Monthly Archives: January 2022

Short Answer Type Question:

Q1. Alok thinks that a country needs an efficient government that looks after the welfare of the people. So, if we simply elected our Prime Minister and Ministers and left to them the task of government, we will not need a legislature. Do you agree? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer
I do not agree with Alok because leaving the whole task of government with Prime Minister and Ministers would hamper the essence of democracy. The task of the legislature includes law making. It is a complex process that requires the opinion of all sections of society. A legislature is required for this purpose. The legislature helps people to hold the council of ministers accountable, In the absence of legislature, council of ministers would become unresponsive to the people’s hopes and aspiration.

Q2. A class was debating the merits of a bicameral system. The following points were made during the discussion. Read the arguments and say if you agree or disagree with each of them, giving reasons.• Neha said that bicameral legislature does not serve any purpose.• Shama argued that experts should be nominated in the second chamber.
• Tridib said that if a country is not a federation, then there is no need to have a second chamber.
Answer
• I do not agree with Neha. Bicameral legislature is necessary for a democratic country with large population and much diversity. Bicameral legislature helps in providing due representation to all sections of the society as well as the monopoly of either the chamber can be approached as ‘check and balance’.
• I agree with Shama that experts should be nominated into the second chamber as they can provide inputs on subjects that require technical knowledge and give rational suggestions for policy making.
• I do not agree with Tridib as federalism is not a pre-condition for having bicameral legislature.Even in a Unitary state, a second chamber is required. The second chamber is essential to serve as a check on hasty and unwise legislation passed by the lower chamber.

Q3. Why can the Lok Sabha control the executive more effectively than the Rajya Sabha can?
Answer
Lok Sabha exercises control over the executive more effectively than Rajya Sabha because it is a directly elected body. The Council of Ministers is responsible to Lok Sabha and not the Rajya Sabha.
• The Lok Sabha has the power to make laws, ask questions and amend the Constitution.

• The Lok Sabha can remove the government by expressing no-confidence but Rajya Sabha cannot remove any government.

• Lok Sabha has crucial power in controlling the finances as it can reject money bill but Rajya Sabha cannot reject the money bill.

Q4. Rather than effective control of the executive, the Lok Sabha is a platform for the expression of popular sentiments and people’s expectations. Do you agree? Give reasons.
Answer
I agree with the statement that rather than effective control of the executive, the Lok Sabha is a platform for the expression of popular sentiments and people’s expectations. The representatives of the people express the difficulties of the people of their constituencies. They draw the attention of the Government towards the grievances of the people. A debate on a particular bill takes place and opens the path for its modifications, etc. if required. The Parliament enjoys the powers to frame laws on the subjects given in the union list and concurrent list if required.

Q5. The following are some proposals for making the Parliament more effective. State if you agree or disagree with each of them and give your reasons. Explain what would be the effect if these suggestions were accepted.• Parliament should work for longer period.
• Attendance should be made compulsory for members of Parliament.
• Speakers should be empowered to penalise members for interrupting the proceedings of the House.
Answer
• I agree with the above proposal that parliament should work for a longer period. There are a large number of issues that require debate and legislation and these are delayed sometimes because the parliament is not in session. To overcome this, the parliament needs to work for a longer time.
• I agree with this proposal as compulsory attendance would lead to presence of members for crucial decisions that require the support of majority. It would also encourage presentation of views across the political spectrum.
• I agree with this proposal as penalising members for interrupting the proceedings of house would lead to less wastage of time. This would also lead to less wastage of the tax payers’ money that is incurred to run the parliament.

Q6. Arif wanted to know that if ministers propose most of the important bills and if the majority party often gets the government bills passed, what is the role of the Parliament in the law making process? What answer would you give him?
Answer
Parliament is an important component of the law making process even though most of the important bills are proposed by ministers because the provisions of the proposed law are required to be debated and these debates can only be conducted in parliament. The opposition also participates in the framing of laws by suggesting changes and thus, it is necessary for legislative procedure to take place in parliament. If, there are differences between the two houses, a joint session of parliament resolves the issues.

Q7. Which of the following statements you agree with the most? Give your reasons.• Legislators must be free to join any party they want.• Anti-defection law has contributed to the domination of the party leaders over the legislators.• Defection is always for selfish purposes and therefore, a legislator who wants to join another party must be disqualified from being a minister for the next two years.
Answer
I agree with the statement that defection is generally for selfish purposes. Hence a legislator who wants to join another party must be disqualified from being a minister for the next two years. Under 91st Amendment, if it is proved that a member has defected, then such member loses his membership of the House.

Q8. Dolly and Sudha are debating about the efficiency and effectiveness of the Parliament in recent times. Dolly believed that the decline of Indian Parliament is evident in the less time spent on debate and discussion and increase in the disturbances of the functioning of the House and walkouts etc. Sudha contends that the fall of different governments on the floor of Lok Sabha is a proof of its vibrancy. What other arguments can you provide to support or oppose the positions of Dolly and Sudha?
Answer
Both the statement made by Dolly and Sudha are correct upto some extent. The time spent on debates has decreased and on many occasions, entire sessions of parliament have passed without discussions due to disruption by one party or the other. This has somewhat hindered the law-making process as many progressive legislations have been pending for a long period of time. However, the effectiveness of Parliament as an institution is undiminished as it remains the supreme law making body in the country.
The fall of different governments on the floor of the Lok Sabha reminds us that no government can afford to take its existence for granted. It has to be accountable for its actions. A government cannot survive by acting against the wishes of the majority of elected representatives. This has checked the large concentration of power in the Council of Ministers.

Q9. Arrange the different stages of passing of a bill into a law in their correct sequence:.• A resolution is passed to admit the bill for discussion• The bill is referred to the President of India – write what happens next if s/he does not sign it• The bill is referred to other House and is passed• The bill is passed in the house in which it was proposed• The bill is read clause by clause and each is voted upon• The bill is referred to the subcommittee – the committee makes some changes and sends it back to the house for discussion• The concerned minister proposes the need for a bill• Legislative department in ministry of law, drafts a bill.
Answer
1. The concerned minister proposes the need for a bill2. A resolution is passed to admit the bill for discussion3. Legislative department in ministry of law, drafts a bill4. The bill is referred to the subcommittee – the committee makes some changes and sends it back to the house for discussion5. The bill is read clause by clause and each is voted upon6. The bill is passed in the house in which it was proposed7. The bill is referred to other House and is passed8. The bill is referred to the President of India

Q10. How has the system of parliamentary committee affected the overseeing and appraisal of legislation by the Parliament?
Answer
• The system of parliamentary committee has influenced the overseeing and appraisal of legislation by the Parliament as most of decisions regarding the technical points of legislation are referred to these committees. The Parliament rarely rejects any of the suggestions made by the committee.
• These committees have reduced the burden of Parliament as they gather whole information on the bill and can ask any member to appear before it. After that committee sends its report, the Parliament debates on it as well as provide some necessary recommendations and approve it. This has diluted the Parliament’s appraisal of legislations to a large extent.

Long Answer Type Questions :

Q1.What are the powers and functions of the parliament?
Answer:
The parliament is Bi-cameral legislature consisting of two houses alongwith the President of India. It enjoys the following powers and functions.
Legislative Powers:

• To pass laws on the subjects given in the union list like foreign affairs, defence, war and peace, railway, etc.
• To pass laws on the subjects given in the concurrent list.
• The state legislature also have the same power on the subjects mentioned in the state list, but parliament also can pass

laws on these subjects in the following circumstances:

• If the council of states passes a resolution by 2/3 majority declaring a subject to be of national importance to be valid for one year only.
• If emergency is proclaimed for the whole country or any part thereof, the parliament can pass laws on the state list also. But such laws will come to an end to the extent of unconstitutionality, six months after the end of emergency.
• If emergency is proclaimed due to the failure of constitutional machinery in a state, the laws made by parliament during such an emergency shall cease to operate to the extent of incompetency, one year after the proclamation ends.

Financial Powers:

• To pass the budget
• No tax can be imposed without approval of parliament.
• No expenditure can be incurred without the sanction of parliament.
• The government has no authority to any change any amount of its own free will.
• The parliament has its, own committees to enquiry about the adequacy of the expenditure and estimate, etc.

3. Control over Executive:

• The ministers are responsible towards the parliament for their actions and policies.
• Parliament can draw the attention of the government towards serious problems and events through ‘Adjournment Motion’.
• Parliament can ask questions to the ministers and is supposed to get satisfactory responses.
• During budget, the parliament criticizes the policies of Government on the different departments of government.
• Parliament can enjoy ‘no confidence’ motion against the government or reject any government Bill or reduce the salary of any minister by a resolution. Hence, government has to resign.

4. Judicial Powers:

• To confer power of issuing writs and directions for any purpose other than the protection of fundamental rights on the Supreme Court of India.
• To confer some other powers also in the Supreme Court not to be against constitution, but essential for the performance of its duty.
• It may establish High Court in a centrally administered area as well as extend the empowerment or jurisdiction of a high court if required.
• It has the power to impeach against high dignitaries as the President, Judges of the Supreme Court, and High Courts.

5. Electoral Powers:

• The elected members of Parliament participate in the election of President with the elected members of Legislative Assemblies of the states.
• Parliament elects the Vice President.
• It elects the speaker.

6. Power to Amend Constitution:

• Parliament amends the constitution as per the Article 368.
• An amendment can be made only if it is passed by absolute majority or 2/3 majority of the members present and voting in both the houses separately.
• But approval of 50% states is required in addition to the procedure given above for amending the articles given in Article 368.

Q2.Describe the law-making procedure in the Parliament of India.
Answer:
An ordinary bill has to go through the various stages of law-making in the following manner:
Introduction or the first reading:

• A request for introduction along with objects and reasons is sent to the presiding officer.
• On the appointed data member-in-charge of the bill moves the motion for permission to introduce the bill.
• No debate takes place and the presiding officer puts bill to vote.
• Sometimes opposition takes place, the presiding officer asks to make a brief explanation of bill.
• After, the permission of speaker, the bill is published in the Government Gazette.

Second Reading:

• After the consideration, the data is fixed for the second reading.
• The bill may be referred to a select committee of house or
• The bill may be taken up for consideration or
• The bill may be circulated for the purpose of getting public opinion.
• Only main principles are discussed.

Committee Stage:

• A committee of 20-30 members is appointed to go through the bill thoroughly.
• Committee gathers full information on the bill and discuss its pros and cons.
• Committee can make some changes also in the bill at this stage.
• Committee can ask any member to appear before it.
• Committee consists of the mover of the bill and few other members.

4. Report Stage:

• Committee submits reports within three months or the period assigned by the house.
• The reports are published and its copies are distributed among the members of parliament.
• A discussion takes place by supporters and its opposers.
• After that, voting takes place and if the majority votes in favour, it is passed otherwise rejected.

5. Third Reading:

• It is the last stage, where no substantial changes are made, only some amendments are allowed.
• Then it is put to vote and if majority supports it, it is declared passed.
• The speaker or chairman, as the case may be, certifies that the bill has been passed in the house, and sends it to other house.

6. Bill in other House:

• In other house also, the bill goes through various stages like the first house.
• If the bill is passed, it is sent to the President for his signature to become an Act or Law.

Q3.Describe the procedure for election, position and powers of the speaker of a State Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
Election:

• The speaker presides over the meetings of the Assembly and is responsible for conducting the business of the house. The members of newly elected Legislative Assembly elect the speaker from amongst themselves.
• The speaker remains along with the tenure of Assembly and he remains in his office even if Assembly is dissolved, till the first meeting of the Assembly. He may resign, if he desires.
• He may be removed only by an absolute majority which requires 14 days’ notice at least.

Position:

• His office is one of the honour, dignity and authority.
• He presides over the meeting of the Assembly.
• He maintains the discipline of the house.
• He takes care of the privileges of the members.

