CHAPTER -3 Playing with Numbers | IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQ |CLASS 6th | MATHS|NCERT |EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 1 Knowing Our Numbers with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Knowing Our Numbers Class 6 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well

 

Chapter-3 Playing with Numbers Class 6th Maths Important Questions & MCQS

MCQ

Question 1.
Which of the following numbers is not a factor of 68?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 17
(d) 6.

Answer

Answer: (d)


Question 2.
Which of tfie following numbers is not a factor of 36?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 18
(d) 8.

Answer

Answer: (d)


Question 3.
Which of the following numbers is not a factor of 24?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5.

Answer

Answer: (d)


Question 4.
Which of the following numbers is not a factor of 15?
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5.

Answer

Answer: (c)


Question 5.
Which of the following number is not a factor of 21?
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 7.

Answer

Answer: (c)


Question 6.
Which of the following number is not a multiple of 27?
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 9
(d) 6

Answer

Answer: (d)


Question 7.
Which of the following numbers is not a factor of 12?
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 8.

Answer

Answer: (d)


Question 8.
Which of the following numbers is not a factor of 20?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6.

Answer

Answer: (d)


Question 9.
Which of the following number is not a factor of 18?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 8.

Answer

Answer: (d)


Question 10.
Which of the following number is not a multiple of 6?
(a) 12
(b) 21
(c) 24
(d) 36.

Answer

Answer: (b)


Question 11.
Which of the following number is not a multiple of 5?
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 33.

Answer

Answer: (d)


Question 12.
Which of the following number is not a multiple of 9?
(a) 18
(b) 36
(c) 81
(d) 75

Answer

Answer: (d)


Question 13.
The smallest prime number is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.

Answer

Answer: (b)


Question 14.
The smallest composite number is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.

Answer

Answer: (d)


Question 15.
The prime number which is even, is
(a) 2
(b) 3,
(c) 5
(d) 13.

Answer

Answer: (a)


Question 16.
1 is
(a) a prime number
(b) a composite number
(c) neither prime nor composite
(d) an even number.

Answer

Answer: (c)


Question 17.
The smallest odd number is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.

Answer

Answer: (a)

Importanrt Questions

Question 1.
What is the sum of any two
(a) even numbers
(b) odd numbers?
Solution:
(a) The sum of any two even numbers is even.
Example: 4 (even) + 6 (even) = 10 (even)
(b) The sum of any two odd numbers is even.
Example: 5 (odd) + 7 (odd) = 12 (even)

Question 2.
Which of the following numbers is divisible by 3?
(a) 1212
(b) 625
Solution:
(a) Given number = 1212
Sum of the digits = 1 + 2 + 1 + 2 = 6, which is divisible by 3.
Hence, 1212 is also divisible by 3.
(b) Given number = 625
Sum of the digits = 6 + 2 + 5 = 13, which is not divisible by 3.
Hence, 625 is not divisible by 3.

Question 3.
If the LCM and HCF of any two numbers are 15 and 4 respectively, find the product of the numbers.
Solution:
We know that the product of the number = LCM x HCF = 15 x 4 = 60
Hence, the product of the given numbers = 60.

Question 4.
Find the HCF of 5 and 7.
Solution:
Given numbers are 5 and 7. We observe that 5 and 7 are co-prime numbers.
Hence, the HCF is 1.

Question 5.
Write first 3 multiples of 25.
Solution:
We have 25 x 1 = 25; 25 x 2 = 50; 25 x 3 = 75
Hence, the required multiples are 25, 50 and 75.

Question 6.
What are the possible factors of (a) 12 (b) 18?
Solution:
(a) Possible factors of 12 are:
12 = 1 x 12; 12 = 2 x 6; 12 = 3 x 4
Hence, the factors of 12 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 12.

(b) Possible factors of 18 are:
18 = 1 x 18; 18 = 2 x 9; 18 = 3 x 6
Hence, the factors of 18 are 1, 2, 3, 6, 9 and 18.

Question 7.
Write first three multiples of 11.
Solution:
First three multiples of 11 are:
11 x 1 = 11; 11 x 2 = 22; 11 x 3 = 33
Hence, the required multiples are: 11,22 and 33.

Question 8.
Write pairs of twin prime numbers less than 20.
Solution:
Pairs of twin prime numbers are: (3, 5), (5, 7), (11, 13), (17, 19).

Question 9.
Write the number which is even as well as prime.
Solution:
2 is the only even number which is prime number also.

Question 10.
What is the fundamental theorem of arithmetic?
Solution:
Every number greater than 1 has exactly one prime factorisation.

Playing With Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 11.
Simplify: 32 + 96 ÷ (7 + 9)
Solution:
Given that: 32 + 96 ÷ (7 + 9)
= 32 + 96 ÷ 16 (Using BODMAS)
= 32 + 6 = 38

Question 12.
Simplify: 18 + {1 + (5 – 3) x 5}
Solution:
Given that: 18 + {1 + (5 – 3) x 5} (Using BODMAS)
= 18 + {1 + 2 x 5} = 18 + {1 + 10}
= 18 + 11 = 29.

Question 13.
Without actual division, show that 11 is a factor of 1,10,011.
Solution:
Here 1,10,011 = 1,10,000 + 11
= 11 x 10,000 + 11 x 1
= 11 x (10,000 + 1)
= 11 x 10,001
It is clear that 11 is a factor of 11 x 10,001.
Hence, 11 is a factor of 1,10,011.

Question 14.
The sum of two numbers is 25 and their product is 144. Find the numbers.
Solution:
The product of two numbers is 144.
∴ The possible factors are 1 x 144, 2 x 72, 3 x 48, 4 x 36, 6 x 24, 8 x 18, 9 x 16, 12 x 12
Here, we observe that out of these factors, we take 9 and 16.
Product = 9 x 16 = 144 and sum = 9 + 16 = 25
Hence, the required numbers are 9 and 16.

Question 15.
Is 80136 divisible by 11?
Solution:
Sum of the digits at odd places = 6 + 1 + 8 = 15
Sum of the digits at even places = 3 + 0 = 3
Difference of the two sums = 15 – 3 = 12,
which is neither 0 nor the multiple of 11.
Hence, 80136 is not divisible by 11.

Question 16.
The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 6 and 120 respectively. If one of the numbers is 24, find the other number.
Solution:
Given that: HCF = 6
LCM = 120
Let the two numbers be a and b, where a = 24, b = ?
We know that: a x b = HCF x LCM
⇒ 24 x b = 6 x 120
⇒ b = 6x12024
⇒ b = 30
Hence, the other number is 30.

Question 17.
Find the LCM of 12 and 30.
Solution:
Given numbers are 12 and 30
12 = 2 x 2 x 3;
30 = 2 x 3 x 5
∴ LCM = 2 x 2 x 3 x 5 = 60
Hence, the LCM of 12 and 30 = 60.

Question 18.
Find the smallest 4-digit number which is divisible by 18, 24 and 32.
Solution:
Given numbers are 18, 24 and 32, we have
Playing With Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 3
Thus, LCM = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 = 288
The smallest 4-digit number = 1000
Now, we write multiples of 288, till we get a 4-digit number.
288 x 1 = 288, 288 x 2 = 576,
288 x 3 = 864, 288 x 4 = 1152
Hence, 1152 is the required number.

Question 19.
Find the greatest number which divides 82 and 132 leaving 1 and 6, respectively as remainders.
Solution:
Given numbers are 82 and 132 and the remainders are 1 and 6 respectively.
We have, 82 – 1 = 81 and 132 – 6 = 126
So, we need to find the HCF of 81 and 126
Playing With Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 3
Common factor is 3 (occurring twice).
∴ HCF = 3 x 3 = 9
Hence, the required number is 9.

Question 20.
Find the greatest number that will divide 455, 582 and 710 leaving remainders 14, 15 and 17 respectively.
Solution:
Given numbers are 455, 582 and 710 and the respective remainders are 14, 15 and 17.
We have 455 – 14 = 441, 582 – 15 = 567 and 710 – 17 = 693.
Now let us find their HCF.
Playing With Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 3
Common factors are 3 and 7.
∴ HCF = 3 x 7 = 21
Hence, the required number is 21.

Playing With Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 21.
Simplify the following:
40 + [20 – {28 ÷ 7 – 3 + (30 – 5 of 4)}]
Solution:
Using BODMAS Rule, we have
40 + [20 – {28 ÷ 7 – 3 + (30 – 5 of 4)}]
= 40 + [20 – {28 ÷ 7 – 3 + (30 – 20)}]
= 40 + [20 – {28 ÷ 7 – 3 + 10}]
= 40 + [20 – [4 – 3 + 10}]
= 40 + [20-11] = 40 + 9 = 49.

Question 22.
Three sets of English, Hindi, and Urdu books are to be stacked in such a way that the books are stored subjectwise and the height of each stack is the same. The numbers of English, Hindi and Urdu books are 336, 192 and 144 respectively. Assuring that the books have that same thickness, determine the number of stacks of English, Hindi and Urdu books.
Solution:
To arrange the books in the required way,
we have to find the greatest number that divides 336, 192 and 144 exactly.
So, HCF of 336, 192 and 144 is
Playing With Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 3
Common factors are 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 = 48
∴ HCF = 48, i.e. each stack contains 48 books.
∴ Number of stacks of English books = 336 + 48 = 7
Number of stacks of Hindi books = 192 4- 48 = 4
Number of stacks of Urdu books = 144 4- 48 = 3

Question 23.
Which of the following statements are true?
(а) 1371 is divisible by 3
(b) 1155 is not divisible by 9
(c) 1478 is not divisible by 4
(d) 2470 is divisible by 5
(e) If a number is divisible by 9, it is also divisible by 3.
(f) If a number is divisible by 3, it is also divisible by 9.
(g) The sum of any two odd numbers is even.
(h) If a number is divisible by 8, it must be divisible by 6.
(i) If a number is divisible by 3 and 6, it is divisible by 18.
(j) 1758 is not divisible by 8.
Solution:
(a) Yes, 1371 is divisible by 3. So it is true statement.
(b) Yes, 1155 is not divisible by 9. So it is true statement.
(c) Yes, 1478 is not divisible by 4. So it is true statement.
(d) Yes, 2470 is divisible by 5. So it is true statement.
(e) Yes, it is true statement. if No, it is not true statement.
(g) Yes, it is true statement.
(h) No, it is not true statement.
(i) No, it is not true statement.
(j) Yes, it is true statement.

