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In This Post we are  providing Chapter- 20 LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 BIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT

Question 1:

Draw the diagram of a sarcomere of skeletal muscle showing different regions.

ANSWER:

The diagrammatic representation of a sarcomere is as follows:

Question 2:

Define sliding filament theory of muscle contraction.

ANSWER:

The sliding filament theory explains the process of muscle contraction during which the thin filaments slide over the thick filaments, which shortens the myofibril.

Each muscle fibre has an alternate light and dark band, which contains a special contractile protein, called actin and myosin respectively. Actin is a thin contractile protein present in the light band and is known as the I-band, whereas myosin is a thick contractile protein present in the dark band and is known as the A-band. There is an elastic fibre called z line that bisects each I-band. The thin filament is firmly anchored to the z line. The central part of the thick filament that is not overlapped by the thin filament is known as the H-zone.

During muscle contraction, the myosin heads or cross bridges come in close contact with the thin filaments. As a result, the thin filaments are pulled towards the middle of the sarcomere. The Z line attached to the actin filaments is also pulled leading to the shortening of the sarcomere. Hence, the length of the band remains constant as its original length and the I-band shortens and the H-zone disappears.

Question 3:

Describe the important steps in muscle contraction.

ANSWER:

During skeletal muscle contraction, the thick filament slides over the thin filament by a repeated binding and releases myosin along the filament. This whole process occurs in a sequential manner.

Step 1: Muscle contraction is initiated by signals that travel along the axon and reach the neuromuscular junction or motor end plate. Neuromuscular junction is a junction between a neuron and the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre. As a result, Acetylcholine (a neurotransmitter) is released into the synaptic cleft by generating an action potential in sarcolemma.

Step 2: The generation of this action potential releases calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in the sarcoplasm.

Step 3: The increased calcium ions in the sarcoplasm leads to the activation of actin sites. Calcium ions bind to the troponin on actin filaments and remove the tropomyosin, wrapped around actin filaments. Hence, active actin sites are exposed and this allows myosin heads to attach to this site.

Step 4: In this stage, the myosin head attaches to the exposed site of actin and forms cross bridges by utilizing energy from ATP hydrolysis. The actin filaments are pulled. As a result, the H-zone reduces. It is at this stage that the contraction of the muscle occurs.

Step 5: After muscle contraction, the myosin head pulls the actin filament and releases ADP along with inorganic phosphate. ATP molecules bind and detach myosin and the cross bridges are broken.

Stage 6: This process of formation and breaking down of cross bridges continues until there is a drop in the stimulus, which causes an increase in calcium. As a result, the concentration of calcium ions decreases, thereby masking the actin filaments and leading to muscle relaxation.

Question 4:

Write true or false. If false change the statement so that it is true.

(a) Actin is present in thin filament

(b) H-zone of striated muscle fibre represents both thick and thin filaments.

(c) Human skeleton has 206 bones.

(d) There are 11 pairs of ribs in man.

(e) Sternum is present on the ventral side of the body.

ANSWER:

(a) Answer: True

(b) Answer: False

H -zone of striated muscle fibre is the central part of the thick filament that is not overlapped by the thin filament.

(c) Answer: True

(d) Answer: False

There are 12 pairs of ribs in a man.

(e) Answer: True

Question 5:

Write the difference between:

(a) Actin and Myosin

(b) Red and White muscles

(c) Pectoral and Pelvic girdle

ANSWER:

(a) Actin and Myosin

	Actin		Myosin
1	Actin is a thin contractile protein.	1	Myosin is a thick contractile protein.
2.	It is present in light bands and is called an isotropic band.	2	It is present in dark bands and is called an anisotropic band.

(b) Red and White muscles

	Red muscle fibre		White muscle fibre
1	Red muscle fibres are thin and smaller in size.	1	White muscle fibres are thick and larger in size.
2	They are red in colour as they contain large amounts of myoglobin.	2	They are white in colour as they contain small amounts of myoglobin
3	They contain numerous mitochondria.	3	They contain less number of mitochondria.
4	They carry out slow and sustained contractions for a long period.	4	They carry out fast work for short duration.
5	They provide energy by aerobic respiration.	5	They provide energy by anaerobic respiration.

(c) Pectoral and Pelvic girdle

	Pectoral girdle		Pelvic girdle
1	It is a skeletal support from where the forelimbs of vertebrates are attached.	1	It is a skeletal support form where the hind limbs of vertebrates are attached.
2	It is composed of twoBones namely, clavicle or collar bones and scapula or shoulder bone.	2	It is composed of three bones, upper ileum, inner pubic, and ischium.

Question 6:

Match Column I with Column II :

	Column I		Column II
(a)	Smooth muscle	(i)	Myoglobin
(b)	Tropomyosin	(ii)	Thin filament
(c)	Red muscle	(iii)	Sutures
(d)	Skull	(iv)	Involuntary

ANSWER:

	Column I		Column II
(a)	Smooth muscle	(iv)	Involuntary
(b)	Tropomyosin	(ii)	Thin filament
(c)	Red muscle	(i)	Myoglobin
(d)	Skull	(iii)	Sutures

Question 7:

What are the different types of movements exhibited by the cells of human body?

ANSWER:

Movement is a characteristic feature of living organisms. The different types of movement exhibited by cells of the human body are:

• Amoeboid movement: Leucocytes present in the blood show amoeboid movement. During tissue damage, these blood cells move from the circulatory system towards the injury site to initiate an immune response.
• Ciliary movement: Reproductive cells such as sperms and ova show ciliary movement. The passage of ova through the fallopian tube towards the uterus is facilitated by this movement.
• Muscular movement: Muscle cells show muscular movement.

Question 8:

How do you distinguish between a skeletal muscle and a cardiac muscle?

ANSWER:

	Skeletal muscle		Cardiac muscle
1.	The cells of skeletal muscles are unbranched.	1.	The cells of cardiac muscles are branched.
2.	Intercalated disks are absent.	2.	The cells are joined with one another by intercalated disks that help in coordination or synchronization of the heart beat.
3.	Alternate light and dark bands are present.	3.	Faint bands are present.
4.	They are voluntary muscles.	4.	They are involuntary muscles.
5.	They contract rapidly and get fatigued in a short span of time.	5.	They contract rapidly but do not get fatigued easily.
6.	They are present in body parts such as the legs, tongue, hands, etc.	6.	These muscles are present in the heart and control the contraction and relaxation of the heart.

Question 9:

Name the type of joint between the following:-

(a) atlas/axis

(b) carpal/metacarpal of thumb

(c) between phalanges

(d) femur/acetabulum

(e) between cranial bones

(f) between pubic bones in the pelvic girdle

ANSWER:

(a) atlas/axis: Pivotal joint

(b) carpal/metacarpal of thumb: Saddle joint

(c) between phalanges: Hinge joint

(d) femur/acetabulum: Ball and socket joint

(e) between cranial bones: Fibrous joint

(f) between pubic bones in the pelvic girdle: Cartilaginous joint

Question 10:

Fill in the blank spaces:

(a) All mammals (except a few) have __________ cervical vertebra.

(b) The number of phalanges in each limb of human is __________

(c) Thin filament of myofibril contains 2 ‘F’ actins and two other proteins namely __________ and __________.

(d) In a muscle fibre Ca⁺⁺ is stored in __________

(e) __________ and __________ pairs of ribs are called floating ribs.

(f) The human cranium is made of __________ bones.

ANSWER:

(a) All mammals (except a few) have cervical vertebra.

(b) The number of phalanges in each limb of a human is.

(c) Thin filament of myofibril contains 2 ‘F’ actins and two other proteins, namely and.

(d) In a muscle fibre, Ca⁺⁺ is stored in the.

(e) And  pairs of ribs are called floating ribs.

(f) The human cranium is made up of bones.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-19 EXCRETORY PRODUCTS AND THEIR ELIMINATION NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 BIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON EXCRETORY PRODUCTS AND THEIR ELIMINATION

Question 1.
State the importance of counter-current systems in renal functioning.

Answer:
Vasa rectal is responsible for the concentration of urine. The vase rectal is in the form of loops. Therefore, the blood flows in the opposite directions in two limbs of each vasa Fecta; the blood entering its descending limb comes into close contact with the outgoing blood in the ascending limb. This is called a Counter-Current System. The two limbs of the loops of Henle form another Counter-Current System.

Importance: The counter-current system significantly contributes to concentrating urine in mammals.

Question 2.
Describe the hormonal feedback circuits in controlling renal functions.

Answer:
Two important hormonal control of the kidney function by negative feedback circuits can be identified:
1. Control by Antidiuretic Hormone ADH: ADH produced in the hypothalamus of the brain and released into the blood from the pituitary gland, enhances fluid retention by making the kidneys reabsorb more water. The release of ADH is triggered when osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect an increase in the osmolarity of the blood.

The osmoreceptors cells also promote thirst. Drinking reduces the osmolarity of the blood which inhibits the secretion of ADB, thereby completing the feedback circuit.

2. Control by Juxtaglomerular Apparatus (JGH): It operates a multihormonal Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS). JGA responds to decrease the blood pressure and release enzyme renin into the blood. In the blood, the enzyme initiates chemical reactions that convert a plasma protein called angiotensinogen to a peptide called angiotensin II which works as a hormone.

Angiotensin II increases blood pressure and stimulates the adrenal gland to release aldosterone, a hormone. This leads to an increase in blood volume and pressure completing the feed¬back circuit by supporting the release of renin.

Still another hormone, a peptide called Atrial Natriuretic Factor ANF), opposes the regulation by RAAS.

Thus, ADH, the RAAS, and ANF provide an elaborate system of checks and balance that regulate the kidney functioning to control body fluid, osmolarity, salt concentration, blood pressure, and blood volume.

Question 3.
State the normal and abnormal constituents of human urine.

Answer:
Urine is a pale yellow colored slightly acidic watery fluid.

• Abnormal Urine: Various metabolic errors of kidney malfunctioning changes the composition of urine.
• Proteinuria: Excess of protein level.
• Albuminuria: The presence of albumin, usually occurs in nephritis.
• Glycosuria: Presence of glucose in urea as in case of diabetes mellitus.
• Ketonuria: Presence of abnormally high ketone bodies.
• Hematuria: Presence of blood or blood cells in urine.
• hemoglobinuria: Presence of hemoglobin in urine.
• Uremia: Presence of excess urea.
• Normal Urine: Normal urine is slightly heavier than water. It gives an aromatic odor due to the presence of volatile, bad-smelling organic substances, the ruined water, organic and inorganic materials are the main constituents of normal urine.

The other nitrogenous constituents of normal urine are ammonia, uric acid, hippuric acid, and creatinine.

Non-nitrogenous substances are vitamin C, oxalic acid, phenolic substances. In inorganic substances, sodium chloride is the principal mineral salt in the urine.

Question 4.
State the role of skin and lungs in excretion.

Answer:
Role of Skin: Human skin possesses glands for secreting sweat and sebum (from the sebaceous gland). Sweat contains NaCl, lactic acid, urea, amino acids, and glucose. The volume of sweat various negligible to 14 L a day. The principal function of sweat is the evaporative cooling of the body surface.

Sebum is a waxy protective secretion to keep the skin oily and this secretion eliminates some lipids, such as waxes, sterols, other hydrocarbons, and fatty acids. Integument in many animals is excreting ammonia into the surrounding by diffusion.

Role of lungs in excretion: Human lungs eliminate around 18L of CO₂ per day and about 400 ml of water in normal resting conditions. Water loss via lungs is small in hot humid climates and large in cold dry climates. The rate of ventilation and ventilation pattern also affects the water loss through the lungs. Different volatile materials are also readily eliminated through the lungs.

Question 5.
Briefly state the mechanism of urine formation in the human kidney.

Answer:
Three main processes are involved in urine formation
1. Glomerular filtration: Kidneys filter the equivalent of blood volume every 4 – 5 minutes. Filtration slits are formed by the assemblages of fine cellular processes of podocytes (foot cells). The process of ultra-filtration depends upon two main factors, first the net hydrostatic pressure difference between the lumen of the capillary and the lumen of the Bowman’s capsule favor filtration.

The glomerular ultrafiltrate contains essentially all the constituents of the blood except for blood corpuscles and plasma proteins. Nearly 15% – 25% of the water and salutes are removed from the plasma that flows through the glomerulus. The glomerular filtration rate is about 125 ml min1 or about 180 L day^-1 in human kidneys.

2. Two important intrinsic mechanisms provide autoregulation of glomerular filtration rate.
(a) Myogenic mechanism: Increase in blood pressure will tend to stretch the efferent arteriole, which would increase the blood flow to the glomerulus. The diameter of the arteriole is reduced, increasing the resistance to flow. This myogenic mechanism thus reduced variations inflow to the glomerulus in case of fluctuations in blood pressure.

(b) Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA): This specialized cellular apparatus is located where the distal convoluted tubule passes close to the Bowman’s capsule between the afferent and efferent arterioles. JGA cells secrete substances like renin that modulate blood pressure and renal blood flow and GFR are regulated.

Myogenic and juxtaglomerular mechanisms work together to autoregulate the GFR over a wide range of blood pressure. In addition to these extrinsic neural control also regulates the filtration rate.

