Yearly Archives: 2022

NCERT MCQ ON Presentation of Data:

Question1 : The process of presenting data in the form of a table is called:
(a) organisation
(b) classification
(c) presentation
(d) tabulation

Answer : D

Question2 :  Series in which frequencies are continuously added corresponding to each class interval in the series
(a) Cumulative frequency series
(b) Frequency
(c) Deviation
(d) Mid value

Answer : A

Question3 : ‘Stub’ of a table is the
(a) Right part of the table describing the columns
(b) Left part of the table describing the columns
(c) Right part of the table describing the rows
(d) Left part of the table describing the rows

Answer : D

Question4 :  Classification data based on the geographical differences of the data is
(a) Qualitative
(b) Quantitative
(c) Spatial
(d) Chronological

Answer : C

Question5 : Whether classification is done first or tabulation`
(a) Classification follows tabulation
(b) Classification precedes tabulation
(c) Both are done simultaneously
(d) No criterion

Answer : B

Question6 :  Arrangement of data according to some logical order is termed as
(a) Collection series
(b) Sample series
(c) Statistical series
(d) None

Answer : C

Question7 : The principal component of a table is:
(a) table number
(b) title
(c) head note
(d) all of these

Answer : D

Question8 : Which of the following is a basis of classification of a table?
(a) Purpose
(b) Construction
(c) Originality
(d) All of these

Answer : D

Question9 : The frequency distribution of two variables is known as
(a) Univariate distribution
(b) Sub- multivariate distribution
(c) Bivariate distribution
(d) Multivariate distribution

Answer : C

Question10 : Complex table may be classified as:
(a) general purpose and special purpose table
(b) original and derived
(c) double, treble and manifold table
(d) none of these

Answer : C

Question 11: In temporal classification, data are classified on the basis of:
(a) location
(b) time
(c) originality
(d) purpose

Answer : B

Question12 : Sub-divided bar diagram is used to:
(a) Study relation between different components
(b) Compare different components of a variable
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer : D

Question 13: In tabulation, source of the data, if any, is shown in the:
(a) Source Note
(b) Body
(c) Stub
(d) Caption

Answer : A

Question14 :  Series of statistical data with one variable only is called
(a) None
(b) Discrete
(c) Continuous
(d) Individual Series

Answer : D

Question15 : The most accurate mode of data presentation is:
(a) Diagrammatic method
(b) Tabulation
(c) Textual presentation
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question 16: The column heading of a table are known as:
(a) Stubs
(b) Sub-titles
(c) Reference notes
(d) Captions

Answer : D

Question 17:  There are two class interval 0-10 and 10-20 , if a student score 10 marks then he should be included in which class interval
(a) 10-20
(b) Not be included in these intervals
(c) Both the 0-10 and 10-20
(d) 0-10

Answer : A

Question18 : The headings of the rows given in the first column of a table are called:
(a) Stubs
(b) Titles
(c) Captions
(d) Prefatory notes

Answer : A

Question19 : Table is the consequence of:
(a) classification
(b) organisation
(c) presentation
(d) tabulation

Answer : D

Question20 : Which of the following refer to geometric form of data presentation?
(a) Bar diagrams
(b) Histogram
(c) Pie diagrams
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer : D

Question21: Which of the following statements is not true for tabulation`
(a) Complicated data can be presented
(b) Facilitates comparison between rows and not columns
(c) Statistical analysis of data requires tabulation
(d) Diagrammatic representation of data requires tabulation

Answer : B

Question22 : The other name of pie diagram is:
(a) circular diagram
(b) bar diagram
(c) histogram
(d) polygon

Answer : A

Question 23:  Average value of the upper and lower limits
(a) Class interval
(b) Mid-value
(c) Class limits
(d) Class

Answer : B

Question24 : Diagrams which show total values of a set of data simultaneously are known as:
(a) percentage bar diagrams
(b) differential bar diagrams
(c) deviation bar diagrams
(d) multiple bar diagrams

Answer : B

Question25 : Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Bars may be vertical or horizontal
(b) Breadth of the bars remains the same
(c) All bars are based on some common base line
(d) All of these

Answer : D

Question26 :  Mid-point is used to calculate the following except
(a) Median
(b) Dispersion
(c) Frequency graphs
(d) Averages

Answer : A

Question27 : Diagrams which are used to compare the net deviation of related variables with respect to time and location are:
(a) deviation bar diagrams
(b) simple bar diagrams
(c) multiple bar diagrams
(d) pie diagrams

Answer : A

Question 28: The most attractive method of data presentation is:
(a) Diagrammatic
(b) Textual
(c) Tabular
(d) Either (a) or (b)

Answer : A

Question29 :  The class mid-point is equal to
(a) The ratio of the upper class limit and the lower class limit
(b) The average of the upper class limit and the lower class limit
(c) The product of upper class limit and the lower class limit
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question30 : Which of the following are titles of the rows of a table?
(a) Title
(b)Stub
(c) Caption
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question31 :  Series in which data are presented in a way that exact measurement of items are clearly shown
(a) Frequency Array
(b) Frequency Distribution
(c) None
(d) Both

Answer : A

Question32 : In a bar diagram, the bars are:
(a) Horizontal
(b) Vertical
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer : C

Question33 : For tabulation, ‘caption’ is:
(a) The lower part of the table
(b) The main part of the table
(c) The upper part of the table
(d) The upper part of a table that describes the column and sub-column

Answer : D

Question 34:  The series in which lower limit of the class interval or the upper limit of last class interval is missing
(a) Cumulative frequency
(b) Exclusive
(c) Open-end series
(d) Frequency array

Answer : C

Question35 : Diagrammatic representation of data is done by:
(a) Pictures
(b) Charts
(c) Diagrams
(d) All these

Answer : D

Question36 : The most appropriate diagram to represent the data relating to the monthly expenditure on different items by a family is:
(a) Histogram
(b) Pie diagram
(c) Frequency polygon
(d) Line graph

Answer : B

Question37 :  The data recorded according to standard of education like illiterate, primary, secondary, graduate, technical etc, will be known as _______ classification
(a) Quantitative classification
(b) Geographical Classification
(c) Qualitative classification
(d) Chorological Classification

Answer : C

Question38 : When for some countries, the magnitudes are small and for other, the magnitudes are very large, to portray the data, it is preferred to construct:
(a) Deviation bar diagram
(b) Duo-directional bar diagram
(c) Broken-Scale bar diagram
(d) Any of the above