Playing With Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Multiple Choice Type

Question 24.
Which of the following numbers is divisible by 11?
(a)112111
(b) 928389
(c) 12011
(d) 11111

Question 25.
Match column I with column II.
Column I                                                                               Column II
(a) A number divisible by 11                                                     (i) 2
(b) HCF of two consecutive odd numbers                            (ii) 4
(c) The difference between twin prime number                 (iii) product of the number
(d) Number of factors of a prime number                            (iv) 60
(e) Lowest composite number                                                 (v)2
(f) LCM of 12 and 5                                                                    (vi) 4587594
(g) The smallest prime number                                              (vii) 1
(h) Product of HCF and LCM is equal to                              (viii) 2
Solution:
(a) → (vi)
(b) → (vii)
(c) → (viii)
(d) → (i)
(e) → (ii)
(f) → (iv)
(g) → (v)
(h) → (iii)

Playing With Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 26.
Ill cows, 185 sheep and 296 goats are to be taken across a river. There is only one boat and the boatsman says; he will take the same number and same kind of animals in each trip. Find the largest number of animals in each trip and the number of trips he will have to make.
Solution:
We have
Number of cows = 111
Number of sheep = 185
Number of goats = 296
According to the condition of the boatsman, we need to find HCF of 111, 185 and 296
111 = 3 x 37;
185 = 5 x 37;
296 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 37
∴ the HCF = 37
So, the number of animals of same kind = 37.
Number of trips
11137 + 18537 + 29637
= 3 + 5 + 8 = 16
Hence, the number of animals in each trip = 37
and the number of trips = 16.

Question 27.
In a seminar, the number of participants in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry are 60, 96 and 144 respectively. Find the number of rooms required if in each room, the same number of ‘ participants are to be seated and all of them are to be in the same subject.
Solution:
The number of participants in each room must be the HCF of 60, 96 and 144.
∴ 60 = 2 x 2 x 3 x 5
96 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 3
144 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 3
HCF = 2 x 2 x 3 = 12
Number of rooms required
6012 + 9612 + 14412
= 5 + 8 + 12 = 25
Hence, number of participants = 12
in each room and number of rooms required = 25.

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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION CLASS – 12 | HISTORY | CHAPTER- 1 | BRICKS , BEADS AND BONES THE HARAPPAN CIVILIZATION | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 1 BRICKS , BEADS AND BONES THE HARAPPAN CIVILIZATION NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 12 HISTORY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON BRICKS , BEADS AND BONES THE HARAPPAN CIVILIZATION

Question 1.
‘One of the most distinctive features of the Harappan cities was the carefully planned drainage system.’ Elaborate.
Answer:

One of the most distinctive features of Harappan Civilisation was its carefully planned drainage system. If we look at the plan of the Lower Town, we can find that roads and streets were laid out along an approximate ‘grid’ pattern, intersecting at right angles. Every house had one wall alongside the street having drain connected to the street drain to flow out domestic waste water. It seems that streets with drains were laid out first and then houses built along them.

Mackay said about the drains, “It is certainly the most complete ancient system as yet discovered”. According to him, every house was connected to the street drains. The main channels were made of bricks set in Mortar and were covered with loose bricks that could be removed for cleaning. Sometimes limestone was used for the covers.
In Harappa, house drains first emptied into a sump or cesspit into which solid matter settled while waste water flowed out into the street drains. Very long drainage channels . were provided at intervals with sumps for cleaning.
Little heaps of material mostly sand were found lying alongside drainage channels, it meant that the debris was not always carted away when the drain was cleared.

Drainage systems were mostly found in smaller settlement, but were not unique to the larger cities. For example, at Lothal while houses were built of mud bricks, drains were made of burnt bricks. Therefore, we can say that Harappan cities have carefully planned drainage system.

Question 2.
How have historians provided new insight into the subsistence strategies of the Harappan culture?
Answer:

According to historians mature Harappan culture developed in some of the areas occupied by the Early Harappan cultures. These cultures also shared certain common elements including subsistence strategies.
For example:

  • The Harappans ate a wide range of plant and animal products, including fish and meat, wheat, maize, millets, pulses, rice and another eatables.
  • Cattle, sheep, goat, buffalo and pig were domesticated by the Harappans for their sustenance.
  • The evidence of wild species like boar, deer and gharial have also been traced from the remains of bones, but it is not sure whether the Harappans hunted these animals themselves or obtained meat from other hunting community.
  • Archaeological evidences suggested that oxen were used for ploughing and two different crops were grown together. As most of the sites are located in semi-arid lands, it is evident that water from canals and wells was used for irrigation.

Question 3.
Explain the distinctive features of the residential buildings of Mohenjodaro.
Answer:

The most unique feature of the Harappan Civilisation was the development of urban centres. Mohenjodaro is the most well-known site of Harappan Civilisation.

The following are the most unique architectural feature of Mohenjodaro: Citadel It was smaller but higher. It was walled and was physically separated from the lower town. Here the buildings w’ere constructed with mud, bricks platform. Here, we find some structures that were probably used for special public purposes.
These include the warehouse, a massive structure and the ‘Great Bath’. The uniqueness of the structure of ‘Great Bath’ suggested that it was meant for some kind of special ritual bath.

The Lower Town The lower town was also walled. Several buildings were built on platforms, which served as foundations. All building activity within the city was restricted to a fixed area on the platforms. Sun-dried or baked bricks were used at all Harappan settlements.

The courtyard of the houses was the centre of activities like cooking and weaving, particularly during hot and dry weather. There were no windows in the walls along the ground level. Besides, the main. entrance did not give a direct view of the interior or the courtyard.

Drainage System Mohenjodaro had carefully planned drainage system. The roads and the streets were laid out along an approximate ‘grid’ pattern, intersecting at right angles. It seems that streets with drains were laid out first and then houses built along them.

Every house had its own bathroom paved with bricks, with drains connected through the walls, to the street drains. Drainage systems were not only unique to the larger cities, but were found in smaller settlements also. All these features indicated that Mohenjodaro had a well planned architectural system.

Question 4.
Explain the strategies used by the archaeologists to understand socio-economic differences among the Harappans.
Answer:

The archaeologists have tried to find out socio-economic differences among the Harappans through two types of evidences.

These were: Burials Burials have been significant evidence to establish social differences within the Harappan society’.
The dead were generally laid in pits. There were differences in the way the burial pit was made. In some cases, the hallowed out spaces were lined with bricks.

However, whether these variations were an indication of social differences or not, it is not yet established. Pottery ornaments, jewellery of both men and women have been found in some burials. But the Harappans did not believe in burying precious things with the dead.

Artefacts Two types of artefacts have been found, i.e. luxuries’ and ‘utilitarian’. Luxuries artefacts were made from costly and rare, non-local material with complicated technology e.g. little faience pots. Utilitarian objects included objects of daily use made of stone clay, e.g. querns, pottery, needles, flesh-rubbers (body scrubbers), etc. As far as distribution of such artefacts is concerned, we find that rare objects made of valuable materials were generally concentrated in large settlements like Mohenjodaro and Harappa and are rarely found in smaller settlements.
Thus, the findings of the above artefacts prove that there were social and economic differences in Harappan culture.

Question 5.
Explain the strategies for procuring materials by the Harappans for the craft production.
Answer:

In Harappan Civilisation, a variety of materials was used for craft production. These were:

  • Clay was locally available, but stone, timber and metal had to be procured from outside.
  • They established settlements, such as Nageshwar and Balakot in areas where shell was available. Other such sites were Shortughai, the best source of lapis lazuli, a blue stone found here; from Lothal Carnelian, steatite were found.
  • Raw materials were also collected from Khetri region of Rajasthan (for copper)
    and South India (for gold). Recent archaeological finds suggest that copper was probably brought from Oman. The fact was also supported by Mesopotamian texts. Probably Harappan Civilisation was connected with Oman, Bahrain or Mesopotamia by sea.

Question 6.
Describe the opinions of the archaeologists over the central authority of the Harappan Civilisation.
Answer:

Opinion of some of the archaeologists about the Harappan society are as follows:

  • Some archaeologists opine that Harappan society had no rulers and that everybody enjoyed equal status.
  • Other scholars have the opinion that there was no single ruler but several. Mohenjodaro had a separate ruler, Harappans had another. In the same way, other regions had different rulers.
  • Some scholars also argued that there was a single state given the similarity in artefacts, the evidence for planned settlements, the standardised ratio of brick size and the establishments near source of raw material.
  • Of all, the last theory seems to be the most plausible as it is unlikely that entire communities could have collectively made and implemented such complex decisions.

Question 7.
Explain the exclusive features of the craft production in Chanhudaro.
Answer:

Chanhudaro was a tiny settlement as compared to Mohenjodaro. This area was exclusively devoted to craft production. Its features are:
1. The main craft productions included bead-making, shell-cutting, metal-working, seal-making and weight-making.

2. Here variety of materials were used to make beads. Stones like carnelian jasper, crystal, quartz, steatite; metals like copper, bronze and gold, moreover shell, faience and terracotta or burnt clay were used.

3. Some beads were made of two or more stones, these were cemented together and some were made of stones with beautiful gold caps. The shapes were of different types, e.g. dice cylindrical, spherical, barrel- shaped, etc. Some beads were decorated by incising or painting and some had designs etched (engraved) on to them.

4. Different techniques were applied in making beads. Steatite was a very soft stone and could be easily moulded. But how the steatite micro bead was made remains a surprise for the archaeologists. The red colour of carnelian
was obtained by firing the raw material. Grinding, polishing and drilling completed the full process. Specialised drills have been found at Chanhudaro, Lothal and Dholavira.

