the reason why burning of wool resembles the burning of hair.

Q. 11. When we bum nylon, why we do not get the smell of burning paper or burning hair?
Ans. Nylon is a synthetic fibre made from chemicals. On burning nylon these chemicals don’t produce the smell of burning paper or hair which are natural substances.

Class 6 Science Chapter 3 LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

Q.1. Describe the process of the formation of yam from cotton wool.
Ans. The cotton wool is obtained from cotton plants. The cotton plants are grown in fields. They are usually grown at the places having black soil and warm climate. The fmits of the cotton plants called cotton bolls are about the size of lemons. After maturing, the bolls burst open and seeds covered with cotton fibres can b,e seen. From the cotton bolls cotton is picked by hands. Fibres are then separated from the seeds by combing. This process is called ginning of cotton. It is done by hand or by machines. These fibres are then converted into yam.
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric LAQ Q1
Q.2. Describe the process of spinning and weaving.
Ans. Spinning: The process of making yarn from fibres is called spinning. In this process fibres from a mass of cotton wool are drawn out and twisted. By this fibres come together to form a yarn. Spinning can be done by hand, by takli and charkha. On a large scale, spinning is done with the help of machines.
Weaving: The process of arranging two sets of yarns together t6 make a fabric is called weaving. The process of weaving can be done on looms. The looms are either-hand operated or power operated.

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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS CLASS – 12 | PSYCHOLOGY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | CHAPTER-9 | DEVELOPING PSYCHOLOGICAL SKILL | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 9 DEVELOPING PSYCHOLOGICAL SKILL NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 12 PSYCHOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON DEVELOPING PSYCHOLOGICAL SKILL

1. What competencies are required for becoming an effective psychologist?

Answer

The competencies which are required for becoming an effective psychologist fall into three
broad sections:
(i) General Skills: These skills are generic in nature and are needed by all psychologists irrespective of their field of specialisation. These skills are essential for all professional psychologists, whether they are working in the field of clinical and health psychology, industrial/organisational, social, educational, or in environmental settings, or are acting as consultants. These skills include personal as well as intellectual skills. It is expected that it will not be proper to provide any form of professional training (in clinical or organisational fields) to students who do not possess these skills.

(ii) Observational Skills: A great deal of what psychologists as researchers and practitioners do in the
field is to pay attention, watch and listen carefully. They use all the senses, noticing what is seen, heard, smelt, tasted, or touched. A psychologist, thus, is like an instrument that absorbs all sources of information from the environment.

(iii) Specific Skills: These skills are core/basic to the field of psychological service. For example, psychologists working in clinical settings need to be trained in various techniques of therapeutic interventions, psychological assessment, and counselling. Similarly, organisational psychologists working in the organisational context need to have skills in assessment, facilitation and consultation, behavioural skills to bring about individual, group, team and organisational development besides research skills, etc. Though, specific skills and competencies are required for a very specialised professional functioning, nonetheless, all skill sets do overlap quite a bit.

2. What are the generic skills needed by all psychologists?

Answer

The list of generic skills needed by all psychologists are:
(i) Interpersonal Skills: ability to listen and be empathic, to develop respect for/interest in others cultures, experiences, values, points of view, goals and desires, fears, openness to receive feedback, etc. These skills are expressed verbally and/or non-verbally.
(ii) Cognitive Skills: ability to solve problems, engage in critical thinking and organised reasoning, and having intellectual curiosity and flexibility.
(iii) Affective Skills: emotional control and balance, tolerance/understanding of interpersonal
conflict, tolerance of ambiguity and uncertainty.
(iv) Personality/Attitude: desire to help others, openness to new ideas, honesty/integrity/value ethical behaviour, personal courage.
(v) Expressive Skills: ability to communicate one’s ideas, feelings and information in verbal, non-verbal, and written forms.
(vi) Reflective Skills: ability to examine and consider one’s own motives, attitudes, behaviours and ability to be sensitive to one’s own behaviour or others.
(vii) Personal Skills: personal organisation, personal hygiene, time management, and
appropriate dress

3. Define communication. Which component of the communication process is most important? Justify your answer with relevant examples.