Answer : C

Question39 : Details are shown by:
(a) Charts
(b) Tabular presentation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question 40: ________ of the data refers to the arrangement of figures in such a form that comparison of the mass of similar data may be facilitated and further analysis may be possible
(a) Organization
(b) Collection
(c) Interpretation
(d) Analysis

Answer : A

NCERT MCQ ON Organisation of Data :

Question1 : The characteristic of a fact that can be measured in the form of numbers is called:
(a) frequency
(b) variable
(c) attribute
(d) none of these

Answer :  B

Question2 : Frequency of a variable is always:
(a) A fraction
(b) In percentage
(c) An integer
(d) None of these

Answer :  C

Question 3:  A series showing the sets of all values in classes with their corresponding frequencies is known as:

(a) Grouped frequency distribution
(b) Cumulative frequency distribution
(c) Simple frequency distribution
(d) None of the above

Answer :  A

Question 4: A series in which every class interval excludes items corresponding to its upper limit is called:
(a) exclusive series
(b) inclusive series
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer :  A

Question5 : An open-end series is that series in which:
(a) lower limit of the first class interval is missing
(b) upper limit of the last class interval is missing
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer :  C

Question 6: According to tally bar method, which of the following symbols indicate the frequency of five?
(a) IIII
(b) II
(c) III
(d) None of these

Answer :  D

Question7 : The Frequency distribution of a continuous variable is known as:
(a) Grouped frequency distribution
(b) Simple frequency distribution
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer :  A

Question8 : In an ordered series, the data are:
(a) In descending order
(b) In ascending order
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these

Answer :  C

Question9 : In a series, the number of times an item occurs is known as:
(a) number
(b) class frequency
(c) frequency
(d) cumulative frequency

Answer :  C

Question 10: The difference between upper limit and lower limit of a class is known as:
(a) range
(b) magnitude of a class interval
(c) frequency
(d) class limits

Answer :  B

Question11 : Which of the following equations is correct?
(a) s = r + n
(b) s = r – n
(c) s = r × n
(d) s = rn
[s = Size of the class; r = Range; n = Number of classes]

Answer :  D

Question 12: Drinking habit of a person is:
(a) An attribute
(b) A discrete variable
(c) A variable
(d) A continuous variable

Answer :  A

Question13 : An attribute is:
(a) A qualitative characteristic
(b) A measurable characteristic
(c) A quantitative characteristic
(d) All these

Answer :  A

Question14 : Nationality of a student is:
(a) An attribute
(b) A discrete variable
(c) A continuous variable
(d) Either (a) or (c)

Answer :  A

Question 15: Why is it true that classes in frequency distributions are all inclusive`
(a) No data point falls into more than one class
(b) There are always more classes than data point
(c) All data fit into one class or another
(d) All of these

Answer :  C

Question16 : The value exactly at the middle of a class-interval is called:
(a) Class mark
(b) Mid-value
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer :  C

Question17 : The lower-class boundary is:
(a) An upper limit to Lower Class Limit
(b) A Lower limit to Lower Class Limit
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer :  B

Question18 : Mutually exclusive classification is usually meant for:
(a) An attribute
(b) A continuous variable
(c) A discrete variable
(d) Any of these

Answer :  B

Question 19: For the construction of a grouped frequency distribution, we take:
(a) Class boundaries
(b) Class limits
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer :  B

Question :20 Tally marks determines:
(a) Class width
(b) Class boundary
(c) Class limit
(d) Class frequency

Answer :  A

Question 21: The number of observations falling within a class is called:
(a) Density
(b) Frequency
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer : B

Question22 : Which of the following is the objective of classification?
(a) Simplification
(b) Briefness
(c) Comparability
(d) All of these

Answer :  D

Question23 : Classification of data on the basis of time period is called:
(a) geographical classification
(b) chronological classification
(c) qualitative classification
(d) quantitative classification

Answer :  B

Question24 : A series showing the sets of all distinct values individually with their frequencies is known as:
(a) Grouped frequency distribution
(b) Simple frequency distribution
(c) Cumulative frequency distribution
(d) None of these

Answer :  B

Question 25: Annual income of a person is:
(a) A continuous variable
(b) A discrete variable
(c) An attribute
(d) Either (b) or (c)

Answer :  B

Question26 : Upper limit of any class is:
(a) Same
(b) Different
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer :  B

Question 27: In inclusive class-intervals of a frequency distribution:
(a) Upper limit of each class-interval is included
(b) Lower limit of each class-interval is included
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer :  C

Question28 : In exclusive class intervals of a frequency distribution:
(a) Upper limit of each class-interval is excluded
(b) Lower limit of each class-interval is excluded
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer :  A

Question 29: For determining the class frequencies, it is necessary that these classes are:
(a) Mutually exclusive
(b) Not mutually exclusive
(c) Independent
(d) None of these

Answer :  A

Question30 : The upper limit of class-intervals is considered for calculating:
(a) ‘Less than’ cumulative frequency
(b) ‘More than’ cumulative frequency
(c) Relative frequency
(d) None of these

Answer :  A

Question31 : In an individual series, each variate value has:
(a) Same frequency
(b) Frequency one
(c) Varied frequency
(d) Frequency two

Answer :  B

Question32 : A grouped frequency distribution with uncertain first or last class is known as:
(a) Exclusive class distribution
(b) Inclusive class distribution
(c) Open end distribution
(d) Discrete frequency distribution

Answer :  B

Question33 : Class-interval is measured as:
(a) Half of the sum of lower and upper limit
(b) The sum of the upper and lower limit
(c) Half of difference between upper and lower limit
(d) The difference between upper and lower limit

Answer :  D

Question34 : The data given as 5, 7,12,17, 79, 84, 91 will be called as:
(a) A continuous series
(b) A discrete series
(c) An individual series
(d) Time series

Answer :  C

Question 35: Most extreme values which are never included in a class-interval are called:
(a) Class-interval
(b) Class limits
(c) Cass boundaries
(d) None of these

Answer :  C

Question36 : The class marks of a distribution are 26, 31,36, 41,46 and 51. Then the first-class interval is:
(a) 23.5-28.5
(b) 23-28
(c) 22.5-27.5
(d) None of these