Question 8.
Mention any three features of Harappan cities.
Answer:

Historians suggest that the most unique feature of the Harappan Civilisation was the development of urban centres, i.e., cities. The main features of Harappan cities were:

  • The Harappan cities were well planned. The cities were divided into two sections which are one smaller and higher, i.e. the Citadel and other much larger but lower, i.e. the Lower Town. Both these sections were walled and physically separated from each other.
  • One of the most distinctive features of Harappan cities was the carefully planned drainage system. If we look at the plan of the Lower Town, the roads and streets were laid out along an approximate ‘grid’
    ‘ pattern, intersecting at right angles.
  • At burials in Harappan areas, the dead were generally laid in pits. Some graves contained pottery and ornament, which indicated the belief that these materials could be used in the afterlife. But the Harappan did not believe in burying precious things with the dead.

Question 9.
Describe briefly how the centres of craft production are identified.
Answer:

In order to identify centres of craft production, archaeologists usually look for the raw materials, like stone modules, whole shells, copper ore, unfinished objects, rejected and waste materials. Actually waste products indicate craft work. For example, if shell or stone is used to make any object, then pieces of shell or stone will be discarded as waste at the place of production.
These can be understood through following points:

  • Both Nageshwar and Balakot are near coast and shell objects are found here. These areas were specialised centre for making shell objects, including bangles, ladles and inlay, which were taken to other settlement.
  • Similarly, some finished products like different pots and beads are found in Lothal and Chanhudaro, which were taken to the large urban centres such as Mohenjodaro and Harappa.
  • For making beads, stones like carnelian, jasper, crystal, quartz, steatite and metals like copper, bronze, gold, and other materials like shell, faience, terracotta were used. For making beads, grinding, polishing and drilling were dome. Specialised drills have found at Chanhudaro, Lothal and Dholavira.
  • In order to identify the craft production centre, archaeologists look for raw materials and tools. Large- waste pieces of raw materials indicated the specialised craft production centres. But sometimes minuscule bits suggest that craft production was also undertaken in large cities like Harappa and Mohenjodaro.

Question 10.
How did architectural features of Mohenjodaro indicate planning? Support the statement with examples.
Answer:

The most unique feature of the Harappan Civilisation was the development of urban centres. Mohenjodaro is the most well-known site of Harappan Civilisation.

The following are the most unique architectural feature of Mohenjodaro: Citadel It was smaller but higher. It was walled and was physically separated from the lower town. Here the buildings w’ere constructed with mud, bricks platform. Here, we find some structures that were probably used for special public purposes.
These include the warehouse, a massive structure and the ‘Great Bath’. The uniqueness of the structure of ‘Great Bath’ suggested that it was meant for some kind of special ritual bath.

The Lower Town The lower town was also w’alled. Several buildings were built on platforms, which served as foundations. All building activity within the city was restricted to a fixed area on the platforms. Sun-dried or baked bricks were used at all Harappan settlements.

The courtyard of the houses was the centre of activities like cooking and weaving, particularly during hot and dry weather. There were no windows in the walls along the ground level. Besides, the main . entrance did not give a direct view of the interior or the courtyard.

Drainage System Mohenjodaro had carefully planned drainage system. The roads and the streets were laid out along an approximate ‘grid’ pattern, intersecting at right angles. It seems that streets with drains were laid out first and then houses built along them.

Every house had its own bathroom paved with bricks, with drains connected through the walls, to the street drains. Drainage systems were not only unique to the larger cities, but were found in smaller settlements also. All these features indicated that Mohenjodaro had a well planned architectural system.

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CHAPTER -2 Whole Numbers | IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQ |CLASS 6th | MATHS|NCERT |EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 1 Knowing Our Numbers with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Knowing Our Numbers Class 6 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well

 

Chapter-2 Whole Numbers Class 6th Maths Important Questions

MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Write the smallest whole number.
Solution:
0 is the smallest whole number.

Question 2.
What is the predecessor of whole number 0?
Solution:
Whole number 0 has no predecessor.

Question 3.
Which property do the following statements hold?
(a) 6 + 4 = 4 + 6
(b) 3 + 2 = whole number
Solution:
(a) 6 + 4 = 4 + 6 holds commutative property of addition
(b) 3 + 2 = whole number holds closure property.

Question 4.
Add the following in three ways. Indicate the property used.
(a) 25 + 36 + 15
(b) 30 + 18 + 22
Solution:
(a) 25 + 36 + 15
Way I: 25 + (36 + 15) = 25 + 51 = 76
Way II: (25 + 36) + 15 = 61 + 15 = 76
Way III: (25 + 15) + 36 = 40 + 36 = 76
Here, we have used associative property.

(b) 30 + 18 + 22
Way I: 30 + (18 + 22) = 30 + 40 = 70
Way II: (30 + 18) + 22 = 48 + 22 = 70
Way III: (30 + 22) + 18 = 52 + 18 = 70
Here, we have used associative property.

Question 5.
Using distributive property, solve the following:
(а) 360 x 102
(b) 35 x 98
Solution:
(a) 36 x 102 = 36 x (100 + 2)
= 36 x 100 + 36 x 2
= -36000 + 72 = 36072
(b) 35 x 98 = 35 x (100 – 2) = 35 x 100 – 35 x 2
= 3500 – 70 = 3430

Question 6.
Find the product of the greatest 3-digit number and the smallest 2-digit number.
Solution:
The greatest 3-digit number = 999
The smallest 2-digit number = 10
∴ Product = 999 x 10 = 9990

Question 7.
Write any two numbers which can be shown as rectangles.
Solution:
Whole Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 2

Question 8.
Write the predecessor of the smallest 4-digit number.
Solution:
The smallest 4-digit number = 1000
∴ The predecessor of 1000 = 1000 – 1 = 999

Question 9.
For n = 5, verify the given statement 10 x n + 1 = n1
Solution:
Given statement is
10 x n + 1 = n1
Put n = 5, 10 x 5 + 1 = 51
⇒ 50 + 1 = 51
⇒ 51 = 51. Hence, verified.

Question 10.
Write the next two steps:
Whole Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 2
Solution:
Next two steps are 123 x 9 + 4 = 1111 and 1234 x 9 + 5 = 11111.

Whole Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 11.
Using the properties, find the values of each of the following:
(a) 736 x 102
(b) 8165 x 169 – 8165 x 69
Solution:
(a) 736 x 102 = 736 x (100 + 2)
= 736 x 100 + 736 x 2 [Using distributive property]
= 73600 + 1472 = 75072

(b) 8165 x 169 – 8165 x 69 = 8165 x (169 – 69) [Using distributive property]
= 8165 x 100 = 816500

Question 12.
Observe the following patterns and extend them by two more terms.
Whole Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 2
Solution:
Next two terms are
1010101 × 1010101= 1020304030201
101010101 × 101010101=10203040504030201

Question 13.
Observe the following patterns and extend them by two more terms:
Whole Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 2
Solution:
Next two terms are
15873 x 7 x 3 = 333333
15873 x 7 x 4 = 444444

Question 14.
Write the three whole numbers which can be arranged as squares.
Solution:
The required number are 4, 9, 16.
Whole Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 2

Question 15.
Using the properties of whole numbers, find the value of the following in suitable way:
(a) 945 x 4 x 25
(b) 40 x 328 x 25
Solution:
(a) 945 x 4 x 25 = 945 x (4 x 25)
= 945 x 100 = 94500
(b) 40 x 328 x 25 = 328 x (40 x 25)
= 328 x 1000 = 328000

Question 16.
Represent the following on number line:
(a) 3 + 4
(b) 6 – 2
(c) 2 × 4
Solution:
(a) 3 + 4
Whole Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 2
(b) 6 – 2
Whole Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 2
(c) 2 × 4
Whole Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 2

Question 17.
Give one example for each of the following properties for whole numbers.
(a) Closure property
(b) Commutative property
(c) Associative property
(d) Distributive property
Solution:
(a) 3 + 4 = 7 (whole number) closure property
(b) 4 + 5 = 5 + 4 Commutative property
(c) 3 + (5 + 7) = (3 + 5) + 7 Associative property
(d) 6 x (8 + 3) = 6 x 8 + 6 x 3 Distributive property.

Question 18.
A dealer purchased 124 LED sets. If the cost of one set is ₹38,540, determine their total cost.
Solution:
Total cost of 124 LED sets = ₹(38,540 x 124)
= ₹ [38,540 x (100 + 20 + 4)]
= ₹ [38,540 x 100 + 38,540 x 20 + 38,540 x 4]
= ₹ [38,54,000 + 7,70,800 + 1,54,160]
= ₹ 47,789,60

Question 19.
Find the product of the greatest 3-digit number and the greatest 2-digit number.
Solution:
Greatest 3-digit number = 999
Greatest 2-digit number = 99
∴ Product = 999 x 99 = 999 x (100 – 1)
= 999 x 100 – 999 x 1
= 99900 – 999 = 98901

Question 20.
Write 10 such numbers which can be shown only as line.
Solution:
2, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29 and 31 are such numbers which can be shown only as line.
123 x 9 + 4 = 1111.

