NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION CLASS – 12 | HISTORY | CHAPTER- 5 | THROUGH THE EYES OF TRAVELLERS PERCEPTION OF SOCIETY | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 5 THROUGH THE EYES OF TRAVELLERS PERCEPTION OF SOCIETY NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 12 HISTORY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON THROUGH THE EYES OF TRAVELLERS PERCEPTION OF SOCIETY

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NCERT Solutions for Class 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 and 12https://googleads.g.doubleclick.net/pagead/ads?client=ca-pub-7398766921532682&output=html&h=280&slotname=8380703770&adk=2839959104&adf=679976212&pi=t.ma~as.8380703770&w=728&fwrn=4&fwrnh=100&lmt=1642572674&rafmt=1&psa=1&format=728×280&url=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.learncbse.in%2Fimportant-questions-for-class-12-history-chapter-5%2F&flash=0&fwr=0&fwrattr=true&rpe=1&resp_fmts=3&wgl=1&uach=WyJXaW5kb3dzIiwiMTAuMC4wIiwieDg2IiwiIiwiOTcuMC40NjkyLjk5IixbXSxudWxsLG51bGwsIjY0Il0.&dt=1643128528415&bpp=2&bdt=1847&idt=172&shv=r20220119&mjsv=m202201200301&ptt=9&saldr=aa&abxe=1&cookie=ID%3D375d0d6278db0d5a-226174de9ccc009b%3AT%3D1634321088%3ART%3D1634321088%3AS%3DALNI_MYMCP6xL8yJkrJR0gy4vAPMxXHBOA&prev_fmts=0x0&nras=1&correlator=3794020639542&frm=20&pv=1&ga_vid=56497409.1634321086&ga_sid=1643128529&ga_hid=803275874&ga_fc=1&u_tz=330&u_his=33&u_h=768&u_w=1366&u_ah=728&u_aw=1366&u_cd=24&u_sd=1&dmc=4&adx=517&ady=94&biw=1349&bih=657&scr_x=0&scr_y=0&eid=42531397%2C44753738%2C21067496&oid=2&pvsid=1430799293843595&pem=133&tmod=1203926618&uas=0&nvt=1&ref=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2F&eae=0&fc=1920&brdim=0%2C0%2C0%2C0%2C1366%2C0%2C1366%2C728%2C1366%2C657&vis=1&rsz=%7C%7ClE%7C&abl=CS&pfx=0&fu=128&bc=31&ifi=2&uci=a!2&fsb=1&xpc=cIDMgjBWEz&p=https%3A//www.learncbse.in&dtd=182

Important Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 5 Through the Eyes of Travellers (Perceptions of Society)

December 11, 2019 by Bhagya

Important Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 5 Through the Eyes of Travellers (Perceptions of Society)

Important Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 5 – 2 Marks Questions

Question 1.
How had Bernier described a complex social reality of the artisans under the Mughals? Give one reason. (HOTS, Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Bernier projected the Mughal state as tyrannical, his descriptions hinted at a more complex social reality. He thought that artisans had no incentive to improve the quality of their manufactures as all the profits were enjoyed by the state.

Question 2.
Mention any two characteristics of the cities in the Indian sub-continent as described by Ibn Battuta. (All India 2011)
Answer:
Ibn Battuta described the cities of the sub-continent and mentioned important features of these as follows:

  1. These cities were densely populated and prosperous.
  2. These cities had crowded streets, bright and colourful markets with a wide variety of goods.

Question 3.
Name the book written by Ibn Battuta. What was his observation about female slaves in the sub-continent? (All India 2008)
Answer:
Ibn Battuta wrote the book named ‘Rihla’.
Ibn Battuta had following observation about the female slaves of Indian sub-continent:

  • The female slaves excelled in music and dance and they were employed in Sultan’s service,
  • They were also employed by the Sultan to keep an eye on his noble’s activities.

Important Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 5 – 4 Marks Questions

Question 4.
Examine the causes that made Al-Biruni visit India. (All India 2017)
Answer:
There are many causes that made Al-Biruni visit in India. These are:

  • Al-Biruni arrived in Ghazni as a hostage by Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni. It was the place where he developed an interest for India.
  • When the Punjab became a part of the Ghaznavid Empire, Al-Biruni travelled widely in the Punjab and parts of northern India.
  • Al-Briuni spent years in the Company of Brahmana priests and scholars, learning Sanskrit and studying religious and philosophical texts. He read the Vedas, the Puranas, the Bhagavad Gita, the works of Patanjali, the Manusmriti, etc to understand Indian society properly.

Question 5.
“India had a unique system of communication during the fourteenth century”. Examine the statement of Ibn Battuta. (All India 2017)
Answer:
Ibn Battuta examined the unique system of communication of India which impressed him very much. He explained:

  • There were two kinds of postal system in India. These were uluq (horse post) and dawa (foot-post).
  • Uluq stationed at a distance of every four miles while the dawa has three stations per mile, means one-third of a mile.
  • The foot-post is quicker than the horse post and often it was used to transport the fruits of Khurasan.
  • Ibn Battuta was also amazed by the efficiency of the postal system which allowed merchants to not only send information and remit credit across long distances, but also to dispatch goods required at short notice.
  • The postal system was so efficient that while it took fifty days to reach Delhi . from Sind, the news reports of spies would reach the sultan through the postal system in just five days. Thus, enabled the ruler to keep a strict watch over the vast empire.

Question 6.
Examine why Bernier described the Mughal .towns as the ‘Camp Towns’. (All India 2017)
Answer:
Bernier described Mughal cities as ‘camp towns’. By camp towns he mean towns that depended for their survival on the imperial court. He believed that these towns came into existence when the imperial court moved in the area and rapidly lost their importance when imperial court moved out. These towns became singificant with the royal patronage, basically they did not have any other social and economic foundations. During Mughal period, 15 per cent of the population lived in these ‘camp towns’ according to Bernier.

Question 7.
State the inherent problems faced by Al-Biruni in the task of understanding Indian social and Brahmanical practices. Mention any two sources that provided him the support. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Al-Biruni mentioned several ‘barriers’ that obstructed proper understanding of Indian social and Brahmanical practices. These were:

  • Sanskrit was so different from Arabic and Persian that ideas and concepts could not be translated from one language to another.
  • The second barrier was the difference in religious beliefs and practices.
  • The self-absorption and consequent insularity of the local population constituted the third barrier.

Two sources that provided Al-Biruni support were:

  • Al-Biruni depended exclusively on the Vedas, the Puranas and the Bhagavad Gita.
  • Al-Biruni also mentioned the support from the works of Patanjali and Manusmriti to understand Indian society.

Question 8.
“Bernier’s description of imperial land ownership influenced Western theorists like French philosopher Montesquieu and German Karl Marx.” Justify it with suitable arguments. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Bernier asserted that in Mughal empire, the land was owned by the state and hence it led to the decline of agricultural production. It was harmful both for the state and its people.
This description of Bernier influenced the Western theorists from the 18th century onwards in following ways:

‘Oriental Despotism’ Theory by Montesquieu:
Montesquieu further developed Bernier’s idea into oriental despotism. According to it, the rulers in Asia exercised the full authority over their subjects. The subjects were kept in the conditions of subjugation and poverty. All land belonged to the king and private property was non-existent. According to this view, everybody except the king and nobles barely managed to survive.https://googleads.g.doubleclick.net/pagead/ads?client=ca-pub-7398766921532682&output=html&h=280&adk=1731550593&adf=20262191&pi=t.aa~a.3125218112~i.36~rp.4&w=750&fwrn=4&fwrnh=100&lmt=1642572674&num_ads=1&rafmt=1&armr=3&sem=mc&pwprc=3683862639&psa=1&ad_type=text_image&format=750×280&url=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.learncbse.in%2Fimportant-questions-for-class-12-history-chapter-5%2F&flash=0&fwr=0&pra=3&rh=188&rw=750&rpe=1&resp_fmts=3&wgl=1&fa=27&adsid=ChEIgNy-jwYQ6_-qqIXZk5HlARI5ACLaFk6Usd8S75EodwFzXpuD25CusXdktcdzfakOR_5grJvNw1cx8x1m98USzY-KK6p1JZoLzCgu&uach=WyJXaW5kb3dzIiwiMTAuMC4wIiwieDg2IiwiIiwiOTcuMC40NjkyLjk5IixbXSxudWxsLG51bGwsIjY0Il0.&dt=1643128529473&bpp=4&bdt=2905&idt=-M&shv=r20220119&mjsv=m202201200301&ptt=9&saldr=aa&abxe=1&cookie=ID%3D375d0d6278db0d5a-226174de9ccc009b%3AT%3D1634321088%3ART%3D1634321088%3AS%3DALNI_MYMCP6xL8yJkrJR0gy4vAPMxXHBOA&prev_fmts=0x0%2C728x280&nras=2&correlator=3794020639542&frm=20&pv=1&ga_vid=56497409.1634321086&ga_sid=1643128529&ga_hid=803275874&ga_fc=1&u_tz=330&u_his=33&u_h=768&u_w=1366&u_ah=728&u_aw=1366&u_cd=24&u_sd=1&dmc=4&adx=105&ady=3451&biw=1349&bih=657&scr_x=0&scr_y=1725&eid=42531397%2C44753738%2C21067496&oid=2&psts=AGkb-H-21CD2h0T3E9PCLgdSeHbyXImItbp_WBX0czQ0o5OLPIq0saFP5Tlq1jqh_OIiVripOIEUB18WCsCY&pvsid=1430799293843595&pem=133&tmod=1203926618&uas=3&nvt=1&ref=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2F&eae=0&fc=1408&brdim=0%2C0%2C0%2C0%2C1366%2C0%2C1366%2C728%2C1366%2C657&vis=1&rsz=%7C%7Cs%7C&abl=NS&fu=128&bc=31&jar=2022-01-25-16&ifi=3&uci=a!3&btvi=1&fsb=1&xpc=pCiwk3wk11&p=https%3A//www.learncbse.in&dtd=112

Karl Marx’s Concept of ‘Asiatic Mode’ of Production:
This idea was further developed as the concept of the Asiatic mode of production by Karl Marx in the 19th century.
He argued that in India and other Asian countries, the surplus was appropriated by the state. He added that this led to the emergence of a society with a large number of autonomous and egalitarian village communities. Marx thought that it was a stagnant system.

Question 9.
Explain Al-Biruni’s description of caste system.
Answer:

Al-Biruni’s description of the caste system was influenced by his study of the Sanskrit texts. These texts written by the Brahmanas and followed the four divisions of varna. Al-Biruni accepted this division. According to him, the Brahmana was created from the head of God, Brahma and regarded as the highest caste of society.

The next caste was Kashatriyas, who were created from the shoulders and hands of Brahma. After them followed the Vaishyas, who were created from the thigh of Brahma. The Shudras were created from the feet of Brahma.
However, as these classes differed from each other, they lived together in the same town and villages, mixed together in the same houses and lodgings. In real life, this system was not quite as rigid.

Question 10.
“Ibn Battuta found Delhi as a city full of exciting opportunities.” Support your answer with evidences given by him.
Answer:

Ibn Battuta arrived at Delhi in the 14th century. His description regarding Indian cities was very informative and helpful to understand the lifestyle of Indians.
He described Indian cities in the following ways:

  • Indian cities were densely populated and prosperous although sometimes these were affected by the wars.
  • Most cities had crowded streets and bright colourful markets with a wide variety of commodities.
  • Delhi with its vast population became the largest city in India. Daulatabad was no less, easily rivalled Delhi in size.
  • The rampart round the city was widely expanded. Inside the rampart, there were houses for the night sentry, gate keepers and store houses.
  • The lower part of the rampart was built of stone and the upper part was of bricks. It had many towers.
  • There were twenty eight gates in Delhi, which were called as ‘Darwazas’. Of these gates, Budaun darwaza, Mandi darwaza, Gul darwaza were very famous.
  • The markets and bazaars of Indian cities were the places of economic transactions and social and cultural activities. Most of the bazaars had a masjid and a temple. These places also had fixed spaces for public performances by dancers, musicians and singers.
  • Ibn Battuta found that many towns derived their wealth and prosperity through the appropriation of surplus from villages.

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NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION CLASS – 12 | HISTORY | CHAPTER- 4 | THINKERS, BELIEFS AND BUILDING CULTURAL DEVELOPMENTS | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 4 THINKERS, BELIEFS AND BUILDING CULTURAL DEVELOPMENTS NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS for Class 12 HISTORY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON THINKERS, BELIEFS AND BUILDING CULTURAL DEVELOPMENTS

Question 1.
Describe the Tirthankaras of Jainism. Discuss their main teachings about Jainism.
Answer:

Jainism has 24 Tirthankaras. It had the following most important Tirthankaras :
1. Rishabhnath. He was the first Tirthankara of Jainism. According to tradition, he was a king. He left his throne for his son named Bharat.

2. Pasharvnath. He was the 23rd Tirthankara of Jainism. He was the son of Ashavsen, the King of Kashi. He renounced the world at the age of thirty. He attained true enlightenment after a deep meditation for only three months. He spent the rest of his life as a Dharam Guru. He attained Nibbana at the age of a hundred.

3. Vardhman Mahavir. He was the 24th and the last Tirthankara of Jainism. He was born at Vaishali in the 6th century B.C.E. His childhood name was Vardhman. The name of his father was Siddharth and the name of his mother was Trishala. He was married to Yashodhara when he was quite young and was blessed with a son. He left his house at the age of thirty and practiced penance for many years. He attained enlightenment at the age of forty-two. He spent the rest of his life preaching religion. He attained Nibbana at the age of seventy-two.

Teachings of Jainism and Tirathankars. The religion that the Tirathankars preached came to be known as Jainism. The main teachings of this religion are as follows :

  1. Tri-Ratna. According to Jainism, the ultimate aim of human life is the attainment of Nirvana or salvation. There are three means to attain this nirvana—pure knowledge, pure character, and pure philosophy. These three principles of Jainism are known as the Tri-ratan.
  2. Belief in Penance. The followers of Jainism believed in asceticism and penance. They gave more and more torture to their bodies. They believed that salvation could be achieved by giving more and more pain to the human body.
  3. Non-Violence. Jainism has emphasized ahimsa or non-violence in life. The followers of this religion believed that all things of this world are animate. So they considered it a sin to cause any injury to any human being, animal, plant, or insect.
  4. No Faith in God. The followers of Jainism do not believe in God though they accept its existence. They worship their Tirathankars in place of God.
  5. No Faith in the Vedas. The disciples of Jainism do not consider the Vedas as having divine knowledge. They do not consider the means of salvation mentioned in the Vedas as important. They believed that yajnas were futile.
  6. Belief in Soul. The followers of Jainism accept the existence of the soul. According to them, the soul is immortal. Though it is in the body, yet it is distinct and different from the body.
  7. No Faith in Caste System. The followers of Jainism do not believe in Casteism. According to them, all people are equal. No one can be high or low on the basis of caste.
  8. Belief in the Theory of Karma. According to Jainism, the cycle of birth and re-birth is shaped through Karma. The next birth depends on the deeds done in the present life. So we should perform good deeds.
  9. Attainment of Salvation. According to Jainism, salvation means that the soul should be free from the bond of Karmas. When the cycle of Karma ends, the individual attains salvation.
  10. Emphasis on Righteous Conduct. Mahavir inspired all his disciples and followers to lead a high world life. He advised all to beware of anger, greed, jealousy, theft, and unethical deeds.

Question 2.
How were the Stupas discovered? Comment on their export citing examples of the Stupas at Amaravati and Sanchi.
Answer:

The Stupa of Amaravati was found all of a sudden. In 1796, a local Raja wanted to build a temple. He stumbled upon the ruins of the Stupa at Amaravati. He decided to use the stone. Then he thought that there might be a treasure buried in that hill-like place. After many years, this site was visited by Colin Mackenzie, a British official. He found many pieces of sculpture. He made detailed drawings of them. But all his reports remained unpublished.