Answer :  A

Question 37: Mutually exclusive classification:
(a) Excludes the upper-class limit but includes the lower-class limit
(b) Excludes both the class limits
(c) Includes the upper-class limit but excludes the upper-class limit
(d) Either (b) or (c)

Answer :  B

Question38 : In the construction of a frequency distribution, it is generally preferable to have classes of
(a) Equal width
(b) Unequal width
(c) Maximum width
(d) None of these

Answer :  A

Question39 : Classes with zero frequencies are called:
(a) Class
(b) Empty class
(c) Nil class
(d) None of these

Answer :  B

Question 40: For the mid-values given: 25, 34, 43, 53, 61,70, the first class of the distribution is:
(a) 25-34
(b) 24.5-34.5
(c) 20-30
(d) 20.5-29.5

Answer :  D

 

NCERT MCQ ON  Collection of Data:

Question1 : Stratified sample is preferred where:
(a) Population is perfectly homogeneous
(b) Population is non-homogeneous
(c) Random sampling is not possible
(d) Small samples are required

Answer :  B

Question2 : Data collected for the first time from the source of origin is called:
(a) primary data
(b) secondary data
(c) internal data
(d) none of these

Answer :  A

Question3 : Census method is suitable for that investigation in which:
(a) the size of population is large
(b) high degree of accuracy is not required
(c) there are widely diverse items
(d) intensive examination of diverse items is not required

Answer :  C

Question4 : Which of the following factor(s) are considered when comparison between sampling and census method is made?
(a) Area of survey
(b) Accuracy of data
(c) Cost of collection
(d) All of these

Answer :  D

Question5: Reliability of sampling data depends on:
(a) size of sample
(b) method of sampling
(c) training of enumerators
(d) all of these

Answer :  D

Question 6: Under random sampling, each item of the universe has __ chance of being selected.
(a) equal
(b) unequal
(c) zero
(d) none of these

Answer :  A

Question7 : Which of the following methods is used for the estimation of population in a country?
(a) Census method
(b) Sampling method
(c) Both fa) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer :  A

Question 8: Personal bias is possible under:
(a) random sampling
(b) purposive sampling
(c) stratified sampling
(d) quota sampling

Answer :  B

Question9 : If the investigator wants to select a sample on the basis of diverse characteristics of the population, which method should he use?
(a) Convenience sampling method
(b) Quota sampling method
(c) Stratified sampling method
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer :  D

Question 10: For drawing lottery _________________ sampling is used.
(a) random
(b) purposive
(c) stratified
(d) quota

Answer :  A

Question11 : Which of the following methods is used for the estimation of population in country`
(a) Sampling Method
(b) Census Method
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer :  B

Question12 : What kind of data are contained in the census of population and national income estimates, for the government?
(a) Primary data
(b) Secondary data
(c) Internal data
(d) None of these

Answer :  B

Question 13: The data collected on the height of a group of students after recording their heights with a measuring tape are:
(a) Primary data
(b) Continuous data
(c) Discrete data
(d) Secondary data

Answer :  A

Question14 : Which of the following is a method of secondary data collection?
(a) Direct personal investigation
(b) Direct oral investigation
(c) Collection of information through questionnaire
(d) None of these

Answer :  D

Question 15: In random sampling:
(a) Each element has equal chance of being selected
(b) Sample is always full of bias
(c) Cost involved is very less
(d) Cost involved is high

Answer :  A

Question16 : Which of the following methods is used when an investigator collects the required information with the informant?
(a) Direct Personal Investigation
(b) Indirect Oral Investigation
(c) Mailing Method
(d) Enumerator’s Method

Answer :  A

Question17 : In order to know the likings and dislikings of the listeners of the programmes broadcast by the Himachal Akashvani, the latter is keen to collect data. Which method of collecting data will be suitable for it?
(a) Direct Personal Investigation
(b) Indirect Oral Investigation
(c) Mailing Method
(d) Enumerator’s Method

Answer :  D

Question18 : Which of the following is a source of secondary data?
(a) Government publication
(b) Private publication
(c) Report published by the State Bank of India
(d) All of these

Answer :  A

Question19 : Which data is collected by the investigator himself`
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) Neither of the above

Answer :  A

Question20 : A good questionnaire should have:
(a) Minimum questions
(b) Concise
(c) Clear
(d) All the above

Answer :  D

Question21 : Data collected from The Times of India’ is an example of:
(a) Primary Data
(b) Secondary Data
(C) None of these
(d) Census

Answer :  B

Question22 : Data collected on religion from the census reports are:
(a) Sample data
(b) Secondary data
(C) Primary data
(d) Either (a) or (b)

Answer :  B

Question 23: Which of the following is a merit of a good questionnaire?
(a) Difficulty
(b) Less number of questions
(c) Not in proper order
(d) Invalid questions

Answer :  B

Question 24: When population under investigation is infinite, we should use:
(a) Sample method
(b) Census method
(C) Either census or sample method
(d) Neither census nor sample method

Answer :  A

Question 25: Data from secondary source are:
(a) Collected for other purposes than the current study
(b) Obtained from the newspaper
(c) More reliable than data from a primary source
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer :  D 

Question 26: Sample study is useful:
(a) When population is not completely known
(b) As it is easy to handle samples
(C) As results are more reliable
(d) It is cheap

Answer :  A

Question27 : Which method of collection of data covers the widest area`
(a) Direct Personal Investigation
(b)Mailed Questionnaire Method,
(c) Telephone interview method
(d) All of these

Answer :  B

Question28 : Data collected on religion from the census reports are:
(a) Secondary Data
(b) Primary Data
(c) Sample Data
(d) Either (a) or (b)

Answer :  A

Question29 : It is best to use a census while conducting a survey if:
(a) The population is large
(b) The population is small
(c) Time is limited to conduct the survey
(d) Cheaper method is needed

Answer :  B

Question30 : Direct personal investigation method suffers from:
(a) Personal Bias
(b) Excessive expenses
(c) Time Consuming
(d) All the above

Answer :  D

Question31 : The quickest method to collect primary data is:
(a) Direct Personal Investigation
(b) Indirect Oral Investigation
(c) Telephone Interview
(d) Mailed Questionnaire Method

Answer :  C

Question 32: Primary data is preferred over secondary data where:
(a) Time available is short
(b) Accuracy is important
(c) Sufficient finance is not available
(d) Much accuracy is not required

Answer :  B

Question33 : Schedules are filled by the:
(a) investigator
(b) enumerator
(c) informant
(d) none of these

Answer :  B

Question34 : After every ten years, information regarding population of India is collected through:
(a) Census
(b) Sample
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither of the above

Answer :  A

Question35 : Which method of collection of data covers the widest area`
(a) Telephone interview method
(b) Mailed questionnaire method
(c) Direct interview method
(d) All of these

Answer :  B

NCERT MCQ ON Introduction:

Question1 : Which of the following statements is not an example of Statistics?
(a) Birth rate in India is 18 per thousand as compared to 8 per thousand in the US.
(b) Ramesh has a Rs. 100 note in his pocket.
(c) Over the last 10 years, India has won 60 text matches in cricket and lost 50.
(d) Average pocket allowance of the students of Class XI is Rs. 500 per month.