Whole Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 21.
320 km distance is to be covered partially by bus and partially by train. Bus covers 180 km distance with a speed of 40 km/h and the rest of the distance is covered by the train at a speed of 70 km/h. Find the time taken by a passenger to cover the whole distance.
Solution:
Total distance = 320 km
Distance covered by the bus = 180 km
Speed of the bus = 40 km/h
Whole Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 2
Distance covered by the train = 320 – 180 = 140 km.
Speed of the train = 70 km/h
∴ Time taken by the train
Whole Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 2
Hence, the total time taken by the passenger
92 hours + 2 hours
= 4 hours 30 min + 2 hours
= 6 hours 30 min

Question 22.
Solve the following and establish a pattern:
(a) 84 x 9
(b) 84 x 99
(c) 84 x 999
(d) 84 x 9999
Solution:
(a) 84 x 9 = 84 x (10 – 1) = 84 x 10 – 84 x 1 = 840 – 84 = 756
(b) 84 x 99 = 84 x (100 – 1) = 84 x 100 – 84 x 1 = 8400 – 84 = 8316
(c) 84 x 999 = 84 x (1000 – 1) = 84 x 1000 – 84 x 1 = 84000 – 84 = 83916
(d) 84 x 9999 = 84 x (10000 – 1) = 84 x 10000 – 84 x 1 = 840000 – 84 = 839916

Question 23.
Solve the following with suitable and short-cut method: .
(a) 86 x 5
(b) 86 x 15
(c) 86 x 25
(d) 86 x 35
(e) 86 x 50
(f) 96 x 125
(g) 96 x 250
(h) 112 x 625
Solution:
Whole Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 2

Question 24.
Ramesh buys 10 containers of juice from one shop and 18 containers of the same juice from another shop. If the capacity of each container is same and the cost of each of the container is ₹150, find the total money spend by Ramesh.
Solution:
Ramesh buys 10 containers from one shop Cost of 1 container = ₹150
He buys 18 containers of the same capacity from another shop.
Cost of 1 container = ₹150
∴ Total money spent by Ramesh
= ₹ [10 x 150 + 18 x 150]
= ₹150 x (10 + 18)
= ₹150 x 28
= ₹4200

Question 25.
Fill in the blanks.
(а) The smallest whole number is ……… .
(b) The smallest natural number is ……… .
(c) Difference between 5-digit smallest number and 4-digit largest number is ……… .
(d) Any number divided by 0 is not ……… .
(e) The property used in 84 x 25 = 25 x 84 is ……… .
(f) The property used in 80 x (60 + 3) = 80 x 60 + 80 x 3 is ……… .
(g) The smallest number which can be shown by two doted rectangles is ……… .
(h) Every whole number except ……… is a natural number.
(i) When any counting number is multiplied by zero, the product is ……… .
(j) When zero is divided by any non-zero whole number, the quotient is ……… .
Solution:
(a) The smallest whole number is 0.
(b) The smallest natural number is 1.
(c) Difference between 5-digit smallest number and 4-digit largest number is 1.
(d) Any number divided by 0 is not defined.
(e) The property used in 84 x 25 = 25 x 84 is commutative property.
(f) The property used in 80 x (60 + 3) = 80 x 60 + 80 x 3 is distributive property.
(g) The smallest number which can be shown by two doted rectangles is 6.
(h) Every whole number except 0 is a natural number.
(i) When any counting number is multiplied by zero, the product is 0.
(j) When zero is divided by any non-zero whole number, the product is 0.

Question 26.
Which of the following statements are true (T) and which are false (F)?
(a) The sum of two whole numbers is always less than their product.
(b) There is only one whole number n such that n x n – n
(c) For two non-zero whole numbers a and b, a ÷ b = b ÷ a.
(d) The sum of two odd whole numbers is an even number.
(e) There jloes not exist any whole number m for which m ÷ m = m.
(f) (16 ÷ 4) ÷ 2 = 16 ÷ (4 ÷ 2)
(g) 7 – 8 = whole number
(h) If 1 is added to a number, we get its successor.
(i) The whole number 15 lies between 14 and 21.
(j) 84 x (10 + 5) = 84 x 10 + 84 x 5 represents distributive property.
Solution:
(a) False statement
(b) False statement
(c) False statement
(d) True statement
(e) False statement
(f) False statement
(g) False statement
(h) True statement
(i) True statement
(j) True statement.

Question 27.
The value of 27 ÷ (9 ÷ 3) is
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 27
Solution:
27 ÷ (9 ÷ 3) = 27 ÷ (93) = 27 ÷ 3 = 9
Hence, the correct option is (c).

Question 28.
The whole number 7 can be arranged as,
(a) line
(b) square
(c) rectangle
(d) triangle
Solution:
7 can be arranged as line.
Hence, the correct option is (a).

Whole Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 29.
A housing complex built by DLF consists of 25 large buildings and 40 small buildings. Each large building has 15 floors with 4 apartments on each floor and each small building has 9 floors with 3 apartments on each floor. How many apartments are there in all?
Solution:
Number of large buildings = 25
Number of floors = 15
Number of apartments on each floor = 4
∴ Total number of apartments in large buildings = 25 x 15 x 4
Number of small building = 40
Number of floors = 9
Number of apartments on each floor = 3
∴ Total number of apartments in small buildings = 40 x 9 x 3
Hence, the number of apartments in all = 25 x 15 x 4 + 40 x 9 x 3 = 1500 + 1080 = 2580.

Question 30.
A school principal places orders for 85 chairs and 25 tables with a dealer. Each chair cost ₹180 and each table cost ₹140. If the principal has given ₹2500 to the dealer as an advance money, then what amount to be given to the dealer now?
Solution:
Number of chairs = 85
Cost of one chair = ₹ 180
Cost of 85 chairs = ₹ (85 x 180)
Number of tables = 25
Cost of one table = ₹ 140
Cost of 25 tables = ₹ (25 x 140)
Total cost of all chairs and tables = ₹(85 x 180 + 25 x 140)
= ₹ (15300 + 3500) = ₹ 18800
Money given in advance = ₹ 2500
∴ Balance money to be paid to the dealer = ₹ 18800 – ₹ 2500 = ₹ 16300

Important Questions

Question 1.
The successor of 99 is
(a) 99
(b) 98
(c) 100
(d) none of these.

Answer
 

Question 2.
The predecessor of 100 is
(a) 101
(b) 100
(c) 99
(d) none of these.

Answer

 


Question 3.
The successor of 27 is
(a) 26
(b) 25
(c) 24
(d) 28.

Answer

 


Question 4.
The predecessor of 36 is
(a) 34
(b) 35
(c) 33
(d) 37.

Answer

 


Question 5.
The natural number that has no predecessor is
(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 100
(d) 1000.

Answer

 


Question 6.
The difference between the successor of a number and the number it self is
(a) 0
(b) – 1
(c) 1
(d) none of these.

Answer

 


Question 7.
The difference between the predecessor of a number and the number it self is
(a) 1
(b) -1
(c) 2
(d) -2.

Answer

 


Question 8.
The difference between the successor and the predecessor of a number is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) -1
(d) – 2.

Answer

 


Question 9.
To find the predecessor of a number, we have to subtract from the number itself.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.

Answer

 


Question 10.
To find the successor of a number, we have to add the number itself.
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1.

Answer

 


Question 11.
The smallest whole number is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) -1
(d) none of these

Answer

 


Question 12.
Which of the following statement is true?
(а) All natural numbers are also whole numbers.
(b) All whole numbers are also natural numbers.
(c) There is no smallest whole number.
(d) The greatest whole number is 100.

Answer

 


Question 13.
Which of the following is true?
(a) 210 > 201
(b) 210 < 201
(c) 210 = 201
(d) none of these.

Answer

 


Question 14.
Which of the following statement is true?
(a) 1 is the smallest natural number.
(b) 50 is the predecessor of 49.
(c) 1 is the smallest whole number.
(d) 599 is the successor of 600.

Answer

 


Question 15.
Which of the following statement is true?
(a) The whole number 0 has no predecessor.
(b) There are 10 whole numbers between 11 to 21.
(c) The successor of a two digit number is always a two digit number.
(d) The predecessor of a two digit number is never a single digit number.

Answer

 


Question 16.
How many natural numbers are there between 1 and 10?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9.

Answer

 


Question 17.
Find 27 ÷ (9 ÷ 3).
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 27.

Answer

 


Question 18.
Find (24 ÷ 4) – 2.
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 2.

Answer

 


Question 19.
Which of the following will not represent zero?
(a) 0 + 1
(b) 0 × 0
(c) 02
(d) 222

Answer

 


Question 20.
1 ÷ 0 =
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 2
(d) not defined

Answer

 


Question 21.
‘Whole numbers are closed under addition and multiplication.’ This property is known as
(a) closure property
(b) commutativity of addition and multiplication
(c) associativity of addition and multiplication
(d) distributivity of multiplication over addition.

Answer

 

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CHAPTER -1 KNOWING OUR NUMBERS | IMPORTANT QUESTIONS|CLASS 6th | MATHS|NCERT |EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 1 Knowing Our Numbers with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Knowing Our Numbers Class 6 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well

 

Chapter-1 Knowing Our Numbers Class 6th Maths Important Questions

MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Write the smallest three digit number whose value does not change on reversing its digits.
Solution:
The required number is 101.

Question 2.
Write the greatest three digit number which does not change on reversing its digits.
Solution:
The required number is 999.

Question 3.
What must be added to 203 to get a number whose digits are reversed of the given number?
Solution:
The number obtained by reversing the digits of 203 = 302.
∴ Difference = 302 – 203 = 99
Hence, the required number is 99.

Question 4.
Write the following in Roman numerals:
(a) 72
(b) 38
Solution:
(a) 72 = LXXII
(b) 38 – XXXVIII

Question 5.
Write 438 in its expanded form.
Solution:
438 = 4 x 100 + 3 x 10 + 8.

Question 6.
Write the greatest five-digit number using the digits 4, 2 and 0.
Solution:
The greatest five-digit number using the digits 4, 2 and 0 is 44420.

Question 7.
The capacity of a water tank is 300 litres. Express its capacity in millilitres.
Solution:
We know that
1 litre = 1000 mL
∴ 300 litres = 300 x 1000 mL = 3,00,000 mL
Hence, the capacity of water tank = 3 lakh millilitres.

Question 8.
What is the successor of greatest 6-digit number?
Solution:
Greatest 6-digit number = 999999
Successor of it = 999999 + 1 = 1000000
i. e., smallest 7-digit number.
Hence, the required successor = 10,00,000.

Question 9.
What is the place value of 7 in 1743?
Solution:
Let us write 1743 in its expanded form
1743 = 1000 + 700 + 40 +3
Place value of 7 = 700
Hence, the place value of 7 = 700.

Knowing Our Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 10.
Of 7,12,540 and 71,25,400 which number is greater and by how much?
Solution:
Since 71,25,400 is a seven-digit number and 7,12,540 is a six-digit number.
So 71,25,400 is greater than 7,12,540.
Knowing Our Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 1
Hence 71,25,400 is greater than 7,12,540 by 64,12,860.

Question 11.
Write the smallest and the greatest 5-digit numbers using the digits 0,2,4,6,8 (Repetition of digits is not allowed).
Solution:
Given digits are 0, 2, 4, 6, 8
5 – digit greatest number = 86420;
5 – digit smallest number = 20468.

Question 12.
Write the following numbers in ascending order. How many of them are even numbers?
63,854, 63,584, 65,348, 68,543, 64,835
Solution:
The given numbers are 63,854, 63,584, 65,348, 68,543 and 64,835.
Ascending order is 63,584 ; 63,854 ; 64,835 ; 65,348 ; 68,543
Even numbers are 63,584, 63,854 and 65,348.