3. Tubular re-absorption: The selective transport of substances across the epithelium of the excretory tubule from the ultrafiltrate to the interstitial fluid is called re-absorption. Nearly all the sugar, vitamins, organic substances (nutrients), and most of the water are reabsorbed.

4. Tubular secretion: It is a very selective process involving both passive and active transport. The filtrate travel through the nephron, substances that are transported across the epithelium from the surrounding interstitial fluid and join it. The net effect of renal secretion is the addition of plasma solutes to the filtrate within the tubule.

Question 6.
Explain the following:
(a) Skin functions as an accessory excretory organ.

Answer:
The skin retains some excretory role in many animals. Human skin possesses two glands for secreting fluid on its surface. These are; sweat from sweat glands and sebum from sebaceous glands.

(b) Mammals can eliminate hypotonic and hypertonic urine according to body needs.
Answer:
When the animal takes a large quantity of water the kidneys excrete a very high amount of hypotonic urine. At the same time when the animal takes a small number of water kidneys to excrete a very high amount of hypertonic urine.

At the same time when the animal takes a small number of water kidneys to excrete a small amount of hypertonic urine, as kidneys need to conserve water. In this way, the osmotic concentration of blood is maintained by the kidneys. This flexibility of kidney nephrons is highly observed in mammals.

Hypotonic urine removes excess water from the body in order to raise the osmotic concentration of the blood to normal. Excess of water in body fluids generally lowers the osmotic pressure of blood and increases the volume of blood. This increase in the volume of blood raises the blood pressure and hydrostatic pressure which increases the rate of ultrafiltration. In this way, a large amount of hypotonic urine is produced in order to bring the volume of fluids to normal.

(c) Micturition is a reflex process but is under some voluntary control.
Answer:
It is the process of passing out urine. Nephrons produce urine and drain. When enough urine collects in the bladder the distension of its walls raises enough pressure which generates a spontaneous nervous activity under the stimulation of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system. This nervous stimulation causes the smooth muscles on the urinary bladder to rise too high to control.

Similarly, micturition can voluntarily be initiated even before enough urine has accumulated in the bladder. Backflow of the urine into the ureters from the urinary bladder is prevented because the terminal part of each ureter passes through the bladder and gets closed as soon as the contraction of the bladder occurs.

(d) Mammals are ureotelic, but birds are uricotelic.
Answer:
Mammals are ureotelic animals as they eliminate nitrogen mainly urea. It is very soluble in water and needs a considerable amount of water for its elimination. Mammals can thus form hypertonic urine which they excrete. While the birds cannot excrete urine as hypertonic since nitrogen occurs mainly in the form of uric acid. The uric acid is insoluble in water and does not require much water for its elimination.

Question 7.
Describe the functional anatomy of a human nephron.

Answer:
Nephrons are structural and functional units of each kidney to form the urine. Each nephron is fine; microscopic highly coiled tubular structure differentiated into malpighian body and the renal tubule. The malpighian body comprises a large double-walled cup-shaped structure the Bowman’s capsule present in the renal cortex. It is lined by thin, semipermeable epithelial cells, the podocytes. Bowman’s capsule receives the blood supply through a branch of the renal artery.

The afferent arteriole forms a fine capillary network in the form of glomerules with high hydrostatic pressure. The lumen between two layers of Bowman’s capsule is continuous with the lumen of the tubule. The Bowman’s capsule and the glomerulus together form a globular body, the Malpighian body or the renal capsules.

The capillaries forming the glomerulus at the exit of Bowman’s capsule unite to form a narrow efferent arteriole which breaks up into a peritubular network of capillaries with low hydrostatic pressure.

The renal tubule is a long highly coiled tubular structure differentiated into proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) Henle’s loop, distal convoluted tubule (DCT). The U-shaped loop-like structure, descending and ascending from the renal tubule is called Henle’s loop.

Collecting tubules of several nephrons open into a wider duct called the collecting duct. A number of collecting ducts unite with each other in the medulla to form the ducts of Bellini, which drains down the urine into the ureter from each kidney to be stored in the urinary bladder.

The efferent arteriole emerges out from the glomerules breaks up into a peritubular capillary network around the renal tubule in the cortex. These capillaries also form a thin-walled, straight capillary the vasa recta. The vasa recta help in retaining the reabsorbed ions and urea in medullary interstitial fluid to maintain high osmotic pressure in kidneys.

Glomerular filtrate undergoes tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion for the formation of urine. (See diagram opposite page)

Uriniferous tubules Or nephron of the kidney

Question 8.
Describe the gross anatomical features of the human kidney with a suitable diagram.

Answer:
Kidney: Kidney is chocolate brown, bean-shaped, large-sized about 10 cm long and 5 – 7 cm broad, 3 – 4cm thick flattened, metamorphic. The weight of each kidney is 150 to 170 gm. They are situated against the back wall of the abdominal cavity, just below the diaphragm, between the 12th thoracic and 3rd lumbar vertebrae.

The outer margin is convex. The inner concave presents a longitudinal opening called the hilum. The renal artery and renal vein respectively enter and leave the kidney through its hilum.

The two kidneys are slightly asymmetrical in position because the right kidney is slightly at a lower level than the left. Kidneys are held in position by a mass of adipose tissue called Renal fat. These rest against the abdominal muscles. Each kidney is covered on the ventral side by the peritoneum and is thus retroperitoneal in nature.

Surrounding the kidneys and the renal fat is a sheath of fibro elastic tissue known as renal fascia or capsule. They protect the kidney. The renal fat forms a shock-absorbing cushion. The renal fascia fixes the kidney to the abdominal wall.

Longitudinal section (Diagrammatic of Kidney)

Question 9.
(a)What is the role of the liver in excretion in mammals?

Answer:
Role of liver in excretion: The liver changes ammonia into urea which is less toxic than ammonia. Urea is eliminated from the body by the kidneys through urine.

The liver is the principal organ of excretion of cholesterol, bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin) some vitamins, drugs, and inactivated products of steroid hormones. The liver excretes these substances in the bile which carries them to the small intestine. Ultimately, these substances get eliminated along with feces.

(b) What are the diseases associated with the urinary system?
Answer:
Diseases associated with the urinary system:
1. Polynephritis: It is a bacterial infection, which causes inflammation of renal pelvic nephrons and medullary tissues of the kidney. It affects the counter-current mechanism. Its main symptoms are frequent and painful urination, fever, and pain in the lumbar region.

2. Uremia: It causes the presence of a high concentration of urea, uric acid, creatinine, etc, in the blood due to some bacterial infection or some obstruction in the passage of the urinary system. Urea poisons the cells. It is not passed in the urine and accumulates in the blood.

3. Renal stones: When uric acid precipitates and accumulates in the nephrons of kidneys in the form of renal stones or when calcium phosphates and oxalates accumulate in the nephrons of the kidneys in the form of renal stones. It causes blockage or frequent painful urination along with blood in the urine. Renal stone causes severe colic pain starting in the back and radiating down to the front of the thigh or vulva or testicle on that side.

4. Glomerulonephritis: It is characterized by the inflammation of Glomeruliduct, some injury to the kidney, abnormal allergic reaction, or by some streptococci bacteria infection. Proteins and red blood corpuscles become filtered into the glomerular filtrate. It may lead to kidney failure in severe infection.

5. Oedema: It is characterized by the increased volume of interstitial fluid mainly caused by retention of excess Na+ ions which in turn causes water retention. Blood pressure increases dining edema.

Question 10.
Write a short account on hemodialysis.

Answer:
In case of renal failure, an artificial kidney is used for removing excess urea from the blood of the patient by a process called hemodialysis. Blood is taken out from the artery of the patient, cooled to 0°C, mixed with an anticoagulant such as heparin, and then pumped into the apparatus called artificial kidney. In this apparatus, blood flows through channels

Working of artificial kidneys for hemodialysis

bounded by cellophane membrane. The membrane is impermeable to macromolecules but permeable to small solutes. The membrane separates the blood flowing inside the channels from a dialyzing fluid flowing outside the membrane. The wastes like urea, uric acid, and creatinine diffuse from the blood to the dialyzing fluid across the cellophane membrane.

Thus the blood is considerably cleared of nitrogenous waste products without losing plasma proteins. Such a processor separation of macromolecules from small solute particles with the help of a permeable membrane is called dialysis. The blood coming out of the artificial kidney is warmed to body temperature, mixed with an Antiheparin to restore its normal coagulability, and returned to a vein of the patient.

Hemodialysis saves and prolongs the life of many uremic patients.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-18 BODY FLUIDS AND CIRCULATION NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 BIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON BODY FLUIDS AND CIRCULATION

Question 1:

Name the components of the formed elements in the blood and mention one major function of each of them.

ANSWER:

The component elements in the blood are:

(1) Erythrocytes:

They are the most abundant cells and contain the red pigment called haemoglobin. They carry oxygen to all parts of the body. Red blood cells are produced continuously in some parts of the body such as the marrow of long bones, ribs, etc. There are about 4 – 6 million RBCs per cubic millimetre of blood.

(2) Leukocytes

Leucocytes are colourless cells. These cells do not contain haemoglobin. They are the largest cells of the body and are divided into two main categories.

(a) Granulocytes

These leucocytes have granules in their cytoplasm and include neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophiles. Neutrophils are phagocytic cells that protect the body against various infecting agents. Eosinophils are associated with allergic reactions, while basophiles are involved in inflammatory responses.

(b) Agranulocytes

Lymphocytes and monocytes are agranulocytes. Lymphocytes generate immune responses against infecting agents, while monocytes are phagocytic in nature.

(3) Platelets

Platelets are small irregular bodies present in blood. They contain essential chemicals that help in clotting. The main function of platelets is to promote clotting.

Question 2:

What is the importance of plasma proteins?

ANSWER:

Plasma is the colourless fluid of blood which helps in the transport of food, CO₂, waste products, and salts. It constitutes about 55% of blood. About 6.8% of the plasma is constituted by proteins such as fibrinogens, globulins, and albumins.

Fibrinogen is a plasma glycoprotein synthesised by the liver. It plays a role in the clotting of blood.

Globulin is a major protein of the plasma. It protects the body against infecting agents.

Albumin is a major protein of the plasma. It helps in maintaining the fluid volume within the vascular space.

Question 3:

Match column I with column II:

Column I		Column II
(a)	Eosinophils	(i)	Coagulation
(b)	RBC	(ii)	Universal Recipient
(c)	AB Group	(iii)	Resist Infections
(d)	Platelets	(iv)	Contraction of Heart
(e)	Systole	(v)	Gas transport

ANSWER:

Column I		Column II
(a)	Eosinophils	(iii)	Resist infections
(b)	RBC	(v)	Gas transport
(c)	AB Group	(ii)	Universal Recipient
(d)	Platelets	(i)	Coagulation
(e)	Systole	(iv)	Contraction of heart

Question 4:

Why do we consider blood as a connective tissue?

ANSWER:

Connective tissues have cells scattered throughout an extra-cellular matrix. They connect different body systems. Blood is considered as a type of connective tissue because of two reasons.

(i) Like the other connective tissues, blood is mesodermal in origin.

(ii) It connects the body systems, transports oxygen and nutrients to all the parts of the body, and removes the waste products. Blood has an extra-cellular matrix called plasma, with red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets floating in it.

Question 5:

What is the difference between lymph and blood?

ANSWER:

	Lymph		Blood
1.	It is a colourless fluid that does not contain RBCs.	1.	It is a red-coloured fluid that contains RBCs.
2.	It contains plasma and lesser number of WBCs and platelets.	2.	It contains plasma, RBCs, WBCs, and platelets.
3.	It helps in body defence and is a part of the immune system.	3.	It is associated with the circulation of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
4.	Its plasma lacks proteins.	4.	Its plasma has proteins, calcium, and phosphorus.
5.	It transports nutrients from the tissue cells to the blood, through lymphatic vessels.	5.	It transports nutrients and oxygen from one organ to another.
6.	The flow of lymph is slow.	6.	The flow of blood in the blood vessels is fast.

Question 6:

What is meant by double circulation? What is its significance?

ANSWER:

Double circulation is a process during which blood passes twice through the heart during one complete cycle. This type of circulation is found in amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals. However, it is more prominent in birds and mammals as in them the heart is completely divided into four chambers – the right atrium, the right ventricle, the left atrium, and the left ventricle.

The movement of blood in an organism is divided into two parts:

(i) Systemic circulation

(ii) Pulmonary circulation

Systemic circulation involves the movement of oxygenated blood from the left ventricle of the heart to the aorta. It is then carried by blood through a network of arteries, arterioles, and capillaries to the tissues. From the tissues, the deoxygenated blood is collected by the venules, veins, and vena cava, and is emptied into the left auricle.

Pulmonary circulation involves the movement of deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery, which then carries blood to the lungs for oxygenation. From the lungs, the oxygenated blood is carried by the pulmonary veins into the left atrium.

Hence, in double circulation, blood has to pass alternately through the lungs and the tissues.

Significance of double circulation:

The separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood allows a more efficient supply of oxygen to the body cells. Blood is circulated to the body tissues through systemic circulation and to the lungs through pulmonary circulation.