Answer :  B

Question2 : Statistics is defined in terms of numerical data in the:
(a) Singular Sense
(b) Plural Sense
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer :  B

Question3 : Which of the following is correct regarding Statistics?
(a) Aggregate of facts
(b) Numerically expressed
(c) Affected by multiplicity of causes
(d) All of these

Answer :  D

Question4 : In singular sense Statistics means:
(a) statistical science
(b) statistical law
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer :  C 

Question5 : Which of the following indicates a stage of statistical study?
(a) Collection of data
(b) Presentation of data
(c) Analysis of data
(d) All of these

Answer :  D

Question 6: In plural sense, which of the following is not a characteristic of Statistics?
(a) Aggregate of data
(b) Only expressed in words
(c) Affected by multiplicity of causes
(d) Collected in a systematic manner

Answer :  B

Question 7: The process of converting raw material into goods is called:
(a) production
(b) saving
(c) investment
(d) exchange

Answer :  A  

Question8 : The aggregate of data is called:
(a) Statistics
(b) editing of data
(c) analysis of data
(d) collection of data

Answer :  A

Question9 : The statistics is concerned with:
(a) Aggregate of organised facts
(b) Aggregate of disorganised facts
(c) Aggregate of useless facts
(d) Aggregate of unrelated facts

Answer :  A

Question10 : Which of the following is an economic activity?
(a) Production
(b) Consumption
(c) Distribution
(d) All of these

Answer :  D

Question11 : The proper use of statistics can be made by:
(a) Cheats
(b) Everyone
(c) Experts
(d) Common Man

Answer :  C

Question12 : Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Resources have alternative uses
(b) All numbers are Statistics
(c) Macroeconomics studies large aggregates
(d) Statistics studies only the aggregates of quantitative facts

Answer :  B 

Question 13: Statistics is the science of analysing:
(a) Qualitative data
(b) Quantitative data
(c) Any kind of data
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer :  B

Question14 : Distrust of statistics is due to:
(a) Misuse of statistics
(b) Insufficient statistical methods
(c) Scope of statistics is limited
(d) Limitations of statistics

Answer :  A

Question 15: Statistics as a plural noun indicates:
(a) Statistical methods
(b) Descriptive statistics
(c) Statistical data
(d) Inductive statistics

Answer :  C

Question16 : Statistics as a singular noun means:
(a) Statistical data
(b) Statistical methods
(c) Inductive statistics
(d) Descriptive statistics

Answer :  B

Question17 : With regards to distrust of Statistics which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Statistics is a rainbow of lies
(b) Statistics are tissues of falsehood
(c) Statistics express the facts in numbers
(d) There are three kinds of lies-lies, damned lies and statistics

Answer :  C

Question18 : The word ‘statistics’ is used as:
(a) Singular
(b) Plural
(c) Singular and Plural both
(d) None

Answer :  C 

 

NCERT MCQ ON Comparative Development Experiences of India and Its Neighbours :

Question1 : Reforms in __________ were introduced in 1978
a) China
b) Pakistan
c) India
d) None of the above

Answer :  A

Question2 : China discontinued the one child policy because:
a) They will be more elderly people in proportion to young people.
b) It increased the number of dependent population.
c) People became dissatisfied with the policy.
d) Population of the country decreased.

Answer :  A

Question 3: First five year plan of __________ commenced in the year 1956
a) Pakistan
b) China
c) India
d) a) and b)

Answer :  A

Question4 : Social Economic Zones were set up by China to:
a) Attract foreign investors.
b) To develop the backward regions.
c) To maintain economic equality.
d) To promote private sector.

Answer : A

Question5 : ____________ has the highest life expectancy at birth.
a)India
b)China
c) Pakistan
d) Both a) and b)

Answer :  B

Question6 : Proportion of people below poverty line is more in:
a) India
b) Pakistan
c) China
d) USA

Answer :  A

Question7 : Which economic system did India adopt as development strategy?
a) Capitalist system
b) Socialist system
c) Mixed capitalist system
d) Socialist system upto 1991 and then capitalist system

Answer :  C

Question8 : Reforms in _________ were introduced in 1988.
a) China
b) Pakistan
c) India
d) USA

Answer :  B 

Question9 : ___________ programme was started in China with the aim of industrialization.
a) Great leap Forward
b) Great proletarian Cultural Revolution
c) One child policy
d) None of these

Answer :  A

Question10 : The fertility rate is very high in
a) Pakistan
b) India
c) China
d) USA

Answer :  A

Question11 : Which of the three countries has highest life expectancy at birth?
a) India
b) China
c) Pakistan
d) All equal

Answer :  B

Question12 : One child norm is a feature of ____________ country.
a) France
b) India
c) Pakistan
d) China

Answer :  D

Question13 : A campaign in China in 1958 where people were encouraged to set up industries in their backyard was named as:
a) Great leap forward
b) Great proletarian cultural revolution
c) Anti- rightist movement
d) Four pests damping

Answer :  A

Question14 : Which economic sector is the highest contribution to GDP in India, Pakistan and China?
a) Agriculture
b) Industries
c) Services
d) all equal

Answer :  C

Question 15: Growth rate of population is highest in which of the following country?
a) India
b) China
c) Pakistan
d) None of the above

Answer : C

Question16 : In which of the following areas, Pakistan has an edge over Indian?
a) Export of software after economic reforms
b) Number of ph.d’s produced in science and engineering every year
c) Reducing the proportion of population below poverty line
d) All the above