Walter Elliot, the Commissioner of Guntur (Andhra Pradesh) visited Amaravati in 1854. He collected many sculpture panes and took them away to Madras. These sculpture panes were later on known as the Elliot Marbles as they were named after his name. He also discovered the remains of the western gateway. He concluded that the structure at Amaravati was very large and magnificent.

In the 1850s, some of the slabs from Amaravati were taken to the Asiatic Society of Bengal at Calcutta. Some other slabs were taken to the India office in Madras. A few others were taken to London. These slabs of sculpture adorned the gardens of a few British administrators. In fact, whenever a new official came in the area, he removed a few sculptures from the site on the plea that earlier officials had done the same.

Export of the Stupas at Sanchi and Amaravati

A few archaeologists had a different view about the export of Stupas at Sanchi and Amaravati. According to H.H. Cole, “It seems to be a suicidal and indefensible policy to allow the country to be looted of original works of ancient art.” He believed that the original pieces of sculpture should not be dislocated. Rather all the museums should have plaster cast facsimiles of the sculpture. However, Cole failed to convince the officials about the importance of Amaravati. But his views about Sanchi were accepted. Hence, the Stupa at Sanchi survived whereas the Stupa at Amaravati could not.

Why did Sanchi survive whereas Amaravati did not?
Answer:
Amaravati was discovered earlier than Sanchi. But the scholars at that time could not realize the importance of preserving such monuments. They did not understand that these things should have been preserved where they had been found. They should not have been removed from the site.

Sanchi was discovered in 1818. At that time, three of its four gates were intact. They still stood in a good condition. The fourth gateway had fallen down. The entire mound was in good condition. No doubt some people suggested that the gateway should be taken either to Paris or London. But at last, Sanchi was kept as it was. On the other hand, the mahachaitya at Amaravati became an insignificant little mound. It had lost much of its past glory.

Question 3.
How did Puranic Hinduism grow? Give its main features.
Answer:

Puranic Hinduism originated from the notion of a Saviour. Two traditions were part of Hinduism-Vaishnavism and Shaivism. Vishnu was the principal deity in Vaishnav tradition and Lord Shiva was regarded as the chief God in Shaivism. In both traditions, special emphasis was laid on the worship of a specific deity. In this type of worship, the bond between the devotee and God was seen as one of love and devotion. It is called Bhakti.

Incarnation or Avtarism: Various cults were developed around various avatars of Vishnu in Vaishnavism. Ten avatars were recognized in this tradition. It has been believed that whenever the world is threatened by disorder and destruction because of the dominance of evil forces, the deity takes avatar to save the world in different forms. Probably different avatars were popular in different parts of the country. All the local deities were recognized as a form of Vishnu and Vaishnavism became a more unified religious tradition.

Sculptures: Some of the avatars represented in sculptures of other deities were also made. Shiva was represented by the ‘Linga’ but he was also represented in human form in many sculptures. All these representations of deities were based on a complex set of ideas. Their attributes and symbols were depicted from their headdresses, ornaments, and weapons or auspicious objects the deities hold in their hands, how they are seated, etc.

Stories of Puranas: In order to understand the meaning of these sculptures, historians have to be familiar with the stories associated with them. Some stories are found even in the most of the stories of Puranas were developed through mutual contracts of people. Priests, merchants, common men, and women used to move from one place to another and used to exchange their beliefs and ideas. For example, Vasudeva-Krishna was an important deity of the Mathura region. But during many centuries, his worship spread to different parts of the country as well.

Question 4.
How Buddhist texts were prepared and preserved?
Answer:

Buddha used to give teachings through debate and discussion. Men, women, and children attended these discussions and discussed what they heard. None of his teachings were written down during his lifetime. After his death, his followers called a council of elders at Vaishali. This council compiled all of his teachings. These compilations were known as Tripitaka which literally means the three baskets to hold different types of texts. Firstly they were transmitted orally and then written and classified according to their subject matter and length.

Tripitaka: Three pitakas are inlcuded in Tripitaka-Vinay Pitaka, Sutta Pitaka and Abhidhamma pitaka.

  • Vinay Pitaka is the collection of rules and regulations for those who joined the Sangha or monastic order.
  • Buddha’s teachings were included in Sutta Pitaka.
  • Philosophical matters are dealt with in Abhidhamma Pitaka.
    Each Pitaka consists of many individual texts. Later on, Buddhist scholars wrote commentaries on these texts.

Mahavamsa and Dipavamsa: When Buddhism spread to new lands like Sri Lanka, other texts like Mahavamsa and Dipavamsa were written. These texts contain regional histories of Buddhism. Some of these texts had biographies of Buddha. Most of the oldest texts were in the Pali language but later on, texts were also written in the Sanskrit language.

Preserving Buddhist text: When Buddhism spread to east Asian countries, then many pilgrims like Fa Xian and Xuan Zang traveled from China to India. They took many texts to their country where they were translated by many scholars. Indian Buddhist teachers also traveled to different countries.

They carried Buddhist texts with them to disseminate the teachings of Buddha. For many centuries, these manuscripts were preserved in monasteries of different parts of Asia. Scholars also prepared modem translations from Pali, Sanskrit, Chinese, and Tibetan texts.

Question 5.
Explain the structural and sculptural features of the Sanchi Stupa.
Answer:

Sanchi Stupa is considered among the best-preserved monuments of the time. It is one of the most important centre of early Buddhism.

The Structure of Stupas

The Stupa is a Sanskrit word meaning a heap. It is a simple semi-circular mound of earth. Later on, it was also called as anda. Slowly and steadily, its structure became complex because an attempt was made to balance the round and square shapes. Above the anda, it had the harmonica, a balcony-like structure. This balcony represented the abode of the gods. Near the harmonica, was a mast called the Yashti. It was often surmounted by a Chhatri or an umbrella. Around the mound, there was a railing.

It separated the sacred place from the secular world. The Stupas at Sanchi and Bharhut have stone railings. This railing was like bamboo or wooden fence. It had four gateways, which were richly carved and installed in four cardinal points. The worshippers mostly entered through the eastern gateway. They walked around the mound in a clockwise direction keeping the mound on right imitating the sun’s course through the sky.

The Sculpture of Sanchi Stupa

The sculpture depicts a rural scene, with thatched huts and trees. The sculpture at Sanchi identifies it as a scene from the Vessantara Jataka. This is a story about a generous prince who gave away everything to a Brahmana and went to live in the forest with his wife and children. Early sculptors did not show Buddha in human form but as symbols.

  • The empty seat was meant to indicate the meditation of the Buddha.
  • The stupa was meant to represent the mahaparinibbana.
  • Another symbol was the wheel, which indicated the first sermon of the Buddha, delivered at Sarnath.

Some of the sculptures at Sanchi were not directly inspired by Buddhist ideas. These include beautiful women swinging from the edge of the gateway, holding onto a tree. According to a popular belief, she is a representation of Shalabhanjika in Sanskrit.

This woman’s touch caused trees to flower and bear fruit. This auspicious symbol was used for the decoration of the stupa. Shalabhanjika motif suggests that many people who turned to Buddhism enriched it with their own pre-Buddhist and non-Buddhist beliefs, practices, and ideas. At Sanchi Stupa, many animals are carved into lively scenes derived from Jataka tales. These animals have human attributes. For example, an elephant denotes strength and wisdom.

The motif of Gajalakshmi or Maya-a a woman surrounded by lotuses and elephants sprinkling water on her as if performing abhisheka. She is regarded as the goddess of fortune. Other motifs include that of serpent worship derived from other popular traditions.

Question 6.
How did Sutta-Pitaka reconstruct the philosophy of ‘ Buddhism? Mention about Buddhist Tipitaka.
Answer:

Sutta Pitaka is an important text of Buddhism. The Buddha’s teachings have been reconstructed from the stories found mainly in the Sutta Pitaka. Although few stories describe his miraculous powers, others suggest that the Buddha tried to convince people through reason and persuasion rather than through displays of supernatural power. For example, when a grief-stricken woman whose child had died came to Buddha.

He gently convinced her about the inevitability of death rather than bring her back to life. These stories were narrated in the language spoken by ordinary people so that these could be easily understood. According to Buddhist philosophy, the world is transient (anicca) and constantly changing; it is also soulless (anatta) as there is nothing permanent or eternal in it. Within this transient world, sorrow (dukkha) is intrinsic to human existence.

Humans can rise above the worldly troubles between severe penance and self-indulgence.

Buddha regarded the social world as the creation of humans rather than of divine origin. He advised kings and chapatis to be humane and ethical. Social relations can be transformed at the individual level.

The Buddha emphasized individual agency and righteous action as a means to escape from the cycle of birth and rebirth and attain self-realization and Nibbana, to remove ego and desire and end the cycle of suffering and resource the world.

Buddha used to give teachings through debate and discussion. Men, women, and children attended these discussions and discussed what they heard. None of his teachings were written down during his lifetime. After his death, his followers called a council of elders at Vaishali. This council compiled all of his teachings.

These compilations were known as Tripitaka which literally means the three baskets to hold different types of texts. Firstly they were transmitted orally and then written and classified according to their subject matter and length.

Tripitaka or Tipitaka: Threepitakas are included in Tripitaka – Vinay Pitaka, Sutta Pitaka and Abhidhamma Pitaka.

  • Vinaya Pitaka is the collection of rules and regulations for those who joined the Sangha or monastic order.
  • Buddha’s teachings were included in Sutta Pitaka.
  • Philosophical matters are dealt with in Abhidhamma Pitaka.

Each Pitaka consists of many individual texts. Later on, Buddhist scholars wrote commentaries on these texts.

Question 7.
What was the method of the symbol of Buddha sculptures? Why was it difficult to understand these symbols?
Answer:

Many early sculptors showed the presence of Buddha through symbols instead of showing him in the human form. For example, the empty seat became the symbol of the meditation of Buddha. The symbol of the wheel was also used quite frequently.

This symbol stood for the first sermon of the Buddha, delivered at Sarnath. Actually, such sculptures cannot be understood very easily. For example, the tree does not stand just for a tree but it symbolizes an event in the life of the Buddha. To understand such symbols, it is necessary for historians to understand the traditions of those who produced these works of art.

Question 8.
Many rituals, religious beliefs and practices were not recorded in a permanently visible form as monuments or sculptures or even paintings.” Critically examine the statement.
Answer:

Many rituals, religious beliefs, and practices were not recorded in a permanent, visible form as monuments or sculptures, or even paintings. These included daily practices, as well as those associated with special occasions. Many communities and people may not have felt the need for keeping lasting records, even as they may have had vibrant traditions of religious activities and philosophical ideas.

Actually, people do like to preserve or record those things which are visible. They don’t want to record those things which are not visible and that’s why rituals and religious beliefs and even practices remain no more with the passage of time.

Question 9.
“The notion of a savior was not unique to Buddhism.” Comment.
Answer:

The notion of a savior was not unique to Buddhism. We find the same ideas being developed in different ways within a tradition that we now consider a part of Hinduism. In the case of Vaishnavism, cults developed around the various avatars or incarnations of the deity.

Ten avatars were recognized within the tradition. These were forms that the deity was believed to have assumed to save the world whenever it was threatened by disorder and destruction by evil forces. It is likely that different avatars were popular in different parts of the country. Recognizing each of these local deities as a form of Vishnu was one way of creating a mere unified religious tradition.

Question 10.
Is it easy to understand visual traditions? Which methods were used by European scholars to understand our visual traditions?
Answer:

We have had a glimpse of rich visual traditions, stone architectures, sculptures, and paintings. A lot has been destroyed and lost over the centuries. Even then what remains has been preserved and conveys a sense of the visions of the artists who created these spectacular works. But it is not easy to understand what they wanted to convey. We cannot completely understand the fact that what these images meant to people who saw them and worshipped them.

Efforts of the European Scholars: When the European scholars saw a few sculptures of Gods and Goddesses in the 19th century, they were not been able to understand the background and importance of these sculptures. Sometimes they were horrified by grotesque figures with multiple arms and heads or with a combination of human and animal forms.
Many times they even hated these sculptures. But still, they made the following efforts to understand those grotesque figures:

Comparison with Greek Tradition: Scholars compared these figures with a familiar tradition. This tradition was the art tradition of ancient Greece. While they hardly considered Indian sculptures as superior like Greek sculptures, even then they were encouraged by the discovered images of Buddha and Bodhisattvas. These sculptures were found mainly from northern western cities like Taxila and Peshawar. These regions were ruled over by Indo-Greek rulers in the second-century H.C.F. These sculptures were closest to Greek statues. Because these scholars were very much influenced by Greek art of sculptures, that is why they considered the statues of Buddha and Bodhisattvas as the best
examples of Indian art.

From Familiar to make Sense of Unfamiliar:

In order to understand this art, they chose a very simple method and that was to understand unfamiliar
things on the basis of familiar things.

Art historians generally collect information from written texts to understand the context and importance of any statue. While this is certainly a far more effective strategy than comparing Indian images with Greek status. But it was not always easy to use. One of the most interesting examples of this is the famous sculpture along a huge rock surface in Mahabalipuram (Tamil Nadu).

A vivid description of any story is given in the statues. But which story is it? Art historians search through Puranas to it. But still they contradictory views. are of the view that depicts the descent of the Ganga river. They are of the view that the natural cleft through the center of the rock surface might represent the river. This story is narrated in epics and Puranas. Other scholars are of the view that it represents a story of Arjuna doing penance on the banks of the river to acquire arms. Its description is given in Mahabharata. They are
pointing to the central figure of an ascetic.

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NCERT MCQ CLASS – 12 | HISTORY | CHAPTER- 4 | THINKERS, BELIEFS AND BUILDING CULTURAL DEVELOPMENTS | EDUGROWN |

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 4 THINKERS, BELIEFS AND BUILDING CULTURAL DEVELOPMENTS NCERT MCQ for Class 12 HISTORY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THINKERS, BELIEFS AND BUILDING CULTURAL DEVELOPMENTS

1. Mahatma Buddha died at which place?
(a) Lumbini
(b) Bodhgaya
(c) Sarnath
(d) Kushinagar

Ans. (d) Kushinagar.


2. Which is the method of salvation in Buddhism ?
(a) Three Jewels
(b) Eight-fold path
(c) Penance
(d) Ahimsa.

Ans. (b) Eight-fold path


3. In which language Buddhist Literature was written ?
(a) Pali Language
(b) Sanskrit Language
(c) Prakrit Language
(d) Magadhi Language

Ans. (a) Pali Language


4. Lord Mahavira was related to which religion?
(a) Hinduism
(b)Jainism
(c) Buddhism
(d) Sikhism

Ans. (b)Jainism


5. Where Mahatma Buddha delivered his first sermon ?
(a) Kapilvastu
(b) Sarnath
(c) Gaya
(d) Kushinagar.

Ans. (b) Sarnath


6. Mahavira Swami died at which place ?
(a) Kundgram
(b) Kushinagar
(c) Pavapuri
(d) Sarnath.

Ans. (c) Pavapuri


7. The childhood name of Mahavira was:
(a) Siddhartha
(b) Vardhaman
(c) Siddhant
(d) Shuddhodhan

Ans. (b) Vardhaman


8. Name the Twenty fourth Tirthankara of Jainism :
(a) Rishabhdev
(b) Anant
(c) Vardhman Mahavir
(d) Swami Parshvanath.

Ans. (c) Vardhman Mahavir


9. Jatak Stories are related to:
(a) Hinduism
(b)Jainism
(c) Buddhism
(d) Sikhism

Ans. (c) Buddhism


10. Mahayana belong to which religion?
(a) Jainism
(b) Shaivism
(c) Hinduism
(d) Buddhism

Ans. (d) Buddhism

11.Sanchi Stupa is situated
(a) Near to Bhopal
(b) Near to Indore
(c) Near to Delhi
(d) Near to Agra

Ans: (a) Near to Bhopal

12.Which of these was not the Begum of Bhopal?
(a) Shahjehan Begum
(b) Sultanjehan Begum
(c) Noorjehan Begum
(d) (a) and (b) both

Ans: (c) Noorjehan Begum.