Powers and functions:

• Presides over its meetings and conducts its proceedings.
• The motions are admitted by him for discussion.
• He maintains discipline in the house.
• He safeguards the privileges of the members of parliament.
• He may punish the members for a breach of discipline or he can expel them from the house or suspend them for sometime.
• He asks members to vote whenever required and announces the result.
• He enjoys the right to cast a vote in case of equality of votes.
• He certifies the Money Bills.
• He sends the bills forward, i.e. to the Governor or to Legislative Council as the case may be.

Q4.‘Rajya Sabha is less powerful than Lok Sabha’. Justify the statement.
Answer:
This statement can be justified by the following relationship between the two houses:
Ordinary Bills:

• Ordinary Bills can be introduced in either of the house.
• After one house passes it, it is sent to the other house for amendments in the bill or to reject it.
• If the other house passes the bill in the original form, it is sent to the President’s sanction.
• If two houses do not agree on the bill, a joint session of Parliament is called upon by the President under Article 108 of the constitution.
• The decision is taken on the majority basis and the voice of Lok Sabha prevails due to its numerical strength.

Financial Powers:

• Money Bills and Budget are originated only in the Lok Sabha.
• If the Lok Sabha passes a Money Bill, it is sent to the Rajya Sabha for amendment or recommendations.
• Rajya Sabha is supposed to return the Money Bill within 14 days and if within 14 days, it is not returned, it is considered to be passed by both the houses. id) It is up to Lok Sabha to accept the recommendations of Rajya Sabha or not.
• In case of disagreement of houses on money bill, no joint session is called upon.
• Hence, Lok Sabha enjoys absolute power over the finance of country.

3. Control over Executive:

• The council of ministers is responsible towards parliament for its policies and actions.
• Executive is answerable to the parliament only.
• Though Rajya Sabha can exert its influence on the Government in many ways but it cannot remove the government from its office. This power is exercised only by the Lok Sabha.
• Lok Sabha can exercise no confidence or reject a bill or money bill, hence government has to resign.
• Hence, government is supposed to be in touch with the Lok Sabha. Hence, it can be concluded that Lok Sabha is more powerful than Rajya Sabha.

Q5.Describe the amendment procedure of constitution.
Answer:
The constitution of India is partly rigid or partly flexible to make some necessary
amendments in the following manner:
By Simple Majority:
The Parliament of India has the power to amend the constitution by its own initiatives in following cases:

• Article 3 of the constitution brought out States Reorganization Act of 1956 to form new states or to change in the name of the states. These matters are carried out by simple majority of both the houses of Parliament on the desire of President.
• Under Article 169, the formation or abolition of second chamber can also be decided by a simple majority only.
• Article 240 provides the provisions on the good administration of the centrally administered territories, if amendment is required.

By Special Majority:

• Article 368 has the provisions for the process of amending constitution.
• Bill for such amendments can be introduced in either the house.
• If both the houses pass the bill with absolute majority or 2/3 majority of the members present and voting, it will be sent to the President for his signatures.
• All the subjects which are not mentioned in the first list and third list, can also be amended through this procedure only.

By a special majority along with the consent of the states: If an amendment is concerned with the subjects given in Article 368, it is supposed to be approved by 1/4 of the state Assemblies after being passed by both the houses with absolute majority or 2/3 majority of the members present and voting. But the amendment will come into force after it is signed by the president:

• Election of president and his removal
• Extent of executive power of union
• Extent of executive powers of states
• Union judiciary
• The high courts in the states
• High court for union territories
• Legislative relations between the center and the states
• The representation of states in parliament
• Lists of the VII schedule
• Article 368 itself

Q6.Mention the powers of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

Answer

Q1. A parliamentary executive means:a. Executive where there is a parliamentb. Executive elected by the parliamentc. Where the parliament functions as the Executived. Executive that is dependent on support of the majority in the parliament►

Answer

d. Executive that is dependent on support of the majority in the parliament

Q2.  Read this dialogue. Which argument do you agree with? Why?Amit: Looking at the constitutional provisions, it seems that the President is only a rubber stamp.Shama: The President appoints the Prime Minister. So, he must have the powers to remove the Prime Minister as well.Rajesh: We don’t need a President. After the election, the Parliament can meet and elect a leader to be the Prime Minister.
Answer

I agree with argument given by Amit that the President is only a rubber stamp because according to constitutional provision there is no real power which is in the hands of the president. Despite having certain discretionary powers 

Q3. Match the following:

i. Works within the particular State in which recruited	a. Indian Foreign Services
ii. Works in any central government office located either at the national capital or elsewhere in the country	b. State Civil Services
iii. Works in a particular State to which allotted; can also be sent on deputation to the centre	c. All India Services
iv.Works in Indian missions abroad	d. Central Services

Answer

i. Works within the particular State in which recruited	b. State Civil Services
ii. Works in any central government office located either at the national capital or elsewhere in the country	c. All India Services
iii. Works in a particular State to which allotted; can also be sent on deputation to the centre	d. Central Services
iv.Works in Indian missions abroad	a. Indian Foreign Services

Q4. Identify the ministry which may have released the following news items. Would this be a ministry of the central government or the State government? Why?
a. An official release said that in 2004-05 the Tamil Nadu Textbooks Corporation would release new versions for standards VII, X and XI.
b. A new railway loop line bypassing the crowded Tiruvallur-Chennai section to help iron ore exporters. The new line, likely to be about 80 km long, will branch off at Puttur and then reach Athipattu near the port.
c. The three-member sub-divisional committee formed to verify suicide by farmers in Ramayampet mandal has found that the two farmers who committed suicide this month have had economic problems due to failure of crops.

Answer

a. Ministry of Human Resource Development, State government may have released because textbooks are published for a particular state.

b. Railway Ministry, Central government because railway is managed by the central government.

c. Ministry of Agriculture, State Government because sub-divisional is supervised by the agricultural department of the state government.

Q5. While appointing the Prime Minister, the President selects
a. Leader of the largest party in the Lok Sabha
b. Leader of the largest party in the alliance which secures a majority in the Lok Sabha
c. The leader of the largest party in the Rajya Sabha
d. Leader of the alliance or party that has the support of the majority in Lok Sabha►

Answer

d. Leader of the alliance or party that has the support of the majority in Lok Sabha

Q6. Read this discussion and say which of these statements applies most to India.Alok: Prime Minister is like a king, he decides everything in our country.Shekhar: Prime Minister is only ‘first among equals’, he does not have any special powers. All ministers and the PM have similar powers.Bobby: Prime Minister has to consider the expectations of the party members and other supporters of the government. But after all, the Prime Minister has a greater say in policy making and in choosing the ministers.
Answer
The statement of Bobby applies most to India. Prime Minister has to consider the expectations of the party members and other supporters of the government. But after all, the Prime Minister has a greater say in policy making and in choosing the ministers.

Q7.Why do you think is the advice of the Council of Ministers binding on the President? Give your answer in not more than 100 words.
Answer
As the Constitution of India provides for a parliamentary system of government, the Council of Ministers headed by the prime minister is the real executive authority. The President exercises his powers only on the advice of the Council of Ministers. According to Article 74, there shall be a council of ministers with Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.
Consequently, the President has been made only a nominal executive; his place in administration is that of a ceremonial device or a seal by which the nation’s decision are made known.

Q8. The parliamentary system of executive vests many powers in the legislature for controlling the executive. Why, do you think, is it so necessary to control the executive?

Answer

There are two systems of democracy exist in the world. One is the parliamentary system and the other is presidential system.
In presidential system, there is clear separation of powers between legislature and executive. Executive is not accountable to legislature. Legislature can’t exercise its control over executive. But in the parliamentary system executive is a part of the legislature. They are accountable to the legislature. The legislature exercises its control over executive by different instruments like adjournment motion, no confidence motion etc.
The Parliament keeps a day-to-day watch over the activities of the Executive. As ours is a parliamentary system of Government, the Executive is responsible to the Parliament for all acts of omissions and commissions.
In a parliamentary form of government, the legislature and executive aren’t really separated. In a nominal sense, the legislature is in control, in that the executive must report to the legislature and is entitled to rule by virtue of having the confidence of a majority in the legislature. But this nominal control doesn’t describe the realities of power.
When a single party holds a majority in the legislature, this entitles it to complete control of the executive. That party then has control of both branches. But the party leadership will also take the leading roles in the executive, so as far as the two branches are concerned, the reality is that the executive controls the legislature, and when no single party holds a majority, the legislature is in a more powerful position, and the executive will depend for its continuation on trade-offs between parties in the legislature.

Q9. It is said that there is too much political interference in the working of the administrative machinery. It is suggested that there should be more and more autonomous agencies which do not have to answer to the ministers.
a. Do you think this will make administration more people- friendly?
b. Do you think this will make administration more efficient?
c. Does democracy mean full control of elected representatives over the administration?
Answer

a. No, i don’t think so it’ll make administration more people friendly because in a democracy, the elected representatives and the ministers are in charge of government and the administration is under their control and supervision. Hence forth, the elected representatives and the ministers are the representative of the people and the administration is under their control and regulation, hence they cannot act in violation of the policies adopted by the legislature. It is the responsibility of the ministers to retain political control over the administration. India has established professional administrative.

b. This will not make administration more efficient as it would lead to defiance of bureaucratic executives with government policies. Thus, it would lead to contradiction of the bureaucracy with the goals of the government. Competence in this situation is not valid as social welfare would be compromised. So, it not sounds like that it’ll make administration more efficient at all.

c. Simply put; in a democracy, there is no sonorous control of the elected representatives over administration. The main work of these elected representatives is to make laws, apply them and keep the administration libel. Simply, it is the responsibility of the administrative machinery to faithfully and efficiently participate in drafting the policy and in its implementation.

Q10. Write an essay of two hundred words on the proposal to have an elected administration instead of an appointed administration.

Answer

Elected administration is a very reliable type of administration. The elected administration would change the policies. And there would be unstability to implement different policies. The appointed administration is non-partial. The civil servants are selected impartially on the basis of merit. Thus, the welfare policies of the government can be effectively handled. Policies would be implemented without any political interference. The elected administration would have lack of technical knowledge of their departments while members of administration have full knowledge of their departments. Hence, they are more successful to implement the policies effectively and efficiently. They will be able to implement and perform the developmental functions. They will be also able to perform the functions of planning and social welfare.
A major difference is that appointed administrations are not permanent and can be removed but in the elected administration it is permanent, and they must fail to be re-elected at the next election. In some areas there is a procedure called a recall election, where the voters have lost confidence in an official and vote to remove him. They then elect someone else. However, this remedy is not always available.
In either case, an elected administration can resign or retire at his own request or if he has committed a crime he can be removed. 

Long Answer Type Questions :

Q1.Describe the powers and functions of the President of India.
Answer:
The powers of the President can be summarised as follows:
Executive Powers:

• The President appoints the Prime Minister who is the leader of the majority party and the other members also on the advice of the Prime Minister.
• The President appoints the high officials in India, i.e. Governors of the state, Lt. Governors of Union Territories, Attorney General, Controller and Auditor General, the Chairman and the members of UPSC, the Ambassadors or High Commissioners in other countries.
• The President of India is the supreme commander of the Defense forces. The President can declare war and make peace.

2. Legislative Powers:

• The President nominates 12 persons to the Rajya Sabha who are distinguished in the fields of art, literature, science and social service, as well as he can nominate two Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha also.
• The President can summon both the houses, if there are some differences on any bill issued by the parliament, the joint session might be summoned.
• The President has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha before completion of its term and can order for fresh elections, but on the recommendation of the Prime Minister.
• The President has the power to give his assent to the bill, because no bill passed by the Parliament can become an Act without the assent of the President. He has no power to reject the Money Bill passed by the Parliament.
• The President has the power to issue the ordinances during the intervals of the sessions of parliament which have the force of laws.

3. Financial Powers:

• The President has the duty to place the budget before the beginning of financial year by the finance minister on behalf of the President.
• Money bills can be introduced only in the Parliament on the recommendation of the President.
• The President has a full control over the contingency fund to spend it according to his will even prior to the consent of the Parliament.
• The President has the power to distribute the share of income-tax among the states.