Answer :  C

Question17 : According to demographic parameters, the density of population is lowest in:
a) China
b) India
c) Pakistan
d) Both b) and c)

Answer :  A

Question18 : China moving ahead of India and Pakistan is true for which indicator?
a) GDP per capita
b) Proportion of population below poverty line
c) HDI ranking
d) All the above

Answer :  D

Question 19: Which of the three countries has highest percentage of population above poverty line?
a) China
b) Pakistan
c) India
d) All equal

Answer :  C

Question20 : Rank India, Pakistan and China in terms of better value of human development index.
a) 1st – Pakistan; 2nd – China; 3rd– India.
b) 1st – Pakistan; 2nd – India; 3rd– China.
c) 1st – China; 2nd – Pakistan; 3rd – India
d) 1st – China; 2nd – India; 3rd- Pakistan

Answer :  D

Question21 : India, Pakistan and ____ have many similarities in their development strategies
a) Nepal
b) China
c) Sri Lanka
d) Bangladesh

Answer :   B

Question22 : _________ has the highest life expectancy
a) India
b) China
c) Pakistan
d) Both a) and c)

Answer :  B

Question23 : Which type of economic system is followed in China?
a) Mixed Economy
b) Socialist Economy
c) Capitalist Economy
d) None of these

Answer :  B

Question24 : Which sector of the economy contributes the highest to India’s GDP?
a) Service
b) Agriculture
c) Industry
d) None of these

Answer :  A 

Question25 : _______ Performance in providing sanitation is better in comparison to ______.
a) Pakistan’s, India
b)China’s, Pakistan
c) China’s, India
d) India’s, Pakistan

Answer :   B

Question26 : Which of the following two countries have adopted the Mixed Economic System?
a) India and China
b) India and Pakistan.
c) China and Pakistan
d) None of these

Answer :  B

Question27 : Which economic system did China chose for economic development?
a) Capitalist system
b) Socialist system
c) Mixed capitalist system
d) None of the above

Answer :  B

Question28 : China succeeded in achieving higher growth rate than India because:
a) It followed communist pattern of economy.
b) It started reforms early.
c) It gave much importance to manufacturing sector.
d) All of above

Answer : C

Question29 : Which of the three countries has lowest rate of population growth?
a) India
b) Pakistan
c) China
d) All equal

Answer :  C

Question30 : Which of the following countries has the lowest density of population?
a) India
b) China
c) Pakistan
d) None of the above

Answer :  B

Question31 : Which of the three countries has the highest growth rate of GDP?
a) India
b) Pakistan
c) China
d) All equal

Answer :  C

NCERT MCQ ON Environment and Sustainable Development:

Question1. Environmental includes:
(A) Biotic factors
(B) Abiotic factors
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) None of the above

Answer :   C

Question2. What can be the preventive measure for climate change:
(A) Plantation
(B) Using cycle instead of cars and bikes
(C) Using organic product
(D) All of them

Answer :   D

Question3.In which of the following layers of the atmosphere is ozone shield found?
(a) Troposphere
(b) Exosphere
(c) Stratosphere
(d) Mesosphere

Answer :   C

Question4. Absorptive capacity is defined as:
(A) Ability of the environment to absorb degradation
(B) Resource generation within the assimilating capacity of the environment
(C) Average number of organisms living in a given environment
(D) The minimum population surviving in the world as a whole

Answer :   A

Question5. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) Global warming is entirely a natural phenomenon
(B) Global warming is simply an another term used for green house effect
(C) Global warming is the rise in average temperature at the earth’s surface
(D) Global warming is caused by ozone depletion

Answer :   C

Question6. The ability of the environment to absorb degradation is:
(A) Carrying capacity
(B) Absorptive capacity
(C) (a) and (b)
(D) None of the above

Answer :   B

Question7. In 1997, a UN conference on climate change was held in :
(a) Japan
(b) India
(c) Germany
(d) China

Answer :   A

Question8. Which of the following is the 7th goal of the eight millennium goals of United Nations?
a) To eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
b) To ensure environment sustainability
c) To reduce child mortality
d) To develop a global partnership for development

Answer :   B

Question9. GHGs refer to:
(A) Green Home Gases
(B) Greenhouse Gases
(C) Green Hurricane Gases
(D) Green Home Guards

Answer :   B

Question10. BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations Environment Porgramme
(d) World Bank

Answer :   D

Question11. Banning the use of chlorofluorocarbon compounds and other chlorine and bromine compounds and other chlorine and bromine compounds is called:
(A) Chipko movement
(B) Apiko movement
(C) Montreal protocol
(D) None of the above

Answer :   C

Question12. Which are the catch phases in the following UNCED definition of Sustainable Development:
“Development that meet the need of the present generation without compromising the ability of the future generation to meet their own needs.”
(A) Need
(B) Future generation
(C) Need and present generation
(D) Need and future generation

Answer :   D

Question13. The United Nation’s Commission on Sustainable Development (CSD) was started by the UN General Assembly in the year.
(a) 1995
(b) 1994
(c) 1993
(d) 1992

Answer :   D

Question14. Brundtland Commission in 1987 defined sustainable development as:
(A) A type to development which put the interests of developing countries ahead of the interests of the rich nations
(B) Development which meets the needs of present generation without compromising the ability of future generation to meet their own needs
(C) Development that protects the future generation even at the expense of present generation
(D) None of the above

Answer :   B

Question15. Biotic elements of environment is:
(A) Air
(B) Water
(C) Birds
(D) Land

Answer :   C

Question16. From the following which s a cleaner and greener energy souce:
(A) Thermal power
(B) Hydro power
(C) Wind power
(D) None of the above

Answer :   C

Question17. For sustainable development, environment damage rate _____ environment recovery rate.
a) should be greater than the
b) should be exponentially greater than the
c) should be same as the
d) should be lesser than the

Answer :   D

Question18. Which of the option is not incorporated as sustainable development parameters?
(a) Gender disparity and diversity
(b) Inter and Intra-generation equity
(c) Carrying capacity
(d) None of the above

Answer :  D

Question19. South Africa is leading exporter of which mineral?
(a) Copper
(b) Diamond
(c) Silver
(d) Gold

Answer :   D

Question20. The first airport powered by solar energy was
(a) Bangalore
(b) Cochin
(c) London
(d) Frankfurt