Question 7:

Write the differences between:

(a) Blood and Lymph

(b) Open and Closed system of circulation

(c) Systole and Diastole

(d) P-wave and T-wave

ANSWER:

(a) Blood and lymph

	Blood		Lymph
1.	Blood is a red-coloured fluid that contains RBCs.	1.	Lymph is a colourless fluid that lacks RBCs.
2.	It contains plasma, RBCs, WBCs, and platelets. It also contains proteins.	2.	It contains plasma and lesser number of WBCs and platelets. It lacks proteins.
3.	Blood transports nutrients and oxygen from one organ to another.	3.	Lymph plays a role in the defensive system of the body. It is a part of the immune system.

(b) Open and closed systems of circulation

	Open system of circulation		Closed system of circulation
1.	In this system, blood is pumped by the heart, through large vessels, into body cavities called sinuses.	1.	In this system, blood is pumped by the heart, through a closed network of vessels.
2.	The body tissues are in direct contact with blood.	2.	The body tissues are not in direct contact with blood.
3.	Blood flows at low pressure. Hence, it is a slower and less efficient system of circulation.	3.	Blood flows at high pressure. Hence, it is a faster and more efficient system of circulation.
4.	The flow of blood is not regulated through the tissues and organs.	4.	The flow of blood can be regulated by valves.
5.	This system is present in arthropods and molluscs.	5.	This system is present in annelids, echinoderms, and vertebrates.

(c) Systole and diastole

	Systole		Diastole
1.	It is the contraction of the heart chambers to drive blood into the aorta and the pulmonary artery.	1.	It is the relaxation of the heart chambers between two contractions. During diastole, the chambers are filled with blood.
2.	Systole decreases the volume of the heart chambers and forces the blood out of them.	2.	Diastole brings the heart chambers back into their original sizes to receive more blood.

(d) P-wave and T-wave

	P-wave		T-wave
1.	In an electrocardiogram (ECG), the P-wave indicates the activation of the SA node.	1.	In an electrocardiogram (ECG), the T-wave represents ventricular relaxation.
2.	During this phase, the impulse of contraction is generated by the SA node, causing atrial depolarisation.	2.	During this phase, the ventricles relax and return to their normal state.
3.	It is of atrial origin.	3.	It is of ventricular origin.

Question 8:

Describe the evolutionary change in the pattern of heart among the vertebrates.

ANSWER:

All vertebrates possess a heart – a hollow muscular organ composed of cardiac muscle fibres. The function of the heart is to pump oxygen to all parts of the body. The evolution of the heart is based on the separation of oxygenated blood from deoxygenated blood for efficient oxygen transport.

In fishes, the heart was like a hollow tube. This evolved into the four-chambered heart in mammals.

Piscean heart
Fish has only two chambers in its heart – one auricle and one ventricle. Since both the auricle and the ventricle remain undivided, only deoxygenated blood passes through it. The deoxygenated blood enters the gills for oxygenation from the ventricle. It has additional chambers such as sinus venosus and conus arteriosus.

Amphibian heart
Amphibians, such as frogs, have three-chambered hearts, with two auricles and one ventricle. The auricle is divided into a right and a left chamber by an inter-auricular septum, while the ventricle remains undivided.
Additional chambers such as sinus venosus and conus arteriosus are also present. The oxygenated blood from the lungs enters the left auricle and simultaneously, the deoxygenated blood from the body enters the right auricle. Both these auricles empty into the ventricle, wherein the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood get mixed to some extent.

Reptilian heart
Reptiles have incomplete four-chambered hearts, except for crocodiles, alligators, and gharials. They have only one accessory chamber called sinus venosus. The reptilian heart also shows mixed blood circulation.

Avian and mammalian hearts
They have two pairs of chambers for separating oxygenated and deoxygenated bloods. The heart is divided into four chambers. The upper two chambers are called atria and the lower two chambers are called ventricles. The chambers are separated by a muscular wall that prevents the mixing of the blood rich in oxygen with the blood rich in carbon dioxide.

Question 9:

Why do we call our heart myogenic?

ANSWER:

In the human heart, contraction is initiated by a special modified heart muscle known as sinoatrial node. It is located in the right atrium. The SA node has the inherent power of generating a wave of contraction and controlling the heart beat. Hence, it is known as the pacemaker. Since the heart beat is initiated by the SA node and the impulse of contraction originates in the heart itself, the human heart is termed myogenic. The hearts of vertebrates and molluscs are also myogenic.

Question 10:

Sino-atrial node is called the pacemaker of our heart. Why?

ANSWER:

The sino-atrial (SA) node is a specialised bundle of neurons located in the upper part of the right atrium of the heart. The cardiac impulse originating from the SA node triggers a sequence of electrical events in the heart, thereby controlling the sequence of muscle contraction that pumps blood out of the heart. Since the SA node initiates and maintains the rhythmicity of the heart, it is known as the natural pacemaker of the human body.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-16 DIGESTION AND ABSORBTION NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 BIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON DIGESTION AND ABSORBTION

Q1. Correct the statement given below by the right option shown in the bracket against them.
a. Absorption of amino acids and glycerol takes place in the (small intestine/ large intestine).
b. ‘The faeces in the rectum initiate a reflex causing an urge for its removal, (neural /hormonal)
c. Skin and eyes turn yellow in infection, (liver/stomach)
d. Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice in (infants/adults).
e. Pancreatic juice and bile are released through (intestinepancreatic/ hepato-pancreatic duct).
f. Dipeptides, disaccharides and glycerides are broken down into simple substances in region of small intestine, (jejunum/duodenum)
Ans: a. Absorption of amino acids and glycerol takes place in the small intestine.
b. The faeces in the rectum initiate a neural reflex causing an urge for its removal.
c. Skin and eyes turn yellow in infection of liver. .
d. Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice in infants.
e. Pancreatic juice and bile are released through hepato-pancreatic duct.
f. Dipeptides, disaccharides and glycerides are broken down into simple substances in duodenum region of small intestine.

Q2. What are three major types of cells found in the gastric glands? Name their secretions.
Ans: The mucosa of stomach has gastric glands. Gastric glands have three major types of cells namely
(i) mucus neck cells which secrete mucus;
(ii) peptic or chief cells which secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen; and
(iii) parietal or oxyntic cells which secrete HC1 and intrinsic factor (factor essential for absorption of vitamin B12).

Q3. How are the activities of gastro-intestinal tract regulated?
Ans: The activities of the gastro-intestinal tract are under neural and hormonal control for proper coordination of different parts. The sight, smell and/or the presence of food in the oral cavity can stimulate the secretion of saliva. Gastric and intestinal secretions are also, similarly, stimulated by neural signals. The muscular activities of different parts of the alimentary canal can also be moderated by neural mechanisms, both local and through CNS. Hormonal control of the secretion of digestive juices is carried out by local hormones produced by the gastric and intestinal mucosa.

Q4. Distinguish between constipation and indigestion. Mention their major causes.
Ans: Constipation: In constipation, the faeces are retained within the rectum as the bowel movements occur irregularly.
Indigestion: In this condition, the food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness. The causes of indigestion are inadequate enzyme secretion, anxiety, food poisoning, over eating, and spicy food.

Q5. Describe the enzymatic action on fats in the duodenum.
Ans: In the duodenum fats are broken down by pancreatic lipases with the help of bile into di- and monoglycerides.

Q6. A person had roti and dal for his lunch. Trace the changes in those during its passage through the alimentary canal.
Ans: The process of digestion is accomplished by mechanical and chemical processes. The buccal cavity performs two major functions, mastication of food and facilitation of swallowing. The teeth and the tongue with the help of saliva masticate and mix up the food thoroughly. Mucus in saliva helps in lubricating and adhering the masticated food particles into a bolus. The bolus is then conveyed into the pharynx and then into the oesophagus by swallowing or deglutition. The bolus further passes down through the oesophagus by successive waves of muscular contractions called peristalsis. The gastro-oesophageal sphincter controls the passage of food into the stomach. The saliva secreted into the oral cavity contains electrolytes and enzymes, salivary amylase and lysozyme. The chemical process of digestion is initiated in the oral cavity by the hydrolytic action of the carbohydrate splitting enzyme, the salivary amylase. About 30% of starch is hydrolysed here by this enzyme (optimum pH 6.8) into a disaccharide – maltose.
• The stomach stores the food for 4-5 hours. The food mixes thoroughly with the acidic gastric juice of the stomach by the churning movements of its muscular wall and is called the chyme. The proenzyme pepsinogen, on exposure to hydrochloric acid gets converted into the active enzyme pepsin, the proteolytic enzyme of the stomach. Pepsin converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides).
• The bile, pancreatic juice and the intestinal juice are the secretions
released into the small intestine. Pancreatic juice and bile are released through the hepato-pancreatic duct. The pancreatic juice contains inactive enzymes—trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidases,
amylases, lipases and nucleases. Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin, which in turn activates the other enzymes in the pancreatic juice.
Proteins proteoses and peptones (partially hydrolysed proteins) in the chyme reaching the intestine are acted upon by the proteolytic enzymes of pancretic juice as given below.

Q7. What are the various enzymatic types of glandular secretions in our gut helping digestion of food? What is the nature of end products obtained after complete digestion of food?
Ans: Enzymatic types of glandular secretions in our gut:
a. Salivary glands: Saliva is mainly produced by three pairs of salivary glands, the parotids (cheek), the sub-maxillary/sub-mandibular (lower jaw) and the sublinguals (below the tongue). These glands situated just outside the buccal cavity secrete salivary juice into the buccal cavity.
b. Gastric glands: The mucosa of stomach has gastric glands. Gastric glands have three major types of cells namely
(i) mucus neck cells which secrete mucus;
(ii) peptic or chief cells which secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen; and
(iii) parietal or oxyntic cells which secrete HC1 and intrinsic factor (factor essential for absorption of vitamin B12).
c. The bile, pancreatic juice and the intestinal juice are the secretions
released into the small intestine. Pancreatic juice and bile are released through the hepato-pancreatic duct. The pancreatic juice contains inactive enzymes—trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidases,
amylases, lipases and nucleases. Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin, which in turn activates the other enzymes in the pancreatic juice. The bile released into the duodenum contains bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin), bile salts, cholesterol and phospholipids but no enzymes.

Q8. Discuss mechanisms of absorption.
Ans: Mechanisms of absorption: Absorption is the process by which the end products of digestion pass through the intestinal mucosa into the blood or lymph. It is carried out by passive, active or facilitated transport mechanisms. Small amounts of monosaccharides like glucose, amino acids and some electrolytes like chloride ions are generally absorbed by simple diffusion. The passage of these substances into the blood depends upon the concentration gradients. However, some substances like glucose and amino acids are absorbed with the help of carrier proteins. This mechanism is called the facilitated transport.
Transport of water depends upon the osmotic gradient. Active transport occurs against the concentration gradient and hence requires energy. Various nutrients like amino acids, monosaccharides like glucose, electrolytes like Na+ are absorbed into the blood by this mechanism.

Q9. Discuss the role of hepato-pancrdatic complex in digestion of carbohydrate, protein and fat components of food.
Ans: The bile, pancreatic juice and the intestinal juice are the secretions released into the small intestine. Pancreatic juice and bile are released through the hepato-pancreatic duct. The pancreatic juice contains inactive enzymes— trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidases, amylases, lipases and nucleases. Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin, which in turn activates the other enzymes in the pancreatic juice.
The bile released into the duodenum contains bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin), bile salts, cholesterol and phospholipids but no enzymes. Bile helps in emulsification of fats, i.e., breaking down of the fats into very small micelles. Bile also activates lipases.
Proteins proteases and peptones (partially hydrolyzed proteins) in the chime reaching the intestine are acted upon by the proteolytic enzymes of pancreatic juice as given below:

Q10. Explain the process of digestion in the buccal cavity with a note on the arrangement of teeth.

Ans: The process of digestion in the buccal cavity: The buccal cavity performs two major functions, mastication of food and facilitation of swallowing. The teeth and the tongue with the help of saliva masticate and mix up the food thoroughly. Mucus in saliva helps in lubricating and adhering the masticated food particles into a bolus. The bolus is then conveyed into the pharynx and then into the oesophagus by swallowing or deglutition. The bolus further passes down through the oesophagus by successive waves of muscular contractions called peristalsis. The gastro-oesophageal sphincter controls the passage of food into the stomach. The saliva secreted into the oral cavity contains electrolytes and enzymes, salivary amylase and lysozyme. The chemical process of digestion is initiated in the oral cavity by the hydrolytic action of the carbohydrate splitting enzyme, the salivary amylase. About% of starch is hydrolysed here by this enzyme (optimum pH 6.8) into a disaccharide—maltose. Lysozyme present in saliva acts as an antibacterial agent that prevents infections.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-17 BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 11 BIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES

Question 1.
What is chloride shift? Write its significance during respiration.

Answer:
The chloride ions (CI^–) inside RBC combine with potassium ion (K⁺) to form potassium chloride (KCL), whereas hydrogen carbonate ions (HCO^–₃) in the plasma combine with Na’ to form sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO₃) Nearly 70% of carbon dioxide is transported from tissues to the lungs in this form.

In response to chloride ions (CI^–) diffuse from plasma into erythrocytes to maintain the ionic balance. This is called the chloride shift.