Question 13.
Round the given numbers to the nearest tens.
(a) 48
(b) 59
(c) 64
(d) 215
Solution:
Given number Rounded off to tens
(a) 48 → 50
(6) 59 → 60
(c) 64 → 60
(d) 215 → 220

Question 14.
Estimate the following products:
(а) 86 x 316
(b) 898 x 786
Solution:
(a) 86 x 316
∵ 86 → 90 [Rounding off to tens] and 316 → 320 [Rounding off to tens]
So, the estimated product is 90 x 320 = 28800

(b) 898 x 786
∵ 898 → 900 [Rounding off to hundreds] and 786 → 800 [Rounding off to hundreds]
So, the estimated product is 900 x 800 = 720000.

Question 15.
Divide 2,63,175 by 275.
Solution:
We have
Knowing Our Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 1
Hence, quotient = 957 and remainder = 0.

Question 16.
A student multiplied 3759 by 231 instead of multiplying by 213. How much was his product greater than the correct product?
Solution:
First Method:
(3759 x 231)-(3759 x 213) = 868329 – 800667 = 67662
Second Method: 3759 x (231 – 213) = 3759 x 18 = 67662
Hence, the product difference is 67662.

Question 17.
Estimate: 25,148 + 7394 + 9343 + 752
Solution:
Estimated values are
25,148     →    25100
7394        →     7400
9343       →      9300
752          →      800
So, the estimated sum is 25100 + 7400 + 9300 + 800 = 42600
Hence, the estimated sum is 42600.

Question 18.
Write all the even numbers between 90 and 100 in Roman Numerals.
Solution:
Even numbers between 90 and 100, we have 92, 94, 96, 98.
∴ 92 = XCII,
94 = XCIV,
96 = XCVI,
98 = XCVIII

Knowing Our Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 19.
Write the missing digits in the following sums:
Knowing Our Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 1
Solution:
Knowing Our Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 1

Question 20.
Write Hindu-Arabic numerals for:
(a) LXXXVI
(b) LXXV
(c) XCIX
(d) XCI
Solution:
(a) LXXXVI = 50 + 30 + 6 = 86
(b) LXXV = 50 + 20 + 5 = 75
(c) XCIX = (100 – 10) + 9 = 99
(d) XCI = (100 – 10) + 1 = 91

Question 21.
The distance between the school and Reena’s house is 1 km 480 m. Everyday she walks both ways. What distance does she cover in 6 days of a week?
Solution:
Distance covered when she walks one way = 1 km 480 m = 1480 m
Therefore, the distance covered when she walk both ways in a day = 1480 x 2 m = 2960 m
Total distance covered by Reena in 6 days = 2960 x 6 m = 17760 m or 17 km 760 m.

Question 22.
Simplify: 36 ÷ [5 + {4 x 5 ÷ 2}]
Solution:
Given:
36 ÷ [5 + {4 x 5 ÷ 2}]
Using B, O, D, M, A, S
Knowing Our Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 1

Question 23.
To stitch a pant 1 m 15 cm cloth is needed. Out of 36 m cloth, how many pants can be stitched and how much cloth will remain?
Solution:
Knowing Our Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 1
Cloth required to stitch 1 pant = 1 m 15 cm
= 100 cm + 15 cm [∵ 1 m = 100 cm]
= 115 cm
Total cloth = 36 m = 36 x 100 cm = 3600 cm
Therefore number of pants stitched = 3600115
Hence, 31 pants can be stitched and cloth left over is 35 cm.

Question 24.
Write each of the following numbers in figures:
(a) Eighty-one million four hundred twelve thousand six hundred fifty.
(b) Twenty million three hundred eighty thousand one hundred.
(c) Ninety million nine.
(d) Forty-nine million seven hundred eighty two thousand fifty eight.
(e) Six millions three hundred fifty-two thousand nine hundred forty-six.
(f) Seven crore twenty-three lakh eighty-six thousand, five hundred ninety-four.
(g) Fifty crore forty lakh sixty thousand nine.
(h) Nineteen crore, ninety lakh, fourteen thousand, six hundred eighty.
Solution:
In words                                                                                                                         In figure
(а) Eighty-one millions four hundred twelve thousand, six hundred fifty.     81,412,650
(b) Twenty million three hundred eighty thousand one hundred                     20,380,100
(c) Ninety million nine                                                                                               90,000,009
(d) Forty-nine million seven hundred eighty-two thousand fifty-eight           49,782,058
(e) Six-millions three hundred fifty-two thousand nine hundred forty-six    6,352,946
(f) Seven crore, twenty-three lakh eighty-six thousand five hundred ninety-four 7,23,86,594
(g) Fifty crore forty lakh sixty thousand nine                                                        50,40,60,009
(h) Nineteen crore ninety lakh fourteen thousand six hundred eighty.           19,90,14,680

Question 25.
Write True/False for the following statements:
(a) Roman symbol X cannot be repeated more than three times
(b) VXXX = 25 …….. .
(c) Estimate value of274 rounding off to nearest hundreds = 200 …….
(d) I and X can repeat at the most three times …….
(e) V, L and D are neither, repeated nor written to the left of greater value symbol ……..
(f) There are six basic symbols in Roman Numeration system ……..
Solution:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) False
(d) True
(e) True
(f) False.

Knowing Our Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 26.
There are two factories located at place P and the other at place Q. From these factories, a certain commodity is to be delivered to each of the depots situated at A, B and C. Weekly production of commodity by P and Q are 120 kg and 150 kg respectively. Weekly requirement of commodity by A, B and C are 80 kg, 90 kg and 100 kg respectively. P delivers 60 kg to A, 40 kg to B and 20 kg to C. How much amount of the commodity should Q deliver to A, B and C to meet their requirement? If the rate of the commodity is ? 20 per kg, find the total amount to be paid to P and Q.
Solution:
Knowing Our Numbers Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 1
Amount of commodity delivered by P to A = 60 kg
Amount of commodity delivered by Q to A = 80 – 60 = 20 kg
Amount of commodity delivered by P to B = 40 kg
Amount of commodity delivered by Q to B – 90 – 40 = 50 kg
Amount of commodity delivered by P to C = 20
Amount of commodity delivered by Q to C = 100 – 20 = 80 kg.
Now Amount of money to be paid to P by A, B and C = ₹( 60 x 20 + 40 x 20 + 20 x 20)
= ₹ (1200 + 800 + 400)
= ₹ 2400
and amount of money to be paid to Q by A, B and C
= ₹ (20 x 20 + 50 x 20 + 80 x 20)
= ₹ (400 + 1000 + 1600) = ₹ 3000
Hence, the total amount
= ₹ 2400 + ₹ 3000 = ₹ 5400.

 

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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION CLASS – 12 | POLITICAL SCIENCE PART-A CONTEMPORARY WORLD POLITICS NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION | CHAPTER- 9 | GLOBALISATION | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 9 GLOBALISATION NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 12 POLITICAL SCIENCE PART- A CONTEMPORARY WORLD POLITICS which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON GLOBALISATION

Question 1.
Explain any four economic consequences of globalisation.
Answer:

For definition of globalisation, Globalisation means the flows of ideas, capital, commodities and people across different parts of the world. It is a multidimensional concept. It has political, economic and cultural manifestations and these must be adequately distinguished.

Political consequences The political consequences can be understood through following points ;

  • It decreases the role of state. It leads to market state rather than welfare state.
  • It leads to the emergence of IMF, World Bank and WTO etc.
  • Market factors influences the decision-making process of the governments.
  • It has affected the traditional concept of state sovereignty.

Economic consequences The economic consequences can be understood through following points :

  • It focuses on the development of some elite groups of the society.
  • Economic globalisation enhances the disparities among the different classes of the society.
  • It also increases the role of WTO, World Bank and IMF.
  • Economic globalisation leads to consumerism which enhances the market’s role in society.

Cultural consequences The cultural consequences can be understood through following points :

  • It leads to cultural dominance that is the dominance of Western culture.
  • It also leads towards the unification of the culture that is cultural homogenisation.
  • Due to cultural homogenisation, cultural globalisation leads towards cultural heterogenisation.
  • It also leads to cultural colonialism.

Question 2.
Explain any three reasons for resistance to globalisation.
Answer:

For meaning of globalisation, Globalisation means the flows of ideas, capital, commodities and people across different parts of the world. It is a multidimensional concept. It has political, economic and cultural manifestations and these must be adequately distinguished.

The four reasons due to which globalisation is resisted are :

  • Leftist parties argue that contemporary globalisation represents a global capitalism that makes the rich richer and the poor poorer.
  • Weakening of the state leads to a reduction in the capacity of the state to protect the interest of its poor.
  • Rightist parties expresse anxiety over the political economic and cultural effects.
  • The cultural globalisation would harm age old values of people while harming their traditional culture.

Question 3.
Explain the positive impacts of globalisation on the present day world.
Answer:

Positive Impacts of globalisation are (any two) :

  • Increase in the volume of trade in goods and services.
  • It attracts private foreign capital investment.
  • It creates new job opportunities.
  • It raises standard of living.
  • It increases production, efficiency and healthy competition.
  • It attracts foreign direct investment also.

Negative impacts of globalisation are (any two) :

  • Ths foreign companies focus on their profit orientation projects only in place of social welfare.
  • It has widened income disparities by making the rich richer and the poor more poorer.
  • Globalisation is also a reason for depletion of flora and fauna in country.

Question 4.
Describe any three effects of globalisation on the culture of a country.
Answer:

The effects of globalisation on the culture of a country are :

  1. Cultural globalisation affects our food, clothes and thinking. But some times external influence simply enlarge our choices and sometimes they modify our culture without overwhelming the traditional norms, e.g. the burger is no substitute for a masala dosa and therefore does not pose any real challenge.
  2. In the same way blue jeans can go well with a homespun khadi kurta. Here the outcome of outside influences is a new combination that is unique. This clothing combination has been exported back to the country that gave us blue jeAnswer:
  3. The culture of the politically and economically dominant society leaves it imprint on a less powerful society, and the world begins to look more like a dominant power wishes it to be.
  4. This is dangerous not only for the poor countries but for the whole of humanity for it leads to the shrinking of the rich cultural heritage of the entire globe.
    So we can say that globalisation broadens our cultural outlook and promotes cultural homogenisation.