Answer :  B

Question21. The ‘Agenda 21’ of Rio Summit 1992 is related to:
(a) Sustainable Development
(b) Polluter-Pays Principle
(c) Environmental Education
(d) Preservation of Ozone Layer

Answer :  A

Question22. One of the conventional sources of energy is
(a) wind energy
(b) tidal energy
(c) hydroelectric energy
(d) None of the above

Answer :   D

Question23. Which of the following is a Conventional source of energy?
(a) Wind
(b) Sunlight
(c) LPG
(d) Tide

Answer :  C

Question24. What is the main problem with development of countries?
a) Strain on environment to absorb the damage and self-heal
b) Decrement in poverty
c) Higher energy consumption per capita
d) Lower energy consumption per capita

Answer :  A

Question25. Sustainability can be achieved by replacing existing resources with other resources of equal value.
a) True
b) False

Answer :  A

NCERT MCQ ON Infrastructure :

Question1 : The state known as ‘God’s own country
a) Karnataka
b) Gujarat
c) Kerala
d) Goa

Answer :   C

Question2 : Energy generated by sun is known as____________
a) Natural gas
b) Solar energy
c) Wind energy
d) Electricity

Answer : B

Question3 : Some states in India are performing much better than others in certain areas due to
a) Better irrigation facilities
b) Better transportation facilities
c) Better health care and sanitation faculties
d) All the above

Answer : B

Question4 : LPG is an example of ____________
a) Bio-energy
b) Solar energy
c) Wind energy
d) Natural gas

Answer : D

Question5 : ____________ infrastructure is important for the development of a nation
a) Economic
b) Social
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Neither (a) and (b)

Answer : C

Question6 : Essential indicator of good health in a country is increase in ___________
a) Death rate
b) Infant mortality rate
c) Expectancy of life
d) Incidence of deadly diseases

Answer : C

Question7 : Electricity generated from radioactive elements is called:
a) Thermal electricity
b) Atomic energy
c) Hydel electricity
d) Tidal energy

Answer : B

Question8 : ___________ is an example of social infrastructure
a) Transport
b) Communication
c) Energy
d) Education

Answer : D

Question9 : Power generated using water:
a) Atomic power
b) Thermal power
c) Hydroelectric power
d) None of these

Answer : C

Question10 : Education is an example of ____________
a) Sustainable development
b) Economic infrastructure
c) Economic development
d) Social infrastructure

Answer : D

Question11 : Indian system of medicine comprises of systems.
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six

Answer : D

Question12 : Which of the following is an example of conventional source of energy?
a) Natural gas
b) Solar energy
c) Biomass
d) Wind energy

Answer : A

Question13 : From the following which is not a commercial source of energy
a) Petroleum
b) Coal
c) Electricity
d) Dried dung

Answer : D

Question14 : Which of the following statement is not true? 
a) Distribution of electricity to farmer’s is the main reason for the losses of State Electricity Boards (SEB’s)
b) At present, nuclear energy accounts for only 2 per cent of total energy consumption
c) CFL consume 80 percent more power than ordinary bulbs
d) Energy shortage adversely affects transport sector, industries sector and agriculture production

Answer : C

Question15 : ISM stands for:
a) Indian systems of medicine
b) International system of medicine
c) Indian standard of medicine
d) None of the above

Answer : A

Question16 : A lot of power is wasted during its transmission and distribution from power stations to households. This can be controlled by:
a) Promoting the use of CFL’s
b) Proper lead management
c) Promoting non conventional sources
d) All the above

Answer : B

Question 17: From the following which is not a non-commercial source of energy
a) Solar energy
b) Wind energy
c) Tidal energy
d) Coal

Answer : D

Question18 : Which source of power accounted for only 2%?
a) Hydel power
b) Wind power
c) Nuclear power
d) Tidal power

Answer : C

Question19 : The highest use of commercial energy is:
a) Agriculture
b) Transport
c) Household
d) Industry

Answer : D

Question20 : ____________ include hospitals with better facilities of health care like X-ray, surgeries, ECG etc.
a) Primary health care
b) Secondary heath care
c) Tertiary heath care
d) None of these

Answer : B

Question21 : Indian system of medicine:
a) Unani
b) Yoga
c) Siddha
d) All of these

Answer : D

Question22 : Indicator of health status:
a) Expansion of health services
b) Decline of infant mortality rate
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer : C

Question23 : Sources of electricity are ____________
a) Water
b) Oil,Coal
c) Gas
d) All of these

Answer : D

Question24 : ___________ is an indicator which measures the number of people dying prematurely due to a particular disease:
a) Global burden of disease
b) Golden burden of disease
c) Global burden of depression
d) Global break down disease

Answer : A

NCERT MCQ ON Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues:

Question1 : The formula to calculate workforce participation ratio is:
(a) (workforce /Total population) X 100 Telegram: @commmmerce12
(b) (Number of unemployed persons/Labour force) X 100
(c) Workforce+ number of people who are willing to work but are unemployed
(d) (workforce/ labour force) X 100

Answer :  C

Question2 :  Work force refers to that part of
(a) Labour force which is employed
(b) Population which is unemployed
(c) Population which is forced to work
(d) Labour force which is when employed

Answer :  A

Question 3:  Workers who are on permanent pay-roll of their employer are called:
(a) Self- employed workers
(b) Casual workers
(c) Regular workers
(d) None of the above

Answer :  C

Question4 :  ____________ unemployment may result some workers are temporarily out of work while hanging job.
(a) Cyclical
(b) Voluntary
(c) Fictional
(d) Seasonal

Answer :  C

Question5 :  Men get opportunity to work in:
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Service sector
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer :  D

Question6 :  Sum total of final goods and services produced in domestic territory of an economy during a year is called __________.
(a) GDP
(b) NDP
(c) NNP
(d) GNP

Answer :  A

Question7 :  Agriculture labourers, farmers, owners of small enterprise which emply less than 20 workers fall in the category of :
(a) Formal sector
(b) Informal sector
(c) Casual workers
(d) Regular workers

Answer :  B

Question8 :  __________ is a common form of unemployment in rural India.
(a) Disguised unemployment
(b) Structural unemployment
(c) Educated unemployment
(d) None of these

Answer :  A

Question9 :  Due to the recent efforts of which international body the Indian government, initiated the modernization of informal sector?
(a) World Bank
(b) WTO
(c) International Labour Organisation
(d) G-20