Significance: It maintains electrochemical neutrality during respiration.

Question 2.
What is the role of the carbonic anhydrase enzyme in the transport of gases during respiration?

Answer:
Carbon dioxide produced by the tissues diffuses passively into the bloodstream and passes into the red blood corpuscles where it reacts with water to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃). This reaction is catalysed by the enzyme, carbonic anhydrase found in the erythrocytes and takes less than one second to complete the process. Immediately after its formation, carbonic acid dissociates into hydrogen (H⁺) and bicarbonate (HCO₃^–) ions. The majority of bicarbonate ions (HCO₃^– ) formed within the erythrocytes diffuse out into the plasma along a concentration gradient. These combine with haemoglobin to form the haemoglobin acid (H.Hb).

Question 3.
What is partial pressure? How does it help in gaseous exchange during respiration?

Answer:
During inspiration and expiration, gases move freely by the process of diffusion. Diffusion of any molecule takes place from high to low concentration. The process of diffusion is directly proportional to the pressure caused by the gas alone. The pressure exerted by an individual gas is called partial pressure. It is represented as PO₂, PCO₂, and PN₂, for oxygen, carbon dioxide and nitrogen respectively.

The inspired air ultimately reaches the alveoli of the lung, which in turn receives the blood supply of the pulmonary circulation. At this stage the oxygen of the inspired air is taken in by the blood and carbon dioxide is released into the alveoli for expiration.

In this way, the gases exchange takes place due to partial pressure.

Question 4.
How does hemoglobin help in the transport of oxygen from the lung to tissues?

Answer:
Blood is the medium for the transport of oxygen from the respiratory organ to the different tissues and carbon dioxide from tissues to the respiratory organs. 97% of the oxygen is transported from the lungs to the tissues in combination with hemoglobin (Hb + O₂ — HbO₂), oxyhemoglobin and 3% is transported in dissolved condition by the plasma.

Under high partial pressure oxygen easily binds with hemoglobin in the pulmonary capillaries. When this oxygenated blood reaches the different tissues, the partial pressure of oxygen declines and the bonds holding oxygen to hemoglobin become unstable. As a result, oxygen is released from the capillaries.

Question 5.
Explain breathing disorders in brief.

Answer:

1. Asthma is caused by an allergic reaction. There is difficulty in breathing.
2. Pneumonia is caused by bacterial infection. There are fever, pain and severe cough.
3. Tuberculosis is an infectious bacterial disease of the lungs and in serious cases, blood may come out while coughing.

Question 6.
In what form O₂ is carried in blood? What happens to it when blood reaches the tissue?

Answer:
O₂ is carried in combination with the hemoglobin of RBCs and forms oxyhemoglobin.

In tissues, there is the dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin and release of Or It diffuses into the tissue cells where it is used in oxidation.

Question 7.
Explain gas transport in the blood.

Answer:
It may be explained in two steps.
(a) Transport of O₂ from lungs to tissues.
(b) Transport of CO₂ from tissues to lungs.

A. Oxygen Transport

1. O₂ is transported in the blood via haemoglobin.
2. O₂ diffuses into RBC and combines with haemoglobin to form oxyhaemoglobin.
3. Oxyhaemoglobin breaks into haemoglobin and oxygen at the tissues, where there are high PCO₂ and PO₂.
4. In the lungs, oxyhaemoglobin is formed due to high PO₂ and low PCO₂.

B. CO₂ Transport: CO₂ is transported in 3 ways with blood.

1. 70% of CO₂ in RBC reacts with H₂O to form H₂CO₃
   
2. The rest 30% CO₂ combining with Hb to form carbon haemoglobin. (HCO₃^– carried by RBC and plasma)
3. Some CO₂ dissolves in plasma on reaching the lungs.
   HCO₃^– + H + H₂CO₃
   H₂CO₃ CO₂ + 2H₂O
   And this CO₂ is expelled out through the lungs.

Question 8.
Name and explain the respiratory organs of the following,
(i) Insect

Answer:
Insect: The integument of insects is thick and highly impermeable to minimise the loss of water through the environment. The exchange of gases cannot take place through the skin covering of these insects. These insects have a highly developed complex system called the tracheal. This mode of respiration is called tracheal respiration.

(ii) Neries
Answer:
Neries: Parapodia is the respiratory oxygen in neries. In this organism respiratory occurs through the skin covering the parapodia (Locomotory organs), which is again very thin, moist, permeable and highly vascular.

(iii) Prawn
Answer:
Prawn: Gills, in the animals like prawns, certain molluscs, fishes, tadpoles, the process of gaseous exchange occur by special respiratory organs called gills. These are richly supplied with blood and readily absorb oxygen found dissolved in water and release CO₂ back into the water.

(iv) Birds
Answer:
Birds: (lungs). In birds and mammals, the skin is impermeable. These have a high metabolic rate and their oxygen requirement is very high. Birds have spongy lungs to have a more extensive respiratory surface. These lungs always remain in the body to keep the respiratory surface moist, which is necessary for the exchange of respiratory gases.

(v) Fishes
Answer:
Oxygen and carbon dioxide dissolves in water, and most fishes exchange dissolved oxygen and carbon dioxide in water by means of the gills.

(vi) Earthworm.
Answer:
Earthworms do not have lungs. They breathe through their skin. Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass through the earthworm’s skin by diffusion

Question 9.
Define the following terms:
(a) Anaerobic respiration,

Answer:
Anaerobic respiration: It is a process that does not involve the use of molecular oxygen. Food is not completely oxidised to CO₂ and water. Less energy is present in anaerobic respiration.

(b) Breathing,
Answer:
Breathing: It is a physical process, which brings in fresh air to the respiratory surface and removes foul impure airs from the outside. It occurs outside the cells and is thus an extracellular process.

(c) Vital capacity,
Answer:
Vital capacity: It is defined as an important measure of pulmonary capacity. It is the maximum amount of air a person can expel from the lungs after first filling the lungs to their maximum extent.

Vital capacity is the sum total of inspiration reserve volume, tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume.
(1 + 1 + VC = IRV = TV/ERV)

(d) Tidal volume,
Answer:
Tidal volume: It is defined as the volume of air normally inspired or expired in one breath without doing any effort. It is about 500 ml in an adult person. It represents the volume of air, which is renewed in the respiratory system during every breathing.

(e) Respiratory centre.
Answer:
Respiratory centre: A number of groups of neurons located bilaterally in the medulla oblongata control the respiratory. These are called respiratory centres. These centres are named the dorsal respiratory group. Ventral respiratory group and pneumatic centre.

Question 10.
Write the role of the diaphragm and its Costals muscles in the breathing process.

Answer:
During breathing, when the lungs contract their volumes decrease resulting in the increase of air pressure in the lungs. Hence, the air is exhaled from the lungs. These two processes are called inspiration and expiration. During normal breathing, the downward and upward movement of the diaphragm takes place. When the diaphragm, contracts, the lower surface of the lung is pulled downward consequently the volume of the lungs increases.

This causes the inhalation of air or inspiration. When the diaphragm relaxes, lungs are compressed and air exhaled, expiration takes place. The demand for extra oxygen is fulfilled by the expansion of the rib cage, during exercise when the rate of breathing increases.

During expiration, high pressure is generated in the lungs and air moves out. The upward movement of the rib cage is caused mainly by the external intercostals muscles present between the ribs along with the assistance of few other adjacent muscles.

Similarly, the downward movement of the rib cage is facilitated by the internal intercostals, external oblique and internal oblique muscles, position of the diaphragm, ribs and sternum during breathing as shown in the diagram

Position of diaphragm, ribs and sternum during breathing

Short Answer Type Questions:

Q1. The following are certain laws. Are they connected with any value? If yes, then what is the underlying value? Give reasons.a. Both daughters and sons will have share in the family property.b. There will be different slabs of sales tax on different consumer items.c. Religious instructions will not be given in any government school.d. There shall be no begar or forced labour.
Answer

a. Idea of equality and social justice. It treats both children equally by giving inheritance to them irrespective of their gender.

b. Economic justice as it reflects the importance of certain consumer items for people and seeks to discourage the consumption of other items deemed as non-essential.

c. Secularism as it shows that the government does not give importance to any religion in particular.

d. Idea of social justice as it strives to end forced labour and protect workers from exploitation.

Q2. Which of the options given below cannot be used to complete the following statement?Democratic countries need a constitution toi. Check the power of the government.ii. Protect minorities from majority.iii. Bring independence from colonial rule.iv. Ensure that a long-term vision is not lost by momentary passions.v. Bring social change in peaceful manner.

Answer

iii. Bring independence from colonial rule.
Q3. The following are different positions about reading and understanding Constituent Assembly debates.i. Which of these statements argues that Constituent Assembly debates are relevant even today? Which statement says that they are not relevant?ii. With which of these positions do you agree and why?a. Common people are too busy in earning livelihood and meeting different pressures of life. They can’t understand the legal language of these debates.b. The conditions and challenges today are different from the time when the Constitution was made. To read the ideas of Constitution makers and use them for our new times is trying to bring past in the presentc. Our ways of understanding the world and the present challenges have not changed totally. Constituent Assembly debates can provide us reasons why certain practises are important. In a period when constitutional practises are being challenged, not knowing the reasons can destroy them.

Answer

i. (a) This statement says that they are not relevant.

(b)  The Constituent Assembly debates are relevant even today because a history of our Constitution is still very much a history of the present but the above said statement argues that they are not relevant.

(c) This statement argues that Constituent Assembly debates are relevant even today.

ii. (a) Yes, I do agree with the position. The debates of constituent Assembly are relevant so as to understand and interpret the various articles of the Constitution but they contain a lot of legal terms which the common man can’t easily comprehen.

(b) I do agree with this statement. As we see that our Constitution during the period of fifty six years about 100 times has been amended.

(c) I agree with this position also because the most important challenges have not changed totally.

Q4. Explain the difference between the Indian Constitution and western ideas in the light ofa. Understanding of secularism.b. Articles 370 and 371.c. Affirmative action.d. Universal adult franchise.

Answer

a. Indian secularism is based on principled distance whereas that of western secularism is based on mutual exclusion. In India, every religion is treated equally so that every citizen can be treated equally and can enjoy a life of dignity. In the west, religion cannot interfere in matters of State and the State cannot interfere in matters of religion.

b. The articles 370 and 371 give special rights to the state of Jammu and Kashmir and the north-eastern states respectively according to their peculiar social and historical background. This type of provision of accommodation is not found in western countries.

c. Affirmative action in India is based on principle of social justice without compromising on individual liberties. In India affirmative action was introduced two decades before it was introduced in U.S.

d. Every Indian citizen whose age is 18 years or above, is eligible to vote whereas in established democratic countries right to vote was extended to women and working class in the 20th century after a long struggle.

Q5. Which of the following principles of secularism are adopted in the Constitution of India?

a. that state will have nothing to do with religion b. that state will have close relation with religion c. that state can discriminate among religions d. that state will recognis e rights of religious groupse. that state will have limited powers to intervene in affairs of religions.

Answer

d. that state will recognise rights of religious groups
e. that state will have limited powers to intervene in affairs of religions

6. Match the following.

(a) Freedom to criticize treatment of widows	1. Substantive achievement
(b) Taking decisions in the constituent assembly on the basis of reason, not self interest	2. Procedural achievement
(c) Accepting importance of community in an individual’s life	3. Neglect of gender justice
(d) Article 370 and 371	4. Liberal individualism
(e) Unequal rights to women regarding family property and children	5. Attention to requirements of a particular

Answer

(a) Freedom to criticize treatment of widows	4. Liberal individualism
(b) Taking decisions in the constituent assembly on the basis of reason, not self interest	2. Procedural achievement
(c) Accepting importance of community in an individual’s life	1. Substantive achievement
(d) Article 370 and 371	5. Attention to requirements of a particular
(e) Unequal rights to women regarding family property and children	3. Neglect of gender justice

Q7. This discussion was taking place in a class. Read the various arguments and state which of these do you agree with and why.
Jayesh: I still think that our Constitution is only a borrowed document.
Saba: Do you mean to say that there is nothing Indian in it? But is there such a thing as Indian and western in the case of values and ideas? Take equality between men and women. What is western about it? And even if it is, should we reject it only because it is western?
Jayesh: What I mean is that after fighting for independence from the British, did we not adopt their system of parliamentary government?
Neha: You forget that when we fought the British, we were not against the British as such, we were against the principle of colonialism. That has nothing to do with adopting a system of government that we wanted, wherever it came from.
Answer

The arguments of Saba and Neha are correct that the idea of equality cannot be rejected merely because it is of western origin. The values that are a part of the Constitution are universal and thus, cannot be discriminated as Indian or Western. It is also correct that while the British were unjust in their policy of colonialism, there were certain principles of their governance that were modern and suitable as they allowed people to choose their own representatives. Thus, the positive values of British system should not be ignored on the basis of negative impact of British colonialism. 

Q8. Why is it said that the making of the Indian Constitution was unrepresentative? Does that make the Constitution unrepresentative? Give reasons for your answer.

Answer

It said that the making of the Indian Constitution was unrepresentative because the members of the Constituent assembly were chosen by a restricted franchise and not by universal suffrage. It does not make the Constitution unrepresentative because it contains the aspirations and voice of every section of the nation. The Constitution has also provided for a democratic system of government with a head of the republic.

