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CHAPTER -4 Sorting Materials Into Groups | CLASS 6TH | NCERT SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQs | EDUGROWN

Here students can get info about NCERT Important Questions & MCQs for Class 6 Science so that they can get to know the answers to the questions in case they are not able to find it. You can find the best Class 6th Science NCERT Solutions explained in conformance with the CBSE curriculum for Class 6.

Chapter 4 Sorting Materials Into Groups Class 6th Science

MCQs

Question 1.
materials can be used for made up more than one things,
(a) Same
(b) Different
(c) Shiny
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Same
Same materials can be used fpr made up more than one things.

Question 2.
How do we choose a material to make an object ?
(a) depending on its properties
(b) depending one its colours
(c) depending on its shape
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) depending on its properties
We choose a material to make an object depending on its properties.

Question 3.
Newspaper, note book, books and calendars etc. are made by:
(a) iron
(b) wood
(c) paper
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) iron
Books, notebooks, calendar and newspapers etc, are made by paper.

Question 4.
Iron, aluminium and gold have appearance.
(a) shining
(b) rough
(c) non-shining
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) shining
Iron, aluminium and gold have shining appearance.

Question 5.
Metals which have a lustre are called:
(a) none-lustrous materials
(b) lustrous materials
(c) rough
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) lustrous materials
Materials which have lustre are called lustrous materials.

Question 6.
Wood and stone is materials.
(a) lustrous
(b) non-lustrous
(c) smooth
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) non-lustrous
Wood and stone is non-lustrous materials.

Question 7.
We see lustre on the freshly cut of the wire.
(a) surface
(b) length
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) surface
We see lustre on the freshly cut surface.

Question 8.
A substance dissolve in water is:
(a) sand
(b) chalk
(c) wax
(d) sugar

Answer

(d) sugar
Sugar is dissolve in water.

Question 9.
How does aquatic animals survive in water ?
(a) due to oxygen gas dissolved in water
(b) due to carbon dioxide gas dissolved in water
(c) they feel very warmth
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) due to oxygen gas dissolved in water
Aquatic animals survive in water due to oxygen gas dissolved in water.

Question 10.
An object that floats in water is:
(a) wood
(b) sugar
(c) iron nail
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) wood
A wood is an object that floats in water.

Question 11.
An object that sinks in water:
(a) wax
(b) crystals
(c) any oil
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) crystals
Crystals sinks in water.

Question 12.
A liquid that mixes well in water is:
(a) vinegar
(b) oil (mustard)
(c) glycerin
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) vinegar
Vinegar mixes well in water.

Question 13.
A liquid that does not mixes well in water is:
(a) lemon juice
(b) vinegar
(c) glycerin
(d) all of these

Answer

Question 14.
The substance which dissolve in water are called:
(a) soluble
(b) insoluble
(c) miscible
(d) immiscible

Answer

(a) soluble
The substances dissolves in water are soluble substances.

Question 15.
The substance which do not dissolve in water are called:
(a) soluble
(b) insoluble
(c) miscible
(d) immiscible

Answer

(b) insoluble
The substances do not dissolves in water are insoluble substances.

Question 16.
Some materials have special shine on them is:
(a) hard
(b) soft
(c) lustre
(d) none of these

Answer

Question 17.
Materials which are difficult to press are called:
(a) hard
(b) soft
(c) lustre
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) hard
Materials which are difficult to press are called hard.

Important Questions

Objects around us

Question 1.
What do you mean by classification?
Answer:
Classification is the grouping or sorting together of things possessing similar or dissimilar characteristics or properties.

Question 2.
What is the need for classification?
Answer:
Classification is essential for:

identification of objects.
sorting of objects.
locating things.
understanding similarities and dissimilarities among objects.
making the study of objects easy and more meaningful.

Question 3.
Why is mercury used in making thermometers?
Answer:

Mercury is liquid at room temperature.
It is a good conductor of heat.
Mercury has lustre, so, it is easy to read the temperature shown by the level of mercury.

Question 4.
On what basis are the various objects grouped?
Answer:
The grouping of various objects can be done on the basis of following characters:

size
shape
colour
hardness
solubility in water
attraction towards magnet
conduction of heat
transparency, etc.

Question 5.
Why do we need the grouping of objects?
Answer:
Grouping the objects helps us to arrange them in a systematic manner. The objects when grouped are easy to handle. When grouped, it is easy to know the properties of an object clearly. Grouping also makes easy to compare two objects.

Question 6.
How does the grouping of objects help the shopkeeper?
Answer:
The grouping of objects in proper way makes it easier to work. When we go to purchase some things, the shopkeeper locates it easily, because there are separate shelves to put various items and similar things are kept at one place. If he randomly places all of these, he would never be able to find them so quickly and easily.

Question 7.
Name the various materials from which following things can be made:
Shoes, chair, coins, utensils, clothes.
Answer:

Shoes: Leather, rubber, plastic, canvas
Chair: Wood, metal, plastic, concrete
Coins: Copper, silver, gold
Utensils: Iron, copper, aluminium
Clothes: Cotton, wool, silk, rayon, nylon.

Question 8.
Name any four materials that can be used to make school bags.
Answer:
Cloth (of cotton, jute, nylon, etc.), plastic, metal or alloy.

Question 9.
List any three solutions that are used in your home.
Answer:
Salt solution, sugar solution, cold drinks, lime juice, etc.

Question 10.
Why is water important for our body?
Answer:
Water can dissolve a large number of substances, so it is needed by the body. It is also major part of our body cells.

Activity 2
Table 4.2 lists some common materials. You can also add more materials in Column 1 that are known to you. Now, try and think of everyday objects you know, that are made mainly of these materials, and list them in Column 2.

Table 4.2: Different types of objects that are made from the same material

Material	Objects made of these materials
Wood	Chair, table, plough, bullock cart and its wheels, …
Papier	Books, notebooks, newspapers, toys, calendars, …
Leather	Shoes, belt, purse, bag, jacket
Plastics	Mug, bottle, bucket, toy
Cotton	Clothes, curtains, bed sheets, sari

Properties of materials

Question 1.
List five each opaque and transparent materials.
Answer:
Opaque materials:

Wood
Iron
Cardboard
Brick
Gold.

Transparent materials:

Water
Glass
Air
Cellophine plastic, and
Fibre glass.

Question 2.
List five objects that are made from transparent materials.
Answer:

Beaker,
Test tube,
Conical flask,
Glass jug, and
Glass doors.

Question 3.
List five liquids that are transparent.
Answer:

Water
Hydrochloric acid
Alcohol
Acetone, and
Petrol.

Question 4
List five objects that are made from an opaque material.
Answer:

Books
Blackboard
Cardboard
Wall, and
Wooden furniture.

Question 5.
Why is water called universal solvent?
Answer:
The property of water to dissolve large number of materials makes it a universal solvent.

Question 6.
List three liquids which are miscible in water.
Answer:

Milk
glycerine, and
soft drinks.

Question 7.
List three liquids which are immiscible in water.
Answer:

Edible oil
kerosene oil, and
petrol.

Question 8.
State conditions when pure water can lose transparency.
Answer:
Water on cooling, freezes to form ice which is not transparent.

Question 9.
List the following substances as soluble and insoluble in water.
Sand, salt, sugar, paint, chilli powder, desi ghee, blotting paper.
Answer:
Water soluble substances: Salt, sugar.
Water insoluble substances: Sand, paint, chilli powder, desi ghee, blotting paper.

Question 10.
Show that sugar, common salt and washing soda are soluble while chalk powder, iodine and sand are insoluble in water.
Answer:
Take six test tubes, fill each of them about half with water. Keep each of them in a test tube stand. Add a pinch of each of six substances in separate test tubes. Shake well and allow to stand for few minutes. Common salt, sugar and washing soda dissolve while iodine, chalk powder and sand do not dissolve.

Question 11.
Describe a method to prove that water is a transparent material.
Answer:
Take a white sheet of paper, one sketch pen, one clean beaker and a small quantity of clean water. Now on white sheet mark a symbol (say “X’). Now put the empty beaker over the marked symbol. We can see it properly. Now put water in the beaker. Observe the same mark. The mark is again visible. This observation proves that water is transparent.

Question 12.
Why is a tumbler not made with a piece of cloth?
Answer:
This is because we generally use a tumbler to keep a liquid. A tumbler made of a piece of cloth cannot be used to keep water. So, a tumbler is made with a material which has a property to hold the liquid.

Question 13.
Explain with example rough and smooth surfaces.
Answer:
Rough surface: Materials which have uneven surface or ridges can be termed as a rough surface, e.g., coal.
Smooth surface: Materials which are plain and have an even surface are termed as a smooth surface, e.g., marble.

Appearance
Hardness
Solubility or insolubility
Float or buoyancy
Transparency.

Question 14.
Name two gases each which are soluble and insoluble in water. «
Answer:
Gases soluble in water are oxygen and carbon dioxide. Gases insoluble in water are hydrogen and nitrogen.

Question 15.
Write any four properties of materials.
Answer:
Four properties of materials are:

Appearance
Hardness
Solubility or insolubility
Float or buoyancy
Transparency.

Question 16.
What are the similarities between iron, copper, aluminium?
Answer:

They all have lustre.
They all are metals.
They are hard.

Activity 3.
Collect small pieces of different materials—paper, cardboard, wood, copper wire, aluminium sheet, chalk. Do any of these appear shiny?
Now, observe as the teacher cuts each material into two pieces and look at the freshly cut surface (NCERT Fig. 4.3). What do you notice? Does the freshly cut surface of some of these materials appear shiny?
Yes. Copper wire.

Activity 4.
Collect samples of some solid substances such as sugar, salt, chalk powder, sand and ; sawdust. Take five glasses or beakers. Fill each one of them about two-thirds with water. ) Add a small amount (spoonful) of sugar to the first glass, salt to the second and similarly, | add small amounts of the other susbtances into the other glasses. Stir the contents of each of them with a spoon. Wait for a few minutes. Observe what happens to the substances added to water (Fig.). Note your observations as shown in Table 4.3.

Table 4.3: Mixing different solid materials in water

Substance	Disappears in water/does not disappear
Salt	Disappears completely in water
Sugar	Disappears completely in water
Sand	Does not disappear
Chalk powder	Does not disappear
Sawdust	Does not disappear

Activity 5.
Collect samples of vinegar, lemon juice, mustard oil or coconut oil, kerosene or any other liquid. Take a glass tumbler. Fill it up to half with water. Add a few spoonfuls of one liquid to this and stir it well. Let it stand for five minutes. Observe whether the liquid mixes with water (see figure). Repeat the same with other liquids, as many different liquids as are available to you. Write your observations in Table 4.4.

Table 4.4: Solubility of some common liquids in water

Liquid	Mixes well/Does not mix
Vinegar	Mixes well
Lemon juice	Mixes well
Mustard oil	Does not mix
Coconut oil	Does not mix
Kerosene	Does not mix

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CHAPTER -3 Fibre to Fabric | CLASS 6TH | NCERT SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQs | EDUGROWN

Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric Class 6th Science

MCQs

Question 1.
The yarn is wound on big reels are called:
(a) silver
(b) bobbins
(c) bailing
(d) retting

Answer

(b) bobbins
The yarn is wound on big reels which are called bobbins.

Question 2.
Compression of raw cotton fibres into bundles is:
(a) bailing
(b) bobbins
(c) silver
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) bailing
Compression of raw cotton fibres into bundles is bailing.

Question 3.
Rotting out of gummy spin of jute stem to separate fibres is:
(a) bobbins
(b) bailing
(c) retting
(d) none of these

Answer

Question 4.
A single yarn is used to make a piece of fabric is:
(a) gimming
(b) spinning
(c) weaving
(d) knitting

Answer

(d) knitting
A single yarn is used to make a piece of fabric is knitting.

Question 5.
A machine is used for weaving of fabrics is:
(a) loom
(b) takli
(c) charkha
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) loom
Loom is a machine is used for weaving of fabrics.

Question 6.
Some fibres such as cotton, jute, silk and wool obtained from plants and animals are called:
(a) synthetic fibres
(b) natural fibres
(c) silver
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) natural fibres
Some fibres such as cotton, jute, silk and wool obtained from plants and animals are called natural fibres.

Question 7.
Some fibres made from chemical changes are called:
(a) synthetics fibres
(b) natural fibres
(c) silver
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) synthetics fibres
Some fibres made from chemical changes are called synthetic fibres.

Question 8.
Jute is obtained from the of plant.
(a) branches
(b) leaves
(c) stem
(d) none of these

Answer

Question 9.
Name the jute plant.
(a) plastic
(b) paper
(c) patsun
(d) none of these

Answer

Question 10.
‘Patsun’ is cultivated during the season.
(a) winter
(b) rainy
(c) summer
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) rainy
Patsun is cultivated during the rainy season.