13.24 great teachers of Jainism are known as ________
(a) Tirthankars
(b) Jataks
(e) Jinas
(d) VardhmanasAnswer

Ans: (a) Tirthankars


14.________ is the birth place of Gautama Buddha.
(a) Kalinga
(b) Sarnatha
(c) Lumbini
(d) Kushinagara

Ans: (c) Lumbini

15.At which place Lord Buddha attained true enlightenment?
(a) Lumbini
(b) Kushinagara
(e) Sarnath
(d) Bodhgaya

Answer: (d) Bodhgaya



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CHAPTER -6 Changes Around Us | CLASS 6TH | NCERT SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQs | EDUGROWN

Here students can get info about NCERT Important Questions & MCQs for Class 6 Science so that they can get to know the answers to the questions in case they are not able to find it. You can find the best Class 6th Science NCERT Solutions explained in conformance with the CBSE curriculum for Class 6.

Chapter 6 Changes Around Us Class 6th Science

MCQs

Question 1.
When ice melts into water, what types of changes do you observe ?
(a) Physical changes
(b) Chemical changes
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Physical changes
Ice melts into water is physical change.


Question 2.
Cooked food is the:
(a) Chemical change
(b) Physical change
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Chemical change
Cooked food is a chemical change.


Question 3.
If we burn a candle, the height of a candle will .
(a) Decreased
(b) Increased
(c) Remain same
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Decreased
The height of burning candle is always decreased.


Question 4.
For making the curd, we should the milk.
(a) Heat
(b) Cool
(c) Boil
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Heat
For making the curd, we should heat the milk.


Question 5.
Metal rim is made slightly than the wooden wheel.
(a) Bigger
(b) Smaller
(c) Equal
(d) None of these

Answer

(b) Smaller
Metal rim is made slightly smaller than the wooden wheel.


Question 6.
the metal rim expands and fits into the wheel.
(a) On boiling
(b) On cooling
(c) On heating
(d) All of these

Answer

(c) On heating
The incense stick has burnt to give off gases and ashes.


Question 7.
The black material (tar) for repairing road is .
(a) Heated
(b) Cooled
(c) Heated and cooled
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Heated
The black material (tar) for repairing road is heated.


Question 8.
The incense stick has burnt to give off.
(a) Gases
(b) Ashes
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

(c) Both (a) and (b)
The incense stick has burnt to give off gases and ashes.


Question 9.
Metal expand on heating and contract on.
(a) Boiling
(b) Washing
(c) Cooling
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

(c) Cooling
Metal contract on cooling.


Question 10.
A change in a substance can be brought by heating it or by it with other substances.
(a) Cooling
(b) Boiling
(c) Washing
(d) Mixing

Answer

(d) Mixing
A change be in a substance can be brought by heating it or by mixing it with other substances.


Question 11.
An iron piece is heated red hot and beaten into a shape.
(a) Desired
(b) Undesired
(c) Same
(d) All of these

Answer

(a) Desired
A iron piece is heated red hot and beaten into a desired shape.


Question 12.
The change which can be reversed is known as:
(a) Reversible change
(b) Irreversible change
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Reversible change
The change which can be reversed is known as reversible change.


Question 13.
The change which cannot be reversed is known as:
(a) Reversible change
(b) Irreversible change
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

(b) Irreversible change
The change which cannot be reversed is known as irreversible change.


Question 14.
A process in which liquid changes into gas is known as:
(a) Solution
(b) Fusion
(c) Condensation
(d) Evaporation

Answer

(d) Evaporation
Evaporation is the process in which liquid changes into gas.


Question 15.
A process by which gas is turned into liquid is known as:
(a) Solution
(b) Fusion
(c) Condensation
(d) Evaporation

Answer

(c) Condensation
Condensation is the process by which gas is turned into liquid.


Question 16.
A process in which liquid is freezed into solid is known as:
(a) Condensation
(b) Fusion
(c) Solution
(d) Evaporation

Answer

(b) Fusion
Fusion is the process in which liquid is freezed into solid.


Question 17.
When a solid dissolves in liquid then is formed.
(a) Condensation
(b) Fusion
(c) Solution
(d) Evaporation

Answer

(c) Solution
When a solid dissolves in liquid then solution is formed.


Question 18.
Write a few changes taking place around us on their own:
(a) Grain to its flour
(b) Bud to flower
(c) Cow dung to biogas
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

(d) Both (b) and (c)
Bud to flower, cow dung to biogas are the changes taking place around us on their own.


Question 19.
The changes that require long time to occur are called:
(a) Fast change
(b) Slow change
(c) Permanent change
(d) Temporary change

Answer

(b) Slow change
The changes that require long time to occur are called slow change.


Question 20.
The changes which occur immediately are called:
(a) Slow change
(b) Temporary change
(c) Permanent change
(d) Fast change

Answer

(d) Fast change
The changes which occur immediately are called fast change.

Important Questions

Question 1.
What are reversible and irreversible changes?
Answer:
Reversible and irreversible changes:
Reversible changes: The changes which can be brought back to its original form are known as reversible changes. For example, melting of wax and stretching of a rubber band.

Irreversible changes: The changes in which the matter cannot be brought back to its original state are known as irreversible changes. For example, burning of paper changes it into ash and smoke. Paper cannot be obtained back from ash and smoke.

Question 2.
What are the differences between reversible changes and irreversible changes?
Answer:
The differences between reversible changes and irreversible changes:

Reversible changesIrreversible changes
1.   A change which can be undone or reversed.

 

2.   It is a temporary change.

3.   Melting and folding are examples of it.

1.  A change which cannot be undone or reversed.

 

2.  It is a permanent change.

3.  Burning and cooking of food are examples of it.

Question 3.
Can you obtain wood from sawdust?
Answer:
No, because it is an irreversible change.

Question 4.
Can we say that ironing of a cloth is a reversible change? Give reasons.
Answer:
Ironing removes the wrinkles of the clothes, which can come back in the same condition. Hence, ironing of a cloth is a reversible change.

Question 5.
Can deforestation be considered as a reversible change?
Answer:
No, deforestation can’t be considered as a reversible change because no same tree can be planted after felling down or cutting.

Question 6.
Is printing a reversible or an irreversible change?
Answer:
Printing is an irreversible change because we cannot separate and collect the printing ink after printing.

Question 7.
Give two examples each of reversible and irreversible changes.
Answer:
Reversible changes: Melting of wax and stretching of a rubber band.
Irreversible changes: Burning of a paper and growth of plants.

Question 8.
State whether burning of a piece of paper is a reversible or an irreversible change.
Answer:
When we bum a piece of paper, it changes into ash and smoke. We cannot combine the ash and smoke to form the original piece of paper. So the burning of a piece of paper is an irreversible change.

Question 9.
Classify the following as reversible or irreversible changes:
(i) Growth of a plant
(ii) Ploughing a field,
(ii) Melting of wax
(iv) Falling of rain
(v) Pulling of rubber string
(vi) Breaking of a glass rod
(mi) Cooking of food.
Answer:
Reversible changes: (ii), (iii), (v)
Irreversible changes: (i), (iv), (vi), (vii).

Question 10.
How does curd set? Is this change reversible?
Answer:
A small quantity of curd is added to warm milk. The milk is stirred and is set aside undisturbed for a few hours at a warm place. In a few hours, the milk changes into curd.
Curd formed from milk cannot be changed into milk again. So, this is an irreversible change.

Question 11.
What are fast and slow changes?
Answer:
Fast changes take place over a short duration of time.
Slow changes take a longer duration of time to complete.

Question 12.
Define physical and chemical changes. Give examples.
Answer:
1. Physical change: Physical change is a temporary change in which chemical composition of the substance does not change and no new substance is formed.

During a physical change, only the physical properties of a substance change.
It is a reversible change. For example, melting of ice, during this change, the water changes from its solid form to liquid form. It can be solidified again.The water remains water in both the cases.

2. Chemical change: A chemical change is a permanent change in which not .
only the physical properties but chemical properties also change. It is an irreversible change. For example, formation of curd from milk, rusting of iron, etc.

Question 13.
Formation of clouds is a physical change. Explain.
Answer:
Formation of clouds is a physical change as it is phase transformation cycle of natural water from liquid to gas and then, gas to liquid. Hence, the property of water never changes in clouds form.

Question 14.
Explosion of a cracker is a chemical change. Explain.
Answer:
Explosion of crackers is a chemical change because the explosive reactants are transformed into gaseous products along with heat and light and thus cannot be reversed.
Hence, it is a chemical change.

Question 15.
Give some examples of physical and chemical changes.
Answer:
Examples of physical changes:
Tearing of sheet of paper into pieces, melting of ice, change of water into steam, breaking of glass tumbler, glowing of electric bulb, dissolution of sugar or salt in water.

Examples of chemical changes:
Burning of paper, wood, candle, etc., formation of curd from milk, cooking of food, rusting of iron and mixing of vinegar with baking soda, electrolysis of water.

Question 16.
Classify the following changes in as many ways as you can:

  1. Breaking of a brick with a hammer.
  2. Beating of heart.
  3. Germination of a seed.
  4. Burning of an incense-stick (agarbatti).
  5. Occurrence of solar eclipse.

Answer:

  1. Physical change, irreversible change.
  2. Periodic change, irreversible change.
  3. Irreversible change,
  4. Irreversible change, chemical change.
  5. Irreversible change.

Question 17.
Most physical changes are reversible. Give reasons with two examples.
Answer:

  1. Melting of ice: During this change, the water changes from its solid form to liquid form. It can be solidified again. The water remains water in both cases, hence reversible.
  2. Glowing of an electric bulb: During this change, electricity is passed through the tungston filament which becomes white hot and glows, but when the switch is off, the filament returns to its original shape and condition, hence totally reversible.

Question 18.
Give one example .each for physical and chemical changes
Answer:
Physical change (Melting of ice)
Changes Around Us Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 6 Q 18
Question 19.
What is charring of sugar? Is it a chemical change?
Answer:
When sugar is continuously heated in the porcelain dish, it becomes foggy due to water vapour. A black powdery substance is left behind, which is charcoal. This process is also called charring of sugar and this is a chemical change.
Changes Around Us Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 6 Q 19
Question 20.
Give some examples of changes which take place on their own.
Answer:
Changes Around Us Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 6 Q 20

Question 21.
Give some examples of changes which take place on their own.
Answer:
Many changes are taking place around us on their own. For example:

  • Ripening of crops in the fields.
  • Leaves fall from trees.
  • Flowers bloom and then wither away.
  • Growing of hair and nail.

Could there be other ways to bring a change?

Question 1.
Does, like all other liquids, water expand on heating and contract on cooling?
Answer:
No, water is an exception. Water contracts on cooling till 4°C but expands when cooled further down from 4°C to 0°C.

Question 2.
List few ways to bring a change.
Answer:

  • Heating or cooling
  • Mixing two or more substances
  • By applying force etc.

Question 3.
Give some examples from daily life where expansion of metal by heating is used. Explain.
Answer:
Fixing of a metal rim on an wooden wheel and fixing of wooden handles in iron blade in agricultural tools are such examples.
The iron blade of these tools has a ring in which the wooden handle is fixed. Normally, the ring is slightly smaller in size than the wooden handle. To fix the handle, the ring is heated and it becomes slightly larger in size (expands). Now, the handle easily fits into the ring. When the ring cools down, it contracts and fits tightly onto the handle.
Changes Around Us Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 6 Could there be other ways to bring a change Q1
Such a change is also used for fixing the metal rim on a wooden wheel of a«cart as shown in Fig. 6.4. Again the metal rim is made slightly smaller than the wooden wheel. On heating, the rim expands and fits onto the wheel. Cold water is then poured over the rim, which contracts and fits tightly onto the wheel.

Question 4.
Explain how a metal rim slightly smaller than a wooden wheel can be fixed on it.
Answer:
The metal rim is always made slightly smaller than the wooden wheel. The metal rim is heated; on heating, the rim expands and fits onto the wheel. Cold water is then poured over the rim. Due to cooling, rim contracts and fits tightly over the wheel.

Activity 7.
Take a small candle and measure its length with a scale. Now, fix it at a suitable place and light it. Let it burn for some time. Now blow out the candle and measure its length again (Fig.).
Its length will be reduced.

Can the change in the length of the candle be reversed? If we were to take some wax in a pan and heat it, can this change be reversed (Fig.)?
Changes Around Us Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 6 Activity 7
Changes Around Us Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 6 Activity 7(i)
No, the change in the length of the candle cannot be reversed. Yes, on heating the wax in a pan, its change into liquid form can be reversed.

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CHAPTER -5 Separation of Substances | CLASS 6TH | NCERT SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQs | EDUGROWN

Here students can get info about NCERT Important Questions & MCQs for Class 6 Science so that they can get to know the answers to the questions in case they are not able to find it. You can find the best Class 6th Science NCERT Solutions explained in conformance with the CBSE curriculum for Class 6.

Chapter 5 Separation of Substances Class 6th Science

MCQs

Question 1.
A mixture of iodine and sand can be separated by:
(a) Decantation
(b) Centrifugation
(c) Filtration
(d) Sublimation

Answer

(d) Sublimation
A mixture of iodine and sand can be separated by sublimating.


Question 2.
A mixture of tea leaves and iron filling can be separated by:
(a) Filtration
(b) Evaporation
(c) Separating funnel
(d) Magnet

Answer

(d) Magnet
A mixture of tea leaves and iron fillings can be separated by magnet.


Question 3.
A mixture of mustard oil and kerosene oil can be separated by:
(a) Sublimation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Separating funnel
(d) Filtration

Answer

(c) Separating funnel
A mixture of mustard oil and kerosene oil can be separated by separating funnel.


Question 4.
Insects are separated from wheat by:
(a) Hand picking
(b) Sieving
(c) Magnet
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Hand picking
Insects from wheat are separated by hand picking.


Question 5.
Larger quantity of salt can be dissolved in water by:
(a) Heating
(b) Coaling
(c) Icing
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Heating
Larger quantity of salt can be dissolved in water by heating.


Question 6.
……………….. cannot dissolve any amount of substances:
(a) Solid
(b) Water
(c) Gas
(d) Vapour

Answer

(b) Water
Water cannot dissolve any amount of substances.


Question 7.
To separate husk from grains in a field by
(a) Tailor
(b) Grocer
(c) Watchman
(d) Farmers

Answer

(d) Farmers
Husk separated from grains by farmers.


Question 8.
the husk which is ………………., is carried away by the wind and forms a Separate heap at a short distance from the heap of grain,
(a) Heavier
(b) Lighter
(c) Stronger
(d) None of these

Answer

Question 9.
The grains which are fall vertically down on the ground,
(a) Heavier
(b) Lighter
(c) Stronger
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Heavier
The grains which are heavier fall vertically down on the ground.


Question 10.
A method of separation used when the components of a mixture are of different sizes is known as:
(a) Separation
(b) Winnowing
(c) Sieving
(d) None of these

Answer

(c) Sieving
A method of separation used when the components of a mixture are of different sizes is known as sieving.


Question 11.
water is cleared by the process of loading.
(a) Lemon water
(b) Milky water
(c) Muddy water
(d) None of these

Answer

(c) Muddy water
Muddy water is cleaned by the process of loading.


Question 12.
The method to separating seeds of paddy from its stalks is called:
(a) Filtration
(b) Hand-picking
(c) Decantation
(d) Threshing

Answer

Question 13.
Common salt is then obtained from this mixture of salts by:
(a) Evaporation
(b) Filtration
(c) Purification
(d) None of these

Answer

(c) Purification
Common salt is then obtained from this mixture of salts by purification.