Answer

Communication is a process that helps in transmitting meaning from one person to another. It is  a  conscious  or unconscious, intentional or unintentional process in which feelings and ideas are expressed as verbal and/or non-verbal messages that are sent, received, and comprehended.
One important component of communication is speaking with the use of language. Language involves use of symbols which package meaning within them. To be effective, a communicator must know how to use language appropriately. Because language is symbolic, it is necessary to be as clear and precise as possible when using words. Communication takes place within a context. So one needs to consider the other’s frame of reference, that is, the context used by the sender to say something. Also whether s/he shares your interpretation. If not, it is important to adjust your vocabulary level and choice of words to fit the level of the listener. Remember that slang expressions, words unique to a culture or region, and euphemism can sometimes become obstacles in good communication.

4. Describe the set of competencies that must be kept in mind while administering a psychological test.

Answer

The set of competencies that must be kept in mind while administering a psychological test are as follows:
(i) Ability to select and implement multiple methods and means of evaluation in ways that are responsive to, and respectful of diverse individuals, couples, families, and groups.
(ii) Ability to utilise systematic approaches to gather data required for taking decisions.
(iii) Knowledge of psychometric issues and bases of assessment methods.
(iv) Knowledge of issues related to integration of different data sources.
(v) Ability to integrate assessment data from different sources for diagnostic purposes.
(vi) Ability to formulate and apply diagnoses; to understand strengths and limitations of current diagnostic approaches.
(vii) Capacity for effective use of supervision to implement and enhance skills

5. What is the typical format of a counselling interview?

Answer

The format of a counselling interview is as follows:
(i) Opening of the Interview: The opening of interview involves establishing rapport between two communicators. The purpose is to make the interviewee comfortable. Generally, the interviewer starts the conversation and does most of the talking at the outset. This serves two functions, i.e. it establishes the goal of interview, and gives the interviewee time to become comfortable with the situation and the interviewer.
(ii) Body of the Interview: The body of the interview is the heart of the process. In this stage, the interviewer asks questions in an attempt to generate information and data that are required for the purpose.
(iii) Sequence of Questions: To accomplish the purpose of an interview, the interviewer prepares a set of questions, also called a schedule, for different domains, or categories s/he wants to cover. To do this, the interviewer must first decide on the domains/categories under which information is to be generated. For example, in the questions used in job interview, the interviewer selected several categories such as nature of the organisation last worked for, satisfaction with the past job, views on
product, etc. These categories and the questions within them are framed ranging from easy-to-answer to difficult-to-answer. Questions are also formulated to assess facts as well as subjective assessment

6. What do you understand by the term counselling? Explain the characteristics of an effective counsellor.

Answer

Counselling provides a system for planning the interview, analysing the counsellor’s and client’s behaviour, and determining the developmental impact on the client. In this section, we will discuss skills, concepts, and methods that are designed to help develop concrete competencies. A counsellor is most often interested in building an understanding of the clients problem by focusing on what
understanding the client has of her/his problem and how s/he feels about it. The actual or objective facts of the problems are considered less important, and it is considered more important to work on the feelings and their acknowledgement by the clients. The focus is more on the person and how s/he defines the problem.

The  following  elements  about counselling are common to the major theoretical approaches to counselling:
(i) Counselling involves responding to the feelings, thoughts, and actions of the clients.
(ii) Counselling involves a basic acceptance of the client’s perceptions and feelings, without  using  any  evaluative standards.
(iii) Confidentiality and privacy constitute essential ingredients in the counselling setting. Physical facilities that preserve this quality are important.
(iv) Counselling is voluntary. It takes place when a client approaches a counsellor. A counsellor never uses any kind of coercion for obtaining information.
(v) Counsellors and clients both transmit and receive verbal and non-verbal messages during the process. Therefore, awareness and sensitivity to the nature of the message is an important prerequisite for a counsellor’s effectiveness.