4. Judicial Powers:

• The President has the power to appoint the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
• The President of India has the power to pardon, reprieve or commute the punishment of any criminal for whom he thinks to deserve pardon.

Q2.Describe the powers and functions of the Prime Minister of India.
Answer:

• The Prime Minister forms the Council of Ministers according to the capability of the ministers, he assigns duty to them.
• The Prime Minister allocates the department to the ministers and if he does not find the working satisfactory, can change the departments of the ministers.
• The Prime Minister presides over the meetings of cabinet, he prepares an agenda for meetings and controls it.
• The Prime Minister makes the appointments of state Governors, Ambassadors, members of UPSC by giving the advice to the President to appoint the same.
• The Prime Minister works as a link between the President and the Council of Ministers. No minister can discuss the issues directly with the President without the permission of the Prime Minister.
• The Prime Minister leads the cabinet in the Parliament as he explains the policy and decisions of the cabinet to parliament and if the President requires any information regarding the functioning of Parliament, he would demand such information from the Prime Minister only.

Short answer Type Question:

Q1. Which of the following resembles most a direct democracy?a. Discussions in a family meetingb. Election of the class monitorc. Choice of a candidate by a political partyd. Decisions taken by the Gram Sabhae. Opinion polls conducted by the media
Answer
b. Election of the class monitord. Decisions taken by the Gram Sabha

Q2. Which of the following tasks are not performed by the Election Commission?a. Preparing the Electoral Rollsb. Nominating the candidatesc. Setting up polling boothsd. Implementing the model code of conducte. Supervising the Panchayat elections
Answer
b. Nominating the candidatese. Supervising the Panchayat elections
3. Which of the following is common to the method of election of the members of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha?
a. Every citizen above the age of 18 is an eligible voter
b. Voter can give preference order for different candidates
c. Every vote has equal value
d. The winner must get more than half the votes
► c. Every vote has equal value
4. In the First Past the Post system, that candidate is declared winner whoa. Secures the largest number of postal ballotsb. Belongs to the party that has highest number of votes in the country
c. Has more votes than any other candidate in the constituency
d. Attains first position by securing more than 50% votes
► c. Has more votes than any other candidate in the constituency

Q3.Which of the following is common to the method of election of the members of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha?

a. Every citizen above the age of 18 is an eligible voter

b. Voter can give preference order for different candidates

c. Every vote has equal value

d. The winner must get more than half the votes

Answer

c. Every vote has equal value

Q4.In the First Past the Post system, that candidate is declared winner who

a. Secures the largest number of postal ballots

b. Belongs to the party that has highest number of votes in the country

c. Has more votes than any other candidate in the constituency

d. Attains first position by securing more than 50% votes

Answer

c. Has more votes than any other candidate in the constituency

Q5. What is the difference between the system of reservation of constituencies and the system of separate electorate? Why did the Constitution makers reject the latter?
Answer
In system of reservation of constituencies, all voters in a constituency are eligible to vote but the candidates must belong to only a particular community or social section for which the seat is reserved whereas in the system of separate electorate, for electing a representative from a particular community, only those voters would be eligible who belong to that community.
The constitution makers reject the system of separate electorate because it went against their purpose of unity, secularism and a state that is free from discrimination.

Q6. Which of the following statements are incorrect? Identify and correct them by substituting, adding or rearranging only one word or phrase.

a. FPTP system is followed for all the elections in India.
► Incorrect. FPTP system is followed for Panchayats, Legislative Assemblies and the Lok Sabha elctions.

b. Election Commission does not supervise Panchayat and Municipal elections.
► Corrcet
c. President of India cannot remove an Election Commissioner.
► Incorrect, President of India can remove an Election Commissioner on the recommendation of both houses of the Parliament.

d. Appointment of more than one Election Commissioners in the Election Commission is mandatory.
► Incorrect. Appointment of more than one Election Commissioner in the Election Commission is not mandatory.

Q7. Indian electoral system aims at ensuring representation of socially disadvantaged sections. However we are yet to have even 10 percent women members in our legislatures. What measures would you suggest to improve the situation?
Answer
The percent of women members would improve through following measures:
• Using proportional representation system, we can ensure the proper representation of women in legislature according to their percentage in population.–
• Also, we can have reserved constituencies from which seat is reserved for women which ensure proper representation of women.

Q8. Here are some wishes expressed in a conference to discuss a constitution for a new country. Write against each of these whether FPTP or Proportional Representation system is more suited to meet each of these wishes.

a. People should clearly know who is their representative so that they can hold him or her personally accountable.
► FPTP system

b. We have small linguistic minorities who are spread all over the country; we should ensure fair representation to them.
► Proportional representation system

c. There should be no discrepancy between votes and seats for different parties.
► Proportional representation system

d. People should be able to elect a good candidate even if they do not like his or her political party.
► FPTP system

Q9. A former Chief Election Commissioner joined a political party and contested elections. There are various views on this issue. One view is that a former Election Commissioner is an independent citizen and has a right to join any political party and to contest election. According to the other view, leaving this possibility open can affect the impartiality of the Election Commission. So, former
Election Commissioners must not be allowed to contest any elections. Which position do you agree with and why?

Answer

The former Election Commissioner is an independent citizen and has a right to join any political party and to contest election. After leaving the post of election commissioner, he/she became an ordinary citizen and just like any citizen he/she has all rights which a citizen have. He/She has no responsibility of conducting fair election so they can be a part of election as it is their right.

Q10. “Indian democracy is now ready to shift from a crude First Past the Post system to a system of Proportional Representation”. Do you agree with this statement? Give your reasons for or against this statement.

Answer

Indian democracy is not yet ready to replace the First Past the Post system with Proportional Representation because

• Proportional representation system complicated system which would be difficult to work in a sub-continental country like India.

• In PR system, voters have only choice to choose a party and the representatives are elected on the
basis of party lists. There is no representative for one locality which would be held accountable.

• Indian is a vast country with a large number of ethnic and social groups. PR system would encourage each community to form its own party which endanger the social fabric of the country.

• PR based election may not be suitable for giving a stable government in a parliamentary system.

Long Answer Type Questions :

Q1.Explain the role of Election Commission of India.
Answer:
The role of Election Commission can be summarized as follows:

• The Election Commission controls over the election machinery to conduct free and fair elections as supervises and makes changes if needed in the electoral rules of the elections.
• The Election Commission prepares the voters’ list who enjoy the right to vote as well as considers objections also to be raised by voters in reference of voters’ list.
• Election Commission provides the election symbols to the political parties as well as to independent candidates. As Congress (I) has been assigned the symbol of hand and lotus has been provided to BJP. The independent candidates are provided symbols on temporary basis.
• The Election Commission declares and recognizes the political parties as national or regional.

Q2.How does the Election Commission of India ensure its independence?
Answer:
The Election Commission ensures its independence by the following provisions

• Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners and Regional Election Commissioners are appointed for a fixed term.
• The Chief Election Commissioner cannot be removed from his office before the expiry of his term except on the grounds of incapacity and misbehavior only if a resolution to this effect is passed by both the houses of parliament by a two-third majority.
• Other Election Commissioners and Regional Election Commissioners can be removed from the Office only on the recommendations of the Chief Election Commissioner.
• Salaries and other allowances of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners are to be paid out of consolidated fund of India.
• Tenure and other service conditions of Chief Election Commissioner and others, are fixed by the president, but they cannot be changed to their disadvantage during their term of office.

Q3.What is the composition of Election Commission of India?
Answer:

• The Election Commission consists of Chief Election Commissioner and the number of other Election Commissioners may also be fixed by the president from time to time.
• Thus, the Election Commission may be single member or multi member body. Till 1989, the Election Commission was a single member body.
• In 1993, two more Election Commissioners were also appointed and become multi¬member body since then.
• The Chief Election Commissioner presides over the Election Commission, but the other Election Commissioners also enjoy the same power to work mainly on consensus as a collective body only.
• The constitution of India has ensured independence of Election Commission and declared it can important body to conduct free and fair elections.

Q4.Sometimes criticism has taken place against Universal Adult Suffrage. Explain them.
Answer:
Universal Adult Suffrage refers to the right to vote given to all adult citizens without any distinction of caste, class, colour, creed, language, religion, etc. It has faced some criticisms also:

• Right to vote is a special privilege to confer on those who utilize it for the welfare of the state. Hence, it should be conferred only to the educated persons and illiterate persons should be debarred from it because they cannot understand who is the best candidate for the state.
• The Universal Adult Suffrage establishes the government of fools because fools and ignorant form the majority in the society which can create some dangerous consequences in the state.
• All the people should not be given the right to vote equally and to contest elections as well because God has not created everybody equal.
• The right to vote should be extended to those persons only who are competent or capable of using it because it is a responsibility not the right and a responsibility cannot be extended to the incompetent persons.
• The Universal Adult Suffrage leads to corruption because contesting and voting, both are usually made on the bases of money and muscle power by dominating the poor the downtrodden people.

Q5.Suggest some major suggestions for electoral reforms.
Answer:
The various committees have worked on electoral reforms, i.e. the Goswami Committee and Tarkunde Committee, but these have not brought substantial changes in electoral system and law. It seems that political parties are indifferent to electoral reforms because in some cases, political parties have neutralized the steps taken by the Election Commission to bring in some desired changes. It is now widely recognized to preserve and strengthen the democratic setup a comprehensive agenda of reforms is necessary in system, structure and processes:

• Criminalization should be checked in politics.
• Political parties’ functions should be regulated.
• Voters’ participation and awareness should be ensured.
• Make the election machinery effective and credible.
• The use of money and muscle power should be stopped.
• A proportionate share to every class, section and society should also be provided in the parliament.

Q6.What is the electoral process in India?
Answer:
The electoral process is performed into different stages under the provisions of Representation of People Act, 1950 and 1951:

• First of all, constituencies are formed in a territorial area from where a candidate contest election.
• The nomination papers are filled with the returning officer.
• The scrutiny is made to check whether the information filled in nomination form, are correct.
• After the scrutiny is over, the candidate is given a date for withdrawal.
• Then Election campaign takes place by various techniques by holding rallies, meetings, processions, distributing handbills and door-to-door canvassing, etc.
• The election campaign stops 48 hours earlier before polling is held on the due date. Presiding officers and polling officers supervise the whole polling process. The voters vote through the secret ballot.
• After the voting is over, the counting made on a fixed date and time. The candidate getting highest number of votes, is declared elected

Short Answer Type Question:

Q1.Write true or false against each of these statements:

a) A Bill of Rights lays down the rights enjoyed by the people of a country.

b) A Bill of Rights protects the liberties of an individual.

c) Every country of the world has a Bill of Rights.

d) The Constitution guarantees remedy against violation of Rights.

ANSWER:

a) True

b) True

c) False

d) True

Q2.Which of the following is the best description of Fundamental Rights?

a) All the rights an individual should have.

b) All the rights given to citizens by law.

c) The rights given and protected by the Constitution.

d) The rights given by the Constitution that cannot ever be restricted.

ANSWER:

c) The rights given and protected by the Constitution.

Q3.Read the following situations. Which Fundamental Right is being used or violated in each case and how?

a) Overweight male cabin crew are allowed to get promotion in the national airlines but their women colleagues who gain weight are penalised.

b) A director makes a documentary film that criticises the policies of the government.

c) People displaced by a big dam take out a rally demanding rehabilitation.

B)dhra society runs Telugu medium schools outside Andhra Pradesh.

ANSWER:

a) The Right being violated is the Right to equality of opportunity in employment.

b) The Right being used is the Freedom of speech and expression.

c) The Right being used is the Freedom of expression and Freedom to assemble peacefully.

d) The Right being used is the Cultural right to represent and protect one’s own language and culture.

Q4.Which of the following is a correct interpretation of the Cultural and Educational Rights?

a) Only children belonging to the minority group that has opened educational institution can study there.

b) Government schools must ensure that children of the minority group will be introduced to their belief and culture.

c) Linguistic and religious minorities can open schools for their children and keep it reserved for them.

d) Linguistic and religious minorities can demand that their children must not study in any educational institution except those managed by their own community.