Question 11.
In which soil jute plant grow ?
(a) black soil
(b) loamy soil
(c) white soil
(d) alluvial

Answer

(d) alluvial
Jute plant grown in alluvial soil.

Question 12.
Where is jute grown in India ?
(a) Bihar
(b) Assam
(c) West Bengal
(d) All of these

Answer

(d) All of these
Jute is grown in Bihar, Assam aiid West Bengal.

Question 13.
What is the colour of jute fibres ?
(a) white
(b) orange
(c) pale yellow
(d) black

Answer

Question 14.
What is the length of jute fibres ?
(a) 6-8 feet in length
(b) 4-6 feet in length
(c) 2-4 feet in length
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) 6-8 feet in length
The length of jute fibres is 6-8 feet.

Question 15.
Name a simple device used for spinning ?
(a) charkha
(b) handloom
(c) knitting
(d) takli

Answer

(d) takli
Takli is used for spinning.

Question 16.
Name the device used by Mahatma Gandhi for spinning
(a) takli
(b) charkha
(c) handloom
(d) knitting

Answer

(b) charkha
Charkha was used by Mahatma Gandhi.

Question 17.
Socks, sweaters and T-shirts are made of:
(a) spinning fabrics
(b) knitted fabrics
(c) weaving fabrics
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) knitted fabrics
Socks, sweaters and T-shirts are made of knitted fabrics.

Question 18.
How many years ago people start wearing shaped clothing ?
(a) About 40,000 to 50,000 years ago
(b) About 20,000 to 30,000 years ago
(c) About 10,000 to 20,000 years ago
(d) About 50,000 to 60,000 years ago

Answer

(a) About 40,000 to 50,000 years ago
About 40,000 to 50,000 years ago people started wearing shaped clothing.

Important Questions

NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

Variety in fabrics

Question 1.
What is fabric?
Answer:
Fabric means a woven material, a textile or other material resembling woven cloth. Fabric is made up of yarns. Fabrics are made by the two main processes known as weaving and knitting.

Question 2.
On what factors does our type of clothing depend?
Answer:
Type of clothing which we wear is influenced by climate, occupation, culture and daily needs.

Question 3.
Why are cotton and woollen clothes rough and silk, rayon, nylon, polyester smooth to touch?
Answer:
Roughness of cotton and woollen fibre is due to presence of many folds and uneven surfaces in it. Silk, rayon, nylon and polyester are smooth because they have long plain, fine structure.

Fibre

Question 1.
Classify the following fibres into natural and man-made: cotton, nylon, jute, wool, silk, rayon, polyester.
Answer:

Natural fibres – Cotton, jute, wool, silk.
Man-made fibres – Nylon, rayon, polyester.

Question 2.
From where wool is obtained?
Answer:
Wool is obtained from the fleece of sheep or goat.

Question 3.
What is known as golden fibre?
Answer:
Jute is the cheapest natural fibre and is known as the golden fibre.

Question 4.
When we burn wool, why do we get the smell of hair bum?
Answer:
Wool is obtained from the fleece (hair) of sheep, goat, yak, etc. This is the reason why burning of wool gives smell like burning of hair.

Some plant fibres

Question 1.
Name the plant from which jute is obtained. From which of its part do we get jute?
Answer:
Jute is obtained from ‘Putson’. It is obtained from its stem.

Question 2.
Which parts of these plants have fibres?

(a) Cotton
(b)Mango
(c) Coconut
(d) Banana.

Answer:

Cotton – seeds
Mango – seeds
Coconut – fruits
Banana – leaf.

Question 3.
Name the country which invented cotton clothing.
Answer:
India.

Question 4.
In which states of India, cotton is grown?
Answer:
Cotton is grown in Maharashtra, Gujarat, Punjab, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 5.
In which states of India, jute is cultivated?
Answer:
West Bengal, Bihar and Assam are the main producers of jute in India.

Question 6.
Which method is used to harvest cotton from the plants?
Answer:
Hand picking.

Question 7.
What is ginning?
Answer:
Ginning is the process of separating cotton fibres from its seeds.

Question 8.
What are bales?
Answer:
Raw cotton fibres are compressed into bundles of approximately 200 kg. These compressed cotton bundles are called bales.

Question 9.
Which type of soil is the best for the cultivation of cotton?
Answer:
Black soil.

Question 10.
Which type of soil is best suited for jute crop?
Answer:
Alluvial soil in the delta regions of rivers like the Ganga and the Brahmaputra are the best for the cultivation of jute.

Question 11.
In which season, jute (putson) is cultivated?
Answer:
Rainy season.

Question 12.
What are the uses of cotton?
Answer:
Cotton has a variety of uses. Some uses of cotton are given below:

Cotton or cotton in combination with other fibres is used in manufacture of textiles.
Cleaned cotton is used as an absorbent in hospitals.
Unspun cotton is used ,as fillers in mattresses, pillows and quilts.
Cotton is used as a main raw material in manufacturing of rayon and in paper industry.
Due to high water absorption property, clothes made from cotton are extensively used as mops in household and for cleaning machines in industries.

Question 13.
Explain various steps in the manufacture of cotton fabric from cotton.
Answer:
Important steps in the manufacture of cotton fibres are as described below:

Cotton is hand picked from the plants.
Ginning: The picked cotton is taken to godowns where the seeds are pulled out of the cotton by steel combs.
Bailing: Ginned cotton is compressed tightly into bundles weighing approximately 200 kg called bales.
Raw cotton from bales is cleaned from straw and dried leaves, combed and straightened and finally converted into rope like strand called sliver.
Spinning: To make this strand into yam strong enough for wearing, it is pulled and twisted.
Yarn is wound on big reels called ‘bobbins’. These bobbins of yam are subjected to weave for making cloth.
Weaving: Weaving from yam is done in the looms.
Bleaching and dyeing: Fabric made in the loom is grey in colour. The fabric is now bleached and dyed at a finishing plant.

Question 14.
In which season is cotton planted? What is its course of growth?
Answer:
It is planted early in the spring. Cotton plants grow steadily and soon become bushes of 3 to 6 feet high. After about 2 months, they bear white or yellowish flowers which turn pink or red after a few days. The petals of the flowers fall, leaving behind tiny green seeds. This later grows into spherical-shaped structure of the size of a walnut, which is called cotton boll. As the cotton bolls grow steadily, the seeds and the fibres grow inside. On maturing, the green bolls begin to turn brown. On complete maturation, they become ready to burst open, exposing the white fibres. As the fibres dry in the sun, they become fluffy.

Question 15.
Why are jute plants cut at flowering stage and not on complete maturation?
Answer:
Jute plants are cut at the time of flowering stage because a good quality of fibre is obtained at this stage. On complete maturation of plant, fibres of its stem become very hard.

Question 16.
What are the important uses of jute?
Answer:

Jute is extensively used for making gunny bags, potato sacks, carpets, curtains, coarse clothes and ropes, etc.
These days, fine quality of jute is also used for making jute fabrics.

Question 17.
What is retting? Explain how fibres are obtained from the jute plants.
Answer:
Jute plants are cut at the flowering stage when plants are 8-10 feet high. The cut plants are grouped at different places in the field for a few days when most of the leaves dry up and fall down. The plants are now tied into small bundles. The bundles are made to sink in stagnant water of a pond for a few days and then the gummy skin rots out to separate fibres. This process is called ‘retting’. Fibre is extracted from the retted jute by hand, with jerks and pulls. The.dried fibres are then tied together in small bundles.

Spinning cotton yarn

Question 1.
What is spinning?
Answer:
The process of making yam from fibres is called spinning.

Question 2.
Name two simple devices used for spinning.
Answer:

Takli
Charkha

Question 3.
Name the person who made the charkha popular during independence movement.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 4.
Where were the cotton and flax plants cultivated in ancient Egypt?
Answer:
Cotton and flax plants were cultivated near the river Nile in ancient Egypt.

Question 5.
How are natural fibres better than synthetic fibres?
Answer:
The natural fibres absorb sweat, give cooling effect and comfort in all seasons.

Activity 4.
Hold some cotton wool in one hand. Pinch some cotton between the thumb and forefinger of the other hand. Now, gently start pulling out the cotton, while continuously twisting the fibres (See Fig. 3.2 on page 31). Are you able to make a yam?

Yes, the cotton fibres are drawn out and twisted into long thread like strands. These strands are spun with the help of spinning machines to yam.

Yarn to fabric

Question 1.
What is weaving?
Answer:
The process of arranging two sets of yam together to make a fabric is called weaving.

Question 2.
What is knitting?
Answer:
In knitting, a single yam is used to make a piece of fabric.

Question 3.
What are looms?
Answer:
Loom is a device on which weaving of fibres is done.

Question 4.
Name the two types of looms.
Answer:
Looms are of two types:

Hand operated
Power operated.

History of clothing material

Question 1.
What were the wearings of the people of stone age?
Answer:
During the stone age, people wore bark, big leaves of trees or animal skins to keep themselves warm. ‘

Question 2.
Why primitive life was confined to the tropics? When was it possible for the people to migrate to colder regions?
Answer:
Primitive men and women had no idea about clothes, and were at the mercy of their environment. Primitive life was confined mostly to the tropics where the climate was warm and no clothing was needed. Only after the invention of fire, it became possible for people to migrate to colder regions.

Question 3.
What are the three stages in history of the development of clothing material? t
Answer:
In terms of raw materials, cloth making was developed in three stages. The first stage was cloth from plant fibres, such as flax, cotton, nettles and inner bark of the trees. The second stage began with the use of animal fibres especially wool and silk. Silk came to various parts of the world from China. The third stage in the history of clothing began in the late 19th century with the development of man-made or synthetic fibres like rayon, nylon and polyester. Now man-made fibres combined with other animal with or without plant fibres are used for making clothes for improved strength, wearing ability and other qualities.

Question 4.
When stitching was not known, how did people use fabrics available with them?
Answer:
When stitching was not known, people simply draped the fabrics around different parts of their body. Many different ways of draping fabrics were used.

Question 5.
Name the clothes which are used as an unstitched piece of fabric even now.
Answer:
Saree, dhoti, lungi or turban are the clothes which are used as an unstitched piece of fabric even now.

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CHAPTER -2 Components of Food | CLASS 6TH | NCERT SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQs | EDUGROWN

Chapter 2 Components of Food Class 6th Science

MCQs

Question 1.
Diseases that occur due to lack of nutrients over a long period are called disease.
(a) scurvy
(b) deficiency
(c) Beri-Beri
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) deficiency
Diseases that occur due to lack of nutrients over a long period are called deficiency diseases.

Question 2.
Repeated washing of rice and pulses may remove some and present in them.
(a) vitamins
(b) minerals
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Question 3.
get lost in the process of cooking and preparations.
(a) Nutrients
(b) Oil
(c) Taste
(d) Spices

Answer

(a) Nutrients
Nutrients get lost in the process of cooking and preparations.

Question 4.
What happen if excess water is used during cooking and is then thrown away ?
(a) tastes is lost
(b) Oil is lost
(c) Many useful proteins and considerable amount of minerals are lost
(d) None of these

Answer

(c) Many useful proteins and considerable amount of minerals are lost
Many useful proteins and considerable amount of minerals are lost if excess water is used.

Question 5.
How do we get most of the water that our body needs ?
(a) The liquid we drink-such as water, milk, tea
(b) We add water to most cooked food
(c) Many food materials that we eat themselves contain water
(d) All of these

Answer

(d) All of these
Through all of these given statements we get most of water, that our body needs.

Question 6.
How many meals does a child take everyday ?
(a) 7
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) none of these

Answer

Question 7.
What food items we eat in our lunch ?
(a) Curd, Roti, Dal
(b) Biscuit, milk
(c) Only fruit
(d) All of these

Answer

(a) Curd, Roti, Dal
We eat curd, roti, dal in our breakfast.

Question 8.
How many groups can be classified of nutrients required by our body ?
(a) 7
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 8

Answer

(a) 7
7 groups can be classified as nutrients required by our body.

Question 9.
……………….. are made up of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
(a) Vitamins
(b) Calcium
(c) Proteins
(d) Carbohydrates

Answer

(d) Carbohydrates
Carbohydrates are made up of carbon, hydi’ogen and oxygen.

Question 10.
The excess carbohydrates are mainly stored in the body as:
(a) calcium
(b) proteins
(c) fats
(d) roughage

Answer

Question 11.
Carbohydrates are present in the form of:
(a) sugar
(b) starch
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Question 12.
The human body is made up of amino acids and constitute all proteins of the body.
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 15

Answer

(b) 20
The human body is made up of 20 amino acids.