Question 14.
Which types of filters are used to purify drinking water ?
(a) Electric water filters
(b) Common water filter
(c) Pure it filter
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Electric water filters
Electric water filters are used to purify drinking water.


Question 15.
Give an example of where filtration is used at home.
(a) Mustard oil and water can be separated by using filtration
(b) Husk from rice is separated by filtration
(c) Paneer from milk is separated by filtration
(d) All of these

Answer

(c) Paneer from milk is separated by filtration
Paneer from milk is separated by filtration

Important Questions

Methods of separation

Question 1.
When is handpicking used?
Answer:
Handpicking is used to separate undesirable component when present in small
amount.

Question 2.
What is threshing? How is it done?
Answer:
The process that is used to separate the grain from stalks is threshing. In this process, the stalks are beaten to free the grain seeds. Sometimes, threshing is done with the help of bullocks. Machines are also used to thresh large quantities of grain.

Question 3.
Which type of separation is used in cashew nut factories?
Answer:
Sieving.

Question 4.
Give one example of sieving used in everyday life.
Answer:
Separation of barn (choker) from flour.

Question 5.
Name some materials that are used as filters.
Answer:
Cotton, ceramic, filter cloth, filter paper.

Question 6.
Name the process of separating two immiscible liquids.
Answer:
By using separating funnel or by decantation.

Question 7.
Which substance is used for loading?
Answer:
Alum (phitkari).

Question 8.
What is the use of alum in loading?
Answer:
Alum is used to make the sedimentation faster. Bv adding alum the clay particles settle down rapidly.

Question 9.
Which process is used to separate bacteria from water?
Answer:
Filtration, by using special filters, i.e., bacteria proof filter.

Question 10.
What is decantation?
Answer:
Decantation is a process of separating insoluble solids from liquids. A suspension of solid particles in liquid is allowed to stand for some time. Solid particles settle down at the bottom, due to their weight.
Separation of Substances Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 5 Methods of Separation Q10
This is called sedimentation. The clean water is transferred into another beaker, without disturbing the settled particles. This type of separation is called decantation (Fig. 5.7).

Question 11.
What is the use of decantation?
Answer:
Decantation is used to separate insoluble solids from liquids. Two immiscible liquids are also separated by this process.

Question 12.
What is filtration?
Answer:
When one component of a mixture is soluble in water and other component is insoluble in water, the soluble component gets dissolved and insoluble one is separated by filtering the solution.

The process by which insoluble substance can be separated from a solution, by passing that solution through a porous paper (filter paper) is called filtration. During filtration, the solid insoluble substance is retained at the filter paper as residue while the liquid free from any suspended matter passes through the filter paper and is collected as filtrate. This filtrate may be warmed to dry to obtain soluble component. Figures 5.8 (a), (b), (c) show the folding and use of filter paper in filtration.
Separation of Substances Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 5 Methods of Separation Q 12

Question 13.
What is the drawback of evaporation?
Answer:
The liquid in the mixture is evaporated off into the air and is not recovered.

Question 14.
Name the process to obtain salt from seawater.
Answer:
Evaporation.

Question 15.
Which types of mixtures are separated by evaporation?
Answer:
Evaporation is used to separate solids dissolved in liquid.

Question 16.
Describe the method to obtain pure salt from rock salt.
Answer:
First, the mixture is crushed and grinded. Water is then added and filtered. Pure salt is collected as filtrate which is heated for evaporation. Water evaporates off and pure salt is left.

Question 17.
How will you separate pure water from a solution of salt in water?
Answer:
We can separate pure water from a solution of salt in water, by the process of distillation that is by evaporation and followed by condensation.

Question 18.
Write opposite process of condensation.
Answer:
Evaporation.

Question 19.
How is common salt obtained from seawater?
Answer:
When seawater is allowed to evaporate in shallow pits, water gets heated by sunlight and changes into water vapour by the process of evaporation leaving behind impure solid salts. Now, the lumps of impure common salt are crushed to get powdered salt. The powdered common salt is dissolved in water to prepare a solution. Now the solution of common salt is filtered to remove insoluble impurities. The clear solution is evaporated by heating to remove the water content to obtain a concentrated solution of common salt. The hot and concentrated solution is allowed to cool. On cooling, crystallization takes place and crystals of pure common salt are obtained.

Question 20.
What is the importance of centrifugation? How is it done?
Answer:
Centrifugation is the process of separating suspended particles from a liquid by rotating the liquid at a high speed.
The mixture is taken in a closed bottle and rotated at a high speed. The heavy particles settle at the bottom while light particles remain behind. This method is also used to separate cream from milk. Cream collects at the centre and being lighter than milk, it floats at the top of the mixture.
Separation of Substances Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 5 Methods of Separation Q 20

Question 21.
What do you mean by solubility?
Answer:
The maximum mass of a solute that can be dissolved in 100 g of the solvent at any specific temperature is called solubility.

Question 22.
Why is water a universal solvent?
Answer:
Water can dissolve different kinds of substances. That is why water is commonly called as a universal solvent.

Question 23.
What is the effect of temperature on solubility?
Answer:
Solubility increases when the increase in temperature takes place.

Question 24.
Differentiate between saturated and unsaturated solutions.
Answer:
Saturated solution: A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved at a given temperature.
Unsaturated solution: A solution in which more solute can be dissolved at any temperature.

Question 25.
During centrifugation, which particles settle down at the bottom?
Answer:
Heavy particles settle down at the bottom and lighter particles float at the top of the liquid.

Question 26.
Name the method by which you can separate butter from milk.
Answer:
Centrifugation.

Question 27.
Name the device by which cream can be separated from milk at home.
Answer:
A mixer-grinder is the very important device by which cream can be separated from milk. (Fig. 5.10)
Separation of Substances Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 5 Methods of Separation Q 27

Question 28.
Why does visibility increase after rains?
Answer:
After rains, the objects at a distance are seen more clearly, because the fine dust particles that were present in air settle down due to loading by rain drops.

Question 29.
What is strainer?
Answer:
Wire mesh is commonly known as strainer. For example, while preparing tea, we separate tea leaves from water by using a filter such as wire mesh. Tea leaves are bigger in size than the holes of the mesh.
Separation of Substances Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 5 Methods of Separation Q 29
Question 30.
Name the property of the components used for separating the following mixtures:

  1. salt and camphor
  2. wheat and husk
  3. iron fillings and saw-dust
  4. coconut oil and water.

Answer:

  1. sublimation
  2. winnowing
  3. magnetic separation
  4. separating funnel.

Question 31.
Mention the methods that can be used for the separation of the following mixtures:

  1. wheat, sugar and husk
  2. rice, gram and iron fillings
  3. sand, Mack gram (urad) and husk.

Answer:
1. Mixture of wheat, sugar and husk.

  • For separating husk from the mixture, we should follow the winnowing method as husk is lighter than other two components.
  • Wheat and sugar can be separated by sieving as they have different sizes.

2. Mixture of rice, gram and iron fillings.

  • For separating iron fillings, we can use a magnet.
  • Rice and gram can be separated either by sieving or by handpicking.

3. Sand, black gram (urad) and husk.

  • For separating sand from the mixture, we can sieve the mixture.
  • Black gram (urad) and husk can be separated by the method of winnowing.

Question 32.
Write various methods of separation of compounds from their mixture.
Answer:

  1. Handpicking
  2. Threshing
  3. Winnowing
  4. Sedimentation
  5. Decantation
  6. Filtration
  7. Evaporation
  8. Condensation.

Question 33.
How will you Separate a mixture of common salt and chalk powder?
Answer:
We know that common salt is soluble in water while chalk is sparingly, soluble. So on the basis of different solubility, we can separate the common salt and chalk powder as follows:
1. First, some water is mixed with the mixture of common salt and chalk powder, stir the solution well. Filter the solution by using filter paper. On filtering, chalk powder is obtained as a residue on the filter paper and salt solution is obtained.

2. Now filtrate is evaporated and dry common salt is left behind.

Activity 2.
Bring a packet of food grain purchased from a shop to the classroom. Now, spread the grains on a sheet of paper. Do you find only one kind of grain on the sheet of paper? Are there pieces of stone, husks, broken grain and particles of any other grain in it?
No. There are pieces of stone, husks, broken grain, etc., in it.

Activity 3.
Make a mixture of dry sand with sawdust or powdered dry leaves. Keep this mixture on a plate or a newspaper. Look at this mixture carefully. Can the two
different components be made out easily? Are the sizes of particles of the two; components similar? Would it be possible to separate the components by handpicking?
Yes, we can separate two components from the mixture. Dry sand and sawdust have
different sizes of particles, we cannot separate out the components by handpicking.

Now, take your mixture to an open ground and stand on a raised platform. Put the mixture in a plate or sheet of paper. Hold the plate or the sheet of paper containing the mixture, at your shoulder height. Tilt it slightly, so that the mixture slides out slowly.

What happens? Do both the components – sand and sawdust (or powdered leaves) fall at the same place? Is there a component that blows away? Did the wind manage to separate the two components? :
No, sawdust will fall far from the sand as it is lighter. Sand dust blows away with the wind.

Activity 4.
Bring a sieve and a small quantity of flour from home, to the class. Sieve the flour to separate any impurities in it. Now, make a fine powder of chalk pieces and mix it with the flour. Can we separate the flour and the powdered chalk by sieving?
No, the flour and the powdered chalk cannot be separated by sieving because their particles are of the same size.

Activity 5.
Collect some muddy water from a pond or a river. If it is not available, mix some l soil to water in a glass. Let it stand for half an hour. Observe the water carefully ‘ and note your observations.
Does some soil settle at the bottom of water? Why? What will you call this j process?
Yes, some heavier soil particles settle at the bottom of the water. This process is called sedimentation.

Activity 6.
Heat a beaker containing some water. Allow the water to boil. If you continue heating, would the water turn into steam and disappear completely?
Yes, the water will disappear completely.

Now, add two spoons of salt to water in another beaker and stir it well. Do you
see any change in the colour of water? Can you see any salt in the beaker, after stirring?
Yes, the colour of water will become slightly white. No, salt cannot be seen in the beaker after stirring as it gets completely dissolved.
Heat the beaker containing the salt water (Fig.). Let the water boil away. What is left in the beaker?
Separation of Substances Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 5 Activity 6
Some salt will be left in the beaker.

Activity 10.
Take two glasses and pour half a cup of water in each of them. Add a teaspoon of salt to one glass and stir till the salt dissolves. Go on adding salt, one teaspoon at a time, till the solution saturates. Record the number of spoons of salt that dissolved in the water, in Table 5.2. Now, repeat the same activity with sugar. Repeat this with some other substances that are soluble in water.

What do you notice from Table 5.2? Do you find that water dissolves different substances in different amounts?
Table 5.2

SubstanceNumber of spoons of substance that dissolved in water
Salt1 spoon of salt in 100 gm water at 25°C
Sugar4 spoons of sugar in 100 gm water at 25°C
Copper sulphateNearly 4 spoon of copper sulphate in 100 gm of water at 25°C

We notice from the table that different substances dissolve in water in different
amounts.

 

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CHAPTER -4 Sorting Materials Into Groups | CLASS 6TH | NCERT SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQs | EDUGROWN

Here students can get info about NCERT Important Questions & MCQs for Class 6 Science so that they can get to know the answers to the questions in case they are not able to find it. You can find the best Class 6th Science NCERT Solutions explained in conformance with the CBSE curriculum for Class 6.

Chapter 4 Sorting Materials Into Groups Class 6th Science

MCQs

Question 1.
materials can be used for made up more than one things,
(a) Same
(b) Different
(c) Shiny
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Same
Same materials can be used fpr made up more than one things.


Question 2.
How do we choose a material to make an object ?
(a) depending on its properties
(b) depending one its colours
(c) depending on its shape
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) depending on its properties
We choose a material to make an object depending on its properties.


Question 3.
Newspaper, note book, books and calendars etc. are made by:
(a) iron
(b) wood
(c) paper
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) iron
Books, notebooks, calendar and newspapers etc, are made by paper.


Question 4.
Iron, aluminium and gold have appearance.
(a) shining
(b) rough
(c) non-shining
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) shining
Iron, aluminium and gold have shining appearance.


Question 5.
Metals which have a lustre are called:
(a) none-lustrous materials
(b) lustrous materials
(c) rough
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) lustrous materials
Materials which have lustre are called lustrous materials.


Question 6.
Wood and stone is materials.
(a) lustrous
(b) non-lustrous
(c) smooth
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) non-lustrous
Wood and stone is non-lustrous materials.


Question 7.
We see lustre on the freshly cut of the wire.
(a) surface
(b) length
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) surface
We see lustre on the freshly cut surface.


Question 8.
A substance dissolve in water is:
(a) sand
(b) chalk
(c) wax
(d) sugar

Answer

(d) sugar
Sugar is dissolve in water.


Question 9.
How does aquatic animals survive in water ?
(a) due to oxygen gas dissolved in water
(b) due to carbon dioxide gas dissolved in water
(c) they feel very warmth
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) due to oxygen gas dissolved in water
Aquatic animals survive in water due to oxygen gas dissolved in water.


Question 10.
An object that floats in water is:
(a) wood
(b) sugar
(c) iron nail
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) wood
A wood is an object that floats in water.


Question 11.
An object that sinks in water:
(a) wax
(b) crystals
(c) any oil
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) crystals
Crystals sinks in water.


Question 12.
A liquid that mixes well in water is:
(a) vinegar
(b) oil (mustard)
(c) glycerin
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) vinegar
Vinegar mixes well in water.


Question 13.
A liquid that does not mixes well in water is:
(a) lemon juice
(b) vinegar
(c) glycerin
(d) all of these

Answer

(c) glycerin
Glycerin does not mix well in water.


Question 14.
The substance which dissolve in water are called:
(a) soluble
(b) insoluble
(c) miscible
(d) immiscible

Answer

(a) soluble
The substances dissolves in water are soluble substances.


Question 15.
The substance which do not dissolve in water are called:
(a) soluble
(b) insoluble
(c) miscible
(d) immiscible

Answer

(b) insoluble
The substances do not dissolves in water are insoluble substances.


Question 16.
Some materials have special shine on them is:
(a) hard
(b) soft
(c) lustre
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) lustre
Some materials have special shine on them which is called lustre.


Question 17.
Materials which are difficult to press are called:
(a) hard
(b) soft
(c) lustre
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) hard
Materials which are difficult to press are called hard.

Important Questions

Objects around us

Question 1.
What do you mean by classification?
Answer:
Classification is the grouping or sorting together of things possessing similar or dissimilar characteristics or properties.

Question 2.
What is the need for classification?
Answer:
Classification is essential for:

  • identification of objects.
  • sorting of objects.
  • locating things.
  • understanding similarities and dissimilarities among objects.
  • making the study of objects easy and more meaningful.

Question 3.
Why is mercury used in making thermometers?
Answer:

  • Mercury is liquid at room temperature.
  • It is a good conductor of heat.
  • Mercury has lustre, so, it is easy to read the temperature shown by the level of mercury.

Question 4.
On what basis are the various objects grouped?
Answer:
The grouping of various objects can be done on the basis of following characters:

  • size
  • shape
  • colour
  • hardness
  • solubility in water
  • attraction towards magnet
  • conduction of heat
  • transparency, etc.

Question 5.
Why do we need the grouping of objects?
Answer:
Grouping the objects helps us to arrange them in a systematic manner. The objects when grouped are easy to handle. When grouped, it is easy to know the properties of an object clearly. Grouping also makes easy to compare two objects.