Question 5.
Describe any three effects of globalisation on the economy of a country.
Answer:

Following are the three effects of globalisation on the economy of a country

  • Economic globalisation gives more importance to institutions like the IMF and the WTO.
  • It involves greater economic flows among different countries of the world.
  • As the restrictions imposed by different countries have been reduced, so, greater trade in commodities across the globe can be seen.
  • It has led to the flow of ideas across national boundaries through internet and computer.
  • Economic globalisation has also brought economic ruin for the weaker countries, especially for the poor within these countries.

Question 6.
Describe any three factors which are responsible for globalisation,
Answer:

For definition of globalisation
Globalisation means the flows of ideas, capital, commodities and people across different parts of the world. It is a multidimensional concept. It has political, economic and cultural manifestations and these must be adequately distinguished.

The factors responsible for globalisation are :

  1. Globalisation is not caused by a single factor. Now-a-days technology is the most important element. The invention of the telegraph, the telephone and the microchip has revolutionised communication between various global factors and hence, invention of printing laid the basis for the emergence of nationalism. The technology affects both our personal and collective lives.
  2. The technology has made it easier to exchange ideas, capital, commodities and people from one place to another. The transfer of capital and commodities is likely to be wider and quicker, than the transfer of people across different parts of the world.
  3. It is not just the availability of improved communication which led to the emergence of globalisation, rather the role of people in different parts of the world is also significant who recognise these interconnections with the rest of the world.
  4. The events taking place in one part of world have an influence, on the other part of the world.

Here, we can take an example of bird flu or tsunami, which is not confined to only one nation. It has affected the world as whole. Similarly, any major economic event would have an immediate impact on the local, national or regional environment at the world level.

Question 7.
Explain any three benefits of globalisation with examples.
Answer:

The three benefits of globalisation are as follows:

(i) Economic benefits

  • It involves greater economic flows among various countries.
  • It has enhanced trade in commodities among countries.
  • The restrictions on the imports and movement of capital have also been reduced.
  • This has spread internet and computer related services across national boundaries.

(ii) Technological benefits Technological equipments as telephone , internet, telegraph and microchip have contributed to globalisation by exchanging ideas, capitals and people to make convenient to move from one place to another at a fast pace under the process of globalisation.

(iii) Political Benefits

  • The primary status remains unchallenged basis of political community.
  • States have received a boost under globalisation to become more powerful and strong.

Question 8.
How has globalisation impacted India and how is India impacting globalisation?
Answer:

Globalisation affected India economically, socially and culturally. After adopting New Economic Policy in 1991, India has removed restrictions on imports of goods. It also encouraged the investors to invest in India. FDI to produce goods and services has increased, it also enhanced foreign exchange reserves.

After adopting globalisation, USA and European culture spread in India. The food habit and dressing style is changing. Families are converting from joint to the nuclear. Eating burgers and pizzas and wearing jeans have brought dramatic change in our lives.

In India, information technology and space technology have been enhanced after globalisation. India is also involved in trade and commerce with other nations. Even though at some places India plays a leadership role. However, in India, resistance to globalisation has come from various quarters.

These are as follows:

  1. Trade unions of industrial workforce, as well as social movements and farmer agitation against monopoly MNCs, are also some forms of resistance to globalisation.
  2. The patenting of certain plants like Neem by American and European firms has also generated widespread opposition in India.

Question 9.
Explain any four reasons due to which globalisation is resisted.
Answer:

For meaning of globalisation, Globalisation means the flows of ideas, capital, commodities and people across different parts of the world. It is a multidimensional concept. It has political, economic and cultural manifestations and these must be adequately distinguished.

The four reasons due to which globalisation is resisted are :

  • Leftist parties argue that contemporary globalisation represents a global capitalism that makes the rich richer and the poor poorer.
  • Weakening of the state leads to a reduction in the capacity of the state to protect the interest of its poor.
  • Rightist parties expresse anxiety over the political economic and cultural effects.
  • The cultural globalisation would harm age old values of people while harming their traditional culture.

Question 10.
Explain any two positive and any two negative effects of globalisation.
Answer:

Positive Impacts of globalisation are (any two):

  • Increase in the volume of trade in goods and services.
  • It attracts private foreign capital investment.
  • It creates new job opportunities.
  • It raises standard of living.
  • It increases production, efficiency and healthy competition.
  • It attracts foreign direct investment also.

Negative impacts of globalisation are (any two) :

  • Ths foreign companies focus on their profit orientation projects only in place of social welfare.
  • It has widened income disparities by making the rich richer and the poor more poorer.
  • Globalisation is also a reason for depletion of flora and fauna in country.
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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION CLASS – 12 | POLITICAL SCIENCE PART-A CONTEMPORARY WORLD POLITICS NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION | CHAPTER- 8 | ENVIRONMENT AND NATURAL RESOURCES | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 8 ENVIRONMENT AND NATURAL RESOURCES NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 12 POLITICAL SCIENCE PART- A CONTEMPORARY WORLD POLITICS which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON ENVIRONMENT AND NATURAL RESOURCES

Question 1.
What is meant by ‘Global Commons’? Give any two examples of Global commons. Why is it very essential to save them?
Answer:

Meaning of Global Commons: For this, see Textbook Question No. 5.
Essentiality to save Global Commons:

  1. There is a constant reduction in the total amount of ozone in the Earth’s stratosphere posing a risk to ecosystems and human health.
  2. Coastal pollution is increasing globally. The coastal waters are becoming polluted due to land-based activities.

Question 2.
What is the significance of the Kyoto Protocol? Is India a signatory to this protocol?
Answer:

Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement setting targets for industrialized countries to cut their greenhouse gas emissions. The protocol was agreed to in 1997 in Kyoto, Japan-based on principles set by United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change. India, China, and other developing countries were exempted from the requirements of the Kyoto Protocol because, in developing countries, per capita emissions are very low. However, India signed Kyoto Protocol in August 2002.

Question 3.
Explain India’s position on the environmental issues facing the contemporary world.
Answer:

India signed and ratified the 1997 Kyoto Protocol in August 2002. At the G-8 meeting in June 2005, India pointed out that the per capita emission rates of the developing countries are a tiny fraction of those in the developed world. India is of the view that the major responsibility of curbing emission depends upon the developed countries, which have accumulated emission for a long period of time. India’s international negotiating position depends on the principles of historical responsibility, as enshrined in UNFCCC. The Indian government is already participating in global efforts through a number of programs. The Electricity Act of 2003 encourages the use of renewable energy.

Question 4.
Explain ‘Agenda 21’ and ‘sustainable development’ as discussed at the Rio Summit.
Answer:

  1. Agenda 21: The Rio Summit held in 1992 produced conventions regarding climate change, forestry, biodiversity and recommended a list of development called ‘Agenda 21’.
  2. Sustainable Development: Sustainable development means economic growth with ecological responsibility.

Question 5.
Explain any four steps taken by the Government of India to curb the emission of greenhouse gases.
Answer:

  1. India signed and ratified the 1997 Kyoto Protocol in August 2002.
  2. The Energy Conservation Act, passed in 2001, outlines initiatives to improve energy efficiency.
  3. The Electricity Act of 2003 encourages the use of renewable energy.
  4. Importing natural gas and encouraging the adoption of clean coal technologies show that India has been making real efforts.

Question 6.
Analyze India’s stand on any three environmental issues.
Answer:

1. India is of the view that the major responsibility of curbing emission rates lies with the developed countries, which have accumulated emissions over a long period of time.

2. India’s international negotiating position relies heavily on principles of historical responsibility. This acknowledges that developed countries are responsible for the most historical and current greenhouse gas emissions.

3. India is wary of the recent discussions within UNFCCC about introducing binding commitments on rapidly industrializing countries, such as Brazil, China, and India, to reduce their green house gas emissions. India feels this contravenes the very spirit of UNFCCC.

Question 7.
Explain the meaning of ’Global Commons’. How are environmental concerns becoming important in global politics?
Answer:

Meaning of Global Commons: Global commons are those areas, objects, or resources of the world that are not part of the exclusive jurisdiction of any one state or individual. Examples of Global Commons are park or river, earth’s atmosphere, the ocean floor, air space, outer space, Antarctica. Global Commons and global environment are also called world heritage because they are passed on by the present generation to the next generation and so on.

Environmental concerns are becoming important in Global Politics:

The issues related to global environmental protection have become the priority concern of states since 1990 due to the following reasons:

  1. The fertility of the agricultural land is significantly being reduced, due to overgrazing the grasslands have been depleted and the overharvesting has reduced the supply of fish. Due to excessive pollution, the water bodies have been adversely affected.
  2. According to Human Development Report, 2006 of the United Nations Development Programme about 1.2 billion people in developing countries have no access to safe drinking water and about 2.6 billion people have no sanitation facilities.
  3. Natural forests are being cut down as large-scale and have people being displaced thus leading to the loss of biodiversity.
  4. There is a constant reduction in the total amount of ozone in the Earth’s stratosphere posing a risk to ecosystems and human health.
  5. Coastal pollution is increasing globally. The coastal waters are becoming polluted due to land-based activities.

Question 8.
Define the ‘Indigenous People’ and highlight any two threats to their survival.
Answer:

Indigenous people are the descendants of the native dwellers who have been living in a particular territory before the people of different cultures or ethnic origins arrived from other parts to capture that particular territory. The United Nations defines an indigenous population as comprising the descendants of people who inhabited the present territory of a country at the time when persons of a different culture or ethnic origin arrived there from other parts of the world and overcame them. Indigenous people are illiterate and poor. They do not know how to protect their rights. The land is only the source of their income. Thus, the loss of land also means the loss of an economic resource base.

Following are the two threats to the survival of indigenous people:

  1. Poverty is an important threat to indigenous people.
  2. They entirely depend on the resources and its continuous shortage of natural resources of indigenous people is another threat to their life.

Question 9.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions.