ANSWER:

b) Government schools must ensure that children of the minority group will be introduced to their belief and culture.

Q5.Which of the following is a violation of Fundamental Rights and why?

a) Not paying minimum wages

b) Banning of a book

c) Banning of loudspeakers after 9 pm.

d) Making a speech

ANSWER:

a) Not paying minimum wages is a violation of fundamental right as it is a form of exploitation.

b) Banning of a book is against freedom of expression of the citizens.

Q6.An activist working among the poor says that the poor don’t need Fundamental Rights. What they need are Directive Principles to be made legally binding. Do you agree with this? Give your reasons.

ANSWER:

Any answer supported with argument or explanation would solve the purpose. It is strongly recommended that you prepare the solution on your own. However, one sample solution has been provided for your reference:

• No, I do not agree with this statement. Fundamental Rights cannot be denied to any section of the society and this is applicable to the poorer sections as well. While implementation of directive principles is required for improving the condition of the poor, fundamental rights are universal as they ensure dignity to every citizen and form the basis for equality among people.
• Certain rights like right to constitutional remedy are important to secure protection for the poorest and weakest sections of the society from the arbitrary action of the state.
• Enforcement of directive principles is important for ensuring social, economic and political justice. However, freedom of expression is still required to raise voice against any form of discrimination or injustice.

Q7.Several reports show that caste groups previously associated with scavenging are forced to continue in this job. Those in positions of authority refuse to give them any other job. Their children are discouraged from pursuing education. Which of their Fundamental Rights are being violated in this instance?

ANSWER:

• Fundamental right against exploitation, such as prohibition of forced labour, is violated in this situation by forcing certain castes to continue in the same job that is associated with their caste.

• Right to practice any profession is violated as they are refused any other jobs by the authorities.
• Prohibition of employment of children in hazardous jobs is also violated in this instance.

Q8.A petition by a human rights group drew attention of the court to the condition of starvation and hunger in the country. Over five crore tonnes of food grains was stored in the godowns of the Food Corporation of India. Research shows that a large number of ration cardholders do not know about the quantity of food grains they can purchase from fair price shops. It requested the court to order the government to improve its public distribution system.

a. Which different rights does this case involve? How are these rights interlinked?

b. Should these rights form part of the right to life?

ANSWER:

a.

• The case involves the use of Right to speech and expression and constitutional remedy. These rights were used by the human rights group to inform the court about the prevailing condition of hunger and starvation, thus requesting the court to order the government to improve public distribution system.
• The right to life of people is also invoked to address hunger and starvation.
• These rights are interlinked as freedom of speech provides the basis for constitutional remedies.

b. Yes, these rights should form part of the right to life as they are necessary for the sustenance of people.

Q9.Read the statement by Somnath Lahiri in the Constitutent Assembly quoted in this chapter. Do you agree with him? If yes, give instances to prove it. If not, give arguments against his position.

ANSWER:

Any answer supported with argument or explanation would solve the purpose. It is strongly recommended that you prepare the solution on your own. However, one sample solution has been provided for your reference:

Yes. Somnath Lahiri said that minimum rights have been conceded and are almost invariably followed by a proviso and have been framed from the point of view of police constable. This is visible in certain provisions that are invoked to place restrictions on fundamental rights.

• The provision of preventive detention contradicts the right to life and personal liberty and has often been misused by the government.
• There are several rights under right to freedom that are restricted by the government in various ways. For example, the provision of restriction over assembly of five or more people in certain areas can be misused by the administration.

Q10.Which of the Fundamental Rights is in your opinion the most important right? Summarise its provisions and give arguments to show why it is most important.

ANSWER:

The right to constitutional remedies is the most important right. The provisions of this right include the right to move the courts for issuance of writs. The Supreme Court and High Courts can issue directives to the government for the implementation of rights. The special orders issued by courts for enforcement of rights are as follows:

• Habeas Corpus−The court can order the arrested person to be presented before it under the writ of Habeas Corpus. It can also order the release of a person arrested on unlawful grounds.
• Mandamus−This writ is issued by courts when a particular official does not perform the assigned legal duty and violates upon the rights of the individual.
• Prohibition−This writ is issued by a higher court when a case is beyond the jurisdiction of lower court.
• Quo Warranto−This writ is issued by the court when it finds an individual holding the office, which is not entitled to him.
• Certiorari−The court orders the transfer of a pending matter from a lower court or another authority to the higher court.

The Right to Constitutional Remedies provides a legal solution within the framework of the constitution, to the violation of fundamental rights and provides a check on state power. This is the most important right as it safeguards the other fundamental rights. It ensures the realisation of other rights as well as providing a defence for them. According to Dr. Ambedkar, this right is the ‘Heart and Soul of the Constitution’.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Q1.“The Right to Freedom is a cluster of several rights”. Explain.
Answer:
The Right to Freedom guarantees various freedoms to the citizens of India:

• Freedom of Speech and Expression:Every citizen of India enjoys the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression of his views/ideas freely either orally or in written form.
• Freedom to form Unions and Associations:Citizens of India enjoy the freedom to form unions or associations to safeguard the interests to secure justice and equal opportunities.
• Freedom to Assemble Peacefully: Citizens of India can assemble at a place peacefully without arms to interact with each other.
• Freedom to reside in any part of India: Indian citizen may reside in any part of India which may be limited only for the sake of public order.
• Freedom to move freely within the territory of India: Citizens of India are free to move freely within the territory of India subject to the restrictions imposed in the interest of  public order or to safeguard the interest of ST’s.
• Freedom to Practice any Profession or Occupation: Every citizen has the freedom to choose one’s profession as per choice as well as enjoy the right to change the profession  according to will and circumstances.

Q2.What are the provisions of the Right to Equality?
Answer:
‘Right to Equality’ refers that all citizens of India are equal before law, not to be discriminated on the grounds of caste, colour, religion, language, race, sex or place of birth, etc.
Right to Equality has been included under Articles 14 to 18 of Indian Constitution:

•  Article 14: Guarantees equality before law and equal protection of law to persons living within territory of India without any discrimination on the ground of caste, colour, race, religion, language, sex, etc.
• Article 15: Guarantees social equalities, i.e. no discrimination on any ground as well as equal access of each and every person to the public places and facilities. And state cannot be prevented from making any special provision for women and children.
• Article 16: Guarantees equal opportunities for all citizens in the matters of employment or appointment to any office under the state without any discrimination means employment and appointments should be on the basis of merit.
• Article 17: Abolishes untouchability and its practices in any of the form are also forbidden.
• Article 18: Abolishes titles except the degrees and titles concerned with military and education. Even foreigners who are serving in India are not entitled to receive any title from foreign government without the consent of the President of India.

Q3.Mention the Fundamental Duties of a Citizen in Constitution of India.
Answer:
By the 42nd Amendment in 1976, ten Fundamental Duties of Citizens of India were incorporated under Article 51A of the Constitution of India:

• To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, national flag, and national anthem.
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
• To uphold and protect sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
• To defend the country and render national services whenever required.
• To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India and to renounce those practices which seem to be indignified towards women.
• To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
• To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife as well as to have compassion towards all living creatures.
• To safeguard public property.
• To develop scientific temper and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
• To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual or collective activities to reach the nation to the higher levels of endeavours and achievements.

Q4.Throw some light on the relationship between the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer:
The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed to the individuals but the Directive Principles are the instructions to the State:

• The Fundamental Rights are justiciable means in case of their violation, it can be challenged either in the High Court or Supreme Court that, oars a duty to safeguard the rights.Whereas Directive Principles of State Policy are not justiciable, these are only to remind to central and state governments about their duties.
• Fundamental Rights are directly concerned with each and every individual whereas Directive Principles of State Policy are directly concerned with the State only, where a State is expected to implement and also to achieve the goal of Welfare State.
• Fundamental Rights may be suspended during the case of emergency by the President including the Right to Constitutional Remedies also whereas Directive Principles of State Policy cannot be suspended even during these circumstances.
• Fundamental Rights concern with the overall development of an individual whereas Directive Principles of State Policy concern with society as a whole which have been mentioned in Article 38 to create a society by the State where all enjoy social and economic justice.

Q5.What is the importance of the Right to Constitutional Remedies? Explain.
Answer:
‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’ is the ‘Heart and Soul’ of Indian Constitution to protect the rest of the Fundamental Rights of the Citizens under Article 32 and 226. This right contains various writs to be issued by the Supreme Court and High Court from time to time:
The Writ of Habeas Corpus:

• The Court orders that the arrested person should be presented before it.
• Court can order to set free an arrested person if the grounds of arrest are unlawful.

Mandamus:

• When the court finds that the particular office holder is not performing legal duty.
• Thereby, he is infringing on the right of an individual.

Prohibition:

• It is issued by a higher court to a lower court on considering a case to go beyond its jurisdiction.
• Higher court orders to stop the proceedings of certain case.

Quo Warranto:

• If the court finds that a person is holding office but is not entitled to hold that office.
• This restricts that person from acting as an office holder.

Certiorari:

• The Court orders a lower court or another authority to transfer a matter pending before it to the higher authority or court.

Short Answer Type Question:

Q1. Give two examples each to support the following conclusions about the Indian Constitution:
a. The Constitution was made by credible leaders who commanded peoples’ respect.
b. The Constitution has distributed power in such a way as to make it difficult to subvert it.
c. The Constitution is the locus of people’s hopes and aspirations.

Answer

a. The Constitution was made by credible leaders who commanded peoples’ respect.
• The members of Constituent Assembly have people from all sections and religions of society. Its members were chosen by indirect election by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies that had been established under the Government of India Act, 1935.
• The constituent assembly also have members such as Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Patel, Rajendra Prasad, Ambedkar etc. which were part of national movement and also credible leaders.

b. The Constitution has distributed power in such a way as to make it difficult to subvert it.
• The Indian Constitution horizontally fragments power across different institutions like the Legislature, Executive and the Judiciary and even independent statutory bodies like the Election Commission.
• It strike the right balance between certain values, norms and procedures as authoritative, and at the same time allow enough flexibility in its operations to adapt to changing needs and circumstances as too rigid a constitution is likely to break under the weight of change whereas too flexible, will give no security, predictability or identity to a people.

c. The Constitution is the locus of people’s hopes and aspirations.• The Indian Constitution drew upon a long history of the nationalist movement that had a remarkable ability to take along different sections of Indian society together.
• The many provisions ensures institutional expression to fundamental commitments equality, liberty, democracy, sovereignty and a cosmopolitan identity.

Q2. Why is it necessary for a country to have a clear demarcation of powers and responsibilities in the constitution? What would happen in the absence of such a demarcation?

Answer

It is necessary for a country to have a clear demarcation of powers and responsibilities in the constitution because it allows different institutions to work efficiently without any confusion without any interference or overlapping of power and responsibilities.
In the absence of such demarcation there is always chances of clash regarding exercising of power between the various institutions that derive their power from the constitution and ultimately subvert it.

Q3. Why is it necessary for a constitution to place limitations on the rulers? Can there be a constitution that gives no power at all to the citizens?

Answer

It is necessary for a constitution to place place limitations on the rulers because in the absence of this the government may pass a law which violates certain specified fundamental rights that all of us possess as citizens.
No, there cannot be a constitution that gives no power at all to the citizens because any authority cannot exist without citizens.

Q4. The Japanese Constitution was made when the US occupation army was still in control of Japan after its defeat in the Second World War. The Japanese constitution could not have had any provision that the US government did not like. Do you see any problem in this way of making the constitution? In which way was the Indian experience different from this?

Answer

Yes, Japanese constitution did not represent the view of its citizens. The constitutions is forcedly imposed on them so there is no any provision which represent the goals and aspirations of the Japanese people. The constitution was made by the will of external country it compromises on the sovereignty of the country.
The Indian experience is very different from this because the constitution reflects the ideologies that were influenced by nationalist movement.  It was framed by Constituent Assembly which have members elected indirectly by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. It represents the voice of nation and have sovereign character.