Question 13.
………….. are body building foods.
(a) Fats
(b) Calcium
(c) Vitamins
(d) Proteins

Answer

(d) Proteins
Proteins are body building foods.

Question 14.
What is the similarities of carbohydrates and fats ?
(a) both have sugar
(b) both have starch
(c) both have oxygen, carbon and hydrogen
(d) all of these

Answer

Question 15.
What is the main difference between carbohydrates and fats?
(a) the amount of oxygen is less in fats as compared to carbohydrates
(b) the amount of oxygen is more in fats as compared to carbohydrates
(c) the amount of oxygen is same in fats as compared to carbohydrates
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) the amount of oxygen is less in fats as compared to carbohydrates
The amount of oxygen is less in fats as compared to carbohydrates.

Question 16.
Vitamins are required in ……………… amounts, but are essential for the proper functioning of the body.
(a) big
(b) large
(c) small
(d) none of these

Answer

Question 17.
About vitamins are needed by our body.
(a) 45
(b) 15
(c) 35
(d) 25

Answer

(b) 15
About 15 vitamins are needed by our body.

Question 18.
Each vitamins has a function.
(a) normal
(b) same
(c) specific
(d) all of these

Answer

NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 2 Components of Food

What do different food items contain?

Question 1.
What are nutrients?
Answer:
The components of food that are necessary for growth and development of our body are called nutrients.

Question 2.
Which are the nutrients essential for our body?
Answer:
Carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins, minerals, roughage and water are the nutrients essential for our bod

Question 3.
What is nutrition?
Answer:
The process of taking nutrients from our food for the growth and development of body and to obtain energy is known as nutrition.

Question 4.
Write the functions of food.
Answer:
The functions of food are as follows:

Food provides nutrients for proper growth and functioning of the body.
Food gives protection against diseases.
Food provides energy to carry out physical activities.

Question 5.
Why does our body need nutritious food?
Answer:
We know that food is needed for the growth of our body. Food gives us energy to work and play. It gives us resistance against diseases. The components of food are carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, fibre and water. Nutrients are the components of food that the body needs in adequate amounts for growth, to reproduce and to lead a normal healthy life. All types of nutrients have their own functions to perform, but the different nutrients must act together. So nutritious food provides energy for all the activities of body.

Question 6.
Name the different food groups.
Answer:
Food can be broadly sub-divided into the following three groups:

Energy giving food. For example, carbohydrates and fats.
Body building food. For example, proteins.
Protective food. For example, vitamins and minerals.

Question 7.
How will you test for starch in a food sample?
Answer:
Take a small quantity of a food sample, put 2-3 drops of iodine solution on it. A blue black colour indicates that the food sample contains starch.

Question 8.
How will you test for protein in a food sample?
Answer:
Take a small quantity of food sample in a test tube, add 10 drops of water to it and shake the test tube, after that add two drops of solution of copper sulphate and ten drops of caustic soda. A violet colour indicates presence of protein in the food sample.

Question 9.
How will you test for fat in a food sample?
Answer:
Put the sample of food on a piece of paper and crush it. If the paper at that spot becomes translucent and greasy, the sample contains fat.

Question 10.
What are the main carbohydrates found in our food?
Answer:
The main carbohydrates found in our food are in the form of starch and sugars.

Question 11.
Name two energy-producing nutrients.
Answer:
The two energy-producing nutrients are:

Carbohydrates
Fats.

Question 12.
Name two nutrients which protect the body from diseases.
Answer:
The two nutrients which protect the body from diseases are:

Vitamins
Minerals.

Question 13.
Name two food items which provide fats.
Answer:
The two food items which provide fats are:

Oil
Ghee.

What do various nutrients do for our body?

Question 1.
Name the food each rich in:

dietary fibre
sugar
protein
starch
fat and oil.

Answer:

Dietary fibre: Spinach, cabbage, ladyfinger.
Sugar: Milk, banana, sugarcane.
Protein: Milk, meat, fish, egg.
Starch: Rice, wheat, bajara.
Fat and oil: Butter, ghee, cheese, groundnut.

Question 2.
Name the food needed:

for strong bones and teeth
to prevent scurvy
to avoid constipation
for warmth
for growth.

Answer:

The bones and teeth are made up of salts of calcium and phosphorus. Calcium is found in milk, buttermilk, cheese, green leafy vegetables, ragi. While cereals, pulses, fish and meat are good sources of phosphorus.
To prevent scurvy, vitamin C is required, which is found in citrus fruits, green and red peppers.
To avoid constipation, roughage is very important. Roughage is mostly given by the food derived from plants, which contains enough cellulose. Most of the vegetables, fruits and whole grain provide roughage in our food.
For warmth: ghee, butter, meat, fish, etc.
For growth: milk, green leafy vegetables.

Question 3.
What are the roles of

(a) carbohydrates,
(bt fats,
fc) vitamins and
id) minerals.

Answer:

1. Role of carbohydrates: Carbohydrates provide us energy.
2.Role of fats: Fats provide us energy.
3. Role of vitamins:

Vitamins are necessary for various physiological activities.
Vitamins keep us healthy and protect us from many diseases.
Vitamins are required for the proper functioning of body parts.

4. Role of minerals:

Minerals help us to make our bones and teeth strong.
They help to prepare blood.

Question 4.
What do you mean by staple food?
Answer:
The main food that we eat to provide us energy is called staple food. In our country, rice, chapati and bread are staple food.

Question 5.
What is the function of vitamins?
Answer:
Vitamins only help in the proper utilization of other nutrients such as carbohydrates and fats. Many vitamins help enzymes in their action and are called co-enzymes.

Question 6.
Name any two sources of Vitamin B.
Answer:
The two sources of Vitamin B are:

Milk
Soybean.

Question 7.
Name the vitamin present in orange.
Answer:
Vitamin C.

Question 8.
What is the role of Vitamin C?
Answer:
Vitamin C helps in proper growth, healthy teeth, gums and joints and helps the body fight against the diseases.

Question 9.
Write the names of fat soluble vitamins.
Answer:
Vitamin A and Vitamin D.

Question 10.
Write the names of any two water soluble vitamins.
Answer:
The two water soluble vitamins are:

Vitamin B
Vitamin C.

Question 11.
Write the sources of fat.
Answer:
ats are found in vegetable oil, ghee, butter, milk, cheese, meat, fish, cod-liver oil, etc.

Question 12.
What are the sources of carbohydrates?
Answer:
Rice, wheat, maize, potatoes, sugar and jaggery are the sources of carbohydrates.

Question 13.
What is roughage? Why its presence in our food is important?
Answer:
The rough, fibrous content of food is called roughage. Green vegetables like spinach, cabbage, ladyfinger and beans contain a good amount of roughage:
Role of roughage: Roughage helps in the movement of bowel. Roughage prevents constipation.

Question 14.
Name the main constituent of roughage.
Answer:
Cellulose is the main constituent of roughage.

Question 15.
Which among the following provides maximum roughage to the diet if taken in equal amount?
Egg, cucumber, grapes, cabbage.
Answer:
Cabbage.

Question 16.
Name the minerals which make our teeth and bones.
Answer:
Calcium and Phosphorus.

Question 17.
What are various functions of proteins?
Answer:
Functions of proteins are:

Proteins are the building materials of our body.
Proteins are the constituents of enzymes.
Proteins make our muscles, skin, hair and nails.
Proteins form a red pigment in blood which acts as an oxygen carrier.
Proteins like fibrin help in clotting of blood.
Proteins help in repairing damaged cells, replacing wornout or dead cells and tissues.
Proteins help to develop resistance of the body against various infections.

Question 18.
Here are three strips. You have to paste them in figure at three places 1, 2 and3 At which place will you paste each strip?

Protein rich food
Carbohydrate rich food
Fat rich food.

Answer:
Names of strips and their appropriate places are:

Question 19.
How are vitamins classified?
Answer:
Vitamins are classified into two categories:

Water soluble vitamins, e.g., vitamins B and C.
Fat soluble vitamins, e.g., vitamins A, D, E and K

Balanced Diet

Question 1.
What is a balanced diet?
Answer:
A diet in which every component of food (carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins, minerals, water and roughage) is present in proper amount is known as a balanced diet.

Question 2.

How many calories does a 12-year old boy or girl need each day?
How can the boy or girl get this in his/her diet?

Answer:

A 12-year old boy or girl needs 2000-2200 calories per day.
The boy or girl can get this by a diet including daal, rice, roti, green vegetables, ghee and a bit of jaggeiy.

Question 3.
Why does a growing child need more minerals?
Answer:
A growing child needs more minerals like calcium and phosphorus for the formation of bones.

Question 4.
Write three important properties of a balanced diet.
Answer:
A balanced diet has the following properties:

It is rich in essential nutrients such as vitamins, minerals and certain amino acids,
It provides enough material to take care of the needs of growth, repair and replacement of cells, tissues and organs of the body.
It provides energy required by the body.

Question 5.
What is obesity?
Answer:
When a person eats too much fat-containing food, then the fats get deposited in his body and he may end up suffering from a condition called obesity.

Question 6.
Explain why people who eat sea-food do not suffer from goitre.
Answer:
Goitre is caused due td iodine deficiency. Sea-food is a rich source of iodine and prevents the occurrence of goitre in people who eat sea-food.

Deficiency diseases

Question 1.
What is malnutrition? What are its harmful effects?
Answer:
Malnutrition is the physical state of a person resulting either from an imbalanced diet or from physical inability to absorb nutrients properly due to some diseases.
The harmful effects of malnutrition are:

Deficiency of any of the nutrients in our diet causes diseases.
Deficiency of protein causes kwashiorkor disease.
Deficiency of carbohydrate and protein causes marasmus.

Question 2.
What is the effect of protein deficiency on the health of children?
Answer:
If a child does not get enough protein in his food for long time, he is likely to suffer from protein deficiency. Children suffering from protein deficiency have light brown hair, face like that of an old man, always hungry, and distended stomach. They are under¬weight and skinny with very little flesh on bones. This disease is called Kwashiorkor.

Question 3.
What is marasmus? What are its symptoms?
Answer:
Marasmus is caused by the deficiency of proteins and carbohydrates in children.
Symptom: The child becomes so thin that loose folds of skin can be seen all over the body.

Question 4.
Write the sources and deficiency diseases of the vitamins ‘A’, ‘B’ complex, C, D, E and K.
Answer:

Vitamins	Sources	Deficiency diseases
1. Vitamin A	Milk, butter, yellow fruits and vegetables, egg yolk, liver oil of fish.	Xerophthalmia, Night blindness, anaemia
2. Vitamin B complex	Milk, egg, green vegetables, cheese, meat, germinating seeds, yeast and unpolished rice.	Beriberi
3. Vitamin C	Citrus fruits, green and red peppers.	Scurvy
4. Vitamin D	Milk, egg, fish, liver oil, sunlight.	Rickets
5. Vitamin E	Vegetable seeds, eggs, sweet potatoes, oil, meat, sprouted grains.	Sterility
6. Vitamin K	Egg yolk, liver, cheese, tomato, cabbage, soybean, cauliflower.	Improper coagulation of blood

Question 5.
What is anaemia? What are the symptoms of anaemia?
Answer:
The deficiency of iron in the diet leads to a disease called anaemia.
Symptoms: looks pale, gets tired easily, loses weight and nails turn white.

Question 6.
Why is it advised to take iodised salt?
Answer:
Iodised salt contains iodine. Iodine deficiency results in the enlargement of thyroid gland, retarded growth and mental disability. Iodized salts help us to overcome iodine deficiency.

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column B:

Column A	Column B
(a) Energy giving food	(i) Vitamins and minerals
(b) Body building food	(ii) Iodine
(c) Protective food	(iii) Fats, carbohydrates
(d) Test for fat	(iv) Copper sulphate and caustic soda
(e) Test for starch	(v) Oily patch on paper sheet
(f) Test for protein	(vi) Proteins

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) Energy giving food	(iii) Fats, carbohydrates
(b) Body building food	(vi) Proteins
(c) Protective food	(i) Vitamins and minerals
(d) Test for fat	(v) Oily patch on paper sheet
(e) Test for starch	(ii) Iodine
(f) Test for protein	(iv) Copper sulphate and caustic soda

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

For proper ……………….. and …………………… our bodies need adequate food.
Proteins build ………….. material.
Non-living machines burn the fuel at ……………… temperature while living machines burn their food at ………………… temperature.
Starch is a ……………… of sugar.
……………….. gives blue colour with iodine.
Proteins are made up of …………………… .
Skin, hair and nails are …………………… .
Co-enzymes are nothing but …………….. .
Vitamin C causes ……………….. when found deficient.
Our body contains ……………………. of water.
Most of the reactions in our body occur in ……………. solutions.
Balanced diet is one containing all ……………….. .
Deficiency of ……………. causes rough skin, weak eyesight and thinness of body.
Excess intake of………………… over a large period may damage kidneys.
Lack of ……………….. leads to lethargy, inactivity and feeling of tiredness.
Intake of inadequate quantities of proteins may ………………….. the growth and development of children.