Answer :  C

Question10 :  Find the odd one out.
(a) A private school teacher in a school with only 25 teachers
(b) A nurse in a government hospital
(c) Cycle-rickshaw puller
(d) A civil engineer working in a construction company which has 10 workers

Answer :  C

Question11 :  Unemployment common in urban areas
(a) Seasonal unemployment
(b) Disguised unemployment
(c) Open unemployment
(d) None of these

Answer :  C

Question12 :  Measure of reduce unemployment in very short period of time
(a) Reducing growth rate of population
(b) Reducing inequalities in the distribution of income and wealth
(c) Increasing investment in private and public sectors
(d) None of these

Answer :  C

Question13 :  Unemployment is defined as:
(a) The section of the population that is not capable of being employed
(b) The section of population willing to work but unable to find employment
(c) The section of population that is waiting to be employed
(d) The section of population that are without the skills needed by employers

Answer :  B

Question14 : Most of the unemployment in India is
(a) Voluntary
(b) Structural
(c) Frictional
(d) Technical

Answer :  B

Question15 : Data on unemployment in India can be obtained from which source?
(a) Reports of Census of India
(b) National sample survey organisation(NSSO)
(c) Directorate general of employment
(d) All the above

Answer :  D

Question16 : Those who work in their own establishment using their own resources are called _______.
(a) Hired workers
(b) Casual workers
(c) Regular workers
(d) Self-employed

Answer :  D

Question17 : About ___________ of the total population in the country is engaged in various economic activities.
(a) Three-fifth
(b) Four-fifth
(c) Two-fifth
(d) None of the above

Answer :  C

Question 18: When more persons are working in a job than actually required, it is known as ________.
(a) Disguised unemployment
(b) Seasonal unemployment
(c) Educated unemployment
(d) Open unemployment

Answer :  A

Question 19: The newly emerging jobs are found mostly in the _____________ sector.
(a) Service
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Agriculture
(d) None of the above

Answer :  A

Question 20: Electricity, gas and water supply belong to ___________ sector.
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) All the above

Answer :  B

Question21 : After the workers lost their jobs in 1980’s, which city experienced an economy recession and communal riots?
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Bombay
(c) Allahabad
(d) Bangalore

Answer :  A

Question22 : An establishment with four hired workers is known as _____________ sector establishment.
(a) Formal
(b) Informal
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer :  B

Question 23: The newly emerging jobs are found mostly in ___________ sector.
(a) Manufacturing
(b) Primary
(c) Service
(d) None of these

Answer :  C

Question24 :  When due to introduction of new machinery, some workers tend to be replaced by machines, their unemployment is termed as
(a) Structural
(b) Technological
(c) Mechanical
(d) Seasonal

Answer :  B

Question25 : Formal sector includes all those enterprises which employ
(a) More than 10 workers
(b) 10 workers
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer :  C

Question26 : Unemployed person is one who is not able to get employment of even one hour in half a day.
This definition is given by:
(a) Economists
(b) National Sample Survey Organisation
(c) Census of India
(d) Directorate general of Employment and Training

Answer :  A

Question 27: Unemployment is a situation in which all those who, owing to lack of work, are not working but either seek work though employment exchanges, intermediaries, friends or relatives or by making applications to prospective employers or express their willingness or availability for work under the prevailing condition of work and remunerations. This definition is given by:
(a) Economists
(b) National Sample Survey Organisation
(c) Census of India
(d) Directorate general of Employment and Training

Answer :  B

Question28 : Find the odd man out:
(a) A clerk in the electricity office
(b) Computer operator in the state government office working on a temporary basis
(c) Worker in a hotel which has seven hired workers and three family workers.

Answer :  C

Question 29: Which of the following is working in the informal sector?
(a) A private school teacher In a school which has 25 teachers.
(b) The owner of a textile shop employing nine workers.
(c) Driver of a bus company which has more than 10 buses with 20 drivers, conductors and others workers.
(d) Civil engineer working in a construction company which has 10 workers.

Answer :  B

Question30 : ___________ is a major source of livelihood for both men and women as this category accounts for more than 50 per cent of India’s workforce.
(a) Self-employment
(b) Casual wage labour
(c) Regular salaried employment
(d) None of these

Answer :  Self-employment

NCERT MCQ ON Rural Development:

Question1 :  The institutional aource of credit whose area of operation is the one where banking facilities and cooperatives are absent and which operate at the district level is:
(A) Regional rural bank
(B) Commercial bank
(C) Self-help group
(D) NABARD

Answer :   A

Question2 :  Diversification in agriculture activities means finding alternate employment in
(A) Non-farm sectors
(B) Urban sectors
(C) Rural sectors
(D) None of these

Answer :   A

Question3 :  The sector providing alternate livelihood options to 70 million small and marginal farmers is:
(A) Livestock
(B) Agro-processing
(C) Apni Mandi
(D) Fisheries

Answer :   A

Question4 :  Production of a diverse variety of crops rather than one specialised crop is called:
(A) Diversification of production activity
(B) Diversification of crop production
(C) Diversification of employment
(D) All the above

Answer :   B

Question5:  The farming which relies on naturally occurring ecological process and biodiversity:
(A) Organic farming
(B) Conventional agriculture
(C) (a) and (b)
(D) None of the above

Answer :   A

Question6 :  Which of the following is true about organic farming?
(A) Organically grown food is more healthier and tastier
(B) Yields in organic farming are lower than in chemical farming
(C) It adversely effects the fertility of the soil
(D) It is quite expensive method of farming

Answer :   A

Question7 :  Credit needs related to constructing fences and digging wells are fulfilled by:
(A) Short term credit
(B) Medium term credit
(C) Long term credit
(D) None of the above

Answer :   B

Question8 :  Credit taken for a period of 15 years is
(A) Short term credit
(B) Medium term credit
(C) Long term credit
(D) All of these

Answer :   C

Question 9: Organic farming uses
(A) Organic manure
(B) Bio-fertilisers
(C) Organic pesticides
(D) All of these

Answer :   D

Question10 :  Traditional sources of rural credit in India are :
(A) Money lenders
(B) Relatives and friends
(C) Traders
(D) All of these

Answer :   D

Question11 :  Non farm areas of employment :
(A) Animal husbandary
(B) Fisheries
(C) Horticulture
(D) All of these

Answer :   D

Question 12:  AMUL stands for :
(A) Anand Multiple Union Ltd.
(B) Agriculture and Milk Union Ltd.
(C) Anand Mil Union Ltd.
(D) Anand Manufacturing Union Ltd.