Q5.  Rajat asked his teacher this question: “The constitution is a fifty year old and therefore outdated book. No one took my consent for implementing it. It is written in such tough language that I cannot understand it. Tell me why should I obey this document?” If you were the teacher, how would you answer Rajat?

Answer

The Constitution is not an outdated book as it accepts the required changes to keeps updated with requirements of the changing times. The amendment in the provision of constitution made time to time but according to rigid law so that no one can alter it for their own interest.

The language of Indian constitution is elaborative. Its vast size and also inclusion of some legal languages stands it as tough. However, it is written in too detailed manner clearing all confusion that may come.

The Indian constitution is a body fundamental principles according to which India is governed. It provides democratic form of government in India. It grants fundamental rights and privileges to all its citizens. It lay down th basic ideals of secularism, equality and fraternity. It is very necessary for smooth functioning and working of various institutions and also maintains stability. Therefore, we should obey this document.

Q6. In a discussion on the experience of the working of our Constitution, three speakers took three different positions:
a. Harbans: The Indian Constitution has succeeded in giving us a framework of democratic government.
b. Neha: The Constitution made solemn promises of ensuring liberty, equality and fraternity. Since this has not happened, the Constitution has failed.
c. Nazima: The Constitution has not failed us. We have failed the Constitution.
Do you agree with any of these positions? If yes, why? If not, what is your own position?

Answer

Yes, I agree with Nazima’s view. The constitution has effective principles for proper governance of country. However, the people who are responsible for execution and implementation of the principles have failed to do so because of their own interest. It is all about welfare of citizens and giving equal oppurtunities to all but without thinking of welfare of the nation they using it for their profit. Therefore, the constitution has not failed us but we failed the constitution.

Long Answer Type Questions :

Q1.Write the Preamble to the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Preamble: We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN, SOCIALIST, SECULAR, DEMOCRATIC, REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens: justice, social, economic and political, liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.

Equality of status and of opportunity, and to promote among them all:
Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation. In our Constituent Assembly, this twenty-sixth day of November 1949, do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.

Q2.What was ‘Objectives Resolution’? Explain.
Answer:
The best summary of the principles that the nationalist movement brought to the Constituent Assembly is the Objectives Resolution that defines the aims of the Assembly, moved by Nehru in 1946. It encapsulated the aspirations and values behind the Constitution:

• India is an independent, sovereign, republic;
• India shall be a Union of erstwhile British Indian territories, Indian States and other parts outside British India and Indian States as are willing to be a part of the Union.
• Territories forming the Union shall be autonomous units and exercise all powers and functions of the Government and administration, except those assigned to or vested in the Union;
• All people of India shall be guaranteed and secured social, economic and political justice. Equality of status and opportunities and equality before law and fundamental- freedom of speech, expression, belief, faith, worship, association and action-subject to law and public morality.
• The minorities, backward and tribal areas, depressed and other backward classes shall be provided adequate safeguards.
• The land would make full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and welfare of mankind;
• All powers and authority of sovereign and independent India and its constitution shall flow from the people;
• The territorial integrity of the Republic and its sovereign rights on land, sea and air shall be maintained according to justice and law of civilized nations

Q3.What are the unique features of Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The unique features of Indian Constitution are as follows:

• Indian Constitution is written set of rules and regulations and it is the lengthiest Constitution in the world containing 395 articles, 12 schedules and a book of more than 250 pages.
• Indian Constitution has provided to Indian citizens fundamental rights and to establish a welfare state, directive principles of state policy have also been generated.
• By the 42nd Amendment in 1976, some (ten) fundamental duties have also been added up in the Constitution.
• Indian Constitution is federal in structure but unitary in spirit.
• The Indian Constitution is a blend of flexibility and rigidity, i.e. some of the Articles in Constitution can be amended by simple-majority but some require 2/3 majority of the parliament and voting in each house as well as to be ratified by at least half of the state legislatures.

Q4.Mention the sources of the Indian Constitution along with the feature taken from these sources.
Answer:
The Government of India Act, 1935:
About two-thirds of the Indian Constitution is derived from the Government of India Act, 1935

• Provincial autonomy
• Parliamentary system
• Federal count
• Federal system

British Constitution:

• Parliamentary form of government
• The idea of the rule of law
• Institution of the speaker and his role
• Law-making procedure
• Single citizenship
• Single integrated judiciary

United States Constitution:

• Charter of Fundamental Rights
• Power of judicial review and independence of the judiciary
• Preamble to Constitution

Irish Constitution:

• Provided for the guidelines to the state
• Included directive principles of state policy

French Constitution:

• Principles of liberty
• Principles of equality and fraternity

Canadian Constitution:

• A quasi-federal form of government (a federal system with a strong central government).
• The idea of residual powers.

German Constitution:

• Emergency provisions
• Indian President’s powers to impose external or internal emergencies.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-15 PLANT GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 BIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON PLANT GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT

Question 1:

Define growth, differentiation, development, dedifferentiation, redifferentiation, determinate growth, meristem and growth rate.

ANSWER:

(a) Growth

It is an irreversible and permanent process, accomplished by an increase in the size of an organ or organ parts or even of an individual cell.

(b) Differentiation

It is a process in which the cells derived from the apical meristem (root and shoot apex) and the cambium undergo structural changes in the cell wall and the protoplasm, becoming mature to perform specific functions.

(c) Development

It refers to the various changes occurring in an organism during its life cycle – from the germination of seeds to senescence.

(d) De-differentiation

It is the process in which permanent plant cells regain the power to divide under certain conditions.

(e) Re-differentiation

It is the process in which de-differentiated cells become mature again and lose their capacity to divide.

(f) Determinate growth

It refers to limited growth. For example, animals and plant leaves stop growing after having reached maturity.

(g) Meristem

In plants, growth is restricted to specialised regions where active cell divisions take place. Such a region is called meristem. There are three types of meristems – apical meristem, lateral meristem, and intercalary meristem.

(h) Growth rate

It can be defined as the increased growth in plants per unit time.

Question 2:

Why is not any one parameter good enough to demonstrate growth throughout the life of a flowering plant?

ANSWER:

In plants, growth is said to have taken place when the amount of protoplasm increases. Measuring the growth of protoplasm involves many parameters such as the weight of the fresh tissue sample, the weight of the dry tissue sample, the differences in length, area, volume, and cell number measured during the growth period. Measuring the growth of plants using only one parameter does not provide enough information and hence, is insufficient for demonstrating growth.

Question 3:

Describe briefly:

(a) Arithmetic growth

(b) Geometric growth

(c) Sigmoid growth curve

(d) Absolute and relative growth rates

ANSWER:

(a) Arithmetic growth

In arithmetic growth, one of the daughter cells continues to divide, while the other differentiates into maturity. The elongation of roots at a constant rate is an example of arithmetic growth.

(b) Geometric growth

Geometric growth is characterised by a slow growth in the initial stages and a rapid growth during the later stages. The daughter cells derived from mitosis retain the ability to divide, but slow down because of a limited nutrient supply.

(c) Sigmoid growth curve

The growth of living organisms in their natural environment is characterised by an S-shaped curve called sigmoid growth curve. This curve is divided into three phases – lag phase, log phase or exponential phase of rapid growth, and stationary phase.

Exponential growth can be expressed as:

Where,

W₁ = Final size

W₀ = Initial size

r = Growth rate

t= Time of growth

e = Base of natural logarithms

(d) Absolute and relative growth rates

Absolute growth rate refers to the measurement and comparison of total growth per unit time.

Relative growth rate refers to the growth of a particular system per unit time, expressed on a common basis.

Question 4:

List five main groups of natural plant growth regulators. Write a note on discovery, physiological functions and agricultural/horticultural applications of any one of them.

ANSWER:

Plant growth regulators are the chemical molecules secreted by plants affecting the physiological attributes of a plant. There are five main plant growth regulators. These are:

(i) Auxins

(ii) Gibberellic acid

(iii) Cytokinins

(iv) Ethylene

(v) Abscisic acid

(i) Auxins

Discovery:

The first observations regarding the effects of auxins were made by Charles Darwin and Francis Darwin wherein they saw the coleoptiles of canary gross bending toward a unilateral source of light.

It was concluded after a series of experiments that some substance produced at the tip of coleoptiles was responsible for the bending. Finally, this substance was extracted as auxins from the tips of coleoptiles in oat seedlings.

Physiological functions:

1. They control plant cell-growth.

2. They cause the phenomenon of apical dominance.

3. They control division in the vascular cambium and xylem differentiation.

4. They induce parthenocarpy and prevent abscission of leaves and fruits.

Horticultural applications:

1. They are used as the rooting hormones in stem cuttings.

2. 2-4 D is used weedicide to kill broadleaf, dicotyledonous weeds.

3. They induce parthenocarpy in tomatoes.

4. They promote flowering in pineapple and litchi.

(ii) Gibberellic acid

Discovery:

Bakane or the “foolish rice seedling” disease was first observed by Japanese farmers. In this disease, rice seedlings appear to grow taller than natural plants, and become slender and pale green. Later, after several experiments, it was found that this condition was caused by the infection from a certain fungus Gibberella fujikuroi. The active substance was isolated and identified as gibberellic acid.

Physiological functions:

1. It causes elongation of internodes.

2. It promotes bolting in rosette plants.

3. It helps in inducing seed germination by breaking seed dormancy and initiating the synthesis of hydrolases enzymes for digesting reserve food.

Horticultural applications:

1. It helps in increasing the sugar content in sugarcane by increasing the length of the internodes.

2. It increases the length of grape stalks.

3. It improves the shape of apple.

4. It delays senescence.

5. It hastens maturity and induces seed-production in juvenile conifers.

(iii) Cytokinins

Discovery:

Through their experimental observations, F. Skoog and his co-workers found that the tobacco callus differentiated when extracts of vascular tissues, yeast extract, coconut milk, or DNA were added to the culture medium. This led to the discovery of cytokinins.

Physiological functions:

1. They promote the growth of lateral branches by inhibiting apical dominance.

2. They help in the production of new leaves, chloroplasts, and adventitious shoots.

3. They help in delaying senescence by promoting nutrient mobilisation.

Horticultural applications:

1. They are used for preventing apical dominance.

2. They are used for delaying senescence in leaves.

(iv) Ethylene

Discovery:

It was observed that unripe bananas ripened faster when stored with ripe bananas. Later, the substance promoting the ripening was found to be ethylene.

Physiological functions:

1. It helps in breaking seed and bud dormancy.

2. It promotes rapid internode-elongation in deep-water rice plants.

3. It promotes root-growth and formation of root hairs.

4. It promotes senescence and abscission of leaves and flowers.

5. It hastens the respiration rate in fruits and enhances fruit ripening.

Horticultural applications:

1. It is used to initiate flowering and synchronising the fruit set in pineapples.

2. It induces flowering in mango.

3. Ethephon is used to ripen the fruits in tomatoes and apples, and accelerate the abscission of flowers and leaves in cotton, cherry, and walnut.

4. It promotes the number of female flowers in cucumbers.

(v) Abscisic acid

Discovery:

During the mid 1960s, inhibitor-B, abscission II, and dormin were discovered by three independent researchers. These were later on found to be chemically similar and were thereafter called ABA (Abscisic acid).

Physiological functions:

1. It acts as an inhibitor to plant metabolism.

2. It stimulates stomatal closure during water stress.

3. It induces seed dormancy.

4. It induces abscission of leaves, fruits, and flowers.

Horticultural application:

It induces seed dormancy in stored seeds.

Question 5:

What do you understand by photoperiodism and vernalisation? Describe their significance.

ANSWER:

Photoperiodism refers to the response of plants with respect to the duration of light (i.e., period of day and night). On the basis of its response to the duration of light, a plant is classified as a short-day plant, a long-day plant, or a day-neutral plant. Short-day plants flower when they are exposed to light for a period less than the critical day-length (for example: Chrysanthemum). Long-day plants flower when they are exposed to light for a period more than the critical day-length (for example: radish). When no marked correlation is observed between the duration of exposure to light and the flowering response, plants are termed as day-neutral plants (for example: tomato).