Question 6.
How does the grouping of objects help the shopkeeper?
Answer:
The grouping of objects in proper way makes it easier to work. When we go to purchase some things, the shopkeeper locates it easily, because there are separate shelves to put various items and similar things are kept at one place. If he randomly places all of these, he would never be able to find them so quickly and easily.

Question 7.
Name the various materials from which following things can be made:
Shoes, chair, coins, utensils, clothes.
Answer:

  • Shoes: Leather, rubber, plastic, canvas
  • Chair: Wood, metal, plastic, concrete
  • Coins: Copper, silver, gold
  • Utensils: Iron, copper, aluminium
  • Clothes: Cotton, wool, silk, rayon, nylon.

Question 8.
Name any four materials that can be used to make school bags.
Answer:
Cloth (of cotton, jute, nylon, etc.), plastic, metal or alloy.

Question 9.
List any three solutions that are used in your home.
Answer:
Salt solution, sugar solution, cold drinks, lime juice, etc.

Question 10.
Why is water important for our body?
Answer:
Water can dissolve a large number of substances, so it is needed by the body. It is also major part of our body cells.

Activity 2
Table 4.2 lists some common materials. You can also add more materials in Column 1 that are known to you. Now, try and think of everyday objects you know, that are made mainly of these materials, and list them in Column 2.

Table 4.2: Different types of objects that are made from the same material

MaterialObjects made of these materials
WoodChair, table, plough, bullock cart and its wheels, …
PapierBooks, notebooks, newspapers, toys, calendars, …
LeatherShoes, belt, purse, bag, jacket
PlasticsMug, bottle, bucket, toy
CottonClothes, curtains, bed sheets, sari

Properties of materials

Question 1.
List five each opaque and transparent materials.
Answer:
Opaque materials:

  • Wood
  • Iron
  • Cardboard
  • Brick
  • Gold.

Transparent materials:

  • Water
  • Glass
  • Air
  • Cellophine plastic, and
  • Fibre glass.

Question 2.
List five objects that are made from transparent materials.
Answer:

  • Beaker,
  • Test tube,
  • Conical flask,
  • Glass jug, and
  • Glass doors.

Question 3.
List five liquids that are transparent.
Answer:

  1. Water
  2. Hydrochloric acid
  3. Alcohol
  4. Acetone, and
  5. Petrol.

Question 4
List five objects that are made from an opaque material.
Answer:

  1. Books
  2. Blackboard
  3. Cardboard
  4. Wall, and
  5. Wooden furniture.

Question 5.
Why is water called universal solvent?
Answer:
The property of water to dissolve large number of materials makes it a universal solvent.

Question 6.
List three liquids which are miscible in water.
Answer:

  1. Milk
  2. glycerine, and
  3. soft drinks.

Question 7.
List three liquids which are immiscible in water.
Answer:

  1. Edible oil
  2. kerosene oil, and
  3. petrol.

Question 8.
State conditions when pure water can lose transparency.
Answer:
Water on cooling, freezes to form ice which is not transparent.

Question 9.
List the following substances as soluble and insoluble in water.
Sand, salt, sugar, paint, chilli powder, desi ghee, blotting paper.
Answer:
Water soluble substances: Salt, sugar.
Water insoluble substances: Sand, paint, chilli powder, desi ghee, blotting paper.

Question 10.
Show that sugar, common salt and washing soda are soluble while chalk powder, iodine and sand are insoluble in water.
Answer:
Take six test tubes, fill each of them about half with water. Keep each of them in a test tube stand. Add a pinch of each of six substances in separate test tubes. Shake well and allow to stand for few minutes. Common salt, sugar and washing soda dissolve while iodine, chalk powder and sand do not dissolve.

Question 11.
Describe a method to prove that water is a transparent material.
Answer:
Take a white sheet of paper, one sketch pen, one clean beaker and a small quantity of clean water. Now on white sheet mark a symbol (say “X’). Now put the empty beaker over the marked symbol. We can see it properly. Now put water in the beaker. Observe the same mark. The mark is again visible. This observation proves that water is transparent.

Question 12.
Why is a tumbler not made with a piece of cloth?
Answer:
This is because we generally use a tumbler to keep a liquid. A tumbler made of a piece of cloth cannot be used to keep water. So, a tumbler is made with a material which has a property to hold the liquid.

Question 13.
Explain with example rough and smooth surfaces.
Answer:
Rough surface: Materials which have uneven surface or ridges can be termed as a rough surface, e.g., coal.
Smooth surface: Materials which are plain and have an even surface are termed as a smooth surface, e.g., marble.

  • Appearance
  • Hardness
  • Solubility or insolubility
  • Float or buoyancy
  • Transparency.

Question 14.
Name two gases each which are soluble and insoluble in water. «
Answer:
Gases soluble in water are oxygen and carbon dioxide. Gases insoluble in water are hydrogen and nitrogen.

Question 15.
Write any four properties of materials.
Answer:
Four properties of materials are:

  1. Appearance
  2. Hardness
  3. Solubility or insolubility
  4. Float or buoyancy
  5. Transparency.

Question 16.
What are the similarities between iron, copper, aluminium?
Answer:

  • They all have lustre.
  • They all are metals.
  • They are hard.

Activity 3.
Collect small pieces of different materials—paper, cardboard, wood, copper wire, aluminium sheet, chalk. Do any of these appear shiny?
Now, observe as the teacher cuts each material into two pieces and look at the freshly cut surface (NCERT Fig. 4.3). What do you notice? Does the freshly cut surface of some of these materials appear shiny?
Yes. Copper wire.

Activity 4.
Collect samples of some solid substances such as sugar, salt, chalk powder, sand and ; sawdust. Take five glasses or beakers. Fill each one of them about two-thirds with water. ) Add a small amount (spoonful) of sugar to the first glass, salt to the second and similarly, | add small amounts of the other susbtances into the other glasses. Stir the contents of each of them with a spoon. Wait for a few minutes. Observe what happens to the substances added to water (Fig.). Note your observations as shown in Table 4.3.
Sorting Materials Into Groups Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 4 Activity 4
Table 4.3: Mixing different solid materials in water

SubstanceDisappears in water/does not disappear
SaltDisappears completely in water
SugarDisappears completely in water
SandDoes not disappear
Chalk powderDoes not disappear
SawdustDoes not disappear

Activity 5.
Collect samples of vinegar, lemon juice, mustard oil or coconut oil, kerosene or any other liquid. Take a glass tumbler. Fill it up to half with water. Add a few spoonfuls of one liquid to this and stir it well. Let it stand for five minutes. Observe whether the liquid mixes with water (see figure). Repeat the same with other liquids, as many different liquids as are available to you. Write your observations in Table 4.4.
Sorting Materials Into Groups Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 4 Activity 5

Table 4.4: Solubility of some common liquids in water

LiquidMixes well/Does not mix
VinegarMixes well
Lemon juiceMixes well
Mustard oilDoes not mix
Coconut oilDoes not mix
KeroseneDoes not mix

 

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CHAPTER -3 Fibre to Fabric | CLASS 6TH | NCERT SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQs | EDUGROWN

Here students can get info about NCERT Important Questions & MCQs for Class 6 Science so that they can get to know the answers to the questions in case they are not able to find it. You can find the best Class 6th Science NCERT Solutions explained in conformance with the CBSE curriculum for Class 6.

Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric Class 6th Science

MCQs

Question 1.
The yarn is wound on big reels are called:
(a) silver
(b) bobbins
(c) bailing
(d) retting

Answer

(b) bobbins
The yarn is wound on big reels which are called bobbins.


Question 2.
Compression of raw cotton fibres into bundles is:
(a) bailing
(b) bobbins
(c) silver
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) bailing
Compression of raw cotton fibres into bundles is bailing.


Question 3.
Rotting out of gummy spin of jute stem to separate fibres is:
(a) bobbins
(b) bailing
(c) retting
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) retting
Rotting out of gumming skin of jute stem to separate fibres is retting.


Question 4.
A single yarn is used to make a piece of fabric is:
(a) gimming
(b) spinning
(c) weaving
(d) knitting

Answer

(d) knitting
A single yarn is used to make a piece of fabric is knitting.


Question 5.
A machine is used for weaving of fabrics is:
(a) loom
(b) takli
(c) charkha
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) loom
Loom is a machine is used for weaving of fabrics.


Question 6.
Some fibres such as cotton, jute, silk and wool obtained from plants and animals are called:
(a) synthetic fibres
(b) natural fibres
(c) silver
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) natural fibres
Some fibres such as cotton, jute, silk and wool obtained from plants and animals are called natural fibres.


Question 7.
Some fibres made from chemical changes are called:
(a) synthetics fibres
(b) natural fibres
(c) silver
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) synthetics fibres
Some fibres made from chemical changes are called synthetic fibres.


Question 8.
Jute is obtained from the of plant.
(a) branches
(b) leaves
(c) stem
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) stem
Jute is obtained from the stem of the plant.


Question 9.
Name the jute plant.
(a) plastic
(b) paper
(c) patsun
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) patsun
The jute plant is patsun.


Question 10.
‘Patsun’ is cultivated during the season.
(a) winter
(b) rainy
(c) summer
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) rainy
Patsun is cultivated during the rainy season.


Question 11.
In which soil jute plant grow ?
(a) black soil
(b) loamy soil
(c) white soil
(d) alluvial

Answer

(d) alluvial
Jute plant grown in alluvial soil.


Question 12.
Where is jute grown in India ?
(a) Bihar
(b) Assam
(c) West Bengal
(d) All of these

Answer

(d) All of these
Jute is grown in Bihar, Assam aiid West Bengal.


Question 13.
What is the colour of jute fibres ?
(a) white
(b) orange
(c) pale yellow
(d) black

Answer

(c) pale yellow
The colour of jute of pale yellow.


Question 14.
What is the length of jute fibres ?
(a) 6-8 feet in length
(b) 4-6 feet in length
(c) 2-4 feet in length
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) 6-8 feet in length
The length of jute fibres is 6-8 feet.


Question 15.
Name a simple device used for spinning ?
(a) charkha
(b) handloom
(c) knitting
(d) takli

Answer

(d) takli
Takli is used for spinning.


Question 16.
Name the device used by Mahatma Gandhi for spinning
(a) takli
(b) charkha
(c) handloom
(d) knitting

Answer

(b) charkha
Charkha was used by Mahatma Gandhi.


Question 17.
Socks, sweaters and T-shirts are made of:
(a) spinning fabrics
(b) knitted fabrics
(c) weaving fabrics
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) knitted fabrics
Socks, sweaters and T-shirts are made of knitted fabrics.


Question 18.
How many years ago people start wearing shaped clothing ?
(a) About 40,000 to 50,000 years ago
(b) About 20,000 to 30,000 years ago
(c) About 10,000 to 20,000 years ago
(d) About 50,000 to 60,000 years ago

Answer

(a) About 40,000 to 50,000 years ago
About 40,000 to 50,000 years ago people started wearing shaped clothing.

Important Questions

NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

Variety in fabrics

Question 1.
What is fabric?
Answer:
Fabric means a woven material, a textile or other material resembling woven cloth. Fabric is made up of yarns. Fabrics are made by the two main processes known as weaving and knitting.

Question 2.
On what factors does our type of clothing depend?
Answer:
Type of clothing which we wear is influenced by climate, occupation, culture and daily needs.

Question 3.
Why are cotton and woollen clothes rough and silk, rayon, nylon, polyester smooth to touch?
Answer:
Roughness of cotton and woollen fibre is due to presence of many folds and uneven surfaces in it. Silk, rayon, nylon and polyester are smooth because they have long plain, fine structure.

Fibre

Question 1.
Classify the following fibres into natural and man-made: cotton, nylon, jute, wool, silk, rayon, polyester.
Answer:

  • Natural fibres – Cotton, jute, wool, silk.
  • Man-made fibres – Nylon, rayon, polyester.

Question 2.
From where wool is obtained?
Answer:
Wool is obtained from the fleece of sheep or goat.

Question 3.
What is known as golden fibre?
Answer:
Jute is the cheapest natural fibre and is known as the golden fibre.

Question 4.
When we burn wool, why do we get the smell of hair bum?
Answer:
Wool is obtained from the fleece (hair) of sheep, goat, yak, etc. This is the reason why burning of wool gives smell like burning of hair.

Some plant fibres

Question 1.
Name the plant from which jute is obtained. From which of its part do we get jute?
Answer:
Jute is obtained from ‘Putson’. It is obtained from its stem.

Question 2.
Which parts of these plants have fibres?

  1. (a) Cotton
  2. (b)Mango
  3. (c) Coconut
  4. (d) Banana.

Answer:

  1. Cotton – seeds
  2. Mango – seeds
  3. Coconut – fruits
  4. Banana – leaf.

Question 3.
Name the country which invented cotton clothing.
Answer:
India.

Question 4.
In which states of India, cotton is grown?
Answer:
Cotton is grown in Maharashtra, Gujarat, Punjab, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 5.
In which states of India, jute is cultivated?
Answer:
West Bengal, Bihar and Assam are the main producers of jute in India.

Question 6.
Which method is used to harvest cotton from the plants?
Answer:
Hand picking.

Question 7.
What is ginning?
Answer:
Ginning is the process of separating cotton fibres from its seeds.

Question 8.
What are bales?
Answer:
Raw cotton fibres are compressed into bundles of approximately 200 kg. These compressed cotton bundles are called bales.

Question 9.
Which type of soil is the best for the cultivation of cotton?
Answer:
Black soil.

Question 10.
Which type of soil is best suited for jute crop?
Answer:
Alluvial soil in the delta regions of rivers like the Ganga and the Brahmaputra are the best for the cultivation of jute.

Question 11.
In which season, jute (putson) is cultivated?
Answer:
Rainy season.

Question 12.
What are the uses of cotton?
Answer:
Cotton has a variety of uses. Some uses of cotton are given below:

  • Cotton or cotton in combination with other fibres is used in manufacture of textiles.
  • Cleaned cotton is used as an absorbent in hospitals.
  • Unspun cotton is used ,as fillers in mattresses, pillows and quilts.
  • Cotton is used as a main raw material in manufacturing of rayon and in paper industry.
  • Due to high water absorption property, clothes made from cotton are extensively used as mops in household and for cleaning machines in industries.

Question 13.
Explain various steps in the manufacture of cotton fabric from cotton.
Answer:
Important steps in the manufacture of cotton fibres are as described below:

  1. Cotton is hand picked from the plants.
  2. Ginning: The picked cotton is taken to godowns where the seeds are pulled out of the cotton by steel combs.
  3. Bailing: Ginned cotton is compressed tightly into bundles weighing approximately 200 kg called bales.
  4. Raw cotton from bales is cleaned from straw and dried leaves, combed and straightened and finally converted into rope like strand called sliver.
  5. Spinning: To make this strand into yam strong enough for wearing, it is pulled and twisted.
  6. Yarn is wound on big reels called ‘bobbins’. These bobbins of yam are subjected to weave for making cloth.
  7. Weaving: Weaving from yam is done in the looms.
  8. Bleaching and dyeing: Fabric made in the loom is grey in colour. The fabric is now bleached and dyed at a finishing plant.

Question 14.
In which season is cotton planted? What is its course of growth?
Answer:
It is planted early in the spring. Cotton plants grow steadily and soon become bushes of 3 to 6 feet high. After about 2 months, they bear white or yellowish flowers which turn pink or red after a few days. The petals of the flowers fall, leaving behind tiny green seeds. This later grows into spherical-shaped structure of the size of a walnut, which is called cotton boll. As the cotton bolls grow steadily, the seeds and the fibres grow inside. On maturing, the green bolls begin to turn brown. On complete maturation, they become ready to burst open, exposing the white fibres. As the fibres dry in the sun, they become fluffy.

Question 15.
Why are jute plants cut at flowering stage and not on complete maturation?
Answer:
Jute plants are cut at the time of flowering stage because a good quality of fibre is obtained at this stage. On complete maturation of plant, fibres of its stem become very hard.