Answer:

growth, maintenance
body
high, low
polynler
Starch
amino acids
proteins
proteins
scurvy
61%
water
nutrients
eight
proteins
alcohol

Question 3.
State whether the statements given below are True or False:

Deficiency of vitamin A makes our bones weak.
Deficiency of iron causes paleness.
Calcium is necessary for strong bones and teeth.
Deficiency of vitamin B helps to increase our appetite.
Deficiency of vitamin D causes swollen and bleeding gums.
Carbohydrates are the main source of energy in our diet.
Expensive food is not always the best food
Protein is a staple food.
Haemoglobin is a carbohydrate.
Cotton and paper are carbohydrates.
Tomatoes contain vitamin C.
Eating lady finger makes you good in mathematics.

Answer:

False
True
True
False
False
True
True
False
False
True
True
False

Question 4.
Choose the correct option in the following questions:

(i) The food components needed by our body are called
(a) ingredients
(b) nutrients
(c) fragments
(d) ornaments
Answer:
(b) ingredients of food have some components which are needed by our
body. Such components are called nutrients.

(ii) Carbohydrates can be tested by using
(a) iodine solution
(b) caustic soda
(c) copper sulphate
(d) fehling solution
Answer:
(a) Carbohydrates (starch) give violet or black colour with iodine solution.

(iii) Which one of the following is an energy giving component?
(a) Protein
(b) Vitamins and minerals
(c) Roughage
(d) Carbohydrates and fats
Answer:
(d) Carbohydrates and fats are main sources of energy.

(iv) Vitamins and minerals are
(a) protective food
(b) energy giving food
(c) body building food
(d) roughage
Answer:
(a) Vitamins and minerals protect our body from various diseases.

(v) Roughage helps in
(a) protecting our body from diseases
(b) movement of bowel
(c) providing energy
(d) building and repair of various body parts
Answer:
(b) Roughage are rich in fibres. Fibres keep in bowel movement.

(vi) Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of
(a) vitamin A
(b) vitamin B
(c) vitamin C
(d) vitamin D
Answer:
(c) Deficiency of vitamin C causes scurvy.

(vii) Diseases caused due to the deficiency of vitamins are known as
(a) dietary diseases
(b) cronic diseases
(c) deficiency diseases
(d) transmitted diseases
Answer:
(c) Since such diseases are caused by deficiency of food components.

(viii) All the deficiency diseases can be prevented by
(a) cleanliness ,
(b) taking medicine at proper time
(c) vaccination
(d) taking balanced diet
Answer:
(d) If we take balanced diet there will not be any kind of deficiency.

(ix) Which of the following food items contains carbohydrates?
(a) Rice i
(b) Gram
(c) Cabbage
(d) Pulses
Answer:
(a) Rice is a source of carbohydrates.

(x) Night blindness is caused due to deficiency of
(a) vitamin A
(b) vitamin B
(c) vitamin C
(d) vitamin D
Answer:
(a) Night blindness is caused due to deficiency of vitamin A.

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CHAPTER -1 FOOD: WHERE DOES IT COME FROM? | CLASS 6TH | NCERT SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQs | EDUGROWN

Chapter 1 Food Where Does It Come From Class 6TH Science

MCQs

Question 1.
Which plant gives us medicines?
(a) Castor oil
(b) Tulsi
(c) Dhatura
(d) All of these

Answer

(d) All of these
Castor oil, Tulsi and Dhatura gives us medicines.

Question 2.
Oil yielding plants are:
(a) Mustard
(b) Wheat
(c) Rice
(d) Urad

Answer

(a) Mustard
Oil yielding plants are mustard.

Question 3.
Honey comes from beehives of:
(a) Spider
(b) Butterfly
(c) Honeybee
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Spider
Honey comes from beehives of honeybee.

Question 4.
………………. is extracted by a honey extractor from beehives.
(a) Honey
(b) Sugar
(c) Sarbat
(d) All of these

Answer

(a) Honey
Honey is extracted by a honey extractor from beehive.

Question 5.
How to avoid wastage of food ?
(a) We should buy a lot of fruits and vegetables
(b) We should cooked extra food
(c) Storage of food should be done properly
(d) None of these

Answer

Question 6.
In our country, people do not have enough food to eat, what should be our duty ?
(a) We should grow more food
(b) The food that we produce should not get spoilt or eaten away by animals
(c) Each of us should make sure not to waste food
(d) All of these

Answer

(d) All of these
Our duty is that grow more food, should not get spoilt or eaten away by animals and not to waste food.

Question 7.
A small white structure may have grown out of seeds is called:
(a) roots
(b) sprouts
(c) seeds
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) sprouts
A small white structure may have grown out of seeds is sprouts.

Question 8.
Bees collect nectar from:
(a) vegetable
(b) fruits
(c) flowers
(d) none of these

Answer

Question 9.
Bees store nectar for their use all through the:
(a) day
(b) month
(c) week
(d) year

Answer

(d) year
Bees store nectar for their use all through the year.

Question 10.
What are the ingredients of kheer?
(a) Milk, rice, sugar
(b) Ghee, water, spices
(c) Rice, dal, water, salt
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Milk, rice, sugar
Milk, rice and sugar are the ingredients of kheer.

Question 11.
Camel milk is used in:
(a) Bengal
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Delhi
(d) Chennai

Answer

(b) Rajasthan
Camel milk is used in Rajasthan.

Question 12.
Eggs are the rich source of:
(a) vitamins
(b) fats
(c) proteins
(d) carbohydrates

Answer

Question 13.
Honeybees collect the nectar from flowers and prepare honey in their nests called:
(a) honey
(b) flower
(c) plants
(d) beehives

Answer

(d) beehives
Honeybees nests is called beehives.

Question 14.
Fruits are:
(a) juicy
(b) tasty
(c) delicious
(d) all of these

Answer

(a) juicy
Fruits are juicy.

Question 15.
The milk producing animals are called:
(a) wild animals
(b) pet animals
(c) much animals
(d) none of these

Answer

Question 16.
Sugar is obtained from:
(a) Banana
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Carrot
(d) Mango

Answer

(b) Sugarcane
Sugar is obtained from sugarcane.

Question 17.
Parrot eats only product.
(a) plants
(b) animals
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) plants
Parrot eats only plants product.

Question 18.
is a food eaten at a particular time of the day.
(a) Meat
(b) Meal
(c) Fruit
(d) Vegetable

Answer

(b) Meal
Meal is a food eaten at a particular time of the day.

Question 19.
Sweet juice is known as:
(a) nectar
(b) pallen
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) nectar
Sweet juice is known as nectar.

Question 20.
Green plants are also known as:
(a) photosynthesis
(b) producers
(c) parasites
(d) saprophytes

Answer

(b) producers
Green plants are also known as producers.

Question 21.
is the food of day time.
(a) Lunch
(b) Breakfast
(c) Dinner
(d) All of these

Answer

(a) Lunch
Lunch is the food of day time.

Question 22.
Some plants grow under the ground and store food in them is called
(a) root
(b) stem
(c) branches
(d) leaves

Answer

(b) stem
Some plants grow under the ground and store food in them is called stem.

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

Food Variety

Question 1.
Define the term food.
Answer:
Eatables taken by human beings and animals which provide them energy for various activities, for growth and good health, are called food.

Question 2.
What do you mean by food habit?
Answer:
The habit of an individual owing to which it takes a particular type of food depending on its taste and availability is called food habit.

Question 3.
Define the term ingredients.
Answer:
The materials that are needed to prepare a particular type of dish are called ingredients.

Question 4.
Explain the importance of food for living organisms.
Answer:
Food is needed by all living organisms for the following reasons:

It provides us energy to do various activities.
It helps in growth.
It helps in repair and replacement of damaged parts of the body.
It protects us from infections and diseases.

Question 5.
Whether plants or animals give us more varieties of food? Explain.
Answer:
We know that animals give us meat, eggs, milk, honey and few other varieties of food only. On the other hand, plants provide us a large varieties of food. For example, cereals, pulses, fruits, oil, fats, vegetables, sugar and a large number of other products. Thus, we can conclude that plants give us more varieties of food.

Question 6.
Why should we eat cooked food?
Answer:
Cooked food is easily digested by our body. It also kills harmful germs. Cooking increases the taste of the food. That is why we should prefer cooked food.

Question 7.
Write the food habits of the people in Tamil Nadu and Punjab.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu: Idli, Dosa, Sambhar, Banana Chips, Coconut oil, etc.
Punjab: Lassi, Paratha, Pulses, Chapatis, etc.

Activity 1.
Ask your friends in the school about the items they would be eating during a day. See if you can also get this information from friends staying in different states of India.
List all the items in your notebook as given in Table 1.1, for as many friends as possible.

Name of the student/friend	Food item eaten in a day
T.S. Sree Kumar (Kerala)	Idli, dosa, curd, rice, sambar, etc.
Sarthak Sharma (Uttar Pradesh)	Vegetable, dal, chapati, curd, rice, etc.
Sanchit Bose (W. Bengal)	Fish curry, rice, vegetable, etc.
Sohan Singh (Punjab)	Makki roti, rajma, sarson saag, curd, ghee, etc.
P. Prasada Rao (Andhra Pradesh)	Rice, tuar dal, rasam, kunduru, ghee, pickle, etc.

Activity 2.
Choose some of the items you listed in Table 1.1 and try to find out what ingredients are used to prepare these, by discussing with your friends and elders at home. List them in Table 1.2. Some examples are given here. Add some more items to this list.

Food item	Ingredients
Roti/chapati	Atta, water
Dal	Pulses, water, salt, oil/ghee, spices
Idli	Rice, urad dal, salt, water
Fish curry	Fish, spices, oil/ghee, salt, water

Food Materials and Sources

Question 1.
Name the animals which provide us milk.
Answer:
Some important animals that give us milk are cow, buffalo, goat and camel.

Question 2.
Name the animals which give us meat.
Answer:
Some important meat giving animals are goat, sheep and pig.

Question 3.
Name some other animals that give us food.
Answer:
Besides milk and meat, animals give us useful food products. For example:

Birds like chicken, fowl and ducks give us eggs and meat.
Fish provides us meat.
Bees provide us honey.

Question 4.
What are the two main sources of food?
Answer:
The two main sources of food are:

Plants: We get fruits, vegetables, pulses, etc., from plants.
Animals: We get milk, eggs, meat, etc., from animals.

Question 5.
Name two sugar producing plants.
Answer:
The two sugar producing plants are:

Sugarcane.
Sugar beet.

Activity 3.
Let us take the food items listed earlier and try to find out where they come from— the ingredients and their sources. Some examples are shown in Table 1.3. Fill in the blanks in Table 1.3 and add more examples to this list.

Table 1.3: Ingredients used to prepare food items and their sources

Plant Parts and Animal Products as Food

Question 1.
Write the names of the plants that provide us:

Vegetables
Fruits
Cereals or grains
Pulses
Oil or fat.

Answer:
Various types of food given by plants are as follows:

Vegetables: Tomato, cabbage, spinach, potato, etc.
Fruits: Banana, grapes, apple, etc.
Cereals or grains: Rice, wheat, barley, ragi, etc.
Pulses: Gram, pea, beans, etc.
Oil or fat: Mustard, groundnut, sunflower, etc.

Question 2.

Which part of the plants do we eat generally?
Write the names of some more edible parts of the plants.

Answer:

Generally we eat fruits of many plants.
Besides fruits, we also eat flowers, leaves, roots, rhizomes and stem of some plants. Various edible parts of plants with some examples are listed below:

Edible part of plants	Examples
1. Roots	Beet, Carrot, Sweet potato, Radish, etc.
2. Stem	Onion, Potato, Ginger, Sugarcane, etc.
3. Leaves	Spinach, Soya-methi, Bathua, etc.
4. Flowers	Cauliflower
5. Seeds	Mustard, Sweet pea, Lotus, Groundnut
6. Fruits	Banana, Mango, Apple, etc.

Question 3.
Name some plants which have two or more edible parts.
Answer:
Examples of plants having two edible parts, and the food obtained are given below:

Name of plant	First edible part		Second edible part
	Part	Food type	Part	Food type
Mustard	Seeds	Spices, oil	Leaves	Vegetables
Lotus	Seeds	Dry fruit	Stem	Vegetables
Radish	Root	Vegetable	Leaves	Vegetables
Methi	Seeds	Spices	Leaves	Vegetables
Drum stick	Fruit	Vegetable	Flowers	Vegetables
Gram	Seeds	Pulse	Leaves	Vegetables

Question 4.
What is honey? What is its importance?
Answer:
A sweet substance (liquid) prepared by bees from the nectar, i.e., sweet juice collected from flowers, is called honey.
Honey consists of water, sugar, minerals and enzymes. It is easily digestible, and used in medicines as an antiseptic (which destroys the growth of microorganisms).