7. To be an effective counsellor, it is mandatory that s/he undergoes professional training. Do you agree with this statement? Give reasons in support of your arguments.

7.What competencies are required for becoming an effective psychologist?
Answer. 

For becoming an effective psychologists, following competences are essential:
(а)General Skills (b) Observational Skills (c) Specific Skills
(a)General Skills:
•General skills are essential for all professional psychologists.
•These skills include personal as well as intellectual skills.
•Once ensuring that a student has these skills subsequent training in his/her area of specializations to him/her intellectual and personal skill are as follows:
Interpersonal Skills: Ability to listen and be empathic. It may be verbal or non-verbal.
•Cognitive:
— Ability to solve problems — Having curiosity and flexibility
•Affective Skills:
— Openness to ideas — Agreeableness — Honesty
•Expressive skills: Ability to communicate in verbal and non-verbal form.
•Reflective Skills:
— Intrapersonal intelligence —Ability to examine own motives,attitude and behaviour.
•Personal skills:
— Personal hygiene — Time management
(b)Observational Skills:
Psychologists should have training in objectives and systematic observation.
•They should have skill to observe various aspects of surrounding including people and varying events.
•Psychologists should engage in observing people and their actions with following precautions:
— Patience. — Optimistic curiosity.
— Respecting clients privacy.
— Awareness of people reactions, emotions and motivation.
— Training good questions which could be answered during observation.
(c)If the psychologist wants to work in a specialized field then professional training in specific skill development is essential.
The main specific skills are as follows:
(a) communication skills (b) Psychological testing skill
(c) Interviewing skill (d) Counselling skill

8.Define communication. Which component of the communication process is most important? Justify your answer with relevant examples.
Answer.

Communication is a conscious or unconscious, intentional or unintentional process in which feelings and ideas are expressed as verbal and/or non-verbal messages that are sent, received and comprehended.
Component of the Communication:
The mort important component of communication is speaking with the use of language.
•Language involves use of vocabulary which includes words by symbols.
•Communicator must know how to use words appropriately in organized and understandable form.
•It is necessary to be clear and precise.
•Communication takes place within a context and needs to consider the other’s frame of reference.
•It is important for the speaker to adjust his vocabulary level and choice of words to
fit the level of the listener.
•Slang expressions, words unique to a culture, euphemism can become obstacles in good communication.
•Listening may appear as a passive behaviour, as it involves silence. But this is far from true.
•Listening requires a person to be attentive, patient, non-judgmental and have the capacity to analyze and respond.
•It is an active process.
•Hearing and listening are not the same, hearing is biological mechanism. It involves reception of a message through sensory channels.

9.Describe the set of competencies that must be kept in mind while administering a psychological test.
Answer.

•Developing the skills of psychological testing is important since tests are important tools used for the assessment of individuals for various purposes. Proper training is required for administration, scoring and interpretation of tests.
•Psychologists study individuals, differences based on factors such as occupation, age, gender, education, culture, etc.
•While using psychological test, following factors must be kept in mind:
1.An attitude of objectivity 2. Scientific orientation
3. Standardised Interpretation must be kept in mind. For example, in organizational and personnel work, in business and industry, where specialized tests are used to select individuals for specific jobs, it is essential to use actual performance records or ratings as a criterion for establishing validity of a test.
•Suppose the personnel department wants to know whether a certain psychological test can help it to identify potentiality of best stenographers.
•It must be established that the test differentiates among employees of several performance levels.
•It should be found the performance on the job of a newly employed worker selected on the basis of test indeed matches with his/her test scores.