Question 16.
What are the important uses of jute?
Answer:

  • Jute is extensively used for making gunny bags, potato sacks, carpets, curtains, coarse clothes and ropes, etc.
  • These days, fine quality of jute is also used for making jute fabrics.

Question 17.
What is retting? Explain how fibres are obtained from the jute plants.
Answer:
Jute plants are cut at the flowering stage when plants are 8-10 feet high. The cut plants are grouped at different places in the field for a few days when most of the leaves dry up and fall down. The plants are now tied into small bundles. The bundles are made to sink in stagnant water of a pond for a few days and then the gummy skin rots out to separate fibres. This process is called ‘retting’. Fibre is extracted from the retted jute by hand, with jerks and pulls. The.dried fibres are then tied together in small bundles.

Spinning cotton yarn

Question 1.
What is spinning?
Answer:
The process of making yam from fibres is called spinning.

Question 2.
Name two simple devices used for spinning.
Answer:

  1. Takli
  2. Charkha

Question 3.
Name the person who made the charkha popular during independence movement.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 4.
Where were the cotton and flax plants cultivated in ancient Egypt?
Answer:
Cotton and flax plants were cultivated near the river Nile in ancient Egypt.

Question 5.
How are natural fibres better than synthetic fibres?
Answer:
The natural fibres absorb sweat, give cooling effect and comfort in all seasons.

Activity 4.
Hold some cotton wool in one hand. Pinch some cotton between the thumb and forefinger of the other hand. Now, gently start pulling out the cotton, while continuously twisting the fibres (See Fig. 3.2 on page 31). Are you able to make a yam?

Yes, the cotton fibres are drawn out and twisted into long thread like strands. These strands are spun with the help of spinning machines to yam.

Yarn to fabric

Question 1.
What is weaving?
Answer:
The process of arranging two sets of yam together to make a fabric is called weaving.

Question 2.
What is knitting?
Answer:
In knitting, a single yam is used to make a piece of fabric.

Question 3.
What are looms?
Answer:
Loom is a device on which weaving of fibres is done.

Question 4.
Name the two types of looms.
Answer:
Looms are of two types:

  1. Hand operated
  2. Power operated.

History of clothing material

Question 1.
What were the wearings of the people of stone age?
Answer:
During the stone age, people wore bark, big leaves of trees or animal skins to keep themselves warm. ‘

Question 2.
Why primitive life was confined to the tropics? When was it possible for the people to migrate to colder regions?
Answer:
Primitive men and women had no idea about clothes, and were at the mercy of their environment. Primitive life was confined mostly to the tropics where the climate was warm and no clothing was needed. Only after the invention of fire, it became possible for people to migrate to colder regions.

Question 3.
What are the three stages in history of the development of clothing material? t
Answer:
In terms of raw materials, cloth making was developed in three stages. The first stage was cloth from plant fibres, such as flax, cotton, nettles and inner bark of the trees. The second stage began with the use of animal fibres especially wool and silk. Silk came to various parts of the world from China. The third stage in the history of clothing began in the late 19th century with the development of man-made or synthetic fibres like rayon, nylon and polyester. Now man-made fibres combined with other animal with or without plant fibres are used for making clothes for improved strength, wearing ability and other qualities.

Question 4.
When stitching was not known, how did people use fabrics available with them?
Answer:
When stitching was not known, people simply draped the fabrics around different parts of their body. Many different ways of draping fabrics were used.

Question 5.
Name the clothes which are used as an unstitched piece of fabric even now.
Answer:
Saree, dhoti, lungi or turban are the clothes which are used as an unstitched piece of fabric even now.

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CHAPTER -2 Components of Food | CLASS 6TH | NCERT SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQs | EDUGROWN

Here students can get info about NCERT Important Questions & MCQs for Class 6 Science so that they can get to know the answers to the questions in case they are not able to find it. You can find the best Class 6th Science NCERT Solutions explained in conformance with the CBSE curriculum for Class 6.

Chapter 2 Components of Food Class 6th Science

MCQs

Question 1.
Diseases that occur due to lack of nutrients over a long period are called disease.
(a) scurvy
(b) deficiency
(c) Beri-Beri
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) deficiency
Diseases that occur due to lack of nutrients over a long period are called deficiency diseases.


Question 2.
Repeated washing of rice and pulses may remove some and present in them.
(a) vitamins
(b) minerals
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) both (a) and (b)
Repeated washing of rice and pulses may remove vitamins and minerals present in them.


Question 3.
get lost in the process of cooking and preparations.
(a) Nutrients
(b) Oil
(c) Taste
(d) Spices

Answer

(a) Nutrients
Nutrients get lost in the process of cooking and preparations.


Question 4.
What happen if excess water is used during cooking and is then thrown away ?
(a) tastes is lost
(b) Oil is lost
(c) Many useful proteins and considerable amount of minerals are lost
(d) None of these

Answer

(c) Many useful proteins and considerable amount of minerals are lost
Many useful proteins and considerable amount of minerals are lost if excess water is used.


Question 5.
How do we get most of the water that our body needs ?
(a) The liquid we drink-such as water, milk, tea
(b) We add water to most cooked food
(c) Many food materials that we eat themselves contain water
(d) All of these

Answer

(d) All of these
Through all of these given statements we get most of water, that our body needs.


Question 6.
How many meals does a child take everyday ?
(a) 7
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) 3
A child takes 3 meals everyday.


Question 7.
What food items we eat in our lunch ?
(a) Curd, Roti, Dal
(b) Biscuit, milk
(c) Only fruit
(d) All of these

Answer

(a) Curd, Roti, Dal
We eat curd, roti, dal in our breakfast.


Question 8.
How many groups can be classified of nutrients required by our body ?
(a) 7
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 8

Answer

(a) 7
7 groups can be classified as nutrients required by our body.


Question 9.
……………….. are made up of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
(a) Vitamins
(b) Calcium
(c) Proteins
(d) Carbohydrates

Answer

(d) Carbohydrates
Carbohydrates are made up of carbon, hydi’ogen and oxygen.


Question 10.
The excess carbohydrates are mainly stored in the body as:
(a) calcium
(b) proteins
(c) fats
(d) roughage

Answer

(c) fats
The excess carbohydrates are mainly stored in the body as fats.


Question 11.
Carbohydrates are present in the form of:
(a) sugar
(b) starch
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) both (a) and (b)
Carbohydrates are present in the form of sugar and starch.


Question 12.
The human body is made up of amino acids and constitute all proteins of the body.
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 15

Answer

(b) 20
The human body is made up of 20 amino acids.


Question 13.
………….. are body building foods.
(a) Fats
(b) Calcium
(c) Vitamins
(d) Proteins

Answer

(d) Proteins
Proteins are body building foods.


Question 14.
What is the similarities of carbohydrates and fats ?
(a) both have sugar
(b) both have starch
(c) both have oxygen, carbon and hydrogen
(d) all of these

Answer

(c) both have oxygen, carbon and hydrogen
Both have oxygen, carbon and hydrogen.


Question 15.
What is the main difference between carbohydrates and fats?
(a) the amount of oxygen is less in fats as compared to carbohydrates
(b) the amount of oxygen is more in fats as compared to carbohydrates
(c) the amount of oxygen is same in fats as compared to carbohydrates
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) the amount of oxygen is less in fats as compared to carbohydrates
The amount of oxygen is less in fats as compared to carbohydrates.


Question 16.
Vitamins are required in ……………… amounts, but are essential for the proper functioning of the body.
(a) big
(b) large
(c) small
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) small
Vitamins are required in small amounts, but are essential for the proper functioning of the body.


Question 17.
About vitamins are needed by our body.
(a) 45
(b) 15
(c) 35
(d) 25

Answer

(b) 15
About 15 vitamins are needed by our body.


Question 18.
Each vitamins has a function.
(a) normal
(b) same
(c) specific
(d) all of these

Answer

(c) specific
Each vitamins has a specific functions.

NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 2 Components of Food

What do different food items contain?

Question 1.
What are nutrients?
Answer:
The components of food that are necessary for growth and development of our body are called nutrients.

Question 2.
Which are the nutrients essential for our body?
Answer:
Carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins, minerals, roughage and water are the nutrients essential for our bod

Question 3.
What is nutrition?
Answer:
The process of taking nutrients from our food for the growth and development of body and to obtain energy is known as nutrition.

Question 4.
Write the functions of food.
Answer:
The functions of food are as follows:

  • Food provides nutrients for proper growth and functioning of the body.
  • Food gives protection against diseases.
  • Food provides energy to carry out physical activities.

Question 5.
Why does our body need nutritious food?
Answer:
We know that food is needed for the growth of our body. Food gives us energy to work and play. It gives us resistance against diseases. The components of food are carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, fibre and water. Nutrients are the components of food that the body needs in adequate amounts for growth, to reproduce and to lead a normal healthy life. All types of nutrients have their own functions to perform, but the different nutrients must act together. So nutritious food provides energy for all the activities of body.

Question 6.
Name the different food groups.
Answer:
Food can be broadly sub-divided into the following three groups:

  • Energy giving food. For example, carbohydrates and fats.
  • Body building food. For example, proteins.
  • Protective food. For example, vitamins and minerals.

Question 7.
How will you test for starch in a food sample?
Answer:
Take a small quantity of a food sample, put 2-3 drops of iodine solution on it. A blue black colour indicates that the food sample contains starch.

Question 8.
How will you test for protein in a food sample?
Answer:
Take a small quantity of food sample in a test tube, add 10 drops of water to it and shake the test tube, after that add two drops of solution of copper sulphate and ten drops of caustic soda. A violet colour indicates presence of protein in the food sample.

Question 9.
How will you test for fat in a food sample?
Answer:
Put the sample of food on a piece of paper and crush it. If the paper at that spot becomes translucent and greasy, the sample contains fat.

Question 10.
What are the main carbohydrates found in our food?
Answer:
The main carbohydrates found in our food are in the form of starch and sugars.

Question 11.
Name two energy-producing nutrients.
Answer:
The two energy-producing nutrients are:

  1. Carbohydrates
  2. Fats.

Question 12.
Name two nutrients which protect the body from diseases.
Answer:
The two nutrients which protect the body from diseases are:

  1. Vitamins
  2. Minerals.

Question 13.
Name two food items which provide fats.
Answer:
The two food items which provide fats are:

  1. Oil
  2. Ghee.

What do various nutrients do for our body?

Question 1.
Name the food each rich in:

  1. dietary fibre
  2. sugar
  3. protein
  4. starch
  5. fat and oil.

Answer:

  1. Dietary fibre: Spinach, cabbage, ladyfinger.
  2. Sugar: Milk, banana, sugarcane.
  3. Protein: Milk, meat, fish, egg.
  4. Starch: Rice, wheat, bajara.
  5. Fat and oil: Butter, ghee, cheese, groundnut.

Question 2.
Name the food needed:

  1. for strong bones and teeth
  2. to prevent scurvy
  3. to avoid constipation
  4. for warmth
  5. for growth.

Answer:

  1. The bones and teeth are made up of salts of calcium and phosphorus. Calcium is found in milk, buttermilk, cheese, green leafy vegetables, ragi. While cereals, pulses, fish and meat are good sources of phosphorus.
  2. To prevent scurvy, vitamin C is required, which is found in citrus fruits, green and red peppers.
  3. To avoid constipation, roughage is very important. Roughage is mostly given by the food derived from plants, which contains enough cellulose. Most of the vegetables, fruits and whole grain provide roughage in our food.
  4. For warmth: ghee, butter, meat, fish, etc.
  5. For growth: milk, green leafy vegetables.

Question 3.
What are the roles of

  1. (a) carbohydrates,
  2. (bt fats,
  3. fc) vitamins and
  4. id) minerals.

Answer:

1. Role of carbohydrates: Carbohydrates provide us energy.
2.Role of fats: Fats provide us energy.
3. Role of vitamins:

  • Vitamins are necessary for various physiological activities.
  • Vitamins keep us healthy and protect us from many diseases.
  • Vitamins are required for the proper functioning of body parts.

4. Role of minerals:

  • Minerals help us to make our bones and teeth strong.
  • They help to prepare blood.

Question 4.
What do you mean by staple food?
Answer:
The main food that we eat to provide us energy is called staple food. In our country, rice, chapati and bread are staple food.

Question 5.
What is the function of vitamins?
Answer:
Vitamins only help in the proper utilization of other nutrients such as carbohydrates and fats. Many vitamins help enzymes in their action and are called co-enzymes.

Question 6.
Name any two sources of Vitamin B.
Answer:
The two sources of Vitamin B are:

  1. Milk
  2. Soybean.

Question 7.
Name the vitamin present in orange.
Answer:
Vitamin C.

Question 8.
What is the role of Vitamin C?
Answer:
Vitamin C helps in proper growth, healthy teeth, gums and joints and helps the body fight against the diseases.

Question 9.
Write the names of fat soluble vitamins.
Answer:
Vitamin A and Vitamin D.

Question 10.
Write the names of any two water soluble vitamins.
Answer:
The two water soluble vitamins are:

  1. Vitamin B
  2. Vitamin C.

Question 11.
Write the sources of fat.
Answer:
ats are found in vegetable oil, ghee, butter, milk, cheese, meat, fish, cod-liver oil, etc.

Question 12.
What are the sources of carbohydrates?
Answer:
Rice, wheat, maize, potatoes, sugar and jaggery are the sources of carbohydrates.

Question 13.
What is roughage? Why its presence in our food is important?
Answer:
The rough, fibrous content of food is called roughage. Green vegetables like spinach, cabbage, ladyfinger and beans contain a good amount of roughage:
Role of roughage: Roughage helps in the movement of bowel. Roughage prevents constipation.

Question 14.
Name the main constituent of roughage.
Answer:
Cellulose is the main constituent of roughage.

Question 15.
Which among the following provides maximum roughage to the diet if taken in equal amount?
Egg, cucumber, grapes, cabbage.
Answer:
Cabbage.

Question 16.
Name the minerals which make our teeth and bones.
Answer:
Calcium and Phosphorus.

Question 17.
What are various functions of proteins?
Answer:
Functions of proteins are:

  • Proteins are the building materials of our body.
  • Proteins are the constituents of enzymes.
  • Proteins make our muscles, skin, hair and nails.
  • Proteins form a red pigment in blood which acts as an oxygen carrier.
  • Proteins like fibrin help in clotting of blood.
  • Proteins help in repairing damaged cells, replacing wornout or dead cells and tissues.
  • Proteins help to develop resistance of the body against various infections.

Question 18.
Here are three strips. You have to paste them in figure at three places 1, 2 and3 At which place will you paste each strip?

  1. Protein rich food
  2. Carbohydrate rich food
  3. Fat rich food.

Components of Food Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 2 - Q18Answer:
Names of strips and their appropriate places are:
Components of Food Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 2 - Q18(i)

Question 19.
How are vitamins classified?
Answer:
Vitamins are classified into two categories:

  1. Water soluble vitamins, e.g., vitamins B and C.
  2. Fat soluble vitamins, e.g., vitamins A, D, E and K

Balanced Diet

Question 1.
What is a balanced diet?
Answer:
A diet in which every component of food (carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins, minerals, water and roughage) is present in proper amount is known as a balanced diet.

Question 2.

  1. How many calories does a 12-year old boy or girl need each day?
  2. How can the boy or girl get this in his/her diet?

Answer:

  1. A 12-year old boy or girl needs 2000-2200 calories per day.
  2. The boy or girl can get this by a diet including daal, rice, roti, green vegetables, ghee and a bit of jaggeiy.

Question 3.
Why does a growing child need more minerals?
Answer:
A growing child needs more minerals like calcium and phosphorus for the formation of bones.