Question 5.
From where does honey come? How is it produced and collected?
Answer:
We get honey from honey bees.
Production of honey: Honey bees develop their nests called hives on tall trees and buildings. (Fig. 1.2). Bee workers collect nectar from flowers and store in container. The honey bees are also reared in artificial hives.
Extraction of honey: Honey is extracted from bee hives either manually or with the of an artificial help extractor.

Question 6.
We know that every item that we eat is contributed by a number of persons. Show various contributors involved when we eat a chapati (through a flow chart).
Answer:

Question 7.
Make flow charts for the preparation of (a) ghee (b) honey.
Answer:
(a)

(b)

Question 8.
Which parts of a plant are eaten as food?
Answer:
The following parts of a plant are eaten as food:

Roots
Stem
Leaves
Flowers
Fruits
Seeds
Spices

Question 9.
Define sprouted seeds.
Answer:
The germinating seeds at the initial stage when a white structure grows out from the seed (radicle) are called sprouted seeds.

Activity 4.
From all the food items you have listed in Table 1.3, choose those items whose ingredients are obtained from plants. Which part of a plant? Identify these and list the food items and plant parts as shown in Table 1.4.

What do Animals Eat?

Question 1.
Explain the terms:

Herbivores,
Carnivores and
Omnivores.

1. Herbivores: Animals which eat only the plants or the plant products like fruits, flowers, seeds, nectar, etc., are called herbivores. For example, deer, cow, rat, etc.

2. Carnivores: Animals which eat other animals are called carnivores. For example, tiger, lion, etc.

3. Omnivores: Animals which eat both plants and their products as well as other animals are called omnivores. For example, human beings, cat, crow, etc.

Question 2.
What do you know about vegetarian and non-vegetarian habits?
Answer:
Man is omnivorous, i.e., he can feed on both plants and animals. But due to some religious or traditional reasons some people strictly avoid the food containing meat, fish, egg, etc., while some have no hesitation to have such food stuffs. On this basis, there are two types of food habits found in our society:

Vegetarian – people who do not eat meat, fish, egg, etc.
Non-vegetarian – people who eat meat, fish, egg, etc.

Question 3.
Define Scavengers, Parasites with examples.
Answer:
Scavengers: Some carnivores and omnivores eat dead animals. They help in cleaning our surroundings. For example: crow, jackel, hyena, etc.

Parasites: These are some very small animals which live on or inside other animals and get their food from them. For example: fleas, leeches, mosquitoes, bed-bugs, etc.

Question 4.
What are known as ‘energy rich food’?
Answer:
Cereals are known as ‘energy rich food’. For example: rice, wheat, jowar, maize, etc.

Question 5.
One day you were busy from morning to evening. You couldn’t have your lunch. How did you feel? Elaborate your experience.
Answer:
One day because of heavy load of work during the day, I could not have my lunch and at the end of the day, I felt very tired, and exhausted. I was too weak to do work. The hunger was in alarming condition.

Question 6.
Suppose one of your friends had only one chapati, some rice and one bowl of pulses for his daily meal. Do you think that by eating such meal he can work and play whole day?
Answer:
No, his diet is not complete. This food is not enough to provide sufficient energy required by him. He will not be able to work and play for the whole day because he will soon get tired due to lack of energy.

Activity 6.
Several animals are listed in Table 1.5. For some of them, the type of food they eat is also given. Fill in the blanks in the table.
Table 1.5: Animal and their Food

Name of the animal	Food the animal eats
Buffalo	Grass, oilcake, hay, grains
Cat	Small animals, birds, milk
Rat	Grains, bread
Lion	Flesh of animals
Tiger	Flesh of animals
Spider	Small insects
House lizard	Small insects
Cow	Grass, leaves, hay, mustard, cake
Human beings	Rice, pulses, chapati, idli, dosa, bread, eggs
Butterfly	Nectar
Crow	Small insects, grains, meat
Others (Dog)	Meat, biscuit, bread

Activity 7.
Have a look again at Table 1.5 and group the animals entered here as follows. Place animals which eat only plants or plant products.

Buffalo, cow and butterfly.

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CHAPTER -14 Practical Geometry | IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQ |CLASS 6th | MATHS|NCERT |EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 14 Practical Geometry with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Knowing Our Numbers Class 6 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well

Chapter- 14 Practical Geometry Class 6th Maths Important Questions & MCQS

MCQ

Question 1.
A line segment TP−→− is bisected at I. What is the measure of TI−→?
(a) 12TP−→−
(b) IP−→
(c) TP−→−
(d) 13 TP−→−

Answer

Answer: (b) IP−→
Hint:
TI−→ = 13 TP−→− = IP

Question 2.
Which of the following can be drawn on a piece of paper?
(a) A line
(b) A line segment
(c) A ray
(d) A plane

Answer

Answer: (b) A line segment

Question 3.
l || m. P and Q are points on land m respectively such that PQ ⊥ lR is a point on a line n in the same plane such that PQ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ = QR¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯. Which of the following is true?
(a) l || n
(b) m || n
(c) Both [a] and [b]
(d) Neither [a] nor [b]

Answer

Answer: (c) Both [a] and [b]
Hint:

Clearly, from the given data and the figure, l || n and m || n.

Question 4.
At 7 a.m. the angle between the Sun’s ray and the ground at a point is 43°. What would be the angle at 10 a.m.?
(a) 40°
(b) 90°
(c) Between 43° and 90°
(d) Greater than 90°

Answer

Answer: (c) Between 43° and 90°
Hint:

Let QP be the sun’s ray and RP be the ground. The angle between QP and PR at P is 43° at 7 a.m. At 10 a.m., the sun’s ray is Q’P. We know that at 12 noon the sun is exactly above our head. So, the sun’s ray will be perpendicular to the ground. So, clearly at 10 am, the required angle will be between 43° and 90°.

Question 5.
XY−→− divides ∠MXN = 72° in the ratio 1 : 2. What is the measure of ∠YXN?

(a) 48°
(b) 24°
(c) 72°
(d) 96°

Answer

Answer: (a) 48°
Hint:

Given ∠MXN = 72∘ and XY−→− divides ∠MXN in the ratio 1 : 2.
∠YXN = 23 ∠MXN = 23 × 72° = 48°

Question 6.
MN−→− is the perpendicular bisector of AB←→. Which of the given statements is correct?
(i) ∠ANM + ∠MNB = 90∘
(ii) AN¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ = NB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
(iii) AN¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ = 2 NB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
(iv) ∠MNB = 12 ∠ANM
(a) (i) and (iii) only
(b) (ii) and (iv) only
(c) (i) and (ii) only
(d) (ii) and (iii) only

Answer

Answer: (c) (i) and (ii) only
Hint:
NM−→− ⊥ AB←→ and NM−→− divides AB←→ into two congruent parts.

Clearly ∠ANM = ∠MNB = 90∘ is true. AN¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ = NB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ is true since NM−→− ⊥ AB←→, AN¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ = 2NB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ is false, and ∠MNB = 12 ∠ANM is false. Thus, only (i) and (ii) are correct.

Question 7
Identify the uses of a ruler.
(a) To draw a line segment of a given length
(b) To draw a copy of a given segment.
(c) To draw a diameter of a circle.
(d) All the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above.
Hint:
A ruler is used to draw a line segment of a given length, to draw the copy of a given segment, and to draw a diameter of a circle. Thus, all the given options are correct.

Question 8.
P is the midpoint of AB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯. M and N are midpoints of AP¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ respectively. What is the measure of MN¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯?
(a) 13 AB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
(b) 12 AB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
(c) 12 AP¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
(d) 32 AB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯

Answer

Answer: (b) 12 AB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
Hint:

P is the midpoint of AB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ ⇒ AP = PB M and N are midpoints of AP¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ and PB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ ⇒ AM¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ = MP¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ and PN¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ = NB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
∴ MN¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ = MP¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ + PN¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ = 12 AP¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ + 12 PB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ = 12 (AP¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ + PB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ ) = 12 (AB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯)

Question 9.
XY−→− bisects∠AXB. If ∠YXB = 37.5∘, what is the measure of ∠AXB?
(a) 37.5°
(b) 74°
(c) 64°
(d) 75°

Answer

Answer: (d) 75°

Question 10.
X and Y are two distinct points in a plane. How many lines can be drawn passing through both X and Y?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) Only 2
(d) Infinitely many

Answer

Answer: (b) 1

Question 11.
Lines a, b, p, q, m, n and x have a point P common to all of them. What is the name of P?
(a) Point of concurrence
(b) Point of intersection
(c) Common point
(d) Distinct point

Answer

Answer: (a) Point of concurrence
Hint:
A point common to multiple lines is called a point of concurrence as the lines are concurrent lines.

Question 12.
QZ−→− is the bisector of ∠PQZ = ∠PQR. Which of the following is true?
(a) ∠PQZ = ∠PQR
(b) ∠PQZ = ∠ZQR
(c) ∠PQZ = 12 ∠ZQR
(d) Both [b] and [c]

Answer

Answer: (d) Both [b] and [c]
Hint:
QZ−→− bisects ∠PQR (Given)

Thus. ∠PQZ = ∠ZQR = 12 ∠PQR

Question 13.
Identify the pair of parallel lines.
(i) Lines m and n have two points in common.
(ii) Lines p and q do not have any point in common
(iii) Lines p and q have a point X in common.
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (ii) and (iii) only
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer

Answer: (b) (ii) only
Hint:
Parallel lines do not have any point in common.

Question 14.
Identify the one with no definite length.
(a) AB←→
(b) PQ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
(c) -XYZ
(d) MN¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯

Answer

Answer: (a) AB←→
Hint:
AB←→ has no definite length.

Question 15.
If two lines have only one point in common, what are they called?
(a) Parallel lines
(b) Intersecting lines
(c) Perpendicular lines
(d) Transversal

Answer

Answer: (b) Intersecting lines
Hint:
Intersecting lines have only one point in common.

Question 16.
Two lines are said to be perpendicular to each other when they meet at ____angle.
(a) 180°
(b) 90°
(c) 60°
(d) 360°

Answer

Answer: (b) 90°

Important Questions

Question 1.
If AB = 3.6 and CD = 1.6 cm, construct a line segment equal to AB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ + CD¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ and measure the total length.

Solution:
Step I: Draw a ray OX.
Step II : With centre 0 and radius equal to the length of AB (3.6 cm) mark a point P on the ray.

Step III: With centre P and radius equal to the length of CD (1.6 cm) mark another point Q on the ray.
Thus OQ is the required segment such that OQ = 3.6 cm + 1.6 cm = 5.2 cm.

Question 2.
Construct a perpendicular to a given line segment at point on it.
Solution:
Step IDraw a line PQ←→ and take any point A on it.

Step II : With centre A draw an arc which meets PQ at C and D.
Step III : Join AB and produce.
Step IV: With centres C and D and radius equal to half of the length of the previous arc, draw two arcs which meets each other at B.
Thus AB is the required perpendicular to PQ←→.

Question 3.
Construct an angle of 60° and bisect it.
Solution:
Step I: Draw a line segment AB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯.

Step II: With centre B and proper radius, draw an arc which meets AB at C.
Step III : With C as centre and the same radius as in step II, draw an arc cutting the previous arc at D.
Step IV : Join B to D and produce.
Step V : Draw the bisector BE of ∠ABD.
Thus BE is the required bisector of ∠ABD.

Question 4.
Draw an angle of 120° and hence construct an angle of 105°.
Solution:
Step I : Draw a line segment OA¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯.

Step II : With centre O and proper radius, draw an arc which meets OA at C.
Step III : With centre C and radius same, mark D and E on the previous arc.
Step IV : Join O to E and produce.
Step V : ∠EOA is the required angle of 120°.
Step VI : Construct an angle of 90° which meets the previous arc at F.
Step VII : With centre E and F and proper radius, draw two arcs which meet each other at G.
Step VIII : Join OG and produce.
Thus ∠GOA is the required angle of 105°.

Question 5.
Using compasses and ruler, draw an angle of
75° and hence construct an angle of 37 1∘2.
Solution:
Step I: Draw a line segment OA.
Step II : Construct ∠BOA = 90° and ∠EOA = 60°
Step III : Draw OC as the bisector of ∠BOE , which equal to

Step IV : Draw the bisector OD of ∠COA.