Answer :   C

Question13 :  The ‘Golden Revolution’ was a period of very high productivity in:
(A) Foodgrain production
(B) Horticulture
(C) Organic farming
(D) Piscicultre

Answer :   B

Question14 :  Which is related to microfinance:
(A) Self Help Group
(B) NABARD
(C) Both
(D) None

Answer :   C

Question15 :  Institutional sources of agricultural credit are :
(A) Land development banks
(B) NABARD
(C) Self-help group
(D) All of these

Answer :   D

Question16 :  NABARD is ____________ source of rural credit
(A) Institutional
(B) Non-institutional
(C) Cooperative society
(D) Regional

Answer :   A

Question 17:  Growth in rural marketing relates to
(A) Provision of physical infrastructure
(B) Regulation of markets
(C) Cooperative farming
(D) All of these

Answer :   D

Question18 :  Short term credit is needed for
(A) Period of 15 months
(B) Period 5 years
(C) Period of 15 years
(D) Period of 20 years

Answer :   A

Question19 : From the following which is not a non-institutional source of credit in India.
(A) Money lenders
(B) Traders
(C) Commission agents
(D) Commercial banks

Answer :   D

Question20 :  Father of ‘Green Revolution’ In India
(A) M.S. Swaminathan
(B) Norman Borlong
(C) Chidambaram Subramaniam
(D) None of the above

Answer :   A

Question21 :  Government has assured the farmers of some minimum income from the sale of their crop by introducing:
(A) Warehousing facilities
(B) Regulated markets
(C) Minimum support price policy
(D) Co-operative agriculture marketing societies

Answer :   C

Question 22:  SHG stands for :
(A) Self Human Group
(B) Sufficient Humidity Growth
(C) Self Help Group
(D) Self Human Growth

Answer :   A

Question23 :  Organic farming is needed because it
(A) Maintains and enhances the ecological balance
(B) is free from chemical based fertilizers
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer :   C

Question 24:  National Bank of Agriculture and Rural Development was set up in ________ as an apex body to coordinate the activities of all institutions in the rural financing system.
(A) 1969
(B) 1982 
(C) 1949
(D) 1991  

Answer :   B

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 7 MASS MEDIA AND COMMUNICATIONSNCERT MCQ for Class 12 SOCIOLOGY PART B which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON MASS MEDIA AND COMMUNICATIONS

Question 1.
Modulation index of an AM signal:
(a) depends upon the peak amplitude of the modulating signal and the carrier.
(b) depends upon the peak amplitude of modulating signal.
(c) is a function of carrier frequency.
(d) None of these.

Answer: (a) depends upon the peak amplitude of the modulating signal and the carrier.

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Question 2.
In amplitude modulation
(a) the amplitude of the carrier remains constant.
(b) the amplitude of the carrier varies in accordance with the amplitude of the modulating signal.
(c) the amplitude of carrier varies in accordance with the frequency of the modulating signal.
(d) None of these.

Answer: (b) the amplitude of the carrier varies in accordance with the amplitude of the modulating signal.

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Question 3.
In modulation process, radio frequency wave is termed as
(a) modulating wave
(b) modulated wave
(c) carrier wave
(d) none

Answer: (c) carrier wave

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Question 4.
Digital signals:
(a) represent values as discrete steps.
(b) utilise binary code system.
(c) do not provide a continuous set of values.
(d) All of these.

Answer: (d) All of these.

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Question 5.
Modulation index in an FM signal:
(a) Varies directly as the modulating frequency.
(b) Varies directly as frequency deviation and inversely as the modulating frequency.
(c) varies inversely as the frequency deviation. ‘
(d) None of these.

Answer: (b) Varies directly as frequency deviation and inversely as the modulating frequency.

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Question 6.
The most commonly employed analog modulation technique in satellite communication is the
(a) amplitude modulation
(b) frequency modulation
(c) phase modulation
(d) All of the above

Answer: (b) frequency modulation

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Question 7.
Satellite transponders
(a) use a high frequency for reception and a lower frequency for retransmission of information to and from earth
(b) use a lower frequency for reception and a higher frequency for retransmission of information to and from earth.
(c) Use a single frequency for reception and retransmission of information to and from earth.
(d) none of the above.

Answer: (a) use a high frequency for reception and a lower frequency for retransmission of information to and from earth

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Question 8.
For television transmission, the frequency employed is normally in the range
(a) 30-300 Hz
(b) 30-300 kHz
(c) 30-300 MHz
(d) 30-300 GHz.

Answer: (c) 30-300 MHz

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Question 9.
Which one of the following can happen to the electromagnetic waves travelling in free space:
(a) Reflection
(b) Refraction
(c) absorption
(d) attenuation

Answer: (d) attenuation

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Question 10.
High frequency waves are
(a) reflected by E layer.
(b) absorbed by F layer.
(c) affected by the solar cycle.
(d) capable of use for long-distance transmission.

Answer: (a) and (c).

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Question 11.
Which of the following is invariably found on all communication satellites as a payload
(a) transponder
(b) photographic camera
(c) optical telescope
(d) None of these

Answer: (a) transponder

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Question 12.
An antenna is
(a) capacitive
(b) reactive
(c) inductive above its resonance frequency.
(d) None of these

Answer: (c) inductive above its resonance frequency.

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Question 13.
Microwave link repeaters are typically 50 km apart,
(a) because of atmospheric attenuation.
(b) because of the earth’s curvature.
(c) to ensure that signal voltage may not harm the repeater.
(d) None of these.

Answer: (b) because of the earth’s curvature.

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Question 14.
Optical communication uses the frequency range of
(a) 10⁹ to 10¹⁰ Hz
(b) 10⁵ to 10⁶ Hz
(c) 10¹⁴ to 10¹⁵ Hz
(d) 10¹⁶ to 10¹⁷ Hz.

Answer: (c) 10¹⁴ to 10¹⁵ Hz

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Question 15.
Audio signals have frequency range.
(a) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
(b) 20 kHz to 20 MHz
(c) 20 MHz to 20 GHz
(d) All of these.

Answer: (a) 20 Hz to 20 kHz

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