It is hypothesised that the hormonal substance responsible for flowering is formed in the leaves, subsequently migrating to the shoot apices and modifying them into flowering apices. Photoperiodism helps in studying the response of flowering in various crop plants with respect to the duration of exposure to light.

Vernalisation is the cold-induced flowering in plants. In some plants (such as the winter varieties of wheat and rye and biennials such as carrot and cabbage), exposure to low temperature is necessary for flowering to be induced. The winter varieties of rye and wheat are planted in autumn. They remain in the seedling stage during winters and flower during summers. However, when these varieties are sown in spring, they fail to flower. Similar response is seen in cabbage and radish.

Question 6:

Why is Abscisic acid also known as stress hormone?

ANSWER:

Abscisic acid is called stress hormones as it induces various responses in plants against stress conditions.

It increases the tolerance of plants toward various stresses. It induces the closure of the stomata during water stress. It promotes seed dormancy and ensures seed germination during favourable conditions. It helps seeds withstand desiccation. It also helps in inducing dormancy in plants at the end of the growing season and promotes abscission of leaves, fruits, and flowers.

Question 7:

‘Both growth and differentiation in higher plants are open’. Comment.

ANSWER:

Growth and development in higher plants is referred to as being open. This is because various meristems, having the capacity for continuously dividing and producing new cells, are present at different locations in these plant bodies.

Page No 254:

‘Both a short day plant and a long day plant can flower simultaneously in a given place’. Explain.

ANSWER:

The flowering response in short-day plants and long-day plants is dependent on the durations for which these plants are exposed to light. The short-day plant and long-day plant can flower at the same place, provided they have been given an adequate photoperiod.

Question 9:

Which one of the plant growth regulators would you use if you are asked to:

(a) Induce rooting in a twig

(b) Quickly ripen a fruit

(c) Delay leaf senescence

(d) Induce growth in axillary buds

(e) ‘Bolt’ a rosette plant

(f) Induce immediate stomatal closure in leaves.

ANSWER:

(a) Induce rooting in a twig – Auxins

(b) Quickly ripen a fruit – Ethylene

(c) Delay leaf senescence – Cytokinins

(d) Induce growth in axillary buds – Cytokinins

(e) ‘Bolt’ a rosette plant – Gibberellic acid

(f) Induce immediate stomatal closure in leaves – Abscisic acid

Question 10:

Would a defoliated plant respond to photoperiodic cycle? Why?

ANSWER:

A defoliated plant will not respond to the photoperiodic cycle.

It is hypothesised that the hormonal substance responsible for flowering is formed in the leaves, subsequently migrating to the shoot apices and modifying them into flowering apices. Therefore, in the absence of leaves, light perception would not occur, i.e., the plant would not respond to light.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-14 RESPIRATION IN PLANTS NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 BIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON RESPIRATION IN PLANTS

Question 1.
Why does anaerobic respiration produce less energy than aerobic respiration?

Answer:
Because it does not involve the use of molecular oxygen. Food is not completely oxidized to CO₂ and waste. So a lot of energy is still retained with the food. Less energy is produced on anaerobic respiration. It yields only about 5% of the energy available in glucose. Then it is a wasteful process or respiration. In anaerobic respiration, yeast metabolizes glucose to ethanol and CO₂ without any use of molecular oxygen.

Question 2.
Explain the effects of temperature on the rate of respiration.

Answer:
Respiration is reduced at very high (above 50°c) and very low (near freezing temp.) temperatures. This is because enzymes can work best between 30°c – 40°c and get inactivated at very high and very’ low tempera¬tures.

Question 3.
How does the exchange of respiratory gases occur in plants?

Answer:
The gaseous exchange takes place through

1. General body surface
2. Lenticels.
3. Stomata present in leaves and young stems. Oxygen becomes transported from cell to cell by diffusion.

Question 17.
Explain RQ significance.
Answer:
RQ value for carbohydrates is 1. It is less than one if proteins are being burnt and more than one if fats are being burnt. So RQ values are important in identifying the kind of substrate used in respiration.

Question 4.
Describe in detail the aerobic oxidation of pyruvic acid.

Answer:
Pyruvic acid generated in the crystal is transported to mitochondria and initiates the second phase of respiration. Before pyruvic acid enters the Kreb’s cycle, one of its three carbon atoms is oxidized to carbon dioxide in the reaction called oxidative decarboxylation.

Pyruvate is first decarboxylated and then oxidized by the enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase. The combination of the remaining two-carbon acetate unit is readily accepted by a sulfur-containing compound coenzyme A to form acetyl COA. During the process, NAD is reduced to NADH. This process is represented as.

During this process, two molecules of NADH are produced, and thus, it results in a net gain of 6ATP molecules.

(2 NADH + 3 = 6 ATP). 2 molecules of pyruvic acid produced during glycolysis,

Question 5.
Describe the net gain of ATP during respiration.

Answer:
There is a gain of 36 ATP molecules during aerobic respiration of one molecule of glucose. The detail is given in the table.

In most eukaryotic cells, 2 molecules of ATP are required for transporting the NADH produced in glycolysis into mitochondrial for further oxidation. Hence, the net gain of ATP is 36 molecules.

Table ATP molecules produced during respiration.

Question 6.
Define the following:

(a) Respiration
Answer:
Respiration: It is defined as the phenomenon of the release of energy by oxidation of various organic molecules, for cellular use is known as respiration.

(b) Respiratory substrate
Answer:
Respiratory substrate: The compounds that are oxidized during the process of respiration are called respiratory substrates.

(c) Respiratory quotient
Answer:
Respiratory quotient: During respiration oxygen is used and CO₂ is released. The ratio of the volume of CO₂ evolved to the volume of O₂ consumed in respiration is called respiratory quotient (RQ).

(d) Anaerobic respiration
Answer:
Anaerobic respiration: The type of respiration, in which the carbohydrate is incompletely oxidized into some carbonic compounds in absence of oxygen, is called Anaerobic respiration.

(e) Aerobic respiration
Answer:
Aerobic respiration: It is that process of respiration which leads to complete oxidation of organic compound in the presence of oxygen.

This type of respiration is common in higher organisms.

(f) Fermentation.
Answer:
Fermentation: In anaerobic respiration yeasts metabolize glucose to ethanol and CO₂ without any use of molecular oxygen. This process is called fermentation in yeasts.

Question 7.
Describe the pentose phosphate pathway.

Answer:
Sometimes oxidation of glucose takes place by another pathway, which is called the pentose phosphate pathway (PPP). In the pentose pathway, glucose-6 phosphate (6C) produced during the early stages of glycolysis or the photosynthates produced during photosynthesis are oxidized to give rise to 6-phosphogluconate. This reaction takes place in the enzyme glucose 6phosphale dehydrogenase and generates NAD PH.

The 6-phosphoglucose molecules are further oxidized by the enzyme 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase. As a result of this, one molecule of each ribose-5 phosphate, carbon dioxide, and NADPH is produced, which in turn undergoes many changes to produce glycolytic intermediate. These reactions take place in the cytoplasm.
(From glycolysis)

Question 8.
Calculate the efficiency of respiration in the living system.

Answer:
During aerobic respiration, O₂ is consumed and CO₂ is released. The ratio of the volume of CO₂ evolved to the volume of O₂ consumed in respiration is called respiratory quotient (RQ) or respiratory ratio.

The RQ (respiratory quotient) depends upon the respiratory substrate. When a carbohydrate is used as a substrate.

C₆H₁₂O₆ – 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO + Energy (247 K.J) on complete oxidation. RQ will be

The total energy yield from 38 ATP molecules comes to 1298 kJ. The energy released by one molecule of glucose on complete oxidation is 2870 kJ. Thus, the efficiency is 45%. Much of the energy generated during respiration is released in the form of heat.

Question 9.
Illustrate the mechanism of the electron transport system.

Answer:
The glucose molecule is completely oxidized by the end of the citric acid cycle. But the energy is not released unless NADH and FADH are oxidized through the electron transport system. Here oxidation means the removal of electrons from it.

The metabolic pathway through which the electron passes from one carrier to another is called the electron transport system (ETS) and it is operative in the inner mitochondrial membrane. Electrons from NADH produced in the mitochondrial matrix are oxidized by an NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I) and electrons are then transferred to ubiquinone.

The ubiquinone located within the inner membrane also receives reducing equivalents via FADH, which is generated during the oxidation of succinate, through the activity of the enzyme, succinate dehydrogenase (complex II). The reduced ubiquinone is then oxidized with the transfer of electrons to the cytochrome complex (Complex III).

Cytochrome is a small protein attached to the outer surface of the inner membrane and acts as a mobile carrier for the transfer of electrons between complex III and complex IV.

(Complex IV) is cytochrome.

When the electrons pass from one carrier to another via complex 1 to IV in the electron transfer chain, they are coupled to ATP synthase (Complex V) for the production of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate. Oxidation of one molecule of NADH gives rise to 3 molecules of ATP, while that of one molecule of FADH, produces 2 molecules of ATP.

The electrons are earned by the cytochromes and recombine with their protons before the final stage when the hydrogen atom is accepted by oxygen to form water. Oxygen acts as the final hydrogen acceptor. The whole process by which oxygen allows the production of ATP by phosphorylation of ADP is called oxidative phosphorylation.

Note: There are two routes by which hydrogen from the substrate molecule passes. In route 1.3 ATP molecules are formed for every pair of hydrogen atoms. In route 2, only 2ATP molecules are formed from one pair of hydrogen atoms.

Oxygen acts as the final hydrogen acceptor and forms water.
NAD = nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide.
MN = flavin mononucleotide,
FAD = flavin adenine dinucleotide.

ETC produces 32 ATP molecules per glucose molecule and is the major source of cell energy.

Electron Transport Chain.

Question 10.
Describe the process and role of the citric acid cycle in living organisms.

Answer:
In the process of respiration, the carbohydrates are converted into pyruvic acid through a series of enzymatic reactions. These reactions are known as glycolysis and take place in the cytosol. The pyruvic acid thus formed enters in mitochondria where O₂ and necessary enzymes are available; the pyruvic acid is finally converted into CO₂ and H₂O. This reaction series is known as Krebs Cycle or Citric acid cycle or Tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle.

During this cycle, 3 molecules of NAD and one molecule of FAD (Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide) are reduced to produce NADH and FADH respectively. NADH and FADH, so produced during the citric acid cycle are linked with the electron transport system and produce ATP by oxidative phosphorylation, The summary equation for this phase of respiration may therefore be written as follows:


Kreb’s cycle. It follows glycolytic reactions shown in and pyruvate oxidation.

It involves two processes

1. removal of hydrogen and
2. the breaking off of carbon dioxide units one by one.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-13 PHOTOSYNTHESIS IN HIGHER PLANTS NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 BIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON PHOTOSYNTHESIS IN HIGHER PLANTS

Question 1.
Give four important differences between photosynthesis and respiration.

Answer:

Photosynthesis	Respiration
1. Occurs only in green cells.	1. Occurs in all Living cells.
2. Occurs in chloroplasts in the cell.	2. Occurs in mitochondria.
3. Needs light to occur.	3. Does not need light.
4. Uses CO2 and water.	4. Uses glucose and oxygen releases CO2 and water.
5. It ïs a constructive process.	5. It is a destructive process.

Question 2.
Explain the principle of limiting factor with a suitable graph.

Answer:
Law of limiting factor: When a chemical reaction is conditioned as to its rapidity by a number of separate factors then the rate of reaction is as rapid as the slowest factor permits.

As is clear that as the light intensity is increased the rate of photosynthesis increases proportionately until some other factor like CO, becomes limiting. Ultimately the plant becomes light-saturated indicating that light is no more the limiting factor. If now the cone, of CO, is increased the rate of photosynthesis increases until the light becomes a limiting factor.

Question 3.
(i) What does chlorophyll do to the light falling on it?

Answer:
Chlorophyll molecule becomes excited as soon as light falls on it. It was given out an electron acceptor which returns to release gradually energy in the form of ATP.