10.What is the typical format of a counselling interview?
Answer

. Interview refers to purposeful conversation through face-to-face interactions.
•It follows a basic question-answer format.
•First, the objectives of the interview are set.
•The interviewer then prepares on interview format.
•There is a basic format which is followed, regardless of the interview’s purpose; i.e., an interview has three stages:
— Opening — The body — The closing
A.Opening of the Interview:
1. In involves establishing report between the two communicators, so that the interview becomes comfortable.
2. Generally, the interviewer starts the conversation and does most of the talking at the outset. This serves two functions:
(a)It establishes the goal of the interview
(b)It gives the interviewee time to become comfortable with the situation and the interviewer.
B. Body of the Interview:
1.This is the heart of the process.
2.In this stage, the interviewer asks questions in an attempt to generate information and data that are required to fulfil/required for the purpose.
Sequence of Questions:
To accomplish the purpose of an interview, the interviewer prepares set of questions – called a schedule for different domains or categories he/she wants to cover.
1.To form the schedule, the interviewer must first decide on the domain/categories under which information is to be generated. For example for questions used in job interview (box 9.5), the interviewer selected various categories such as not use’ of the organization last worked for, satisfaction with the past job, views on product etc.
2.These domains/categories and the questions within them are formed ranging from easy to answer to difficult to answer.
C. Closing of the Interview:
While closing the interview, the interviewer should:
1.Summarise what she/he has been able to gather.
2.Give a chance to the interviewee to ask questions or offer comments. One ‘ should end witfc a discussion of the next step to be taken.

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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS CLASS – 12 | PSYCHOLOGY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | CHAPTER-8 | PSYCHOLOGY AND LIFE | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 8 PSYCHOLOGY AND LIFE NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 12 PSYCHOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON PSYCHOLOGY AND LIFE

1: How is creativity related to intelligence? Differentiate between creativity tests and intelligence tests.

Ans: Imagination starts developing in early childhood and expressed through physical activities. Variations in potential for creativity heredity and environment like motivation, commitment, family support, peer influences, training, and opportunity.

  1. Terman, 1920, all creative people are intelligent, may not be high IQ, But all gifted people may not be creative. Therefore, intelligence by itself does not ensure creativity.
  2. Creative tests to assess variations- open ended; freedom to use ones imagination and express it in original ways; divergent thinking; ability to see new relationships; guess causes and consequences; put things in a new perspective.
  3. Intelligence tests are closed ended; convergent thinking; assesses memory, logical reasoning, accuracy, perceptual ability, clear thinking. No scope for originality, spontaneity, imagination.

2: Describe Lazarus’ general model of stress appraisal.

Ans: • Based on Cognitive theory of stress as given by Lazarus et al.

  • Depends on how the stressful event is interpreted or appraised.
  • Primary appraisal- positive, negative and neutral
  • Secondary appraisal- They are subjective and depend on:

o Past experiences. o Controllable- sense of self confidence and self-efficacy

o Type of stressor- environmental, social or psychological

o Dimensions of the stressor- intensity, duration, complexity predictability o Person characteristics- physiological, psychological, cultural

o Resources- physical, personal and social

3: What is addictive behaviour? Name any two frequently abused substances and describe their consequences.

Ans: – Addictive behaviour involves excessive intake of high calorie food resulting in extreme obesity or involving the abuse of substances such as alcohol or cocaine. ·

– Disorders relating to maladaptive behaviours resulting from regular and consistent use of the substance involved are included under substance related and addictive disorders ·

– These alter the way people think, feel and behave.

4: What are some of the measures suggested by WHO to prevent suicide? What are the approaches that are useful in strengthening positive self-esteem in children?