Thus ∠DOA is the required angle of 37 1∘2 .

Question 6.
Draw ∆ABC. Draw perpendiculars from A, B and C respectively on the sides BC, CA and AB. Are there perpendicular concurrent? (passing through the same points).
Solution:
Step I: Draw any ∆ABC.
Step II : Draw the perpendicular AD from A to BC.

Step III : Draw the perpendicular BE from B to AC.
Step IV : Draw the perpendicular CF from C to AB.
We observe that the perpendiculars AD, BE and CF intersect each other at P.
Thus, P is the point of intersection of the three perpendiculars.

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CHAPTER -13 Symmetry | IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQ |CLASS 6th | MATHS|NCERT |EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 13 Symmestry with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Knowing Our Numbers Class 6 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well

Chapter-13 Symmetry Class 6th Maths Important Questions & MCQS

MCQ

Question 1.
How many lines of symmetry does the figure have?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (a)

Question 2.
How many lines of symmetry does the figure have?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.

Answer

Answer: (b)

Question 3.
How many lines of symmetry does the figure have?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (d)

Question 4.
How many lines of symmetry does the figure have?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (c)

Question 5.
How many lines of symmetry does the figure have ?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (a)

Question 6.
How many lines of symmetry does the figure have ?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) no line of symmetry

Answer

Answer: (d)

Question 7.
How many lines of symmetry does the figure have?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) Countless.

Answer

Answer: (d)

Question 8.
How many lines of symmetry does the figure have?

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) countless

Answer

Answer: (a)

Question 9.
How many lines of symmetry does the figure have?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (b)

Question 10.
How many lines of symmetry does a regular hexagon have?
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6

Answer

Answer: (d)

Question 11.
Which of the following letters has horizontal line of symmetry?
(a) C
(b) A
(c) J
(d) L.

Answer

Answer: (a)

Question 12.
Which of the following letters has horizontal line of symmetry?
(a) Z
(b) V
(c) U
(d) E.

Answer

Answer: (d)

Question 13.
Which of the following letters has horizontal line of symmetry?
(a) S
(b) W
(c) D
(d) Y.

Answer

Answer: (c)

Question 14.
Which of the following letters has vertical line of symmetry?
(a) R
(b) C
(c) B
(d) T.

Answer

Answer: (d)

Question 15.
Which of the following letters has vertical line of symmetry?
(a) N
(b) K
(c) B
(d) M.

Answer

Answer: (d)

Question 16.
Which of the following letters has vertical line of symmetry?
(a) J
(b) D
(c) E
(d) O.

Answer

Answer: (d)

Question 17.
Which of the following letters has no line of symmetry?
(a) P
(b) O
(c) H
(d) X.

Answer

Answer: (a)

Question 18.
Which of the following letters has no line of symmetry?
(a) O
(b) X
(c) I
(d) Q

Answer

Answer: (d)

Important Questions

Question 1.
Write four such English letters which have no line of symmetry.
Solution:
The 4 English letters having no line of symmetry are: P, F, G and Z.

Question 2.
Write 5 such English letters which have horizontal line of symmetry.
Solution:
The required letters are:
E, B, C, D,K

Question 3.
Write 4 English letters which have vertical lines of symmetry.
Solution:
The required English letters are A, H, I, M

Question 4.
How many symmetrical lines do they have?

Solution:
(a) The figure is a square. It has 4 lines of symmetry.

(b) It is an isosceles triangle. It has one vertical line of symmetry.

(c) The given figure is a rectangle which has two lines of symmetry.

Question 5.
Find in which of the following, the dotted line is a line of symmetry.

Solution:
(a) The dotted line is a line of symmetry.
(b) The dotted line is a line of symmetry.
(c) The dotted line is not a line of symmetry.
(d) The dotted line is not a line of symmetry.
(e) The dotted line is a line of symmetry.
(f) The dotted line is a line of symmetry.

Symmetry Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 6.
How many lines of symmetry does (a) a rectangle (b) a square (c) a parallelogram have? What about right angled triangle?
Solution:
(a) Rectangle has two lines of symmetry
(i) Horizontal
(ii) Vertical

(b) Square has four lines of symmetry.
(i) 1 horizontal
(ii) 1 vertical
(iii) 2 diagonally

(c) Parallelogram has no lines of symmetry

Right angled triangle has no line of symmetry.

Question 7.
Fill in the blanks:
(a) An angle is symmetrical about its …….. .
(b) A circle has …….. lines of symmetry.
(c) A rectangle …….. has lines of symmetry.
(d) A square has …….. lines of symmetry.
(e) A letter D has …….. lines of symmetry.
(f) A letter N has …….. lines of symmetry.
(g) A kite is symmetrical about its longer …….. .
(h) A scalene triangle has …….. lines of symmetry.
(i) A line of symmetry of an object is also called its …….. of symmetry.
(j) An equilateral triangle has …….. lines of symmetry.
(k) A regular pentagon has …….. lines of symmetry.
(l) A line of …….. divides a figure into two similar parts.
Solution:
(a) bisector
(b) infinite
(c) two
(d) four
(e) one
(f) no
(g) diagonal
(h) no
(i) axis
(j) three
(k) five
(l) symmetry

Question 8.
Show by figure the English alphabets which look the same in their reflected image.
Solution:
The following English alphabets look same after reflections.

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CHAPTER -12 Ratio and Proportion | IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQ |CLASS 6th | MATHS|NCERT |EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 12 Ratio and Proportion with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Knowing Our Numbers Class 6 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well

Chapter-12 Ratio and Proportion Class 6th Maths Important Questions & MCQS

MCQ

Question 1.
The cost of a pen is ₹ 10. The cost of a penci 1 is ₹ 2. How many times of the cost of a pencil is the cost of a pen?
(a) 5 times
(b) 2 times
(c) 10 times
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
10 = 5 × 2

Question 2.
The monthly salary of Hari Kishan is ₹ 80000. The monthly salary of Manish is ₹ 40000. How many times of the salary of Manish is the salary of Hari Kishan?
(a) 2 times
(b) 4 times
(c) 3 times
(d) 8 times.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
80000 = 2 × 40000

Question 3.
There are 30 boys and 20 girls in a class. The ratio of the number of girls to the number of boys is
(a) 2:3
(b) 3:2
(c) 2:5
(d) 3:5.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
2030 = 23 = 2 : 3

Question 4.
There are 25 boys and 25 girls in a class. The ratio of the number of boys to the total number of students is
(a) 1:2
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 2:3
(d) 3:2.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
2525+25 = 2550 = 12 = 1 : 2

Question 5.
The height of Apala is 150 cm. The height of Pari is 120 cm. The ratio of the height of Apala to the height of Pari is
(a) 4:5
(b) 5:4
(c) 5:2
(d) 4:1.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
150120 = 1512 = 54 = 5 : 4

Question 6.
The cost of a car is ₹ 3,00,000. The cost of a motorbike is ₹ 50,000. The ratio of the cost of motorbike to the cost of car is
(a) 1:6
(b) 1:5
(c) 1:4
(d) 1:3.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
50,0003,00,000 = 16 = 1 : 6

Question 7.
The speed of Shubham is 6 km per hour. The speed of Yash is 2 km per hour. The ratio of the speed of Shubham to the speed of Yash is
(a) 2:3
(b) 3:1
(c) 1:3
(d) 3:2.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
62 = 31 = 3 : 1

Question 8.
The length and breadth of a rectangular park are 50 m and 40 m respectively. Find the ratio of the length to the breadth of the park.
(a) 4:5
(b) 4:1
(c) 5:1
(d) 5:4.

Answer

Question 9.
The ratio 40 cm to 1 m is
(a) 2:5
(b) 3:5
(c) 4:5
(d) 5:2.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
1 m = 100 cm
40100 = 25 = 2 : 5

Question 10.
In a family, there are 8 males and 4 females. The ratio of the number of females to the number of males is
(a) 1:2
(b) 1:4
(c) 1:8
(d) 2:1.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
48 = 12 = 1 : 2

Question 11.
Which of the following ratios is equivalent to 2:3?
(a) 4:8
(b) 4:9
(c) 6:9
(d) 6:12.

Answer

Answer: (c)
Hint:
2 : 3 = 23 = 2×33×3 = 69 = 6 : 9

Question 12.
Which of the following ratios is not equiva-lent to 10:5?
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 20:10
(d) 30:15.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
10 : 5 = 105 = 10÷55÷5 = 21 = 2 : 1
20 ÷ 10 = 2010 = 20÷1010÷10 = 21 = 2 : 1
30 ÷ 15 = 3015 = 30÷1515÷15 = 21 = 2 : 1

Important Questions

Question 1.
Find the ratio of 75 cm to 1.5 m.
Solution:
The given numbers are not in the same units. So, converting them into same units.
1.5 m = 1.5 x 100 cm = 150 cm
[∵ 1 m = 100 cm]
∴ The required ratio is 75 cm : 150 cm.

∴ Required ratio = 1 : 2

Question 2.
Give two equivalent ratios of 3 : 5.
Solution:

Thus, 9 : 15 and 6 : 10 are the two equivalent ratios of 3 : 5.

Question 3.
Fill in the blank box.

Solution:

Question 4.
Check whether the given ratios are equivalent or not. 27, 621
Solution:

∴ They are equivalent ratios.

Question 5.
Divide 60 in the ratio of 2 : 3.
Solution:
Sum = 2 + 3 = 5
∴ First part = 25 x 60 =24 5
∴ Second part = 35 x 60 =36 5
Thus, the required two parts = 24 and 36.

Question 6.
Find the ratio of the following:
(a) 56 to 63.
(b) 55 to 120.
Solution:

Question 7.
Ramesh deposited ₹ 2050 in a bank and in the month of January he withdrew ₹ 410 from his account on the last date of the month. Find the ratio of
(a) Money withdrawn to the total money deposited.
(b) Money withdrawn to the remaining amount in the bank.
Solution:
Total money deposited = ₹ 2050
Amount of money withdrawn = ₹ 410
Amount of money left in the bank = ₹ 2050 – ₹ 410 = ₹ 1640
(a) Ratio of money withdrawn to the total money deposited

∴ Required ratio = 1 : 5
(b) Ratio of money withdrawn to the money left in the bank

∴ Required ratio = 1 : 4

Question 8.
There are 180 students in a class. Number of girls are 75. Find the ratio of the girls to the number of boys.
Solution:
Total number of students = 180
Number of girls = 75
Number of boys = 180 – 75 = 105
∴ Ratio of number of girls to the number of boys

Required ratio = 5 : 7

Ratio and Proportion Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 9.
Green paint is made by mixing blue, yellow and white paints in the ratio 2 : 7 : 1. How much blue paint is needed to make 64 litres of green paint?
Solution:
Here, sum of ratios = 2 + 7 + 1 = 10
∴ Total quantity of green paint = 64 litres
Quantity of blue paint = 210 x 64 = 12.8 litres
Therefore, the required blue paint = 12.8 litres.

Question 10.
From the figure, find the ratio of
(a) The number of squares to the number of triangles.
(b) The number of circles to the number of rectangles.

Solution:
(a) Number of squares = 2
Number of triangles = 3 2
∴ Ratio = 23 or 2 : 3

(b) Number of circles = 3
Number of rectangles = 3
∴ Ratio = 33 or 1 : 1

Question 11.
In each of the following figures, find the ratio of the shaded region to the unshaded region.

Solution:
(a) Number of shaded parts = 4
Number of unshaded parts = 12

Required ratio = 1 : 3

(b) Number of shaded parts = 2
Number of unshaded parts = 4

Required ratio = 1 : 2

Question 12.
Are 20, 25, 12, 15 in proportion?
Solution:
We have 20, 25, 12, 15
Product of extremes = 20 x 15 = 300
Product of middles = 25 x 12 = 300
Since both the products are same.
∴ The four numbers 20, 25, 12, 15 are in proportion.

Question 13.
The first, second and fourth terms in a proportion are 32, 112, 217 respectively. Find the third term.
Solution:
Let the third term be x.
∴ 32, 112, x and 217 are in proportion.
∴ 32 : 112 :: x : 217

Thus, the third term = 62.