There is a growing significance of environmental as well as resource issues in world politics. If the various governments take steps to check environmental degradation, these issues will have political consequences. Most of them are such that no single government can address them fully. At the Rio summit, the first world countries were pursuing a different environmental agenda than the third world countries. The Indian government is already participating in global efforts through a number of programs. India’s International negotiating position relies heavily on the principles of UNFCCC.

(i) How the first World countries pursued a
different environmental agenda from the third world countries?
Answer:
The first world countries were mainly concerned with ozone depletion and Global warming. They wanted everyone (country) to be equally responsible for ecological conservation. While Third world countries felt that much of the environmental degradation is the product of first world countries.

(ii) The issue of global warming has deeply affected the world. Substantiate the statement with three examples.
Answer:
(A) Rise in global temperature
(B) catastrophic consequences for life on earth
(C) responsible for natural disasters.

Question 10.
Analyse any three threats to the global environment these days.
Answer:

Following are the reasons for environmental pollution.
1. Increase in Population. Rapid Population growth is the major factor responsible for environmental pollution Rapid growing population requires residential areas which lead to deforestation. A fast-growing population leads to overexploitation of natural resources. Their consumption of resources is more than production. Mineral resources such as petroleum coal and iron etc. also experience faster exhaustion. It has been rightly observed that much of environmental destruction in the form of deforestation and desertification can be traced to humankind’s struggle to feed a rapidly growing population.

2. Deforestation and Soil Erosion. Forest plays an important role to make human life prosperous. Forest creates balance in nature. It plays important role in the economic development of the country. Trees provide fuelwood, construction material, a healthy atmosphere, and fresh air to breathe in. But to meet with increasing demands of the population, to provide more residential areas, trees are filled. The shortage of fuelwood is leading to deforestation. The cutting off more and more trees lead to air pollution. Because trees are the only source to convert carbon dioxide into oxygen i.e. a necessity of life. Thus due to deforestation the carbon dioxide content of the air is increasing. Deforestation also affects rainfall patterns.

Moreover, deforestation leads to soil erosion. Deforestation affects wildlife. Cutting of forest causes loss of natural house of wild being. Thus deforestation adversely affects the ecosystem and causes environmental degradation.

3. Industrialisation. Rapid Industrialisation has caused environmental pollution. The indiscriminate and mushrooming growth of industries in and around the residential areas has complicated the scenario. The smoke from the Chimneys, the untreated effluents discharged in river and canals, and the mixing of chemical

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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION CLASS – 12 | POLITICAL SCIENCE PART-A CONTEMPORARY WORLD POLITICS NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION | CHAPTER- 7 | SECURITY IN THE CONTEMPORARY WORLD | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 7 SECURITY IN THE CONTEMPORARY WORLD NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION for Class 12 POLITICAL SCIENCE PART-A CONTEMPORARY WORLD POLITICS which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION ON SECURITY IN THE CONTEMPORARY WORLD

Question 1.
What is meant by alliance building as a component of traditional security policy? What are its advantages?
Answer:

Alliance building is the fourth element of traditional security policy. An association or an alliance is a partnership of states which coordinate with each other to deter and defend against military attack.

Advantages of alliance building as a component or traditional security policy are:

  • Most alliances are made in written treaties and are based on a fairly clear identification who makes the threat.
  • Alliances are formed based on national interest and can change when national interests change.
  • Countries form alliances to increase their effective power relative to another country or alliance.

Question 2.
Explain the concept of human security.
Answer:

The concept of human security is concerned with protection of people. Though, human security and state security are often considered the same, but secure states do not mean secure people. Protection of citizens from foreign attack is necessary condition for the security of people, but not a sufficient one. During the last 100 years, there have been more killing by their own governments rather than foreign armies.

According to proponents (supporters) of human security, the basic goal is the protection of individuals. There are however, differences over the threats from which individuals are to be protected. There are basically two categories of proponents.

They are :

  • Narrow concept
  • Broad concept

Question 3.
Differentiate between the traditional and the non-traditional notions of security.
Answer:

The differences between traditional and non-traditional security are:

Traditional SecurityNon-Traditional Security
Traditional security deals with use or threat of use of military.Non-traditional security go beyond military threats and include threats that endanger human existence.
Traditional threats to security endanger the core values of sovereignty, independence and territorial integrity of state.Non-traditional security is concerned with threats that endanger the human than state.
Under traditional concept, major focus is on use of military force.Under non-traditional security military is used as a last resort.
Under traditional security, force is both principal threat to security and means to achieve security.Under non-traditional concept threat is general environment.

Question 4.
Distinguish between the internal and external notion of traditional security.
Answer:

Differences between the internal and external notion of traditional security are

Internal NotionExternal Notion
Although internal security was a part of the concerns of the governments historically, however, it was not given much importance.Mostly when we talk of security in traditional conception, it is about external security wherein greatest threats is from another country.
Internal security mainly concerned with maintaining internal peace and order. And protecting the country from separatist threats from within.External notion of security is concerned with protecting sovereignty, independence and territorial integrity from military threats of another country.
Under internal notion of traditional security, security policy of states is either suppression of separatist demands or adjustment of their demands.Under external notion, security policy are-deference, defence, balance of power and alliance building.
Internal wars and conflicts now make up more than 95 per cent of all armed conflicts fought anywhere in the world.Although External security threats still have been major concern for governments, however frequency of war between countries has been reduced greatly now.
Internal security problems and threats can be regulated by acknowledged central authority that is government.In case of external security conflicts, war, and threats there is no acknowledged central authority that stands above everyone else. UNO authority is only to the extent that member state allows.

Question 5.
Explain any four components of India’s security strategy.
Answer:

The security strategy of India involves four components:
1. Strengthening military capability This is the very first component of Indian security strategy because India has been involved in conflict with its neighbours. It is surrounded by nuclear-armed countries in the South Asian region, so India first tested a nuclear device in 1974 was justified.

2. Strengthening International Norms and Institutions India took initiatives to bring about a universal and non-discriminatory non-proliferation regime in which all countries would have the same rights and obligations with respect to weapons of mass destruction.

3. Internal security The very third components of Indian security strategy is geared towards meeting security challenges within the country. Several militant groups from areas such as the Nagaland, Mizoram, Punjab and Kashmir among others have, from time to time, sought to break away from India.

4. Development of economy India wants to develop its economy in a way that the vast mass of citizen are lifted out of poverty and misery and huge economic inequalities are not allowed to exist.

Question 6.
What is meant by global poverty? Suggest any two ways to reduce disparity between the poor and the rich at the global level.
Answer:

Global poverty is another source of insecurity. At present, world population is 7 billion which is likely to rise upto 9-10 billion in upcomming decades. Currently, half of the world’s population growth occurs in just six countries India, China, Pakistan, Nigeria, Bangladesh and Indonesia. Among the world’s poorest countries, population is expected to triple in the next 50 years, whereas population is shrinking in many rich countries.

High per capita income and low population growth make rich state or rich social groups get richer, whereas low incomes and high population growth reinforce each other to make poor states and poor groups get poorer. Globally, this disparity contributes to the gap between the Northern and Southern countries of world. Poverty in the South has also been causing large-scale migration to seek a better life and economic opportunities.

Two ways to reduce disparity between the poor and rich at the global level are :
1. Quality education Provides children knowledge and life skills to realise their full potential. Education is a means through which employable skills are imparted. To remove poverty globally, governments must ensure quality education to each and every child. Education is a liberating force which liberate the people from poverty, suppression, exploitation, etc.

2. Economic and social security: To overcome poverty, communities around the world must be provided economic and social securities they need to thrive. Government accross the globe must extend basic health care, education, housing, pension, disability insurance, survivor benefits and unemployment insurence to the families living under poverty.
Apart from these, people living in poverty must be ensured to have skills and knowledge they need to secure a livelihood, and support their families.

Question 7.
What is meant by traditional notion of external security? Describe any two components of this type of security.
Answer:

Traditional notion of external security means the greatest danger to a country is from military threats. The very origin of this kind of insecurity is other nation, which by threatening the military action perils the core values of sovereignty, independence and territorial integrity. Military action also endangers the lives of ordinary citizens.

The two components are :

  1. Deterrence It is concerned with prevention of war. It is a strategy intended to dissuade an adversary from taking an action which is not yet started.
  2. Balance of power Not every country is equal in terms of power. When other countries are looked around, it can be judged easily that who is threat for our nation in coming future. Some nations are bigger and stronger in comparison to others.

The governments have to be very careful regarding balance of power between nations, as at some point of time in future any government can opt to be aggressive.

Question 8.
Explain balance of power as a component of traditional security policy. How could a state achieve this balance?
Answer:

Balance of Power as a component of traditional security policy The balance of power is the third components of traditional security policy. It means that not every country is equal in terms of power. When other countries are looked around, it can be judged easily that who is threat for our nation in coming future. Some countries are bigger and stronger.

For instance, a neighbouring country may not be preparing to attack. Infact there is no strong reason for a war or attack to happen. But the fact that the country is strong and bigger is a kind of symbol that it will attack in future if circumstances arises. On the basis of a speculation, governments are very sensitive to the balance of power between their country and other countries.

It is important to maintain a favourable balance of power with the countries with whom they have differences and with those they have had issues in the past.

In the following way state/nation can achieve balance of power:

  • Building up one’s military power is essential to have a balance of power.
  • Developing economic and technological power are also important since they are the basis for military power.

Question 9.
Describe any three new sources of threat to security giving examples for each.
Answer:

Security mainly refers to freedom from threats. Existence of human being and life of a country is full of threats, concludingly, security is related to extremely dangerous threats which could endanger the core values and these values are not repairable.
Four new source of threat four new threats to security are :

  1. Terrorism It means political violence targeting civilians intentionally and non-selectively. International terrorism involves the citizens or territory of more than one country. Terrorist groups try to change the political context which they do not like by force or threat of force. Civilians are targeted to terrorise the public.
  2. Human Rights They have been categorised into three types:
    • Political rights: It include freedom of speech and assembly.
    • Economic and social rights: It deals with rights related to economic and social nature.
    • Rights of colonised people: It deals with rights of colonised people or ethnic and indigenous minorities counts.
  3. Global Poverty Due to the high per capita income and low population, rich countries become richer and vice versa. Globally, this disparity contributes to the gap between the Northern and Southern countries of the world.
  4. Migration International political frictions have been created due to large scale migration of people from South to North. In order to seek better life and economic opportunities people have migrated to North.