Ans: Some measures suggested by WHO include:

  • limiting access to the means of suicide
  • reporting of suicide by media in a responsible way • bringing in alcohol-related policies
  • early identification, treatment and care of people at risk
  • training health workers in assessing and managing for suicide
  • care for people who attempted suicide and providing community support

To foster positive self-esteem in children the following approaches can be useful:

  • accentuating positive life experiences to develop positive identity. This increases confidence in self.
  • providing opportunities for development of physical, social and vocational
  • establishing a trustful communication.
  • goals for the students should be specific, measurable, achievable, relevant

5: A big percentage of the population lives below the poverty line in India. As a responsible student, suggest steps to reduce poverty

Ans: Brief explanation of any 4 of the points given below: ·

– breaking poverty cycle by helping attain self-sufficiency ·

– helping poor take responsibility ·

– providing educational and employment opportunities ·

– measures for improving mental health ·

– steps for empowering the poor ·

– any other relevant point

6 Marks Questions

6: What are anxiety disorders? Explain its types.

Ans: Anxiety disorders is a combination of the following symptoms: rapid heart rate, shortness of breath, diarrhoea, loss of appetite, fainting, dizziness, sweating, sleeplessness, frequent urination and tremors.

-Types of anxiety disorders:

  1. Generalised anxiety disorder-consists of prolonged, vague, unexplained and intense fears that are not attached to any particular object. The symptoms include worry and apprehensive feelings about the future; hyper vigilance, motor tension, as a result of which the person is unable to relax, is restless, and visibly shaky and tense.
  2. Panic disorder-consists of recurrent anxiety attacks in which the person experiences intense terror. A panic attack denotes an abrupt surge of intense anxiety; occur in an unpredictable manner. The clinical features include shortness of breath, dizziness, trembling, palpitations, choking, nausea, chest pain or discomfort, fear of going crazy, losing control or dying.
  3. Phobias-irrational fears related to specific objects, people, or situations. Phobias can be grouped into three main types, i.e. specific phobias, social phobias, and agoraphobia.
  4. Obsessive-compulsive disorderare unable to control their preoccupation with specific ideas or are unable to prevent themselves from repeatedly carrying out a particular act or series of acts that affect their ability to carry out normal activities. obsessive behaviour is the inability to stop thinking and compulsive behaviour is the need to perform certain behaviours over and over again.
  5. Post- traumatic stress disorder –include recurrent dreams, flashbacks, impaired concentration, and emotional numbing

7: Identify the causes belying any international conflict which is causing distress to humanity. As a psychologist, what strategies would you suggest to resolve this conflict?

Ans: Identify the conflict; Mention the causes- poverty, fighting for resources, religion,etc

– Some of these strategies to resolve conflicts are:

  1. Introduction of superordinate goals :Like Sherif’s study showed that by introducing superordinate goals, inter-group conflict can be reduced. Altering perceptions : Conflicts can also be reduced by altering perceptions and reactions through persuasion, educational and media appeals, and portrayal of groups differently in society.
  2. Increasing intergroup contacts :This can be done by involving groups in conflict on neutral grounds through community projects and events. The idea is to bring them together so that they become more appreciative of each others stand.
  3. Respect for other group’s norms : It has been noticed that a number of communal riots between different groups have taken place because of such insensitivity

8: Why do conflicts arise between groups and how can they be resolved?

Ans: Conflict is a process in which either an individual or a group perceives that others have opposing interests, and both try to contradict each other; intense feeling of We and they.

Major reasons of conflict: lack of communication; relative deprivation; believe in the superiority of ones party over the other; feeling of being poorly regarded by others; Desire for retaliation; biased perception; people in a group are more aggressive; perceived inequity. 

Resolution of conflict: Introduction of super ordinate goals; Altering perception Redrawing group boundaries; Increasing intergroup contacts; Negotiations; Structural solutions; Respect for other group norms.

9: Explain mental disorders from the perspective of any three psychological models.

Ans: 1. Psychodynamic model –Abnormal symptoms are viewed as the result of conflicts between these forces. This model was first formulated by Freud who believed that three central forces shape personality- intrapsychic conflict— instinctual needs, drives and impulses (id), rational thinking (ego), and moral standards (superego).