Question 14.
Find the value of x, if
(а) 8, x, x, 50 are in proportion.
(b) 36, 90, 90, x are in proportion.
Solution:
(a) Since 8, x, x, 50, are in proportion.
∴ x × x = 8 × 50
⇒ x² = 400
∴ x = 20

(b) Since 36, 90, 90, x are in proportion.
∴ 36 × x = 90 × 90
⇒ x = 90×9036 = 225
∴ x = 225

Question 15.
The cost of 10 tables is ₹ 7500. Find the number of tables that can be purchased with ₹ 9000.
Solution:
Number of tables purchased in ₹ 7500 = 10
Number of tables purchased in ₹ 1 = 107500
∴ Number of tables purchased in ₹ 9000
= 10×90007500 = 12

Question 16.
39 packets of 12 pens each costs ₹ 374.40. Find the cost of 52 packets of 10 pens each.
Solution:
Number of pens in 1 packet = 12
Number of pens in 39 packets = 12 x 39 = 468
Number of pens in 1 packet = 10
Number of pens in 52 packets = 10 x 52 = 520
Now cost of 468 pen = ₹ 374.40

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CHAPTER -11 Algebra | IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQ |CLASS 6th | MATHS|NCERT |EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 11 Algebra with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Knowing Our Numbers Class 6 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well

Chapter-11 Algebra Class 6th Maths Important Questions & MCQS

MCQ

Question 1.
The rule, which gives the number of matchsticks required to make the matchstick pattern L, is
(a) 2 n
(b) 3 n
(c) 4n
(d) 5 n.

Answer

Answer: (a)

Question 2.
The rule, which gives the number of matchsticks required to make the matchstick pattern C, is
(a) 2 n
(b) 3 n
(c) 4 n
(d) 5 n.

Answer

Answer: (b)

Question 3.
The rule, which gives the number of matchsticks required to make the matchstick pattern F, is
(a) 2 n
(b) 3 n
(c) 4 n
(d) 5 n.

Answer

Answer: (c)

Question 4.
The rule, which gives the number of matchsticks required to make the matchstick pattern U, is
(a) 2 n
(b) 3 n
(c) 4 n
(d) 5 n.

Answer

Answer: (b)

Question 5.
The rule, which gives the number of matchsticks required to make the matchstick pattern V, is
(a) 2 n
(b) 3 n
(c) 4 n
(d) 5 n.

Answer

Answer: (a)

Question 6.
The rule, which gives the number of matchsticks required to make the matchstick pattern A, is
(a) 2 n
(b) 3 n
(c) 4 n
(d) 5 n.

Answer

Answer: (b)

Question 7.
The rule, which gives the number of matchsticks required to make the matchstick pattern [], is
(a) 2 n
(b) 3 n
(c) 4 n
(d) 5 n

Answer

Answer: (c)

Question 8.
The rule, which gives the number of matchsticks required to make the matchstick pattern ≅, is
(a) 2 n
(b) 3 n
(c) 4 n
(d) 5 n.

Answer

Answer: (a)

Question 9.
The rule, which gives the number of matchsticks required to make the matchstick pattern E. is
(a) 2 n
(b) 3 n
(c) 4 n
(d) 5n.

Answer

Answer: (d)

Question 10.
The rule, which gives the number of matchsticks required to make the matchstick pattern A, is
(a) 3 n
(b) An
(c) 5 n
(d) 6 n.

Answer

Answer: (c)

Question 11.
The rule, which gives the number of matchsticks required to make the matchstick pattern A, is
(a) 3 n
(b) 4 n
(c) 5 n
(d) 6 n.

Answer

Answer: (a)

Question 12.
The rule, which gives the number of matchsticks required to make the matchstick pattern S, is
(a) 3 l
(b) 4 n
(c) 5 n
(d) 6 n.

Answer

Answer: (c)

Question 13.
The side of a square is l. Its perimeter is
(a) 3l
(b) 2l
(c) 4l
(d) 6l

Answer

Answer: (c)

Question 14.
14. The side of an equilateral triangle is l. Its perimeter is
(a) l
(b) 2l
(c) 3l
(d) 6l.

Answer

Answer: (c)

Question 15.
The side of a regular pentagon is l. Its perimeter is
(a) 3l
(b) 6l
(c) 4l
(d) 5l

Answer

Answer: (d)

Question 16.
The side of a regular hexagon is l. Its perimeter is
(a) l
(b) 2l
(c) 3l
(d) 6l.

Answer

Answer: (d)

Important Questions

Question 1.
Six less than a number equals to two. What is the number?
Solution:
Let the number be ‘x’.
According to condition, we have x – 6 = 2
By inspections, we have 8 – 6 = 2
∴ x = 8
Thus, the required number is 8.

Question 2.
Write an algebraic expression for each of the following:
(a) 3 subtracted from a number y.
(b) 5 is added to three times a number x.
Solution:
(a) The required expression is y – 3
(b) The required expression is 5 + 3x

Question 3.
Write an algebraic expression for the following expressions:
(a) The sum of a number x and 4 is doubled.
(b) One fourth of a number x is added to one third of the same number.
Solution:
(a) The required expression is 2 x (x + 4)
(b) The required expression is 14x + 13x

Question 4.
Think of a number x. Multiply it by 3 and add 5 to the product and subtract y subsequently. Find the resulting number.
Solution:
Required number is (3x + 5)
Now we have to subtract y from the result i.e., 3x + 5 – y

Question 5.
Here is a pattern of houses with matchsticks:

Write the general rule for this pattern.
Solution:
One house is made of 6 matchsticks i.e. 6 x 1
Two houses are made of 12 matchsticks i.e. 6 x 2
Three houses are made of 18 matchsticks i.e. 6 x 3
∴ Rule is 6n where n represents the number of houses.

Question 6.
If the side of an equilateral triangle is x, find its perimeter.
Solution:
We know that the three sides of an equilateral triangle are equal.
∴ x + x + x = 3x.
Thus, the required perimeter = 3x units.

Question 7.
If x = 3, find the value of the following:
(i) x + 5
(ii) 2x – 3
(iii) x – 7
(iv) x3 – 1
Solution:
Given that x = 3
(i)x + 5 = 3 + 5 = 8
(ii) 2x – 3 = 2 x 3 – 3 = 6 – 3 = 3
(iii) x – 7 = 3- 7 = -4
(iv) x3 – 1 = 33 -1 = 1 – 1 = 0

Question 8.
If x = 2, y = 3 and 2 = 5, find the value of;
(a) 2x + y + z
(b) 4x -y + z
(c) x – y + z
Solution:
(a) Given that: x – 2, y = 3 and z = 5
∴ 2x + y + 2 = 2 x 2 + 3 + 5
= 4 + 3 + 5 = 12
(b) 4x – y + z = 4 x 2 – 3 + 5
= 8 – 3 + 5 = 5 + 5 = 10
(c) x – y + z = 2 – 3 + 5 = -1 + 5 = 4

Question 9.
State which of the following are equations with a variable?
(a) 12 = x – 5
(b) 2x > 7
(c) x2 = 5
(d) 5 + 7 = 3 + 9
(e) 7 = (11 x 5) – (12 x 4)
Solution:
(a) 12 = x – 5 is an equation with a variable x.
(b) 2x > 7 is not an equation because it does not have ‘=’ sign.
(c) x2 = 5 is an equation with a variable x.
(d) 5 + 7 = 3 + 9 is not an equation because it has no variable.
(e) 7 = (11 x 5) – (12 x 4) is not an equation because it has no variable.

Question 10.
Think of a number, add 2 to it and then multiply the sum by 6, the result is 42.
Solution:
Let the number be x.
∴ Sum of x and 2 = x + 2
Now by multiplying the sum by 6, we get
6 × (x + 2) = 42
⇒ 6 × x + 6 × 2 = 42
⇒ 6x + 12 = 42
By inspection, we get
6 × 5 + 12 = 42
⇒ 30 + 12 = 42
∴ 42 = 42
So, the required number = 5

Algebra Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 11.
The side of a regular hexagon is s cm. Find its perimeter.
Solution:
Each side of a regular hexagon = s
∴ its perimeter = s + s + s + s + s + s = 6s cm

Question 12.
If a = 3, b = 12 and c = 14, find the value of

Solution:

Question 13.
Complete the table and find the solution of the equation 19 – x = 13

Solution:
By inspection, we have

Thus, the required solution is 6.

Question 14.
If x = –12, y = 14 and z = 0, find the value of the given expressions
(a) 8z + 2x -y
(b) z – y + 3x
Solution:

Question 15.
Fill in the blanks:
(a) 5 added to -5 = ……….
(b) If x = 3, then 3x – 5 = ……….
(c) If x = 1 and y = 2, then 2x + 3y = ……….
(d) If 10x – 6 = 14, then x = ……….
(e) 4 less than a number x = ……….
Solution:
(a) 0
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 2
(e) x – 4

Algebra Class 6 Extra Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 16.
A starts his car from Delhi at 6.00 am to Amritsar. The uniform speed of his car is x km/h. At 12.00 noon, he finds that he is still 50 km away from Amritsar. Find the distance between Delhi and Amritsar.
Solution:
Time taken by A to reach Amritsar = 12.00 noon – 6.00 am = 6 hour.
The uniform speed of the car = x km/ hr
∴ Total distance covered by A = Time x speed = 6x km.
∴ Distance between Delhi and Amritsar = (6x + 50) km.

Question 17.
Anshika’s Score in Science is 15 more than the two-third of her score in Sanskrit. If she scores x marks in Sanskrit, find her score in Science.
Solution:
Anshika’s score in Sanskrit = x
∴ Her marks in Science = 23x +15
∴ Thus, Anshika’s score in Science = 23x + 15

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NCERT MCQ CLASS – 12 | HISTORY | CHAPTER- 3 | KINSHIP, CASTE AND CLASS EARLY SOCIETIES | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are providing CHAPTER 3 KINSHIP, CASTE AND CLASS EARLY SOCIETIES NCERT MCQ for Class 12 HISTORY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ KINSHIP, CASTE AND CLASS EARLY SOCIETIES

Question 1 : Puranaruru is one of the anthologies of poems. To which literature does it belongs?
(a) Tamil Sangam literature.
(b) Buddhist literature
(c) Sanskrit literature
(d) Bengali literature

Answer : A

Question 2: Marriage within a unit, a kin group, caste or a group living in the same locality, is called
(a) endogamy.
(b) exogamy.
(c) polygyny.
(d) polyandry.

Answer : A

Question 3 : The janapada which was inhabited by the cousins Pandavas and Kauravas was that of
(a) Shurasenas.
(b) Mallas.
(c) Sakyas.
(d) Kurus.

Answer : D

Question 4 : Historians consider several elements when they analyse texts such as:
(a) They examine the language of the texts whether they were written in Prakrit, Pali or Tamil, languages that were probably used by ordinary people, or in Sanskrit, a language meant almost exclusively for priests and elites.
(b) They also consider about the kind of texts like whether these were mantras, learnt and chanted by ritual specialists, or stories that people could have read, or heard.
(c) They also consider author’s perspective about the text.
(d) They try and ascertain the possible date of the composition of the texts as well as the place where they may have been composed.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only (a)
(b) (a) and (b)
(c) (a) and (c)
(d) All of the above

Answer : D

Question 5 : Shakas who came from Central Asia were regarded by the Brahmanas as
(a) Dasas
(b) Untouchables
(c) Mlechchhas
(d) Aryans

Answer : C

Question 6 : The word ‘Didactic’,means R
(a) something that is meant for purposes of instruction.
(b) The description of events in a story
(c) Noticeable or sudden and often surprising
(d) Extremely mournful, melancholy or pathetic.

Answer : A

Question 7 : The original story of Mahabharata was probably composed by
(a) Lord Ganesha
(b) Rishi Veda Vyasa
(c) Charioteer-bards known as sutas.
(d) Lord Brahama

Answer : C

Question 8 : The classification of people, in the name of gotras in Hindu religion, was practised from c. 1000 BCE onwards, by the
(a) Brahmanas.
(b) Kshatriyas.
(c) Vaishyas.
(d) Shudras.

Answer : A

Question 9 : Panini’s ‘Ashtadhyayi’ is a work on
(a) Sanskrit grammar.
(b) Sanskrit history.
(c) Sanskrit mantras.
(d) Sanskrit plays.