Q9. One of the limitations of the Constitution of India is that it does not adequately attend to gender justice. What evidence can you give to substantiate this charge? If you were writing the Constitution today, what provisions would you recommend for remedying this limitation?

Answer

The Constitution of India has some limitations also. It cannot be said that it is a perfect and lawless document.It is true that there are inadequate provisions for gender justice in the Constitution. Though it is a fundamental right of every citizen to be treated equally but there is no specification of the basis of gender but specification is made on religion, caste and class.

Citizens cannot be exploited or discriminated on the basis of their caste, class, language and religion but there is no mention of gender. Respect for women has been confined to the directive principles and women’s rights are not specified so that they can be interpreted and defended by the judiciary. The status of women within family has also been ignored in the Constitution. Thus, it makes no special privileges for almost half of the population while there are provisions for affirmative action for other socially backward groups and minorities.

If I were writing the Constitution today I would recommend some provisions for the empowerment of women. Just like the reservation systems, I would like to make the provisions for reservation of at least thirty three percent seats for women in the central and State Legislatures.

Q10. Do you agree with the statement that “it is not clear why in a poor developing country, certain basic socio-economic rights were relegated to the section on Directive Principles rather than made an integral feature of our Fundamental Rights”? Give reasons for your answer. What do you think are the possible reasons for putting socio-economic rights in the section on Directive Principles?

Answer

It is correct that basic socio-economic rights were relegated to directive principles. These rights should have been incorporated particularly for backward classes in the same manner as the cultural rights of minorities. A developing country like India requires the fulfilment of the potential of human resources. For this reason, it is essential that the socio-economic requirements of all sections of society are met and all groups have equal opportunities.

The possible reason for putting socio-economic rights in the section of Directive Principles was the lack of adequate resources in a newly independent nation. Making socio-economic rights a feature of fundamental rights would have placed a burden on the state.

Besides, the economic development path of the newly independent country was already concerned with planned development whose benefits were to be made available to all sections of the society.

Q11. How did your school celebrate the Constitution Day on November 26th?

Answer

Constitution Day or Samvidhan Divas is celebrated in our ABC School on 26th of November to honor and remember the father of Constitution, Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar the architect of the Indian constitution. The Assembly began with the Principal addressing the students from classes 5th to 12th about the significance of the Constitution Day and the importance of being a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic and Republic country. The Principal led the students in taking the pledge by reciting The Preamble to the Constitution.A special period was taken up during the day by the Social Studies Teachers who explained in detail the meaning of the Constitution, the Preamble, the Five year Plan and the Directive Principle.

Long Answer Type Questions :

Q1.Define duty. What are the fundamental duties given in the Constitution of India?
Answer:
Duty is a positive or negative work that one is assigned to do either one likes or not. Hence 10 fundamental duties have been inserted in the Constitution of India:

• To obtain by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, i.e. National Flag and National Anthem.
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired national struggle for freedom. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of nation.
• To defend the country and national service to be rendered if required.
• To promote harmony and the spirit of brotherhood and to renounce practices derogatory to women.
• To value and preserve the rich heritage of India.
• To protect and improve the natural environment and have compassion for living creatures.
• To develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform.
• To safeguard public property and to adjure violence.
• To strive towards excellence to rise the nation at the constant highest level of achievements.

Short Answer Type Question:

Q1. Choose the correct statement from the following.
A constitution needs to be amended from time to time because,
• Circumstances change and require suitable changes in the constitution.• A document written at one point of time becomes outdated after some time.
• Every generation should have a constitution of its own liking. It must reflect the philosophy of the existing government.
Answer
• Circumstances change and require suitable changes in the constitution.

Q2. Write True / False against the following statements.
a. The President cannot send back an amendment bill for reconsideration of Parliament.► True
b. Elected representatives alone have the power to amend the Constitution.► True
c. The Judiciary cannot initiate the process of constitutional amendment but can effectively change the Constitution by interpreting it differently.► False
d. Parliament can amend any section of the Constitution.►

Answer: True

Q3. Which of the following are involved in the amendment of the Indian Constitution? In what way are they involved?a. Votersb. President of Indiac. State Legislaturesd. Parliamente. Governorsf. Judiciary
Answer
a. Voters: Voters are not involved in the amendment of the Indian Constitution.
b. President of India: When a Constitutional amendment bill is passed by the Parliament, it is sent to the President. The Constitutional amendment bill become an Act when it is signed by the President.
c. State Legislatures:  If an amendment bill is concerned with the article and the subjects given in the Article 368, it must be approved by fifty per cent of the State legislatures.
d. Parliament: Parliament has to include an amendment, which would underlay one particular interpretation as the authentic one whenever there is a clash between the judiciary and the government over different interpretations of amendment bill. In both the houses of the Parliament, the amendment bill will be passed only if half of the total strength of both the houses is separately in the favour of the amendment bill. The supporters of the amendment bill must constitute two-third of the voters in both the houses separately.
e. Governors: Governors have no role to play in the amendment of the Constitution except those amendment bills which are to be approved by the State legislature. Those amendment bills are also signed by the Governor.
f. Judiciary: The judiciary has interpreted various provisions that concern right to education, right to life etc. to an informal amendment. It helps in the matter by balancing the spirit and letter of the Constitution.

Q4. You have read in this chapter that the 42nd amendment was one of the most controversial amendments so far. Which of the following were the reasons for this controversy?a. It was made during national emergency, and the declaration of that emergency was itself controversial.b. It was made without the support of special majority.c. It was made without ratification by State legislatures.d. It contained provisions, which were controversial.
Answer
a. It was made during national emergency, and the declaration of that emergency was itself controversial.
d. It contained provisions, which were controversial.

Q5. Which of the following is not a reasonable explanation of the conflict between the legislature and the judiciary over different amendments?a. Different interpretations of the Constitution are possibleb. In a democracy, debates and differences are natural.. Constitution has given higher importance to certain rules and principles and also allowed for amendment by special majority.d. Legislature cannot be entrusted to protect the rights of the citizens.e. Judiciary can only decide the constitutionality of a particular law; cannot resolve political debates about its need.
Answer
d. Legislature cannot be entrusted to protect the rights of the citizens.

Q6. Identify the correct statements about the theory of basic structure. Correct the incorrect statements.a. Constitution specifies the basic tenets.b. Legislature can amend all parts of the Constitution except the basic structure.c. Judiciary has defined which aspects of the Constitution can be termed as the basic structure and which cannot.. This theory found its first expression in the Kesavananda Bharati case and has been discussed in subsequent judgments.e. This theory has increased the powers of the judiciary and has come to be accepted by different political parties and the government.
Answer
a. Incorrect. The Constitution does not specify the basic tenets as it does not mention anywhere about the basic structure. This theory is given by the judiciary of India that looks into the spirit rather than the letter.

b. Correct

c. Incorrect. The judiciary has not explicitly defined the basic structure of the Indian Constitution. However, it has given various interpretations from time to time in its judgments.

d. Correct

e. Correct

Q7. From the information that many amendments were made during 2000-2003, which of the following conclusions would you draw?. Judiciary did not interfere in the amendments made during this period.b. One political party had a strong majority during this period.c. There was strong pressure from the pubic in favour of certain amendments.d. There were no real differences among the parties during this time.e. The amendments were of a non-controversial nature and parties had an agreement on the subject of amendments.
Answer
e. The amendments were of a non-controversial nature and parties had an agreement on the subject of amendments.

Q8. Explain the reason for requiring special majority for amending the Constitution.
Answer
Special majority is required for amending the Constitution to make the process of amendment difficult. This is done to ensure that political parties do not pass amendments arbitrarily and any proposed amendment has the support of more than half the number of members of the actual strength of the house and not simply those that are present in the house. Special majority is inclined towards building a broad support among parliamentarians on issues of amendment.

Q9. Many amendments to the Constitution of India have been made due to different interpretations upheld by the Judiciary and Parliament. Explain with examples.
Answer
• The first amendment act of 1951, made changes in the constitution due to some flows in the working of constitution and those were to be remedied.• Many laws made on abolition of Zamindari System were declared Ultra Vires by courts, hence,constitution was amended.
• In the case of Keshavananda Bharti, Parliament’s power to amend the constitution was checked andlimited them by instructing not to violate the basic structure of constitution as well as parliament canamend if clashes arise between the judiciary and the government.
• In 1971, by 24th amendment parliament got the power to amend the constitution including thefundamental rights.
• The 42nd amendment in 1976 reduced the power of the judiciary and sought to restore the legislature to a pre-eminent position. It made changes in the preamble, the seventh schedule and 53 articles of the Constitution.

Q10. If amending power is with the elected representatives, judiciary should NOT have the power to decide the validity of amendments. Do you agree? Give your reasons in 100 words.
Answer
I do not agree with the statement that the judiciary should not have the power to decide the validity of amendments. The judiciary is authorised to interpret the Constitution. Judiciary as an institution is involved in actively interpreting the provisions of the Constitution while pronouncing its judgments. It is more acquainted with the fundamentals of the Constitution than any other body. This power of judiciary checks the inappropriate and arbitrary use of the amendments by any political party that is in the power and also defends the fundamental rights of the people.

Long Answer Type Questions :

Q1.“The Constitution of India is a living document”. Explain.
Answer:
The Constitution of India is a living document. It can be enumerated in the following terms:

• It has continuously been responding to the various circumstances from time to time.
• Our constitution came into force on January 26, 1950, since then the government is supposed to work within its framework
• The constitution makers made the best efforts to accommodate the various changes as per needs and aspirations of society.
• It is open to interpretations and the ability to respond to the changing situations.
• It protects the rule of law in favour of democratic set up.
• The constitution responds to various experiences also.
• Though many changes have taken place, still the constitution works in an effective manner.

Q2.Mention the different methods to amend the constitution.
Answer:
By a simple majority:

• Amendments can take place by a resolution passed by simple majority in both the houses of parliament.
• It creates the most flexible features of the constitution.
• It can be amended/passed by simple majority of members present and voting in both the houses.
• Its examples are changing the boundaries of states, creation of new states, fixing the number of judges in Supreme Court, etc.

By two third majority in both the houses of Parliament:

• Resolution should be passed by a two-third majority of the members present and voting in both the houses of parliament.
• Amendment resolution can be moved in any house and if passed by majority of total membership and 2/3 majority of members present and voting it is sent to the other house.
• If the same procedure takes place in the other house also, the bill is passed. id) Many times Rajya Sabha has rejected the amendment bills passed by Lok Sabha, i.e. bill on Panchayats and Nagarpalikas.

By two-third majority in both the houses of Parliament and approval of half of the state legislature:

• Amendment should be passed by both the houses of Parliament with majority of total member strength and of 2/3 majority of those present and voting.
• The resolution should be ratified by at least half of the state legislature.

Short Answer Type Question:

Q1. Constitution of India visualised village panchayats as units of selfgovernment. Think over the situation described in the following statements and explain how do these situations strengthen or weaken the panchayats in becoming units of self-government.a. Government of a State has allowed a big company to establish a huge steel plant. Many villages would be adversely affected by the steel plant. Gram Sabha of one of the affected villages passed a resolution that before establishing any big industries in the region, village people must be consulted and their grievances should be redressed.b. The government has decided that 20 % of all its expenditure would be done through the panchayats.c. A village panchayat kept on demanding funds for a building for village school, the government officials turned down their proposal saying that funds are allocated for certain other schemes and cannot be spent otherwise.d. The government divided a village Dungarpur into two and made a part of village Jamuna and Sohana. Now village Dungarpur has ceased to exist in government’s books.e. A village panchayat observed that water sources of their region are depleting fast. They decided to mobilise village youth to do some voluntary work and revive the old village ponds and wells.
Answer
a. It strengthens the village panchayat as the gram sabha can take decision independently for the welfare of the village people.

b. It strengthens the village panchayat as it makes more resources available at their disposal. It allows them to spend according to their local needs.

c. It weakens the village panchayat as it does not have enough funds to maintain and carry out welfare projects in the village. It has to depend on the government officials for funds.

d. It strengthens the panchayat as it creates new unit of self government and allows more power in the hands of people.

e. It strengthens the self governance of the village as it shows the ability of the village panchayat to mobilise the village to utilise their own resources without any help from the state government.

Q2. Suppose you are entrusted to evolve a local government plan of a State, what powers would you endow to the village panchayats to function as units of self-government? Mention any five powers and the justification in two lines for each of them for giving those powers.
Answer
• Allowing panchayats to raise their own funds: The Gram Panchayat should have the power to impose taxes, i.e., house tax, tax on agricultural land, pilgrim tax, tax on fairs and festivals etc so that Panchayat have sufficient funds for the development of the village.

• Right to Plan: Village Panchayat should be given the power to make plan for the development of village. This would lead to development of village economy and cooperation between various panchayats.

• Welfare Programmes: Village Panchayat should have the power to choose welfare programmes for the village.
• Allocation of Resources: Resources like water and pastureland should come under the village panchayat to enable their maintenance and prevent their degradation. This would engage the entire community in their conservation.