Question 4.
Write three important properties of a balanced diet.
Answer:
A balanced diet has the following properties:

  • It is rich in essential nutrients such as vitamins, minerals and certain amino acids,
  • It provides enough material to take care of the needs of growth, repair and replacement of cells, tissues and organs of the body.
  • It provides energy required by the body.

Question 5.
What is obesity?
Answer:
When a person eats too much fat-containing food, then the fats get deposited in his body and he may end up suffering from a condition called obesity.

Question 6.
Explain why people who eat sea-food do not suffer from goitre.
Answer:
Goitre is caused due td iodine deficiency. Sea-food is a rich source of iodine and prevents the occurrence of goitre in people who eat sea-food.

Deficiency diseases

Question 1.
What is malnutrition? What are its harmful effects?
Answer:
Malnutrition is the physical state of a person resulting either from an imbalanced diet or from physical inability to absorb nutrients properly due to some diseases.
The harmful effects of malnutrition are:

  • Deficiency of any of the nutrients in our diet causes diseases.
  • Deficiency of protein causes kwashiorkor disease.
  • Deficiency of carbohydrate and protein causes marasmus.

Question 2.
What is the effect of protein deficiency on the health of children?
Answer:
If a child does not get enough protein in his food for long time, he is likely to suffer from protein deficiency. Children suffering from protein deficiency have light brown hair, face like that of an old man, always hungry, and distended stomach. They are under¬weight and skinny with very little flesh on bones. This disease is called Kwashiorkor.

Question 3.
What is marasmus? What are its symptoms?
Answer:
Marasmus is caused by the deficiency of proteins and carbohydrates in children.
Symptom: The child becomes so thin that loose folds of skin can be seen all over the body.

Question 4.
Write the sources and deficiency diseases of the vitamins ‘A’, ‘B’ complex, C, D, E and K.
Answer:

VitaminsSourcesDeficiency diseases
1. Vitamin AMilk, butter, yellow fruits and vegetables, egg yolk, liver oil of fish.Xerophthalmia, Night blindness, anaemia
2. Vitamin B complexMilk, egg, green vegetables, cheese, meat, germinating seeds, yeast and unpolished rice.Beriberi
3. Vitamin CCitrus fruits, green and red peppers.Scurvy
4. Vitamin DMilk, egg, fish, liver oil, sunlight.Rickets
5. Vitamin EVegetable seeds, eggs, sweet potatoes, oil, meat, sprouted grains.Sterility
6. Vitamin KEgg yolk, liver, cheese, tomato, cabbage, soybean, cauliflower.Improper coagulation of blood

Question 5.
What is anaemia? What are the symptoms of anaemia?
Answer:
The deficiency of iron in the diet leads to a disease called anaemia.
Symptoms: looks pale, gets tired easily, loses weight and nails turn white.

Question 6.
Why is it advised to take iodised salt?
Answer:
Iodised salt contains iodine. Iodine deficiency results in the enlargement of thyroid gland, retarded growth and mental disability. Iodized salts help us to overcome iodine deficiency.

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column B:

Column AColumn B
(a) Energy giving food(i) Vitamins and minerals
(b) Body building food(ii) Iodine
(c) Protective food(iii) Fats, carbohydrates
(d) Test for fat(iv) Copper sulphate and caustic soda
(e) Test for starch(v) Oily patch on paper sheet
(f) Test for protein(vi) Proteins

Answer:

Column AColumn B
(a) Energy giving food(iii) Fats, carbohydrates
(b) Body building food(vi) Proteins
(c) Protective food(i) Vitamins and minerals
(d) Test for fat(v) Oily patch on paper sheet
(e) Test for starch(ii) Iodine
(f) Test for protein(iv) Copper sulphate and caustic soda

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

  1. For proper ……………….. and …………………… our bodies need adequate food.
  2. Proteins build ………….. material.
  3. Non-living machines burn the fuel at ……………… temperature while living machines burn their food at ………………… temperature.
  4. Starch is a ……………… of sugar.
  5. ……………….. gives blue colour with iodine.
  6. Proteins are made up of …………………… .
  7. Skin, hair and nails are …………………… .
  8. Co-enzymes are nothing but …………….. .
  9. Vitamin C causes ……………….. when found deficient.
  10. Our body contains ……………………. of water.
  11. Most of the reactions in our body occur in ……………. solutions.
  12. Balanced diet is one containing all ……………….. .
  13. Deficiency of ……………. causes rough skin, weak eyesight and thinness of body.
  14. Excess intake of………………… over a large period may damage kidneys.
  15. Lack of ……………….. leads to lethargy, inactivity and feeling of tiredness.
  16. Intake of inadequate quantities of proteins may ………………….. the growth and development of children.

Answer:

  1. growth, maintenance
  2. body
  3. high, low
  4. polynler
  5. Starch
  6. amino acids
  7. proteins
  8. proteins
  9. scurvy
  10. 61%
  11. water
  12. nutrients
  13. eight
  14. proteins
  15.  alcohol

Question 3.
State whether the statements given below are True or False:

  1. Deficiency of vitamin A makes our bones weak.
  2. Deficiency of iron causes paleness.
  3. Calcium is necessary for strong bones and teeth.
  4. Deficiency of vitamin B helps to increase our appetite.
  5. Deficiency of vitamin D causes swollen and bleeding gums.
  6. Carbohydrates are the main source of energy in our diet.
  7. Expensive food is not always the best food
  8. Protein is a staple food.
  9. Haemoglobin is a carbohydrate.
  10. Cotton and paper are carbohydrates.
  11. Tomatoes contain vitamin C.
  12. Eating lady finger makes you good in mathematics.

Answer:

  1. False
  2. True
  3. True
  4. False
  5. False
  6. True
  7. True
  8. False
  9. False
  10. True
  11. True
  12. False

Question 4.
Choose the correct option in the following questions:

(i) The food components needed by our body are called
(a) ingredients
(b) nutrients
(c) fragments
(d) ornaments
Answer:
(b) ingredients of food have some components which are needed by our
body. Such components are called nutrients.

(ii) Carbohydrates can be tested by using
(a) iodine solution
(b) caustic soda
(c) copper sulphate
(d) fehling solution
Answer:
(a) Carbohydrates (starch) give violet or black colour with iodine solution.

(iii) Which one of the following is an energy giving component?
(a) Protein
(b) Vitamins and minerals
(c) Roughage
(d) Carbohydrates and fats
Answer:
(d) Carbohydrates and fats are main sources of energy.

(iv) Vitamins and minerals are
(a) protective food
(b) energy giving food
(c) body building food
(d) roughage
Answer:
(a) Vitamins and minerals protect our body from various diseases.

(v) Roughage helps in
(a) protecting our body from diseases
(b) movement of bowel
(c) providing energy
(d) building and repair of various body parts
Answer:
(b) Roughage are rich in fibres. Fibres keep in bowel movement.

(vi) Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of
(a) vitamin A
(b) vitamin B
(c) vitamin C
(d) vitamin D
Answer:
(c) Deficiency of vitamin C causes scurvy.

(vii) Diseases caused due to the deficiency of vitamins are known as
(a) dietary diseases
(b) cronic diseases
(c) deficiency diseases
(d) transmitted diseases
Answer:
(c) Since such diseases are caused by deficiency of food components.

(viii) All the deficiency diseases can be prevented by
(a) cleanliness ,
(b) taking medicine at proper time
(c) vaccination
(d) taking balanced diet
Answer:
(d) If we take balanced diet there will not be any kind of deficiency.

(ix) Which of the following food items contains carbohydrates?
(a) Rice i
(b) Gram
(c) Cabbage
(d) Pulses
Answer:
(a) Rice is a source of carbohydrates.

(x) Night blindness is caused due to deficiency of
(a) vitamin A
(b) vitamin B
(c) vitamin C
(d) vitamin D
Answer:
(a) Night blindness is caused due to deficiency of vitamin A.

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CHAPTER -1 FOOD: WHERE DOES IT COME FROM? | CLASS 6TH | NCERT SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQs | EDUGROWN

Here students can get info about NCERT Important Questions & MCQs for Class 6 Science so that they can get to know the answers to the questions in case they are not able to find it. You can find the best Class 6th Science NCERT Solutions explained in conformance with the CBSE curriculum for Class 6.

Chapter 1 Food Where Does It Come From Class 6TH Science

MCQs

Question 1.
Which plant gives us medicines?
(a) Castor oil
(b) Tulsi
(c) Dhatura
(d) All of these

Answer

(d) All of these
Castor oil, Tulsi and Dhatura gives us medicines.


Question 2.
Oil yielding plants are:
(a) Mustard
(b) Wheat
(c) Rice
(d) Urad

Answer

(a) Mustard
Oil yielding plants are mustard.


Question 3.
Honey comes from beehives of:
(a) Spider
(b) Butterfly
(c) Honeybee
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Spider
Honey comes from beehives of honeybee.


Question 4.
………………. is extracted by a honey extractor from beehives.
(a) Honey
(b) Sugar
(c) Sarbat
(d) All of these

Answer

(a) Honey
Honey is extracted by a honey extractor from beehive.


Question 5.
How to avoid wastage of food ?
(a) We should buy a lot of fruits and vegetables
(b) We should cooked extra food
(c) Storage of food should be done properly
(d) None of these

Answer

(c) Storage of food should be done properly
By storage of fruits should be done properly to avoid wastage of food.


Question 6.
In our country, people do not have enough food to eat, what should be our duty ?
(a) We should grow more food
(b) The food that we produce should not get spoilt or eaten away by animals
(c) Each of us should make sure not to waste food
(d) All of these

Answer

(d) All of these
Our duty is that grow more food, should not get spoilt or eaten away by animals and not to waste food.


Question 7.
A small white structure may have grown out of seeds is called:
(a) roots
(b) sprouts
(c) seeds
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) sprouts
A small white structure may have grown out of seeds is sprouts.


Question 8.
Bees collect nectar from:
(a) vegetable
(b) fruits
(c) flowers
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) flowers
Bees collect nectar from flowers.


Question 9.
Bees store nectar for their use all through the:
(a) day
(b) month
(c) week
(d) year

Answer

(d) year
Bees store nectar for their use all through the year.


Question 10.
What are the ingredients of kheer?
(a) Milk, rice, sugar
(b) Ghee, water, spices
(c) Rice, dal, water, salt
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Milk, rice, sugar
Milk, rice and sugar are the ingredients of kheer.


Question 11.
Camel milk is used in:
(a) Bengal
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Delhi
(d) Chennai

Answer

(b) Rajasthan
Camel milk is used in Rajasthan.


Question 12.
Eggs are the rich source of:
(a) vitamins
(b) fats
(c) proteins
(d) carbohydrates

Answer

(c) proteins
Eggs are the rich sources of proteins.


Question 13.
Honeybees collect the nectar from flowers and prepare honey in their nests called:
(a) honey
(b) flower
(c) plants
(d) beehives

Answer

(d) beehives
Honeybees nests is called beehives.


Question 14.
Fruits are:
(a) juicy
(b) tasty
(c) delicious
(d) all of these

Answer

(a) juicy
Fruits are juicy.


Question 15.
The milk producing animals are called:
(a) wild animals
(b) pet animals
(c) much animals
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) much animals
The milk producing animals are called milch animals.


Question 16.
Sugar is obtained from:
(a) Banana
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Carrot
(d) Mango

Answer

(b) Sugarcane
Sugar is obtained from sugarcane.


Question 17.
Parrot eats only product.
(a) plants
(b) animals
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) plants
Parrot eats only plants product.


Question 18.
is a food eaten at a particular time of the day.
(a) Meat
(b) Meal
(c) Fruit
(d) Vegetable

Answer

(b) Meal
Meal is a food eaten at a particular time of the day.


Question 19.
Sweet juice is known as:
(a) nectar
(b) pallen
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) nectar
Sweet juice is known as nectar.


Question 20.
Green plants are also known as:
(a) photosynthesis
(b) producers
(c) parasites
(d) saprophytes

Answer

(b) producers
Green plants are also known as producers.


Question 21.
is the food of day time.
(a) Lunch
(b) Breakfast
(c) Dinner
(d) All of these

Answer

(a) Lunch
Lunch is the food of day time.


Question 22.
Some plants grow under the ground and store food in them is called
(a) root
(b) stem
(c) branches
(d) leaves

Answer

(b) stem
Some plants grow under the ground and store food in them is called stem.

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS 

Food Variety

Question 1.
Define the term food.
Answer:
Eatables taken by human beings and animals which provide them energy for various activities, for growth and good health, are called food.

Question 2.
What do you mean by food habit?
Answer:
The habit of an individual owing to which it takes a particular type of food depending on its taste and availability is called food habit.

Question 3.
Define the term ingredients.
Answer:
The materials that are needed to prepare a particular type of dish are called ingredients.

Question 4.
Explain the importance of food for living organisms.
Answer:
Food is needed by all living organisms for the following reasons:

  • It provides us energy to do various activities.
  • It helps in growth.
  • It helps in repair and replacement of damaged parts of the body.
  • It protects us from infections and diseases.

Question 5.
Whether plants or animals give us more varieties of food? Explain.
Answer:
We know that animals give us meat, eggs, milk, honey and few other varieties of food only. On the other hand, plants provide us a large varieties of food. For example, cereals, pulses, fruits, oil, fats, vegetables, sugar and a large number of other products. Thus, we can conclude that plants give us more varieties of food.

Question 6.
Why should we eat cooked food?
Answer:
Cooked food is easily digested by our body. It also kills harmful germs. Cooking increases the taste of the food. That is why we should prefer cooked food.

Question 7.
Write the food habits of the people in Tamil Nadu and Punjab.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu: Idli, Dosa, Sambhar, Banana Chips, Coconut oil, etc.
Punjab: Lassi, Paratha, Pulses, Chapatis, etc.

Activity 1.
Ask your friends in the school about the items they would be eating during a day. See if you can also get this information from friends staying in different states of India.
List all the items in your notebook as given in Table 1.1, for as many friends as possible.

Name of the student/friendFood item eaten in a day
T.S. Sree Kumar (Kerala)Idli, dosa, curd, rice, sambar, etc.
Sarthak Sharma (Uttar Pradesh)Vegetable, dal, chapati, curd, rice, etc.
Sanchit Bose (W. Bengal)Fish curry, rice, vegetable, etc.
Sohan Singh (Punjab)Makki roti, rajma, sarson saag, curd, ghee, etc.
P. Prasada Rao (Andhra Pradesh)Rice, tuar dal, rasam, kunduru, ghee, pickle, etc.

Activity 2.
Choose some of the items you listed in Table 1.1 and try to find out what ingredients are used to prepare these, by discussing with your friends and elders at home. List them in Table 1.2. Some examples are given here. Add some more items to this list.

Food itemIngredients
Roti/chapatiAtta, water
DalPulses, water, salt, oil/ghee, spices
IdliRice, urad dal, salt, water
Fish curryFish, spices, oil/ghee, salt, water

Food Materials and Sources

Question 1.
Name the animals which provide us milk.
Answer:
Some important animals that give us milk are cow, buffalo, goat and camel.

Question 2.
Name the animals which give us meat.
Answer:
Some important meat giving animals are goat, sheep and pig.

Question 3.
Name some other animals that give us food.
Answer:
Besides milk and meat, animals give us useful food products. For example:

  • Birds like chicken, fowl and ducks give us eggs and meat.
  • Fish provides us meat.
  • Bees provide us honey.

Question 4.
What are the two main sources of food?
Answer:
The two main sources of food are:

  1. Plants: We get fruits, vegetables, pulses, etc., from plants.
  2. Animals: We get milk, eggs, meat, etc., from animals.

Question 5.
Name two sugar producing plants.
Answer:
The two sugar producing plants are:

  1. Sugarcane.
  2. Sugar beet.

Activity 3.
Let us take the food items listed earlier and try to find out where they come from— the ingredients and their sources. Some examples are shown in Table 1.3. Fill in the blanks in Table 1.3 and add more examples to this list.