Answer : A

Question 10 : Identify the years span, when an archeologist B.B.Lal excavated at a village named Hastinapura in Meerut (Uttar Pradesh)?
(a) 1951–52
(b) 1962–63
(c) 1970–71
(d) 1950–51

Answer : A

Question 11 : Who wrote the short story,“Kunti O Nishadi”?
(a) Mahadevi Verma
(b) Mahashweta Devi
(c) Krishna Sobti
(d) Ashapurna Devi

Answer : B

Question 12 : What was the object of the team of V.S. Sukthankar?
(a) Prepare critical edition of Mahabharata
(b) Translate Mahabharata in the English language
(c) Prepare critical edition of Manusmriti
(d) Translate Manusmriti in Tamil

Answer : A

Question 13 : Present-day historians suggest that the fact that the author(s) describe a polyandrous union indicates that polyandry may have been prevalent amongst ruling elites at some point of time.
(a) Some historians note that while the practice of polyandry may have seemed unusual or even undesirable from the Brahmanical point of view, it was (and is) prevalent in the Himalayan region.
(b) There may have been a shortage of women during times of warfare, and this led to polyandry. In other words, it was attributed to a situation of crisis.
(c) The author(s) choose to associate this practice with the central characters of the Mahabharata because sometimes creative literature often has its own narrative requirements and does not always literally reflect social realities.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only (a)
(b) (a) and (b)
(c) (a) and (c)
(d) All of the above

Answer : D

Question 14 : The Brahmanas considered some people as being outside the system by classifying certain social categories as _______.
(a) Kinfolk
(b) Varnas
(c) Untouchable
(d) Nishada

Answer : C

Question 15 : According to the ______, the paternal estate was to be divided equally amongst sons after the death of the parents.
(a) Varnas
(b) Varnas
(c) Manusmriti
(d) Mahabharata

Answer : C

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CHAPTER -10 Mensuration | IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQ |CLASS 6th | MATHS|NCERT |EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 10 Mensuration with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Knowing Our Numbers Class 6 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well

Chapter-10 Mensuration Class 6th Maths Important Questions & MCQS

MCQ

Question 1.
Perimeter of a rectangle =
(a) Length × Breadth
(b) Length + Breadth
(c) 2 × (Length + Breadth)
(d) 2 × (Length × Breadth).

Answer

Answer: (c)

Question 2.
Perimeter of a square =
(a) 4 × Length of a side
(b) 2 × Length of a side
(c) 3 × Length of a side
(d) 6 × Length of a side.

Answer

Answer: (a)

Question 3.
Perimeter of an equilateral triangle
(a) 2 × Length of a side
(b) 3 × Length of a side
(c) 4 × Length of a side
(d) 6 x Length of a side.

Answer

Answer: (b)

Question 4.
Area of a rectangle =
(a) Length × Breadth
(b) Length + Breadth
(c) 2 × (Length + Breadth)
(d) 2 × (Length × Breadth).

Answer

Answer: (a)

Question 5.
Area of a square =
(a) side × side
(b) 4 × Length of a side
(c) 2 × Length of a side
(d) 6 × Length of a side.

Answer

Answer: (a)

Question 6.
Perimeter of a regular pentagon =
(a) 4 × Length of a side
(b) 3 × Length of a side
(c) 6 × Length of a side
(d) 5 × Length of a side.

Answer

Answer: (d)

Question 7.
Perimeter of a regular hexagon =
(a) 3 × Length of a side
(b) 4 × Length of a side
(c) 5 × Length of a side
(d) 6 × Length of a side.

Answer

Answer: (d)

Question 8.
Apala went to a park 20 m long and 10 m wide. She took one complete round of it. The distance covered by her is
(a) 30 m
(b) 60 m
(c) 20 m
(d) 10 m.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
Distance covered = 2(20 + 10) = 60 m

Question 9.
The perimeter of the figure is

(a) 12m
(b) 14m
(c) 24 m
(d) 7 m.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
Perimeter = 2(4 + 3) = 14m

Question 10.
The perimeter of the figure is
(a) 8m
(b) 16m
(c) 4m
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
Perimeter = 4 × 2 = 8m

Question 11.
A page is 25 cm long and 20 cm wide. Find the perimeter of this page.
(a) 90 cm
(b) 45 cm
(c) 500 cm
(d) 5 cm.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
Perimeter = 2(25 + 20) = 90 cm

Question 12.
The perimeter of the figure is

(a) 5 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 20 cm.

Answer

Answer: (d)
Hint:
Perimeter = 4(1 + 2 + 2) = 20cm

Question 13.
The perimeterof the figure is

(a) 20 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 24 cm
(d) 15 cm.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
Perimeter = 4 + 3 + 2 + 2 + 3 + 6 = 20 cm

Question 14.
Meenu wants to put a lace border all around a rectangle table cover 2 m long and 1 m wide. Find the length of the lace required by Meenu.
(a) 3 m
(b) 4 m
(c) 5 m
(d) 6m.

Answer

Answer: (d)
Hint:
Length of the lace = 2(2 + 1) = 6 m

Question 15.
Find the perimeter of a rectangle whose length and breadth are 9 cm and 1 cm respectively,
(a) 10 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 30 cm
(d) 40 cm.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
Perimeter = 2(9 + 1) = 20 cm

Question 16.
An athlete takes 10 rounds of a rectangular park, 40 m long and 30 m wide. Find the total distance covered by him.
(a) 1400 m
(b) 700 m
(c) 70 m
(d) 2800 m.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
Total distance covered = 10 × 2 × (40 + 30) = 1400 m

Question 17.
Find the cost of fencing a rectangular park of length 10 m and breadth 5 m at the rate of? 10 per metre.
(a) ₹ 300
(b) ₹ 600
(c) ₹ 150
(d) ₹ 1200.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
Cost= 10 × 2 × (10 + 5) = ₹ 300

Important Questions

Question 1.
The perimeter of a square is 64 cm. Find the length of each side.
Solution:
Perimeter of the square = 64 cm

Question 2.
Length and breadth of a rectangular table-top are 36 cm and 24 cm respectively. Find its perimeter.
Solution:
Length of the rectangular table-top = 36 cm
and its breadth = 24 cm.
∴ Perimeter of the table-top = 2 [length + breadth]
= 2 [36 cm + 24 cm]
= 2 x 60 cm = 120 cm.

Question 3.
Which of the following figure has greater perimeter?

Solution:
Fig. (i) Perimeter of the square = 4 x side
= 4 x 4 cm = 16 cm
Fig. (ii) Perimeter of the rectangle
= 2 [length + breadth]
= 2[8 cm + 3 cm]
= 2 x 11 cm = 22 cm
Since 22 cm > 16 cm
∴ Rectangle has greater perimeter than the square.

Question 4.
How much distance will you have to travel in going around each of the following figures?

Solution:
Distance travelled in going around Fig. (i)
= 12 cm + 3 cm + 12 cm + 3 cm = 30 cm
Distance travelled in going around Fig. (ii)
= 6 cm + 4 cm + 4 cm + 4 cm = 18 cm

Question 5.
Find the perimeter of a square whose side is 15 cm.
Solution:
Side of the square = 15 cm
∴ Perimeter of the square = 15 cm x 4 = 60 cm

Question 6.
Find the cost of fencing a rectangular park 300 m long and 200 m wide at the rate of ₹4 per metre.
Solution:
Length of the park = 300 m
Breadth = 200 m
∴ Perimeter of the park = 2 [length + breadth]
= 2 [300 m + 200 m]
= 2 x 500 m = 1000 m.
Cost of fencing the rectangular park = 1000 x 4 = ₹4000

Question 7.
Find the area of a square field whose each side is 150 m.
Solution:
Side of the square field = 150 m
∴ Area of the square field = Side x Side
= 150 m x 150 m
= 22500 sq m.

Question 8.
Length and breadth of a rectangular paper are 22 cm and 10 cm respectively. Find the area of the paper.
Solution:
Length of the rectangular paper = 22 cm
Breadth = 10 cm
∴ Area of the rectangular paper = length x breadth
= 22 cm x 10 cm
= 220 sq cm.

Mensuration Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 9.
Find the length of a rectangle given that its perimeter is 880 m and breadth is 88 m.
Solution:
Perimeter of the rectangle = 2 [length + breadth]
∴ 2 [length + breadth] = 880
length + breadth = 880 ÷ 2 = 440
∵ Breadth = 88 m
∴ Length = 440 m – 88 m = 352 m
Hence, the required length = 352 m.

Question 10.
How many trees can be planted at a distance of 6 metres each around a rectangular plot whose length is 120 m and breadth is 90 m?
Solution:
Length of the rectangular plot = 120 m
Breadth = 90 m
∴ Perimeter of the rectangular plot
= 2 [length + breadth]
= 2 [120 m + 90 m]
= 2 x 210 m = 420 m
Now distance between two trees = 6 m
∴ Number of trees around the rectangular plot = 420 m ÷ 6 m = 70

Question 11.
A rectangular park is 30 metres long and 20 metres broad. A steel wire fence is put up all around it. Find the cost of putting the fence at the rate of ₹15 per metre.
Solution:
Length of the rectangular park = 30 m
Breadth = 20 m
∴ Perimeter of the rectangular park = 2(length + breadth)
= 2 [30 + 20] = 2 x 50 m = 100 m
∴ Cost of fencing all around the park = ₹15 x 100 = ₹1500

Question 12.
Find the area of the figures A, B, C and D drawn on a squared paper in the following figure by counting squares.

Solution:
(A) Counting the squares, we have 8 squares
∴ Area = 8 sq units
(B) Counting the squares, we have 4 squares
∴ Area = 4 sq units
(C) Counting the squares, we have 5 squares
∴ Area = 5 sq units
(D) Counting the squares, we have 7 squares
∴ Area = 7 sq units

Mensuration Class 6 Extra Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 13.
A rectangle and a square have the same perimeter 100 cm. Find the side of the square. If the rectangle has a breadth 2 cm less than that of the square. Find the breadth, length and area of the rectangle.
Solution:
Perimeter of the square = 100 cm
Perimeter 100

= 25 cm.
∴ Breadth of the rectangle = 25 cm – 2 cm = 23 cm
Now perimeter of the rectangle = 100 cm
∴ 2 [length + breadth] = 100
length + breadth = 100 ÷ 2 = 50 cm
But breadth = 23 cm
∴ Length = 50 cm – 23 cm = 27 cm
Now, Area of the rectangle
= length x breadth = 27 cm x 23 cm
= 621 sq cm.

Question 14.
Fencing the compound of a house costs ₹5452. If the rate is ₹94 per metre, find the perimeter of the compound. If the breadth is 10 m, find its length.
Solution:
Cost of fencing the compound = ₹5452
and the rate of fencing = ₹94 per metre
∴ Perimeter of the compound = 5452 ÷ 94 = 58 metres
Now breadth of the compound = 10 m.
2 [length + breadth] = 58 m
∴ length + breadth = 58 + 2 m = 29 m
∴ Length of the compound = 29 m – 10 m = 19 m.

Yearly Archives: 2022

CHAPTER -4 Sorting Materials Into Groups | CLASS 6TH | NCERT SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQs | EDUGROWN

Chapter 4 Sorting Materials Into Groups Class 6th Science

MCQs

CHAPTER -3 Fibre to Fabric | CLASS 6TH | NCERT SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQs | EDUGROWN

Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric Class 6th Science

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CHAPTER -2 Components of Food | CLASS 6TH | NCERT SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQs | EDUGROWN

Chapter 2 Components of Food Class 6th Science

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CHAPTER -1 FOOD: WHERE DOES IT COME FROM? | CLASS 6TH | NCERT SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQs | EDUGROWN

Chapter 1 Food Where Does It Come From Class 6TH Science

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CHAPTER -14 Practical Geometry | IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQ |CLASS 6th | MATHS|NCERT |EDUGROWN

Chapter- 14 Practical Geometry Class 6th Maths Important Questions & MCQS

CHAPTER -13 Symmetry | IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQ |CLASS 6th | MATHS|NCERT |EDUGROWN

Chapter-13 Symmetry Class 6th Maths Important Questions & MCQS

Symmetry Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

CHAPTER -12 Ratio and Proportion | IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQ |CLASS 6th | MATHS|NCERT |EDUGROWN

Chapter-12 Ratio and Proportion Class 6th Maths Important Questions & MCQS

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CHAPTER -11 Algebra | IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQ |CLASS 6th | MATHS|NCERT |EDUGROWN

Chapter-11 Algebra Class 6th Maths Important Questions & MCQS

Algebra Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

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NCERT MCQ CLASS – 12 | HISTORY | CHAPTER- 3 | KINSHIP, CASTE AND CLASS EARLY SOCIETIES | EDUGROWN |

CHAPTER -10 Mensuration | IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQ |CLASS 6th | MATHS|NCERT |EDUGROWN

Chapter-10 Mensuration Class 6th Maths Important Questions & MCQS

Mensuration Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

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Chapter 4 Sorting Materials Into Groups Class 6th Science

MCQs

Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric Class 6th Science

MCQs

Chapter 2 Components of Food Class 6th Science

MCQs

Chapter 1 Food Where Does It Come From Class 6TH Science

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Chapter- 14 Practical Geometry Class 6th Maths Important Questions & MCQS

Chapter-13 Symmetry Class 6th Maths Important Questions & MCQS

Symmetry Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Chapter-12 Ratio and Proportion Class 6th Maths Important Questions & MCQS

Ratio and Proportion Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Chapter-11 Algebra Class 6th Maths Important Questions & MCQS

Algebra Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Algebra Class 6 Extra Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Chapter-10 Mensuration Class 6th Maths Important Questions & MCQS

Mensuration Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Mensuration Class 6 Extra Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

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