(ii) Which pigment system absorbs the red wavelength of light?

Answer:
Photosystem I.

Question 4.
Name the two main sets of reactions in photosynthesis in which light energy is required write down the reaction.

Answer:
(i) Photolysis for breaking down of water molecule.
energy

(ii) Photophosphorylation for the conversion of light energy into chemical energy.
ADP + iP → ATP

Question 5.
What is photorespiration? Describe the process in detail and link it with the Calvin cycle.

Answer:
Enzyme Rubisco catalyzes the carboxylation reaction where CO₂ combines with RuBP. This enzyme catalyzes the combination of O₂ with RuBP called oxygenation. Respiration that is initiated in chloroplasts and occurs in light only is called photorespiration.

The oxygenation of RuBP in presence of O₂ is the first of photorespiration, which leads to the formation of one molecule of phosphoglycolate, a two-carbon compound, and one molecule of PGA. While PGA is used up in the Calvin cycle, the phosphoglycolate is dephosphorylated to form glycolate in the chloroplast and in turn diffused to peroxide, where it is oxidized to glyoxylate.

In the peroxide, the glyoxylate is used to form amino acid and glycine-calycine enters mitochondria where two glycine molecules (4 carbon) give rise to one molecule of serine (3 carbon) and one CO₂ (one carbon). The serine is taken up by peroxisome and converted into glycerate. The glycerate enters the chloroplast where it is phosphorylated to form PGA. PGA molecules enter the Calvin cycle to make carbohydrates releasing one molecule of CO₂ In mitochondria photorespiration is also called the photosynthetic carbon oxidation cycle.

Increased O₂ level increases photorespiration whereas increased CO₂ level increases photorespiration ( and increases C₂ photosynthesis).

In C₃ plants photosynthesis occurs only in one cell type i.e. mesophyll cells. Both light reactions and carbon reactions occur in mesophyll cells in C₃ plants. In C₄ plant photosynthesis requires the presence of two types of photosynthesis cells that is mesophyll cells and bundle sheath cells. The C₄ plants contain dimorphic chloroplasts, which means chloroplasts in mesophyll cells are granular. Therefore C₂ pathway does not operate in the C₄ pathway.

All the important changes can be summarised as

Question 6.
Describe carbon reactions of the C₃ pathway. Does this pathway operate also in C₄ plants?

Answer:
The reactions catalyzing the assimilation of CO₂ to carbohydrates take place in the stroma where all the necessary enzymes are localized. These reactions are referred to as ‘carbon reactions’ (also called dark reactions) leading to the photosynthetic reduction of carbon to carbohydrates.

In the first phase of carbon reaction, C02 enters the leaf through the stroma. This CO₂ is accepted by a 5-carbon molecule, ribulose-1-5 bisphosphate (RuBP) already present in the leaf. It forms two molecules of 3-carbon, compound, 3- phosphoglycerate (PGA). This 3-carbon molecule is the first stable product of this pathway and hence it is called C, PATHWAY.

The formation of (PGA) with CO₂ combining with RuBP is called carboxylation. This reaction is catalyzed by an enzyme called ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase (Rubisco). This enzyme also possesses oxygenase activity and hence abbreviated as Rubisco. This activity allows O, to compete with C02 for combining with RuBP.

After the carboxylation reduction of PGA occurs and ATP and NADPH, formed during photochemical reactions with the reduction of PGA, glyceraldehyde-3 phosphate-a carbohydrate is formed. These 3-carbon molecules, also called triose phosphates act as precursors for the synthesis of sucrose and starch. To complete the cycle, and to continue it, regeneration of the 5-carbon acceptor molecule, that is RuBP takes place.

The C₃ type of carbon reaction occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast. This pathway is called the Calvin cycle.

The CO₂concentrating mechanism is called the C₄  pathway. Operation of the C₄ pathway requires the cooperation of both cell-type mesophyll and bundle sheath cells. The objective of the C. pathway is to build up a high concentration of CO₂ which suppresses photorespiration. This C. pathway is more efficient than the C₃ pathway. Hence C? pathway does not operate C₄ plants. (See the table)

Schematic representation of C₃ pathway Calvin cycle.

Question 7.
Describe briefly the experiment conducted by the scientist, T.W. Englemann.

Answer:
T.W. Englemann plotted the action spectrum of photosynthesis.

Photosynthesis can occur in visible light of wavelength varying between 390 to 763 nm. The rate of photosynthesis is not uniform in light of all wavelengths.

It varies depending upon their relative absorption by chlorophyll pigments. The graph showing the relative yield or rate of photosynthesis in plants exposed to monochromic light of different wavelengths is termed as ACTION SPECTRUM. The rate of photosynthesis, as shown in the action spectrum is maximum in the blue region of light.

Curves showing a comparison of absorption and action spectra of chlorophyll pigments during photosynthesis

Question 8.
What is a photosystem? Which is the pigment that acts as a reaction center? Describe the interaction of photosystem 1 and photosystem II.

Answer:
The light is entrapped by a group of chlorophyll molecules which together constitute a photosystem. Each pigment system has a trap or reaction center, which is either P₇₀₀ or P₆₈₀ ao. In this ‘P’ stands for pigment and figures 680 and 700 for the wavelength of light. Chlorophyll molecule acts as a trap center with the transfer of high energy electron to electron transport system (ETS).

The high-energy electrons return rapidly to their normal low energy orbitals in the absence of light and the excited chlorophyll molecule reverts to its original stable condition. These two photosystems: photosystem-I and photosystem-11 exist with different forms of chlorophyll ‘a’ as the reaction center. The PS-II is located in the appressed regions of grana thylakoids and the PS-I in the stroma thylakoids and non-appressed regions of grana.

The function of two photosystems that interact with each other is to trap light energy and convert it to chemical energy (ATP). This chemical energy stored in the form of ATP is used by living cells.

Distribution of pigment in photosystem I and Photosystem II.

Question 9.
What led to the evolution of the C₄ pathway of photosynthesis? Describe in detail.

Answer:
Kortschak (1965) observed that in sugarcane, the compound in which CO, got incorporated was oxaloacetic acid or oxaloacetate (OAA), a 4-carbon compound instead of phosphoglyceric acid, a 3-carbon com¬pound.

Hatch and Slack (1965-1967) found it a regular mode of CO₂ fIxation in a number of monocots such as sugar cane, maize, sorghum, and Pennisetum. They found that the initial acceptor of CO₂ in such plants is Phosphoenalpymvic acid instead of RuBP and the first stable compound is oxaloacetate acid, a 4-carbon compound. These plants are termed C₄ plants as the first stable compound is a 4-carbon compound and other plants are termed C₃ plants.

Hatch and Slack observed that these plants have another pathway of CO₂ a fixation that precedes the Calvin cycle occurring in C₃ plants. This cycle is known as the C₄ pathway.

Question 10.
Describe in detail how ATP and NADPH2 are formed during photochemical reactions?

Answer:
Photosynthesis at present is thus considered basically an oxidation-reduction process during which water is oxidized to release oxygen and CO₂ is reduced to carbohydrates. Photosynthesis involves two steps- the first step is light-dependent called Light reaction or Hill reaction or photochemical phase. The second step is the Dark reaction or Blankman’s reaction or the Biosynthetic phase, which does require light.

Light Reaction or Hill Reaction: During this process, solar energy is converted into chemical energy, light is trapped by chlorophyll and carotenoid pigments and is converted into chemical energy which is stored in the form of ATP energy-rich molecule.

Photolysis of water occurs that leads to the evolution of oxygen and formation of H⁺ ions, the latter combining with NADP to form NADPH₂ often termed as reducing power. ATP and NADPH together termed assimilatory power as CO₂ fixation during the dark reaction.

Photolysis of water takes place in presence of light and water oxidizing enzyme as follow:

The unstable OH” combines to form water and molecular oxygen after losing the electrons which are accepted by oxidized chlorophyll molecule. (P₆₈₀ of PS₁₁) through an unknown electron acceptor compound “Z”. This step requires the presence of Mn⁺⁺ and Cl’ ions.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-11 TRANSPORT IN PLANTS NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 BIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON TRANSPORT IN PLANTS

Question 1.
What are the advantages of transpiration?

Answer:

1. Ascent of sap: Transpiration pull created in leaves is responsible for ascent of sap.
2. Absorption of water: Transpiration pull is also responsible for passive absorption of water.
3. The distribution of minerals in different parts of the plant is done by transpiration.
4. Cooling effect: Transpiration lowers the temperature of the leaf and causes a cooling effect.
5. The increased rate of transpiration favours the development of tissue, which provides strength to the plant.
6. Excessive transpiration induces hardness which imparts resistance of plants to drought.

Question 2.
What is the diffusion pressure? What are the factors which affect the rate of diffusion?

Answer:
The pressure exerted by the particles due to their tendency to diffuse from the region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration.

Various factors affect the rate of diffusion:

• Diffusion pressure gradient
• Temperature
• The density of diffusing substance
• The density of the medium.

Question 3.
Define water holding capacity or field capacity of the soil.

Answer:
After heavy rainfall or irrigation, the amount of water actually retained by soil even against the force of gravity is termed as water holding capacity or field capacity of the soil. It is expressed in terms of the percentage of water present per unit dry weight of soil.

Question 4.
Describe osmosis as a special case of diffusion.

Answer:
Uptake and distribution of water, solutes, and gases occur in a plant as a result of diffusion. The diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane is known as osmosis. The diffusion of water molecules continues across the membrane until an equilibrium is attained. Osmosis can be demonstrated by a simple experiment as follows

A thistle funnel is taken and tied with a semipermeable membrane (parchment paper) to the wide mouth of the thistle funnel and made tight.

The thistle funnel is filled with concentrated sugar solution and its wide mouth is dipped into water contained in a beaker. The membrane allows water molecules to pass through and not the sugar molecules. The level of sugar solution will rise in the funnel from ‘A’ to ‘B’. This demonstrates osmosis.

A demonstration of osmosis. A thistle funnel is filled with sucrose solution and kept inverted in a beaker containing water,
(a) Water will diffuse across the membrane (as shown by arrows) to raise the level of the solution in the funnel
(b) Pressure can be applied as shown to stop the water movement into the funnel.

Question 5.
What is the factor which affects the rate of transpiration?

Answer:
There are two factors.
A. External (Environmental) factors.
B. Internal (Living factors).

A. External factors:

1. Light: Causes stomatal opening
2. Temperature: High temperature decreases relative humidity increasing transpiration.
3. Humidity: It directly affects the rate of transpiration that is related to the vapour pressure of the atmosphere.
4. Wind: High velocity of wind causes closure of stomata.
5. Soil moisture: The rate of transpiration is directly proportional to the quantity of available moisture in the soil.

B. Internal factor:

1. Root Shoot Ratio: Roots absorbs water, should transpire water, hence their ratio affects transpiration.
2. Leaf area: Smaller plants tend to transpire more rapidly per unit area than larger plants.
3. Leaf Anatomy: Modification of leaves affects transpiration.

Question 6.
Describe the role of osmotic potential in regulating the water potential of plant cells.

Answer:
Osmotic potential is the amount by which the water potential of pure water is reduced by the presence of the solute. The osmotic potential has a negative value.

If we apply additional pressure, the water can be flown out of the solution.

Osmosis is driven by two factors:

1. The concentration of dissolved solutes in solution,
2. Pressure difference.

Water potential is the driving force for water movement in plants. Water potential represents the free energy associated with water. Osmotic potential regulates the flow of water molecules through the membrane.

Question 7.
Describe the theories related to the translocation of water.

Answer:
There are three most important theories related to the translocation of water.

1. Root pressure theory
2. Capillarity
3. Cohesion theory.

1. Root pressure theory: Water flows from higher water potential to low water potential. Water from the soil is absorbed by root hairs and conducted through xylem vessels. Mineral ions from the soil are taken up by roots and get deposited in the xylem vessels.