  1. Behavioural model.This model states that both normal and abnormal behaviours are learned and psychological disorders are the result of learning maladaptive ways of behaving. Learning can take place by classical conditioning (temporal association in which two events repeatedly occur close together in time), operant conditioning (behaviour is followed by a reward), and social learning (learning by imitating others’ behaviour).
  2. Cognitive model.People may hold assumptions and attitudes about themselves that are irrational and inaccurate. People may also repeatedly think in illogical ways and make overgeneralizations, that is, they may draw broad, negative conclusions on the basis of a single insignificant event.
  3. Humanistic-existential model, which focuses on broader aspects of human existence. Humanists believe that human beings are born with a natural tendency to be friendly, cooperative and constructive, and are driven to selfactualise, i.e. to fulfil this potential for goodness and growth. Existentialists believe that from birth we have total freedom to give meaning to our existence or to avoid that responsibility. Those who shirk from this responsibility would live empty, inauthentic, and dysfunctional lives.

10: Is there a consistency between attitude and behavior? Explain.

Ans: Attitude and behaviour are consistent when

  • the attitude is strong, and occupies a central place in the attitude system,
  • the person is aware of her/his attitude,
  • there is very little or no external pressure for the person to behave in a particular way. For example, when there is no group pressure to follow a particular norm,
  • the person’s behaviour is not being watched or evaluated by others, and
  • the person thinks that the behaviour would have a positive consequence, and therefore, intends to engage in that behaviour.
  • when behaviour decides the attitude. For example, when somebody indulges in a behaviour, it may lead to change in attitude.
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Chapter -2 Components of Food | Class 6th | NCERT Science Solutions | EDUGROWN

Here students can get info about NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science so that they can get to know the answers to the questions in case they are not able to find it. You can find the best Class 6th Science NCERT Solutions explained in conformance with the CBSE curriculum for Class 6.

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 2 Components of Food

Class 6 Science Chapter 2 Textbook Questions Solved

1. Name the major nutrients in our food.
Ans: The major nutrients in our food are carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins and minerals.
The table below shows the nutrients present in some food items:
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 2 Components of Food Q1

2. Name the following: 
(a) The nutrients which mainly give energy to our body.
(b) The nutrients that are needed for the growth and maintenance of our body.
(c) A vitamin required for maintaining good eyesight.
(d) A mineral that is required for keeping our bones healthy.
Ans:
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Proteins
(c) Vitamin A
(d) Calcium

3. Name two foods each rich in:
(a) Fats
(b) Starch
(c) Dietary fibre
(d) Protein

Ans:
(a) Ghee, butter,
(b) Raw potato, rice,
(c) Spinach, cabbage, carrot, ladies finger, (any two)
(d) Milk, egg, fish, meat, pulses (any two).

4. Tick (/) the statements that are correct, cross (X) those which dire incorrect.
(a) By eating rice alone, we can fulfill nutritional requirement of our body,
(b) Deficiency diseases can be prevented by eating a balanced diet.
(c) Balanced diet for the body should contain a variety of food items.
(d) Meat alone is sufficient to provide all nutrients to the body.
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 2 Components of Food Q4

5. Fill in the blanks:
(a) ________ is caused by deficiency of Vitamin D. ,
(b) Deficiency of_________ causes a disease known as beri-beri.
(c) Deficiency of Vitamin C causes a disease known as________________ .
(d) Night blindness is caused due to deficiency of_______________ in our food.
Ans:
(a) Rickets
(b) Vitamin B1
(c) Scurvy
(d) Vitamin A

EXTRA QUESTIONS for Class 6 Science Chapter 2

Class 6 Science Chapter 2 VERY SHORT  ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Do all meals consist of the same food items?  
Ans: No, all meals do not have the same food items.

2. Why should a meal have different food items?
Ans: A meal should have different food items because our body needs different kinds of nutrients for proper functioning.