Q3. What are the provisions for the reservations for the socially disadvantaged groups as per the 73rd amendment? Explain how these provisions have changed the profile of the leadership at the village level.
Answer
In 1993, two constitutional amendment Acts, were passed to recognise local self-government at the grass-root level. 73rd amendment made the following provisions:• The reservation of seats has been made for SCs, STS, OBCs and women.
• Reservation for women at panchayats has ensured the participation of women in local bodies.
• Due to this reservation, a number of women have occupied even the position of Sarpanch andAdhyaksha.
• Thus, more than 80,000 women Sarpanch have been elected so far.

Q4. What were the main differences between the local governments before 73rd amendment and after that amendment?
Answer
The main differences between the local governments before 73rdamendment and after the amendment can be listed as:

• After the implementation of 73rd amendment, the local government has been divided into a uniform three-tier Panchayati Raj structure.

• Earlier the state administration was responsible for conducting elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions but now the state government has to appoint a state election commission for this purpose.

• After dissolution of the Panchayati Raj before its term of five years a fresh election has to be conducted within six months. This was not the case before the 73rd amendment was passed.

• Distribution of revenue between the state government and local government and between rural and urban government is done by the state election commission. This was not the case before the 73rd amendment was implemented.

• Reservation for women, scheduled caste and scheduled tribes and to other backward classes (if the state government thinks it is necessary for OBCs) is implemented for various positions in the local government according to the proportion of their population.

• Twenty-nine subjects that were earlier in the State list of subjects in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution have been transferred to the Panchayati Raj institutions. 

Q5. Read the following conversation. Write in two hundred words your opinion about the issues raised in this conversation.Alok: Our Constitution guarantees equality between men and women. Reservations in local bodies for women ensure their equal share in power.Neha: But it is not enough that women should be in positions of power. It is necessary that the budget of local bodies should have separate provision for women.Jayesh: I don’t like this reservations business. A local body must take care of all people in the village and that would automatically take care of women and their interests.
Answer

the Constitution has guaranteed equality between men and women. Reservations have ensured the participation of women in decision making process at the local level. There are almost 200 women Adhyakshas in Zila Panchayats, 2000 women are Presidents of the block or taluka panchayats and more than 80,000 women Sarpanchas in Gram Panchayats. More than 30 women hold the positions of Mayors in Corporations, over 500 women Adhyakshas of Town Municipalities and nearly 650 women are head of Nagar Panchayats.Due to reservation, women have gained confidence and they are understanding the working of local bodies in a better way. In many cases they have given a new perspective and sensitivity to the discussions held at local bodies. However, the social status of women can only be increased through their economic independence and funds are required for this purpose. Therefore, the budget of local bodies should have provisions for women, particularly their health, education and livelihood.

Q6. Read the provisions of the 73rd Amendment. Which of the following concerns does this amendment address?a. Fear of replacement makes representatives accountable to the people.b. The dominant castes and feudal landlords dominate the local bodies.c. Rural illiteracy is very high. Illiterate people cannot take decisions about the development of the village.d. To be effective the village panchayats need resources and powers to make plans for the village development.
Answer
d. To be effective the village panchayats need resources and powers to make plans for the village development.

Q7. The following are different justifications given in favour of local government. Give them ranking and explain why you attach greater significance to a particular rationale than the others. According to you, on which of these rationales the decision of the Gram panchayat of Vengaivasal village was based? How?
a. Government can complete the projects with lesser cost with the involvement of the local community.b. The development plans made by the local people will have greater acceptability than those made by the government officers.c. People know their area, needs problems and priorities. By collective participation they should discuss and take decisions about their life.d. It is difficult for the common people to contact their representatives of the State or the national legislature.
Answer
• People know their area, needs problems and priorities. By collective participation they shoulddiscuss and take decisions about their life.
• Government can complete the projects with lesser cost with the involvement of the localcommunity.
• The development plans made by the local people will have greater acceptability than those madeby the government officers.
• People know their area, needs problems and priorities. By collective participation they should discuss and take decisions about their life.

Q8. Which of the following according to you involve decentralisation? Why are other options not sufficient for decentralisation?a. To hold election of the Gram Panchayat.b. Decision by the villagers themselves about what policies and programmes are useful for the village.c. Power to call meeting of Gram Sabha.d. A Gram Panchayat receiving the report from the Block Development Officer about the progress of a project started by the State government.
Answer
b. Decision by the villagers themselves about what policies and programmes are useful for the village. Rest of the three options do not involve decentralisation because elections can be held, meeting can be called and projects can be monitored even in a centralised form of government. These features are not related to the decision-making process, which is the most important aspect of decentralisation.

Q9. A student of Delhi University, Raghavendra Parpanna, wanted to study the role of decentralisation in decision making about primary education. He asked some questions to the villagers. These questions are given below. If you were among those villagers, what answer would you give to each of these questions?A meeting of the Gram Sabha is to be called to discuss what steps should be taken to ensure that every child of the village goes to the school.a. How would you decide the suitable day for the meeting? Think who would be able to attend / not attend the meeting because of your choice.(i) A day specified by the BDO or the collector(ii) Day of the village haat(iii) Sunday(iv) Naag panchami / sankrantib. What is a suitable venue for the meeting? Why?(i) Venue suggested by the circular of the district collector.(ii) Religious place in the village.(iii) Dalit Mohalla.(iv) Upper caste Tola(v) Village schoolc. In the Gram Sabha meeting firstly a circular sent by the district collector was read. It suggested what steps should be taken to organise an education rally and what should be its route. The meeting did not discuss about the children who never come to school or about girls’ education, or the condition of the school building and the timing of the school. No women teacher attended the meeting as it was held on Sunday.What do you think about these proceedings as an instance of people’s participation?d. Imagine your class as the Gram Sabha. Discuss the agenda of the meeting and suggest some steps to realise the goal.
Answer
(a) (ii) The day of village haat would be the most appropriate due to availability of a number of peoples to sell and purchase the commodities.
b. (v) Village school would be the suitable place for the meeting because the meeting is regarding education irrespective of the caste, gender and religion of the children.
c. It is not an instance of people’s participation as women teachers did not attend the meeting, girl’s education was not discussedand children who had never been to school were not considered. The condition of the building and timing of the school were also ignored. Thus, most issues that were vital to the participation of people were ignored as issues related to all groups were not considered.
d. The agenda• The school building should be renovated with proper seats and blackboards in all classrooms.• Regularity of students in school, if not, how to make it regular.• School principal would be responsible for the quality and quantity of the food provided to the students.• About required construction activities in village.

Long Answer Type Questions :

Q1.Mention some subjects included in the eleventh schedule.
Answer:
Eleventh schedule was listed with the 29 subjects in 1992 by the 73rd Amendment Act:

• Agriculture and agricultural extension.
• Minor irrigation, water management and watershed development.
• Small scale industries including food processing.
• Rural housing.
• Drinking water.
• Roads, culverts
• Rural electrification
• Poverty alleviation programmes.
• Primary and secondary education.
• Technical training and vocational education.
• Adult and non-formal education.
• Libraries
• Cultural activities
• Markets and fairs
• Health and sanitation.
• Family welfare
• Women and child development
• Social welfare.
• Welfare of weaker sections especially SC’s and ST’s
• Public Distribution System.
• Fuel and Fodder
• Non-conventional energy resources.
• Maintenance of community assets.
• Fisheries
• Animal husbandry, dairy poultry.
• Soil forestry
• Implementation of land reforms, soil conservation, etc.
• Khadi village and cottage industries.
• Minor forest produce.

Q2.Explain the three tier structure of Panchayati Raj alongwith one function of each of them.
Answer:
The Panchayati Raj has three-tier system:

• Gram Panchayat at village level
• Panchayat Samiti at block level
• Zila parishad at district level

Composition of Gram Panchayat:
The members of the Gram Panchayat are elected by Gram Sabha and every adult who is the resident of village has the right to vote in these elections.
Functions:

• Makes arrangements for pure drinking water.
• To improve sanitary conditions.
• Makes efforts for improving health of people by opening hospitals and dispensaries.

Composition of Panchayat Samiti:

• The members are elected directly by Universal Adult Franchise.
• MLAs, MPs, SDM, BDO are the ex-office members.
• Apart, other members are elected and seats are reserved for SC’s and ST’s in proportion of population.
• 30% seats are reserved for women.
• Its term is for five years.

Functions:

• It looks after all the works of the gram panchayat in the area.
• Promote scientific and modern agricultural practices and distributes seeds, fertilizers and scientific equipments.

3. Composition of Zila Parishad:

• The chairman will be elected by the elected members.
• MPs, MLAs, Collector, Deputy Collectors, SDMs will be ex-officio members.
• The provision of Zila Parishad is composed of elected members.
• A finance commission will be set up to review financial position and to recommend allocation of funds and grants in aid.

Functions:

• To co-ordinate the working of Gram panchayats and panchayat samitis in the districD.
• The panchayat samitis pass their annual budget and send it to Zila Parishad. 120

Q3.Distinguish between Gram Panchayat and Gram Sabha. What are the functions of Gram Panchayat?
Answer:
Difference:

• Gram Sabha consists of all the adult members (who has attained the age of 18 years) of a village or a cluster of villages constituting Gram Sabha, whereas Gram Panchayat is a small body, whose members are elected by the members of Gram Sabha.
• The term of office of Gram Panchayat is for five years whereas the Gram Sabha is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution.
• Gram Panchayat is an executive organ and monitors and evaluates the activities of Gram panchayat.

Functions:

• Gram Panchayat looks after better health and life of the people to make proper civic amenities as village sanitation,drinking water, arrangements of lightening, etc.
• Gram Panchayat keeps the records of birth and death in village to ensure effective implementation of family planning and family welfare programmes, i.e. animal husbandry, agricultural development, etc.
• Gram Panchayat is responsible for certain development functions at village level, i.e. construction of roads, irrigation, etc.

Q4.What is the importance of local bodies in modern times?
Answer:

• The local self bodies are related with the daily life of the people to perform functions related to education, sanitation, public health, etc.
• The local bodies provide the right solution of the local problems due to participation of local peoples, where the central and state governments are unable to pick up the exact nature of problem.
• The local bodies lessen the work-load of the central and state government because they could not spare time to look into the local matters. Hence, local bodies can solve these problems easily.
• The local bodies develop the qualities of citizens to awaken the political consciousness and to experience the sense of liberty and equality which is essential for the success of democracy.
• It creates decentralization of powers, where people directly participate in the daily need, jobs and feed satisfied.

Short Answer Type Question:

Q1.  From the list of following events which ones would you identify with the functioning of federalism? Why?
(a) The Centre on Tuesday announced Sixth Schedule status to GNLF-led Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council, which would ensure greater autonomy to the governing body in the Hill district of West Bengal. A tripartite Memorandum of Settlement was signed in New Delhi between the Centre, West Bengal government and the Subhas Ghising-led Gorkha National Liberation Front (GNLF) after two days of hectic deliberations.
(b) Government for action plan for rain-hit States: Centre has asked the rain-ravaged States to submit detailed plans for reconstruction to enable it to respond to their demands for extra relief expeditiously.
(c) New Commissioner for Delhi: The Capital is getting a new municipal commissioner. Confirming this, present MCD Commissioner Rakesh Mehta said he has received his transfer orders and that he is likely to be replaced by IAS officer Ashok Kumar, who is serving as the Chief Secretary in Arunachal Pradesh. Mehta, a 1975 batch IAS officer, has been heading the MCD for about three-and-a-half years.

(d) CU Status for Manipur University: Rajya Sabha on Wednesday passed a Bill to convert the Manipur University into a Central University with the Human Resource Development Minister promising such institutions in the North Eastern States of Arunachal Pradesh, Tripura and Sikkim as well.

(e) Funds released: The Centre has released Rs. 553 lakh to Arunachal Pradesh under its rural water supply scheme. The first instalment was of Rs. 466.81 lakh.

(f) We’ll teach the Biharis how to live in Mumbai: Around 100 Shiv Sainiks stormed J. J. Hospital, disrupted daily operations, raised slogans and threatened to take matters into their own hands if no action was taken against non-Maharashtrian students.

(g) Demand for dismissal of Government: The Congress Legislature Party (CLP) in a representation submitted to State Governor recently, has demanded dismissal of the ruling Democratic Alliance of Nagaland (DAN) government for its alleged financial mismanagement and embezzlement of public money.

(h) NDA government asks naxalites to surrender arms: Amid a walkout by opposition RJD and its allies Congress and CPI (M), the Bihar government today appealed to the naxalites to shun the path of violence and reaffirmed its pledge to root out unemployment to usher in a new era of development in Bihar.

Answer

(a) Yes, the agreement between the centre, state government and the GNLF involves the functioning of a federal structure as it allows autonomy in governance at the state and provincial level.

(b) Yes, it involves the functioning of federalism because flood relief is undertaken by the states while being funded by the centre.

(c) No, it does not involve the functioning of federalism because this appointment reflects a centralised authority.

(d) No, it does not reflect a federal structure as a centralised university comes under the control of the central government.

(e) Yes, it involves the functioning of federalism as the centre is providing funds to the state of Arunachal Pradesh under its rural water supply scheme. The state can then make use of the funds for its own development.

(f) No, it does not involve the functioning of federalism because it is hampering the essence of federalism. This act of Shiv Sena is violation of citizen’s rights as well as spirit of federalism.