Question 10.
What is meant by non-traditional notion of security? Differentiate between the narrow and broad concept of human security.
Answer:

Meaning of non-traditional notions of security It includes a wide range of threats and dangers which affect the condition of human existence. The non-tredition notion of security go beyond military there at. In traditional security conception focus has been on state, its territory and governing institutions while in non-traditional conception, human kind has become concern along with state. Non-traditional views of security have been called as ‘human security’ or ‘global security’.

Difference between ‘narrow’ and broad concept of human security Supporters of the ‘narrow’ concepts of human security emphasis on violent threats to individuals or as Kofi Annan believes ‘protection of communities and individuals from internal violence’.

On the other hand, proponents of the ‘broad’ concept of human security emphasis on the threat agenda that should include hunger, disease and natural disaster that kill far more people than war, genocide and terrorism together. Thus, human security policy, they argue, should protect people from these threats as well as from violence.

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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION CLASS – 12 | POLITICAL SCIENCE PART-A CONTEMPORARY WORLD POLITICS NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION | CHAPTER- 7 | SECURITY IN THE CONTEMPORARY WORLD | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 7 SECURITY IN THE CONTEMPORARY WORLD NCERT MCQ for Class 12 POLITICAL SCIENCE PART- A CONTEMPORARY WORLD POLITICS which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON SECURITY IN THE CONTEMPORARY WORLD

Question 1 : How many States acceded to Chemical Weapons Conventions?
(a) 102
(b) 155
(c) 192
(d) 181

Answer :  D
Question 2 :  Security Implies_________ .Which of the following is not a member of G-8?

(a) Freedom form threats

(b) Freedom form Insurgency

(c) Freedom form terrorism

(d) none of the above 

Answer : A
Question 3 : Which of the following is a source of insecurity?

(a) Human Rights
(b) Balance of Power
(c) Global Poverty
(d) Alliance Building 

Answer : C
Question 4 : Poverty in South Asia has led to _________.

(a) Illiteracy

(b) Population Explosion

(c) Migration

(d) Terrorism 

Answer : C
Question 5 :  Security Policy is concerned with

(a) Deterrence

(b) defense

(c) Difference and defend

(d) none of the above 

Answer : C
Question 6 : A good part of maintaining a balance of power is to build up.

(a) One‟s military power

(b) economic power

(c) only technological power

(d) none of these

 Answer : A
Question 7 : Biological weapons Convention was held in-

(a) 1970

(b) 1971

(c) 1972

(d) 1973

 Answer :  C
Question 8 : The Anti-Ballistic Missile treaty was signed in-

(a) 1970

(b) 1972

(c) 1973

(d) 1974

 Answer :  C
Question 9 : The Tutsi tribe are in

(a) Rwanda.
(b) Uganda.
(c) Nigeria.
(d) Greece. 

Answer :  A
Question 10 : India first tested nuclear device in-

(a) 1962.

(b) 1970.

(c) 1974.

(d) 1998. 

Answer : C
Question 11 :  Which of the following is a type of human right?

(a) Freedom of Speech

(b) Economic Rights

(c) Social Rights

(d) All of the above

 Answer :  D
Question 12 : Expand START.

(a) Strategic Arms Reduction Toll
(b) Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty
(c) Strategic Arms Reduction Tactics
(d) Strategic Arms Reduction Tax

 Answer : B
Question 13 :  Which of the following is a source of insecurity?

(a) Terrorism

(b) Global Poverty

(c) Insurgency

(d) All of the above

 Answer :  D
Question 14 : When was Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty signed?

(a) 1966

(b) 1967

(c) 1968

(d) 1969 

Answer : C
Question 15 : Al-Qaeda attacked America on which date?

(a) 11th September 2001
(b) 11th September 2002
(c) 11th October 2001
(d) 11th October 2002

 Answer : A

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NCERT MCQ CLASS – 12 | POLITICAL SCIENCE PART-A CONTEMPORARY WORLD POLITICS NCERT MCQ | CHAPTER- 8 | ENVIRONMENT AND NATURAL RESOURCES | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 8 ENVIRONMENT AND NATURAL RESOURCES NCERT MCQ for Class 12 POLITICAL SCIENCE PART-A CONTEMPORARY WORLD POLITICS which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter

NCERT MCQ ON ENVIRONMENT AND NATURAL RESOURCES

1. The example of global common is

(a) Gasoline pumps.(b) Giant oil refineries.(c) The ocean floor.(d) Chain of hotels.

► (c) The ocean floor.
2. According to Kyoto Protocol, the major nations abide to reduce concentration of green house gases was by

(a) 2008.(b) 2010.(c) 2012.(d) 2018

.► (c) 2012.
3. Progress that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs is

:​(a) The tragedy of global commons.(b) Sustainable development.(c) Development without Destruction.(d) The politics of the developed nations.

► (b) Sustainable development.
4. Smog is a combination of

(a) Air and water vapours.(b) Water and smoke.(c) Fire and water.(d) Smoke and fog.

► (d) Smoke and fog.
5. The multinational company Western Mining Corporation (WMC) belongs to

(a) USA.(b) Australia.(c) UK.(d) New Zealand.

► (b) Australia.

6. The Constitution of India provides for the safeguard of cultural and educational rights of minorities under fundamental rights of Article

(a) 20.(b) 23.(c) 28.(d) 29

.► (d) 29.
7. WWF stands for

(a) World Wild Foundation.(b) World Wildlife Federation.(c) World Wide Wildlife.(d) World Wildlife Fund

.► (d) World Wildlife Fund.
8. The Government of India refers indigenous people as

(a) Scheduled tribes.(b) Refugee people.(c) Prisoners of war.(d) Outclass people.

► (a) Scheduled tribes.
9. The animal that is the symbol of the World Wide wildlife Fund is:

(a) Tiger.(b) Panda.(c) Hornbill.(d) White Bear.

► (b) Panda.
10. Main cause of extinction of species from tropics is

(a) Soil erosion.(b) Pollution.(c) Deforestation.(d) Afforestation

.► (c) Deforestation.
11. What was the other name for the 1987 Brundtland Report?

(a) Our Common Present(b) Our Common Future(c) Our Common Past(d) None of the above

► (b) Our Common Future
12. Expand UNFCCC?

(a) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change(b) United Nations Framework Counter on Climate Change(c) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Call(d) United Nations Fast Convention on Climate Change

► (a) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
13. India signed and ratified the 1997 Kyoto Protocol in

(a) July 2002.(b) August 2002.(c) September 2002.(d) October 2002.

► (b) August 2002.
14. The World Council of Indigenous Peoples was formed in:

(a) 1973(b) 1974(c) 1975(d) 1976

► (c) 1975

Question 15 : Natural Forests –
(a) help stabilize the climate(b) moderate water supplies(c) harbour a majority of the planet‟s bio diversity on the Land (d) All of the above

► (d) All of the above

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NCERT MCQ CLASS – 12 | POLITICAL SCIENCE PART-A CONTEMPORARY WORLD POLITICS NCERT MCQ | CHAPTER- 9 | GLOBALISATION | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 9 GLOBALISATION NCERT MCQ for Class 12 POLITICAL SCIENCE PART-A CONTEMPORARY WORLD POLITICS which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter

NCERT MCQ ON GLOBALISATION


Question 1 : Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is what is known as _____?

(a) Globalization
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Regeneration
(d) Expansion 

Answer :   B
Question 2 : When did the government remove the barriers for investment in India?

(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1992
(d) 1993 

Answer :   B
Question 3 : Globalisation began in –

(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1992
(d) 1993

 Answer :  B
Question 4 : Globalisation is

(a) An uni dimensional
(b) Multi-dimensional phenomenon
(c) A Political Phenomenon
(d) A Cultural Phenomenon 

Answer :   B
Question 5 : The first WSF meeting was organized in -The earth summit was held in –

(a) Mumbai in 2004
(b) Delhi in 2004
(c) Porto Alerge in 2001
(d) Paris in 2001

 Answer :   D
Question 6 : Within a year, _____ of the toy shops had replaced Indian toys with Chinese toys?

(a) 40 to 50%
(b) 50 to 60%
(c) 70 to 80%
(d) 80 to 90% 

Answer :   C
Question 7 : What is the amalgamation and rapid unification between countries identified as?

(a) Globalisation
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Socialisation
(d) Privatisation

 Answer :  A 
Question 8 :  Which of the statements is true about the causes of globalisation?

(a) Technology is an important cause of globalisation.
(b) Globalisation is caused by a particular community of people.
(c) Globalisation originated in the U.S.
(d) Economic interdependence alone causes globalisation.

 Answer : C
Question 9 : According to the rightist view in India, globalisation tends to

(a) Benefits the weaker section of the society.

(b) Divides the State into rich and poor.

(c) Weakens the State

.(d) Reduces political party competition.

 Answer : C
Question 10 : The fourth WSF meeting was held in –

(a) Brazil

(b) India

(c) China

(d) Bangladesh 

Answer :  B
Question 11 : ______ has helped most in the spread of production of services?

(a) Email
(b) Telegraph
(c) Call centres
(d) Fax

 Answer : C
Question 12 : Which of the statements are true about globalisation?

(a) Globalisation is purely an economic phenomenon.

(b) Globalisation began in 1991.

(c) Globalisation is the same thing as westernisation.

(d) Globalisation is a multidimensional phenomenon. 

Answer : D
Question 13 : What are the key ideas behind understanding the process of globalisation and its impact?

(a) Integration of production
(b) Integration of gross profits
(c) Integration of markets
(d) A & C

 Answer : C
Question 14 : Globalisation heads to each culture becoming –

(a) More different

(b) More distinctive

(c) More different and distinctive

(d) More transparent

 Answer :  C
Question 15 : In which meeting there was a protest alleging that unfair trading practiced by the developed countries?

(a) WTO ministerial meetings at Seattle in 1992.
(b) IMF meetings at Washington in 1994.
(c) WTO ministerial meeting at Paris in 1990.
(d) WTO ministerial meeting at London in 1988.

 Answer :  A

 

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