3. Do all foods contain all the required nutrients?
Ans: No, all foods do not contain sill the nutrients required by our body.

4. Name two main types of carbohydrates found in our food.
Ans:
(i) Starch                                                  (ii) Sugar

5. What are carbohydrates?
Ans: The compounds of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen which provide energy for our body are called carbohydrates.

6. What happens when two or more drops of iodine solution fall on starch substance?
Ans: The colour of the substance becomes blue-black.

7. If any food item gives blue-black colour with iodine then which nutrient is present in the food?
Ans: Starch.

8. Name two substances which provide carbohydrates.
Ans:
(i) Potato
(ii) Rice/wheat/maize/sugar

9. Name the food nutrient indicated by an oily patch on paper.
Ans:An oily patch on paper shows the presence of fat.

10. Name two energy-providing nutrients.
Ans:
(i) Carbohydrates
(ii) Fats

11. Name a nutrient which helps in repairing the damaged body cells.
Ans: 
Proteins.

12. Name two nutrients which protect the body from diseases.
Ans:
(i) Vitamins
(ii) Minerals

13. Name two plant food items which provide proteins.
Ans:
(i) Dal (pulses)
(ii) Soyabean

14. Name two sources of proteins provided by animals.
Ans:
(i) Milk
(ii) Eggs

15. Which type of food is called body-building food?
Ans: The food containing proteins is called body-building food.

16. Name two food items which provide fats.
Ans:
(i) Oils
(ii) Ghee

 17. Name various types of vitamins.
Ans: Various types of vitamins are:

  1. Vitamin A,
  2. Vitamin B-complex,
  3. Vitamin C,
  4. Vitamin D,
  5. Vitamin E,
  6. Vitamin K.

 18. Name a vitamin which represents a group of vitamins.
Ans: Vitamin B-complex.

 19. Name two sources of Vitamin A.
Ans:
(i) Fish-oil
(ii) Milk

 20. Write two sources of Vitamin B.
Ans:
(i) Liver
(ii) Beans

 21. Write two sources of Vitamin C.
Ans:
(i) Orange/lime
(ii) Amla

 22. Write two sources of Vitamin D.
Ans:
(i) Fish
(ii) Butter

 23. What is roughage?  
Ans. The food containing plant fibres which sure also known as dietary fibres is called roughage.

24. What is the main Function of roughage?
Ans: The main function of roughage is to help our body get rid of undigested food.

25. Name some food items which provide roughage.
Ans: Whole grains, fresh fruits and vegetables are the main sources of roughage.

Class 6 Science Chapter 2 SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. What are nutrients? Name major nutrients.
Ans: The components of food which are needed by our body for growth and development are called nutrients. The major nutrients are:
(i) Carbohydrates
(ii) Fats
(iii) Proteins
(iv) Vitamins
(v) Minerals

2. What are the functions of carbohydrates?
Ans: They complete the energy requirements of the body so they are called energy providing food.

3. Write test for detecting the presence of starch.
Ans: Take a piece of the food item. Put 2-3 drops of dilute iodine solution on it. If the colour of the food item becomes blue-black, then it indicates the presence of starch in the food item.
(i) Food + Iodine — Blue-black colour (starch present)
(ii)  Food + Iodine — No blue-black colour (no starch present)

4. What are the functions of proteins?
Ans: Proteins are the most important nutrient. They are called body-building food. They help in the growth and repair of damaged cells and tissues of the body. They also help our body to fight against infections. Proteins make our nails, hair and muscles.

5. How can you test presence of proteins in a given food item?
Ans:Take a small quantity of the food item. If the sample is solid, grind it. Put some part of this in a clean test tube, add 10 drops of water to it and shake the test tube. Now, with the help of a dropper, add two drops of solution of copper sulphate and 10 drops of solution of caustic soda to the test tube. Shake well and place the test tube in test tube stand for a few minutes.
Observe colour of the contents of test tube. If colour of the contents turns violet, the food item contains protein.
Note: Copper sulphate and caustic soda solutions are harmful. Handle them with care.
Food + water + copper sulphate + caustic soda → violet colour → protein is present.