(g) No, it does not involve the functioning of federalism as demand for the dismissal of a duly elected state government is an attack on the federal structure.

(h) Yes, it involves the functioning of federalism as the problem of naxalism is being tackled by government at state level.

Q2. Think which of the following statements would be correct. State why.
• Federalism enhances the possibility of people from different regions to interact without the fear of one’s culture being imposed upon them by others.
• Federal system will hinder easier economic transaction between two different regions that have distinct types of resources.
• A federal system will ensure that the powers of those at the centre will remain limited.

Answer

• This statement is correct because the federal government distributes the power between the central government and the state government and local self-government.

• This statement is not correct because the resources are of distinct type and federalism gives impetus to the economic transaction among different regions.

• This statement is correct because federalism refers more powers to the constituent units of federation.

Q3. Based on the first few articles of Belgian constitution – given below – explain how federalism is visualised in that country. Try and write a similar Article for the Constitution of India.

Title I: On Federal Belgium, its components and its territory.

Article 1 : Belgium is a Federal State made up of communities and regions.
Article 2 : Belgium is made up of three communities: The French Community, the Flemish Community and the German Community.
Article 3 : Belgium is made up of three regions: The Walloon region, the Flemish region and the Brussels region.
Article 4 : Belgium has four linguistic regions: The Frenchspeaking region, the Dutch-speaking region, the bilingual region of Brussels Capital and the German-speaking region. Each «commune» (county borough) of the Kingdom is part of one of these linguistic regions. ……..
Article 5 : The Walloon region is made up of the following provinces: The Walloon Brabant, Hainault, Liege, Luxemburg and Namur. The Flemish region is made up of the following provinces: Antwerp, the Flemish Brabant, West Flanders, East Flanders and Limburg. ……

Answer

The federal structure of Belgium is based upon communities, regions and languages. There are three communities and regions and four linguistic regions in the country.

Title I: On Federal India, its components and its territory.

Article 1 : India is a Federal State made up of communities and regions.

Article 2 : India has more than 20 major languages and several hundred minor languages.

Article 3 : India has many religions.

Article 4 : India is divided into 28 states and 7 union territories.

Article 5 : India has two separate levels of government, one at the centre and another at the state level. The power of the central government is greater than that of the state government.

Q4. Imagine that you were to rewrite the provisions regarding federalism. Write an essay of not more than 300 words making your suggestions about:
a. division of powers among the centre and the States,
b. distribution of financial resources,
c. methods of resolving inter-State disputes and
d. appointment of Governors

Answer

a. The powers of the central and state government should be separated where the states enjoy their autonomy and the central government has the advantage of having more power than that of the state government. All subjects included in the Union list should be exclusively under the jurisdiction of the Parliament. Those subjects in the State list should be exclusively with the States. Residuary Powers should be under the jurisdiction of the Union Parliament.
b. Both the Union and the State Government must have enough sources of revenue to carry out their legislative and administrative business. In India, the financial power has also been distributed between the Centre and the states. There should be a clear cut division of financial resources between the Centre and the states. Some taxes should be levied by the Central government and should also be collected by it. Revenue from these taxes should be exclusively with the Centre. Some taxes should be levied by the state government and should also be collected by it. Some taxes should be levied and collected by the Centre but income should be distributed between the Centre and the states. The resources of the state should be sufficient. The states should not depend upon the Centre for grant-in-aid. The Union Government may make loan to the states but in accordance with the provisions of the Act passed by the Parliament.

c. The central government has to take initiative to resolve interstate disputes in a time bound manner and the order of the Supreme Court would be final in this regard. An inter-state committee can be established by the Parliament. This committee enquirers into the dispute and submits its report and recommendations to the Parliament.

d. The governor should be appointed by the central government in consultation with the state government. This would prevent the misuse of the office of the governor. The candidate for the post of the Governor should not be from political background. The conditions for the imposition of President’s rule should be made very strict to prevent the abuse of this provision. State governments should have the right to challenge their dismissal in Supreme Court.

Q5. Which of the following should be the basis for formation of a State? Why?
a. Common Language
b. Common economic interests
c. Common religion d. Administrative convenience

Answer

Administrative convenience
The administrative convenience should be the basis of formation of state as it helps in the better administration and welfare of the citizens or people of that area. This would automatically lead to economic development and the development of a common economy. Language was previously the basis of formation of many states. However, as has been found in the case of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, it is clear that even language is not a sufficient basis to ensure regional stability.

Q6. Majority of people from the States of north India – Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar—speak Hindi. If all these States are combined to form one State, would it be in tune with the idea of federalism? Give arguments.

Answer

No.
The unification of four large states with large populations would not be in tune with the idea of federalism because there are many regional variations in the local issues that affect people in these states. AFrom an administrative point of view, the creation of one very large state with a huge population would lead to imbalances in the distribution of resources across the territory. This would lead to unequal development and conflicts between various regions with the failure to fulfil the aspirations of all people.

Q7. List four features of the Indian Constitution that give greater power to the central government than the State government.

Answer

• Division of power in favour of centre: Various subjects have been demarcated in the division of lists, i.e. union list-97 subjects, states list 66 and concurrent list-47 subjects. All the subjects, which have national importance, included in the union list. In case of any conflict on the subjects of concurrent list, the saying of the central government is important, rather than state government.

• National Emergency: During the declaration of national emergency, the government is changed to a unitary form, from a federation. If emergency is declared in a particular state due to failure of constitutional machinery there, the legislative powers goes into the hands of the center and the executive power goes in the hands of the President In case of declaration of financial emergency by the President, the center is again authorized to issue directions concerning the economy of the state and they will obey it.

• Appointment of Governors: The Governor is the head of the state as well as an agent of the central government. He is appointed by the President of India and remains in the office till the pleasure of the President. Hence, Governors act according to the wishes of the central government.

• Articles 33 and 34 have strengthened the powers of the central government by authorising the parliament to protect persons in service of the union. The state governments cannot take disciplinary action nor can remove any administrative officer appointed by the central government.

Q8. Why are many States unhappy about the role of the Governor?

Answer

Many states are unhappy about the role of the governor because the governor is appointed by the central government. Therefore, there is a possibility of the governor’s office being used to control and remove the state government. The governor is not elected but appointed by the central government and can be a retired military officer, civil servant or politician. The governor can suspend the elected state government and can also dissolve the legislative assembly. The governor also has the power to reserve a bill passed by the state government for the assent of the President.

Q9. President’s rule can be imposed in a State if the government is not being run according to the provisions of the Constitution. State whether any of the following conditions are a fit case for imposition of President’s rule in the State. Give reasons.
(a) two members of the State legislative assembly belonging to the main opposition party have been killed by criminals and the opposition is demanding dismissal of the State government.
(b) Kidnapping of young children for ransom is on rise. The number of crimes against women are increasing.
(c) No political party has secured majority in the recent elections of the State Legislative Assembly. It is feared that some MLAs from the other parties may be lured to support a political party in return for money.
(d) Different political parties are ruling in the State and at the centre and they are bitter opponents of each other.
(e) More than 2000 people have been killed in the communal riots.
(f) In the water dispute between the two States, one State government refused to follow the decision of the Supreme Court.

Answer

(a) No. Killing of two members of the State legislative assembly belonging to the main opposition party by the criminals is not valid ground for removal of the state government as it is a law and order problem.

(b) No. Rise in kidnapping of young children for ransom and the number of crimes against women is also a law and order problem.

(c) No. President’s rule cannot be imposed in a state without giving the largest political party or alliance a chance to prove their majority on the floor of legislative assembly.

(d) No. Two parties are ruling in the State and at the Center is the federalism, though they may be bitter opponents to each other but it is not the situation to impose President’s rule.

(e) Yes. If the state is inefficient to control the riots then President’s Rule needs to be implemented as it represents a complete failure of the administration.

(f) Yes. If one state has refused to follow the decision of Supreme Court then it is a case of breakdown of constitutional order and fit for imposition of President’s rule.

Q10. What are the demands raised by States in their quest for greater autonomy?

Answer

• Demand for separation of state and central power: Tamil Nadu, West Bengal and Punjab have demanded that more important powers should be assigned to the states.

• Financial autonomy: Some states have demanded for independent sources of revenue and greater control over resources.

• Administrative autonomy: States have demanded that the centre should not have control over the administrative machinery of the state.

• Cultural and Linguistic: Some states have demanded for autonomy on the basis of language and culture.

Q11. Should some States be governed by special provisions? Does this create resentment among other States? Does this help in forging greater unity among the regions of the country?

Answer

It is essential that some states should be governed by the special provisions on the basis of historical, cultural and social circumstances and administrative requirements. The north-eastern states, Jammu & Kashmir, the hilly state of Himachal Pradesh and some other states like Andhra Pradesh, Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Sikkim are governed by special provisions.

• Under Article 370, Jammu and Kashmir enjoys more autonomous powers rather than the other
States.

• Under Article 371, the north-eastern states like Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Assam, Nagaland, etc. enjoy special provisions due to sizeable indigineous tribal population with a distinct history and culture.

Special provisions has created resentment among other states as there is a fear that these provisions would lead to separation in those areas. Many people oppose these provisions because they believe that there should be equal division of powers in federal state.

Long Answer Type Questions :

Q1.Legislative powers have been distributed between the central and state government. Justify.
Answer:
Legislative relations between the central and state government have been distributed through the various lists, i.e. the union list, state list and concurrent list:
1. The union list:

• The union list contains 98 subjects after 42nd amendment, (Previously had 97)
• On these, subjects, only central government can frame or implement laws.
• These subjects are of national importance and equally applicable to citizens of India.
• Its examples are defence, foreign affairs, railways, peace and war, communication, etc.

2. The state list:

• This list contains 66 subjects after 42nd amendment (Previously were 62)
• On these subjects, only states can legislate the laws.
• These subjects are of state importance.
• Its examples are police, education, public health, law and order, local-self government, etc.

3. Concurrent list:

• This list contains 52 subjects after 42nd amendment. (Previously were 47)
• Both the central and state governments can implement laws the subjects.
• Its examples are marriage, divorce, electricity, price control, etc.

4. Residuary powers:
To make the center very strong, the residuary powers have been given to the central government only.

5. Union government can implement laws on the subjects of state list:

• At the resolution of Rajya Sabha by 2/3 majority which has declared any subject of national importance.
• If two or more states request the union government to enact law on particular subject.
• If emergency has been proclaimed either on the basis of failure of constitutional machinery or war, external or internal aggression and armed revolt.

Q2.What is the administrative relationship between the central and state government in India? Explain.
Answer:

• The central government is empowered to give directions to the state government if it feels that any law has become a hindrance in the functioning of central government of any law has not been executed very well.
• The governors of the states are appointed by the central government only who works as an agent between the centre and the state. The governor informs about the functioning of the state to the central government, and council of ministers reserves the right to remove him also.
• The parliament establishes an inter-state council also to enquire into the inter-state disputes, to submit recommendations, and to consider the common interest.
• If an emergency is proclaimed, due to external or internal aggression or war or failure of constitutional machinary, all the powers are vested into the hands of central government to implement the laws on the subjects mentioned in the state list.

Short Answer Type Question:

Q1. What are the different ways in which the independence of the judiciary is ensured? Choose the odd ones out.
i. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court is consulted in the appointment of other judges of Supreme Court.ii. Judges are generally not removed before the age of retirement.
iii. Judge of a High Court cannot be transferred to another High Court.
iv. Parliament has no say in the appointment of judges.
Answer
iii. Judge of a High Court cannot be transferred to another High Court.
iv. Parliament has no say in the appointment of judges.

Q2. Does independence of the judiciary mean that the judiciary is not accountable to any one? Write your answer in not more than 100 words.
Answer
Independence of judiciary means that it should be honest and impartial in giving its judgement. It should be free from any outside control of the executive or the legislature. The judiciary has to work according to the laws written in the constitution. Any kind of misbehaviour and incapacity of the judges can lead to their removal from the post. The judges have to write and explain the grounds of their decision made in the court. They cannot rule one way today and the opposite tomorrow in the same case. The judiciary cannot interfere in the sphere of legislature and executive. The system has to function independently while having accountability to the Constitution.

Q3. What are the different provisions in the constitution in order to maintain the independence of judiciary?
Answer
The different provisions in the constitution in order to maintain the independence of judiciary are:
• The conduct of the judges cannot be discussed in the parliament.
• The legislature is not involved in the process of appointment of judges.
• The judges have fixed tenure that ensures that they can work fearlessly. They can be removed only in exceptional cases.
• The removal of judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts is extremely difficult.
• The approval of the legislature is not required for salaries and allowances of the judges.
• The authority of the judges protects them from any unfair criticism and the judiciary can penalise those who are guilty of contempt of court.
• The instructions of the judiciary have to be followed by the legislature and executive of the country.