Table 1.3: Ingredients used to prepare food items and their sources
Food Where Does It Come From Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 1 Q5

Plant Parts and Animal Products as Food

Question 1.
Write the names of the plants that provide us:

  1. Vegetables
  2. Fruits
  3. Cereals or grains
  4. Pulses
  5. Oil or fat.

Answer:
Various types of food given by plants are as follows:

  1. Vegetables: Tomato, cabbage, spinach, potato, etc.
  2. Fruits: Banana, grapes, apple, etc.
  3. Cereals or grains: Rice, wheat, barley, ragi, etc.
  4. Pulses: Gram, pea, beans, etc.
  5. Oil or fat: Mustard, groundnut, sunflower, etc.

Question 2.

  1. Which part of the plants do we eat generally?
  2. Write the names of some more edible parts of the plants.

Answer:

  1. Generally we eat fruits of many plants.
  2. Besides fruits, we also eat flowers, leaves, roots, rhizomes and stem of some plants. Various edible parts of plants with some examples are listed below:
Edible part of plantsExamples
1. RootsBeet, Carrot, Sweet potato, Radish, etc.
2. StemOnion, Potato, Ginger, Sugarcane, etc.
3. LeavesSpinach, Soya-methi, Bathua, etc.
4. FlowersCauliflower
5. SeedsMustard, Sweet pea, Lotus, Groundnut
6. FruitsBanana, Mango, Apple, etc.

Question 3.
Name some plants which have two or more edible parts.
Answer:
Examples of plants having two edible parts, and the food obtained are given below:

Name of plantFirst edible partSecond edible part
 PartFood typePartFood type
MustardSeedsSpices, oilLeavesVegetables
LotusSeedsDry fruitStemVegetables
RadishRootVegetableLeavesVegetables
MethiSeedsSpicesLeavesVegetables
Drum stickFruitVegetableFlowersVegetables
GramSeedsPulseLeavesVegetables

Question 4.
What is honey? What is its importance?
Answer:
A sweet substance (liquid) prepared by bees from the nectar, i.e., sweet juice collected from flowers, is called honey.
Honey consists of water, sugar, minerals and enzymes. It is easily digestible, and used in medicines as an antiseptic (which destroys the growth of microorganisms).

Question 5.
From where does honey come? How is it produced and collected?
Answer:
We get honey from honey bees.
Production of honey: Honey bees develop their nests called hives on tall trees and buildings. (Fig. 1.2). Bee workers collect nectar from flowers and store in container. The honey bees are also reared in artificial hives.
Extraction of honey: Honey is extracted from bee hives either manually or with the of an artificial help extractor.
Food Where Does It Come From Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 1 - 2

Question 6.
We know that every item that we eat is contributed by a number of persons. Show various contributors involved when we eat a chapati (through a flow chart).
Answer:
Food Where Does It Come From Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 1 - 3
Question 7.
Make flow charts for the preparation of (a) ghee (b) honey.
Answer:
(a)
Food Where Does It Come From Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 1 - 4
(b)
Food Where Does It Come From Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 1 - 5
Question 8.
Which parts of a plant are eaten as food?
Answer:
The following parts of a plant are eaten as food:

  • Roots
  • Stem
  • Leaves
  • Flowers
  • Fruits
  • Seeds
  • Spices

Question 9.
Define sprouted seeds.
Answer:
The germinating seeds at the initial stage when a white structure grows out from the seed (radicle) are called sprouted seeds.

Activity 4.
From all the food items you have listed in Table 1.3, choose those items whose ingredients are obtained from plants. Which part of a plant? Identify these and list the food items and plant parts as shown in Table 1.4.
Food Where Does It Come From Class 6 Extra Questions Science Chapter 1 - 6

What do Animals Eat?

Question 1.
Explain the terms:

  1. Herbivores,
  2. Carnivores and
  3. Omnivores.

1. Herbivores: Animals which eat only the plants or the plant products like fruits, flowers, seeds, nectar, etc., are called herbivores. For example, deer, cow, rat, etc.

2. Carnivores: Animals which eat other animals are called carnivores. For example, tiger, lion, etc.

3. Omnivores: Animals which eat both plants and their products as well as other animals are called omnivores. For example, human beings, cat, crow, etc.

Question 2.
What do you know about vegetarian and non-vegetarian habits?
Answer:
Man is omnivorous, i.e., he can feed on both plants and animals. But due to some religious or traditional reasons some people strictly avoid the food containing meat, fish, egg, etc., while some have no hesitation to have such food stuffs. On this basis, there are two types of food habits found in our society:

  • Vegetarian – people who do not eat meat, fish, egg, etc.
  • Non-vegetarian – people who eat meat, fish, egg, etc.

Question 3.
Define Scavengers, Parasites with examples.
Answer:
Scavengers: Some carnivores and omnivores eat dead animals. They help in cleaning our surroundings. For example: crow, jackel, hyena, etc.

Parasites: These are some very small animals which live on or inside other animals and get their food from them. For example: fleas, leeches, mosquitoes, bed-bugs, etc.

Question 4.
What are known as ‘energy rich food’?
Answer:
Cereals are known as ‘energy rich food’. For example: rice, wheat, jowar, maize, etc.

Question 5.
One day you were busy from morning to evening. You couldn’t have your lunch. How did you feel? Elaborate your experience.
Answer:
One day because of heavy load of work during the day, I could not have my lunch and at the end of the day, I felt very tired, and exhausted. I was too weak to do work. The hunger was in alarming condition.

Question 6.
Suppose one of your friends had only one chapati, some rice and one bowl of pulses for his daily meal. Do you think that by eating such meal he can work and play whole day?
Answer:
No, his diet is not complete. This food is not enough to provide sufficient energy required by him. He will not be able to work and play for the whole day because he will soon get tired due to lack of energy.

Activity 6.
Several animals are listed in Table 1.5. For some of them, the type of food they eat is also given. Fill in the blanks in the table.
Table 1.5: Animal and their Food

Name of the animalFood the animal eats
BuffaloGrass, oilcake, hay, grains
CatSmall animals, birds, milk
RatGrains, bread
LionFlesh of animals
TigerFlesh of animals
SpiderSmall insects
House lizardSmall insects
CowGrass, leaves, hay, mustard, cake
Human beingsRice, pulses, chapati, idli, dosa, bread, eggs
ButterflyNectar
CrowSmall insects, grains, meat
Others (Dog)Meat, biscuit, bread

Activity 7.
Have a look again at Table 1.5 and group the animals entered here as follows. Place animals which eat only plants or plant products.

  • Buffalo, cow and butterfly.
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CHAPTER -14 Practical Geometry | IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & MCQ |CLASS 6th | MATHS|NCERT |EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 14 Practical Geometry with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Knowing Our Numbers Class 6 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well

 

Chapter- 14 Practical Geometry Class 6th Maths Important Questions & MCQS

MCQ

Question 1.
A line segment TP−→− is bisected at I. What is the measure of TI−→?
(a) 12TP−→−
(b) IP−→
(c) TP−→−
(d) 13 TP−→−

Answer

Answer: (b) IP−→
Hint:
TI−→ = 13 TP−→− = IP


Question 2.
Which of the following can be drawn on a piece of paper?
(a) A line
(b) A line segment
(c) A ray
(d) A plane

Answer

Answer: (b) A line segment


Question 3.
l || m. P and Q are points on land m respectively such that PQ ⊥ lR is a point on a line n in the same plane such that PQ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ = QR¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯. Which of the following is true?
(a) l || n
(b) m || n
(c) Both [a] and [b]
(d) Neither [a] nor [b]

Answer

Answer: (c) Both [a] and [b]
Hint:
MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 14 Practical Geometry with Answers 1
Clearly, from the given data and the figure, l || n and m || n.


Question 4.
At 7 a.m. the angle between the Sun’s ray and the ground at a point is 43°. What would be the angle at 10 a.m.?
(a) 40°
(b) 90°
(c) Between 43° and 90°
(d) Greater than 90°

Answer

Answer: (c) Between 43° and 90°
Hint:
MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 14 Practical Geometry with Answers 2
Let QP be the sun’s ray and RP be the ground. The angle between QP and PR at P is 43° at 7 a.m. At 10 a.m., the sun’s ray is Q’P. We know that at 12 noon the sun is exactly above our head. So, the sun’s ray will be perpendicular to the ground. So, clearly at 10 am, the required angle will be between 43° and 90°.


Question 5.
XY−→− divides ∠MXN = 72° in the ratio 1 : 2. What is the measure of ∠YXN?
MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 14 Practical Geometry with Answers 3
(a) 48°
(b) 24°
(c) 72°
(d) 96°

Answer

Answer: (a) 48°
Hint:
MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 14 Practical Geometry with Answers 4
Given ∠MXN = 72∘ and XY−→− divides ∠MXN in the ratio 1 : 2.
∠YXN = 23 ∠MXN = 23 × 72° = 48°


Question 6.
MN−→− is the perpendicular bisector of AB←→. Which of the given statements is correct?
(i) ∠ANM + ∠MNB = 90∘
(ii) AN¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ = NB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
(iii) AN¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ = 2 NB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
(iv) ∠MNB = 12 ∠ANM
(a) (i) and (iii) only
(b) (ii) and (iv) only
(c) (i) and (ii) only
(d) (ii) and (iii) only

Answer

Answer: (c) (i) and (ii) only
Hint:
NM−→− ⊥ AB←→ and NM−→− divides AB←→ into two congruent parts.
MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 14 Practical Geometry with Answers 5
Clearly ∠ANM = ∠MNB = 90∘ is true. AN¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ = NB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ is true since NM−→− ⊥ AB←→AN¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ = 2NB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ is false, and ∠MNB = 12 ∠ANM is false. Thus, only (i) and (ii) are correct.


Question 7
Identify the uses of a ruler.
(a) To draw a line segment of a given length
(b) To draw a copy of a given segment.
(c) To draw a diameter of a circle.
(d) All the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above.
Hint:
A ruler is used to draw a line segment of a given length, to draw the copy of a given segment, and to draw a diameter of a circle. Thus, all the given options are correct.


Question 8.
P is the midpoint of AB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯. M and N are midpoints of AP¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ respectively. What is the measure of MN¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯?
(a) 13 AB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
(b) 12 AB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
(c) 12 AP¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
(d) 32 AB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯

Answer

Answer: (b) 12 AB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
Hint:
MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 14 Practical Geometry with Answers 6
P is the midpoint of AB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ ⇒ AP = PB M and N are midpoints of AP¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ and PB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ ⇒ AM¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ = MP¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ and PN¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ = NB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
∴ MN¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ = MP¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ + PN¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ = 12 AP¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ + 12 PB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ = 12 (AP¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ + PB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ ) = 12 (AB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯)


Question 9.
XY−→− bisects∠AXB. If ∠YXB = 37.5∘, what is the measure of ∠AXB?
(a) 37.5°
(b) 74°
(c) 64°
(d) 75°

Answer

Answer: (d) 75°


Question 10.
X and Y are two distinct points in a plane. How many lines can be drawn passing through both X and Y?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) Only 2
(d) Infinitely many

Answer

Answer: (b) 1


Question 11.
Lines a, b, p, q, m, n and x have a point P common to all of them. What is the name of P?
(a) Point of concurrence
(b) Point of intersection
(c) Common point
(d) Distinct point

Answer

Answer: (a) Point of concurrence
Hint:
A point common to multiple lines is called a point of concurrence as the lines are concurrent lines.


Question 12.
QZ−→− is the bisector of ∠PQZ = ∠PQR. Which of the following is true?
(a) ∠PQZ = ∠PQR
(b) ∠PQZ = ∠ZQR
(c) ∠PQZ = 12 ∠ZQR
(d) Both [b] and [c]

Answer

Answer: (d) Both [b] and [c]
Hint:
QZ−→− bisects ∠PQR (Given)
MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 14 Practical Geometry with Answers 7
Thus. ∠PQZ = ∠ZQR = 12 ∠PQR


Question 13.
Identify the pair of parallel lines.
(i) Lines m and n have two points in common.
(ii) Lines p and q do not have any point in common
(iii) Lines p and q have a point X in common.
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (ii) and (iii) only
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer

Answer: (b) (ii) only
Hint:
Parallel lines do not have any point in common.


Question 14.
Identify the one with no definite length.
(a) AB←→
(b) PQ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
(c) -XYZ
(d) MN¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯

Answer

Answer: (a) AB←→
Hint:
AB←→ has no definite length.


Question 15.
If two lines have only one point in common, what are they called?
(a) Parallel lines
(b) Intersecting lines
(c) Perpendicular lines
(d) Transversal

Answer

Answer: (b) Intersecting lines
Hint:
Intersecting lines have only one point in common.


Question 16.
Two lines are said to be perpendicular to each other when they meet at ____angle.
(a) 180°
(b) 90°
(c) 60°
(d) 360°

Answer

Answer: (b) 90°

Important Questions

Question 1.
If AB = 3.6 and CD = 1.6 cm, construct a line segment equal to AB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ + CD¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ and measure the total length.
Practical Geometry Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 14
Solution:
Step I: Draw a ray OX.
Step II : With centre 0 and radius equal to the length of AB (3.6 cm) mark a point P on the ray.
Practical Geometry Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 14
Step III: With centre P and radius equal to the length of CD (1.6 cm) mark another point Q on the ray.
Thus OQ is the required segment such that OQ = 3.6 cm + 1.6 cm = 5.2 cm.

Question 2.
Construct a perpendicular to a given line segment at point on it.
Solution:
Step IDraw a line PQ←→ and take any point A on it.
Practical Geometry Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 14
Step II : With centre A draw an arc which meets PQ at C and D.
Step III : Join AB and produce.
Step IV: With centres C and D and radius equal to half of the length of the previous arc, draw two arcs which meets each other at B.
Thus AB is the required perpendicular to PQ←→.

Question 3.
Construct an angle of 60° and bisect it.
Solution:
Step I: Draw a line segment AB¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯.
Practical Geometry Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 14
Step II: With centre B and proper radius, draw an arc which meets AB at C.
Step III : With C as centre and the same radius as in step II, draw an arc cutting the previous arc at D.
Step IV : Join B to D and produce.
Step V : Draw the bisector BE of ∠ABD.
Thus BE is the required bisector of ∠ABD.

Question 4.
Draw an angle of 120° and hence construct an angle of 105°.
Solution:
Step I : Draw a line segment OA¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯.
Practical Geometry Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 14
Step II : With centre O and proper radius, draw an arc which meets OA at C.
Step III : With centre C and radius same, mark D and E on the previous arc.
Step IV : Join O to E and produce.
Step V : ∠EOA is the required angle of 120°.
Step VI : Construct an angle of 90° which meets the previous arc at F.
Step VII : With centre E and F and proper radius, draw two arcs which meet each other at G.
Step VIII : Join OG and produce.
Thus ∠GOA is the required angle of 105°.

Question 5.
Using compasses and ruler, draw an angle of
75° and hence construct an angle of 37 12.
Solution:
Step I: Draw a line segment OA.
Step II : Construct ∠BOA = 90° and ∠EOA = 60°
Step III : Draw OC as the bisector of ∠BOE , which equal to
Practical Geometry Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 14
Step IV : Draw the bisector OD of ∠COA.
Practical Geometry Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 14
Thus ∠DOA is the required angle of 37 12 .

Question 6.
Draw ∆ABC. Draw perpendiculars from A, B and C respectively on the sides BC, CA and AB. Are there perpendicular concurrent? (passing through the same points).
Solution:
Step I: Draw any ∆ABC.
Step II : Draw the perpendicular AD from A to BC.
Practical Geometry Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 14
Step III : Draw the perpendicular BE from B to AC.
Step IV : Draw the perpendicular CF from C to AB.
We observe that the perpendiculars AD, BE and CF intersect each other at P.
Thus, P is the point of intersection of the three perpendiculars.

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