6. What are fats? Name some fat-containing substances.
Ans: The energy rich sources of food are called fats. They provide energy to the body. All types of nuts, mustard seeds, milk and butter are the major sources of fat. Like carbohydrates, fats also contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen but fats contain less oxygen than carbohydrates.

7. Write test for detecting, presence of fat.
Ans: Take small quantity of the food item. Rub it on a piece of white paper. Observe carefully, you will find that the piece of white paper shows an oily patch on it which indicates that the food item contains fat.

8. What are vitamins? Write various kinds of vitamins.
Ans: They are protective compounds with no energy value. They help in proper body­ functioning and are required by the body in very small quantities. Various kinds of vitamins are—Vitamin A, Vitamin B-complex, Vitamin C, Vitamin D, Vitamin E and Vitamin K.

9. People who eat sea-food do not suffer from Goitre. Explain.
Ans: It is so because sea-food is a rich source of Iodine and Goitre is a deficiency disease caused due to lack of Iodine.

10. Excess intake of fats is harmful for the body because it causes obesity. Would it be harmful for the body to take too much of proteins or vitamins in the diet?
Ans. Yes, excess intake of proteins and vitamins in the diet is harmful and may lead to other diseases.

11. Name the vitamin that our body prepares in the presence of sunlight.
Ans: Vitamin D.

12. Name a vitamin that is not present in milk.
Ans: Vitamin C.

13. A patient had stunted growth, swelling on face, discolouration of hair and skin disease. Doctor advised him to eat a lot of pulses, grams, egg white, milk etc. What is wrong with the patient? Explain.
Ans:  The intake of protein is not enough in his diet and all these symptoms are caused due to deficiency of proteins.

14. A small child became very thin and lean and later he became so weak that he could not move. Which nutrients should he eat so as to improve his health?
Ans: Both carbohydrates and proteins.

15. What are the functions of minerals?
Ans: Minerals are protective part of foods occurring naturally and are needed by our body in small amount. Minerals are essential for proper growth of the body and to maintain good health. They do not provide energy. Milk, salt, eggs and green leafy vegetables are the main sources of minerals.

16. Write the functions of water in our body.
Ans: Water helps our body to absorb nutrients from the food. It also helps in removing the waste from the body in the form of urine and sweat. We get water from various types of liquids, fruits and vegetables.

17. What is obesity?
Ans: When a person eats too much fat-containing foods, then the fat gets deposited in his body and he may end up suffering from a condition called obesity.

18. What are deficiency diseases?
Ans: When a person eats such a food continuously for a long time which may not contain a particular nutrient, then this condition is called deficiency of that nutrient. Deficiency of one or more nutrients can cause diseases or disorders in our body. Such type of diseases are known as deficiency diseases.

Class 6 Science Chapter 2 LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. List various types of nutrients and write the functions of each.
Ans. The various types of nutrients are:
(i) Carbohydrates: They are mainly energy-providing nutrients.
(ii) Fats: They provide energy for the body. They give much more energy than carbohydrates if consumed in same amount.
(iii) Proteins: They are called body-building foods. Proteins help in the formation and repairing of body parts. Skin, hair, muscles, enzymes are made up of proteins.
(iv) Vitamins: Vitamins help in protecting our body against disease. They also protect eyes, bones, teeth and gums.
(v) Minerals: Minerals are essential for proper growth of body and to maintain good health.

2. What is a balanced diet? Write the components of balanced diet.
Ans: A diet which provides the right proportion of all the nutrients that our body needs along with roughage and water is called balanced diet. The various components of balanced diet are carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins, minerals, roughage and water.

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