Q4. Read the news report below and identify the following aspects:
• What is the case about?
• Who has been the beneficiary in the case?
• Who is the petitioner in the case?
• Visualise what would have been the different arguments put forward by the company.
• What arguments would the farmers have put forward?
Supreme Court orders REL to pay Rs 300 crore to Dahanu farmersOur Corporate Bureau 24 March 2005Mumbai: The Supreme Court has ordered Reliance Energy to pay Rs. 300 crore to farmers who grow the chikoo fruit in the Dahanu area outside Mumbai. The order comes after the chikoo growers petitioned the court against the pollution caused by Reliance’s thermal power plant.Dahanu, which is 150 km from Mumbai, was a self-sustaining agricultural and horticultural economy known for its fisheries and forests just over a decade ago, but was devastated in 1989 when a thermal power plant came into operation in the region. The next year, this fertile belt saw its first crop failure. Now, 70 per cent of the crop of what was once the fruit bowl of Maharashtra is gone. The fisheries have shut and the forest cover has thinned. Farmers and environmentalists say that fly ash from the power plant entered ground water and polluted the entire eco-system. The Dahanu Taluka Environment Protection Authority ordered the thermal station to set up a pollution control unit to reduce sulphur emissions, and in spite of a Supreme Court order backing the order the pollution control plant was not set up even by 2002. In 2003, Reliance acquired the thermal station and re-submitted a schedule for installation process in 2004. As the pollution control plant is still not set up, the Dahanu Taluka Environmental Protection Authority asked Reliance for a bank guarantee of Rs. 300 crores.
Answer
• The case is about the loss borne by the farmers in the production of chikoo because of the pollution generated by the thermal power plant of Reliance Energy.

• The farmers have been the beneficiary in the case.

• The chikoo growing farmers are the petitioner in the case.
• The company would have given the argument that the government should pay compensation to the farmers. The people of Dahanu area got more employment opportunities with the establishment of Thermal Plant. (i) The company would set up pollution control plant at the earliest.
• (i) Fertile land.(ii) The fisheries have shut down and the forest cover has thinned.(iii) The farmers would have demanded more compensation

Q5. Read the following news report and• Identify the governments at different levels
• Identify the role of Supreme Court
• What elements of the working of judiciary and executive can you identify in it?
• Identify the policy issues, matters related to legislation, implementation and interpretation of the law involved in this case.Centre, Delhi join hands on CNG issueBy Our Staff Reporter, The Hindu 23 September 2001NEW DELHI, SEPT. 22. The Centre and the Delhi Government today agreed to jointly approach the Supreme Court this coming week… for phasing out of all non-CNG commercial vehicles in the Capital. They also decided to seek a dual fuel policy for the city instead of putting the entire transportation system on the single-fuel mode “which was full of dangers and would result indisaster.’’It was also decided to discourage the use of CNG by private vehicle owners in the Capital. Both governments would press for allowing the use of 0.05 per cent low sulphur diesel for running of buses in the Capital. In addition, it would be pleaded before the Court that all commercial vehicles, which fulfil the Euro-II standards, should be allowed to ply in the city. Though both the Centre and the State would file separate affidavits, these would contain common points. The Centre would also go out and support the Delhi Government’s stand on the issues concerning CNG.These decisions were taken at a meeting between the Delhi Chief Minister, Ms. Sheila Dikshit, and the Union Petroleum and Natural Gas Minister, Mr. Ram Naik.Ms. Dikshit said the Central Government would request the court that in view of the high powered Committee appointed under Dr. R.A. Mashelkar to suggest an “Auto Fuel Policy”’ for the entirecountry, it would be appropriate to extend the deadline as it was not possible to convert the entire 10,000-odd bus fleet into CNG during the prescribed time frame. The Mashelkar Committee is expected to submit its report within a period of six months.The Chief Minister said time was required to implement the court directives. Referring to the coordinated approach on the issue, Ms. Dikshit said this would take into account the details about the number of vehicles to be run on CNG, eliminating long queues outside CNG filling stations, the CNG fuel requirements of Delhi and the ways and means to implement the directive of the court.The Supreme Court had …refused to relax the only CNG norm for the city’s buses but said it had never insisted on CNG for taxis and auto rickshaws. Mr. Naik said the Centre would insist on allowing use of low sulphur diesel for buses in Delhi as putting the entire transportation system dependent on CNG could prove to be disastrous. The Capital relied on pipeline supply for CNG and any disruption would throw the public transport system out of gear.
Answer
• The governments at different levels are the state government and the central government, represented by the chief minister and the Union petroleum minister respectively.
• The Supreme Court has played an active role in upholding public interest by instructing authorities to take steps to curb pollution.

• The action of the judiciary is an example of judicial activism and writ jurisdiction. The executive is concerned with the implementation of the directives of the judiciary.
• (i) Policy involved is to phase out all non-CNG commercial vehicles in the capital(ii) To discharge the use of CNG by private vehicle owners in the capital.(iii) All commercial vehicles, which fullfil the EuroIl standards should be allowed to ply in the city.
(iv) The Supreme Court refused to relax the only CNG norm for the city’s buses but said it had never insisted on CNG for taxis and auto rickshaws.

Q6. The following is a statement about Ecuador. What similarities or differences do you find between this example and the judicial system in India?“It would be helpful if a body of common law, or judicial precedent, existed that could clarify a journalist’s rights. Unfortunately, Ecuador’s courts don’t work that way. Judges are not forced to respect the rulings of higher courts in previous cases. Unlike the US, an appellate judge in Ecuador (or elsewhere in South America, for that matter) need not provide a written decision explaining the legal basis of a ruling. A judge may rule one way today and the opposite way, in a similar case, tomorrow, without explaining why.”
Answer
The differences between the judicial system in India and Ecuador can be cited as:

• Unlike the judges in Ecuador, Indian judges have to follow the instructions and rulings of higher courts in previous cases.
• Indian judges have to provide a written decision that explains the legal basis of a ruling.
• An Indian judge may not rule one way today and in the other way tomorrow in the same case and he has to give explanation of the decision of every ruling in written form.

Q7. Read the following statements: Match them with the different jurisdictions the Supreme Court can exercise – Original, Appellate, and Advisory.• The government wanted to know if it can pass a law about the citizenship status of residents of Pakistan-occupied areas of Jammu and Kashmir.• In order to resolve the dispute about river Cauvery the government of Tamil Nadu wants to approach the court.• Court rejected the appeal by people against the eviction from the dam site.
Answer
• Advisory• Original• Appellate

Q8. In what way can public interest litigation help the poor?
Answer
Public interest litigation can help the poor by:• It can seek to protect the fundamental rights and better the living conditions of the poor.
• It can allow public spirited citizens, social organisations and lawyers to file cases on behalf of those who cannot approach the courts.
• The judiciary can also consider the cases on the basis of newspaper reports and postal complaints received by the court.• The courts can direct the executive to comply with its orders and provide remedial action to the aggrieved party whose rights have been violated.
• PILs have also expanded the idea of rights and thus, have led to formation of new norms for public good like clean air and water that have benefitted the entire society.

Q9. Do you think that judicial activism can lead to a conflict between the judiciary and the executive? Why?
Answer
Judicial activism can lead to a conflict between the judiciary and the executive because of the interference of the judiciary in the domain of the executive. Issues related to pollution, investigation of cases against corruption and electoral reforms that are ordinarily handled by the executive under the control of the legislature, are being resolved by the judiciary. Judicial activism also violates the democratic principle of respecting the powers and jurisdiction of each organ of government as it confers extraordinary powers on the judiciary. Thus, the balance between the three organs of the government has become very delicate.

Q10. How is judicial activism related to the protection of fundamental rights? Has it helped in expanding the scope of fundamental rights?
Answer
• Judicial activism is related to the protection of fundamental rights as it has made the judiciary more approachable by the common people seeking justice.
• The Supreme Court and High Court are the guardians of the Fundamental Rights mentioned in the Indian Constitution. Many Judgements of the Supreme Court related to the protection of Fundamental Rights symbolises judicial activism. In Sunil Batra Case, Justice Krishna Ayer stressed that the high pricing of legal publications monopolised by the government amounted to denial of equal protection of laws.

• The Supreme Court has the power to remedy the violation of fundamental rights by issuing writs of Habeas corpus and mandamus or by reviewing and declaring certain laws as unconstitutional.

• The public interest litigation helps the poor to fight against discrimination.

• Issues related to better living conditions, like clean air and water and pollution free environment, have also helped in the expansion of the scope of fundamental rights.

Long Answer Type Questions :

Q1.Explain the composition, original and appellate jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
Composition:
As per Article 124 (1) of the constitution provides that Parliament does not make provisions for the appointment of judges through a law as the Supreme Court shall have a Chief Justice and seven other judges. But this number has been increased several times by Parliament. Hence, at present there is a Chief Justice and 25 other judges.

Appointment and Tenure: The Chief Justice is appointed by the President of India and other judges are also appointed by the President on consultation with the Chief Justice. The judges hold their office till the age of retirement till they complete 65 years of age.

Original Jurisdiction:

As per Article 32, the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court extends, to issue various writs to enforce Fundamental Rights of the people and the high court enjoys concurrent jurisdiction over them.

The following cases of center and states directly come under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court:

• The dispute between the central government and state government.
• The central government and one or more states on the one hand and one or more states on the other or
• Two or more states are involved in the disputes.

But no such case will come under its jurisdiction (original) which is concerned with a treaty of contract to be negotiated before the enforcement of the constitution or a contract in which it is given specifically that the contract will not be taken to the Supreme Court.

Appellate Jurisdiction: The Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is classified into three types as constitutional, criminal and civil:

1. Constitutional Appeals:

• An appeal to the Supreme Court against the decision of high court for the interpretation of the constitution.
• Such appeal can be brought to the Supreme Court if high court certifies to require an interpretation in that particular case.
• If the Supreme Court grants a special leave of appeal.

2. Criminal Appeals:

• If high court certifies that a case is fit to take to the Supreme Court for an appeal.
• If a criminal acquitted by a lower court and is sentenced to death by high court.
• If a high court awards death sentence in a case which it had taken from a lower court undecided.

3. Civil Cases’ Appeals:

• The 30th amendment in 1972 brought some significant changes in civil proceedings against a judgement of high court required that the amount involved in subject matter of dispute should not be less than ? 20,000 for invoking the Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

Q2.Explain the composition and jurisdiction of the subordinate courts at the district level in India.
Answer:
The jurisdiction of the subordinate courts at the district level is classified into:
(a) The Criminal Courts
(b) The Civil Courts
(c) The Revenue Courts

(а) The criminal courts:

• The highest court in a district is the District and session judges’ court to be empowered to hear both the civil and criminal cases.
• The District and Session judges, both are the same person’ in case of hearing of civil cases, the same judge is known as session judge.
• He is appointed by the Governor of the state in the consultation with the Chief Justice of the high court under whose jurisdiction the state falls.
• Some other session judges can also be appointed if required.
• He hears appeals from subordinate courts in the matters of serious crimes, i.e. murder, dacoities, etc.
• He is empowered to award the sentence to death but this should be confirmed by the high court.
• The lowest criminal court in the district is third class Magistrate to hear small cases of beating and quarreling and is empowered to sentence one month’s imprisonment and fine of up to ? 50 only.
• The second class magistrate comes next to the above mentioned to hear the cases of some more graver nature and is empowered to sentence for six months’ imprisonment and fine up to ? 200 only.
• Then, comes first class Magistrate above them to enjoy appellate and original jurisdiction both in the cases involving a sentence of imprisonment up to two years and a fine up to ? 1,000.
• Against the first class Magistrate’s courts, the appeals can be filed in the district and session courts.

(b) The Civil Courts:

• The district judge is the highest civil court in a district.
• There are many sub-judges under him under various courts, to be divided into several ranks.
• These sub-judges can hear the cases involving an amount of? 5,000 only, who possess original jurisdiction and hear the appeals against MursiPs court also.
• The Munsif court is competent to hear the cases involving an amount of ? 2,000 only.
• Some courts competent to hear small cases involving an amount of? 1,000 have also been established and against the decision of this court, no appeal can be made because very experienced persons are appointed as judges here.
• There are also some senior civil judges to help the district judges who generally possess the powers of a district judges.

(c) Revenue courts:

• Revenue courts hear the appeals relating to revenue of the district.
• The lowest Revenue court is the court of Naib Tehsildar and above him, the court of Tehsildar to hear the revenue cases.
• The highest revenue court in the district is the court of Collector (Deputy Commissioner).
• Appeals against Deputy Commissioner’s court can be made in the court of commissioner.
• The appeals against commissioner’s court can be made in Board of Revenue and above it to the high court if required.

Q3.What is the importance of the judicial review of the Supreme Court of India?
Answer:
Judicial review is an examination by the courts in the cases of legislative status and executive and administrative acts to determine either they are prohibited by a written constitution or it is deemed to be in conflict with the basic law of constitution.
The Supreme Court acts as the guardian and finds interpreter of the constitution:

• Under Article 32(2) of the constitution, the Supreme Court will decide whether a law in connection with the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights is void or not in its review, or issue the writs if required.
• Under Article 24, court can review the extent of law made by legislatures of states.
• Under Article 246(3), the legislatures of any state has exclusive powers to make law on the subject in state list.
• Under Article 254, the Supreme Court can also decide any inconsistency between the law made by legislatures of the state.

Importance

• To interpret properly to the written constitution, the judicial review is necessary.
• To secure the public interests and safety of the states, the judicial review is necessary to protect the civil liberties.
• To understand some technical words and language in the constitution, the judicial review is must.