When the stem of a plant is cut transversely above the soil surface, a drop of the xylem sap will exude from the cut surface. This indicates the presence of positive pressure in the xylem. This pressure is known as Root Pressure.

2. Capillarity: Capillarity means a rise in water in tubes of small diameter kept in a water vessel. The uptake of water through xylem vessel is possible in small size plants through capillarity. This is due to the forces of adhesion and cohesion.

Adhesive forces attract molecules of different kinds whereas cohesive forces attract molecules of the same kind to each other. According to this theory, water is taken due to the force of adhesion and flows upward due to the force of cohesion.

3. Cohesion: This is the most important theory of water movement through plants. It is based on the force of cohesion between water molecules. This sets up a continuous water column from the top to the root tip of the plant. According to this theory water evaporates from the leaf to the atmosphere, results in a decrease in the water potential of epidermal cells.

This loss of water is balanced by water moving from adjacent cells along a water potential gradient. The movement of the water occurs from the soil to the root. Uptake of water is termed as cohesion theory and also known as transpirational pull.

Question 8.
Is there a general mechanism to explain the opening and closing of stomata? Justify your answer.

Answer:
There is no general mechanism to explain the opening and closing of stomata. Because opening and closing of stomata are regulated by the accumulation of solute in the guard cells. Solutes are taken in the guard cells, as a result, osmotic potential and water potential of guard cells are lowered, the guard cells become turgid and swell size, resulting in the stomatal opening. With a decline in guard cell solutes, water moves out, resulting in the stomatal opening.

There are two theories to explain the mechanism of opening and closing of stomata.

1. Classical starch sugar conversion theory: According to this theory, the change in osmotic concentration is brought about due to the conversion of starch into glucose and vice-versa.
2. K+ Influx and Efflux theory: According to this theory when the leaf is exposed to light, the pH of the guard ceils rises due to the active transfer of H+ ions from the cytoplasm into chloroplast’s utilization of CO. in photosynthesis. In the majority of plants, stomata remain open during the day and close at night.

Hence, there is no general mechanism to explain the stomatal opening and closing.

Question 9.
Mention some factors that influence stomatal opening and closing. How are these factors involved in regulating stomatal behaviour?

Answer:
Factors affecting stomatal movements:

1. Light: In most of the plant’s stomata open during the day. The effect of light causes the opening of stomata or it may be either due to the hydrolysis of starch into glucose.
2. The water content of leaves: A decrease of water content in stomatal cells results in an increase in their D.P.D. Water from guard cells moves into these cells and stomata close.
3. CO₂ concentration: Low CO₂ concentration in guard cells causes the opening of stomata.
4. pH: High pH stimulates the opening of stomata and low pH causes closure of stomata and high concentration of CO₂ causes closure of stomata.
5. Temperature: High temperature stimulates the opening of the stomata.
6. Atmospheric Humidity: Humid environment favours opening and dryness causes closure of stomata.
7. Minerals: Minerals like P, Mg, Ca etc. affect the stomatal opening. A high concentration of K+ ions causes the opening of stomata.
8. Growth Hormones: Cytokinins stimulates the opening of stomata. Abscisic acid induces the closure of stomata.

Question 10.
Write short notes on:
(i) Cohesion-Tension and Transpiration pull theory.

Answer:
Transpiration pull theory: Ascent of sap has been explained satisfactorily by Dixon with the help of a theory called Transpiration pull theory. According to this theory water continuously evaporates from the turgid and moist cell walls of mesophyll cells in the leaves.

It makes the mesophyll air saturated. The air outside the leaf is dry. So a gradient is set up which allows the water vapours to go out from the interior of the leaf to the outside through the stomata. The mesophyll cells draw water from the deeper tissue, which in turn take water from the xylem of the leaf. It creates a kind of pull in the leaf called transpiration pull.

The xylem of the leaf is connected to the xylem of the stem and further to the xylem of the roots. Since there is a continuous column of water in the plant, water is virtually lifted up due to transpiration pull a situation similar to one like drawing a bucket of water from a well. The column of water does not break because of the great force of cohesion among the water molecules. This theory is also called the cohesion of water molecules theory.

(ii) Mass flow hypothesis.
Answer:
Mass flow hypothesis: The carbohydrates prepared in the leaves are translocated to other parts of the plant in the form of sucrose through phloem at the expense of metabolic energy. Munch’s mass flow hypothesis is the most accepted theory for the translocation of organic food.

According to this hypothesis, organic substances move from the region of high osmotic pressure to the region of low osmotic pressure due to the development of a gradient of turgor pressure. This can be proved by taking two interconnected osmometers. One of the osmometers has a high solute cone than the other. The whole apparatus is placed in water.

Water enters the osmometer with a high solute cone. It creates high turgor pressure in it. High turgor pressure forces the solution to move through the tube to the other osmometer. It is called mass flow. If somehow, the solute is continuously added to the donor osmometer and converted into the osmotically inactive compound in the other osmometer, this system can work indefinitely.

Munch’s mass flow apparatus.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-12 MINERAL NUTRITION NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 BIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON MINERAL NUTRITION

Question 1:

‘All elements that are present in a plant need not be essential to its survival’. Comment.

ANSWER:

Plants tend to absorb different kinds of nutrients from soil. However, a nutrient is inessential for a plant if it is not involved in the plant’s physiology and metabolism. For example, plants growing near radioactive sites tend to accumulate radioactive metals. Similarly, gold and selenium get accumulated in plants growing near mining sites. However, this does not mean that radioactive metals, gold, or selenium are essential nutrients for the survival of these plants.

Question 2:

Why is purification of water and nutrient salts so important in studies involving mineral nutrition using hydroponics?

ANSWER:

Hydroponics is the art of growing plants in a nutrient solution in the absence of soil. Since the plant roots are exposed to a limited amount of the solution, there are chances that the concentrations of oxygen and other minerals in the plant roots would reduce. Therefore, in studies involving mineral nutrition using hydroponics, purification of water and nutrient salts is essential so as to maintain an optimum growth of the plants.

Question 3:

Explain with examples: macronutrients, micronutrients, beneficial nutrients, toxic elements and essential elements.

ANSWER:

Macronutrients: They are the nutrients required by plants in large amounts. They are present in plant tissues in amounts more than 10 mmole kg^–1 of dry matter. Examples include hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen.

Micronutrients: They are also called trace elements and are present in plant bodies in very small amounts, i.e., amounts less than 10 mmole kg^{– 1} of dry matter. Examples include cobalt, manganese, zinc, etc.

Beneficial nutrients: They are plant nutrients that may not be essential, but are beneficial to plants. Sodium, silicon, cobalt and selenium are beneficial to higher plants.

Toxic elements: Micronutrients are required by plants in small quantities. An excess of these nutrients may induce toxicity in plants. For example, when manganese is present in large amounts, it induces deficiencies of iron, magnesium, and calcium by interfering with their metabolism.

Essential elements: These elements are absolutely necessary for plant growth and reproduction. The requirement of these elements is specific and non-replaceable. They are further classified as macro and micro-nutrients.

Question 4:

Name at least five different deficiency symptoms in plants. Describe them and correlate them with the concerned mineral deficiency.

ANSWER:

The five main deficiency symptoms arising in plants are:

• Chlorosis

• Necrosis
• Inhibition of cell division
• Delayed flowering
• Stunted plant growth

Chlorosis or loss of chlorophyll leads to the yellowing of leaves. It is caused by the deficiencies of nitrogen, potassium, magnesium, sulphur, iron, manganese, zinc, and molybdenum.

Necrosis is the death of plant tissues as a result of the deficiencies of calcium, magnesium, copper, and potassium.

Inhibition of cell division is caused by the deficiencies of nitrogen, potassium, sulphur, and molybdenum.

Delayed flowering is caused by the deficiencies of nitrogen, sulphur, and molybdenum.

Stunted plant growth is a result of the deficiencies of copper and sulphur.

Question 5:

If a plant shows a symptom which could develop due to deficiency of more than one nutrient, how would you find out experimentally, the real deficient mineral element?

ANSWER:

In plants, the deficiency of a nutrient can cause multiple symptoms. For example, the deficiency of nitrogen causes chlorosis and delayed flowering.

In a similar way, the deficiency of a nutrient can cause the same symptom as that caused by the deficiency of another nutrient. For example, necrosis is caused by the deficiency of calcium, magnesium, copper, and potassium.

Another point to be considered is that different plants respond in different ways to the deficiency of the same nutrient.

Hence, to identify the nutrient deficient in a plant, all the symptoms developed in its different parts must be studied and compared with the available standard tables.

Question 6:

Why is that in certain plants deficiency symptoms appear first in younger parts of the plant while in others they do so in mature organs?

ANSWER:

Deficiency symptoms are morphological changes in plants, indicating nutrient deficiency. Deficiency symptoms vary from one element to another. The plant part in which a deficiency symptom occurs depends on the mobility of the deficient element in the plant. Elements such as nitrogen, potassium, and magnesium are highly mobile. These elements move from the mature organs to the younger parts of a plant. Therefore, the symptoms for the deficiencies of these elements first appear in the older parts of the plant. Elements such as calcium and sulphur are relatively immobile. These elements are not transported out of the older parts of a plant. Therefore, the symptoms for the deficiencies of these elements first appear in the younger parts of the plant.

Question 7:

How are the minerals absorbed by the plants?

ANSWER:

The absorption of soil nutrients by the roots of plants occurs in two main phases – apoplast and symplast.

During the initial phase or apoplast, there is a rapid uptake of nutrients from the soil into the free spaces of plant cells. This process is passive and it usually occurs through trans-membrane proteins and ion-channels.

In the second phase or symplast, the ions are taken slowly into the inner spaces of the cells. This pathway generally involves the expenditure of energy in the form of ATP.

Question 8:

What are the conditions necessary for fixation of atmospheric nitrogen by Rhizobium. What is their role in N₂ -fixation?

ANSWER:

Rhizobium is a symbiotic bacteria present in the root nodules of leguminous plants. The basic requirements for Rhizobium to carry out nitrogen fixation are as follows:

(a) Presence of the enzyme nitrogenase

(b) Presence of leg-haemoglobin

(c) Non-haem iron protein, ferrodoxin as the electron-carrier

(d) Constant supply of ATP

(e) Mg²⁺ions as co-factors

Rhizobium contains the enzyme nitrogenase – a Mo-Fe protein – that helps in the conversion of atmospheric free nitrogen into ammonia.

The reaction is as follows:

N₂ + 8e^– + 8H⁺ + 16 ATP→ 2 NH₃ + H₂ + 16ADP + 16Pi

The Rhizobium bacteria live as aerobes under free-living conditions, but require anaerobic conditions during nitrogen fixation. This is because the enzyme nitrogenase is highly sensitive to molecular oxygen. The nodules contain leg-haemoglobin, which protects nitrogenase from oxygen.

Question 9:

What are the steps involved in formation of a root nodule?

ANSWER:

Multiple interactions are involved in the formation of root nodules. The Rhizobium bacteria divide and form colonies. These get attached to the root hairs and epidermal cells. The root hairs get curled and are invaded by the bacteria. This invasion is followed by the formation of an infection thread that carries the bacteria into the cortex of the root. The bacteria get modified into rod-shaped bacteroides. As a result, the cells in the cortex and pericycle undergo division, leading to the formation of root nodules. The nodules finally get connected with the vascular tissues of the roots for nutrient exchange.

Question 10:

Which of the following statements are true? If false, correct them:

(a) Boron deficiency leads to stout axis.

(b) Every mineral element that is present in a cell is needed by the cell.

(c) Nitrogen as a nutrient element, is highly immobile in the plants.

(d) It is very easy to establish the essentiality of micronutrients because they

are required only in trace quantities.

ANSWER:

(a) True

(b) All the mineral elements present in a cell are not needed by the cell. For example, plants growing near radioactive mining sites tend to accumulate large amounts of radioactive compounds. These compounds are not essential for the plants.

(c) Nitrogen as a nutrient element is highly mobile in plants. It can be mobilised from the old and mature parts of a plant to its younger parts.

(d) True