Daily Archives: January 29, 2022

NCERT MCQ ON Indian Economy 1950-1990:

Question1 : Land ceiling refers to __
A. fixing rural landholding at the existing level
B. fixing the quantum of land held by an individual
C. fixing urban landholdings at the existing level
D. fixing land area for irrigation purposes

Answer : B

Question2: In 1955, Karve Committee (Village & Small scale committee) was constituted for –
A. Using SSI for rural development
B. Using SSI for urban development
C. Using large scale industries for development\
D. Both A & B

Answer : A

Question 3:  What is needed to provide protection against natural calamities like floods, drought, locusts, thunderstorms, etc.?
A. Multiple cropping
B. Green Revolution
C. Crop insurance
D. HYV

Answer : C

Question 4: When was the National Development Council (NDC. set up as an adjunct to the Planning Commission?
A. 1950
B. 1969
C. 1952
D. 1979

Answer : C

Question5 : All the state government imposed land ceiling in 1960 except
A. South-western
B. North-western
C. South-eastern
D. North-eastern

Answer : B

Question7 : How many industries have been reserved for the public sector under Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956?
A. 17
B. 21
C. 15
D. 2

Answer : A

Question7 : It is a conscious design to shape the socio-economic processes in order to achieve an objective
A. Economic infrastructure
B. Economic development
C. Economic planning
D. Economic growth

Answer : C

Question8 : IADP stands for
A. Integrated Agriculture Development Product
B. Intensive Area Development Programme
C. Integrated Area Development Product
D. Intensive Area Development Product

Answer : B

Question9 : Which of the following statements are not true?
A. SSI were given protection from big industries
B. Concessions were given to SSI
C. Govt. allowed SSI & large industries to produce any type of goods
D. None

Answer : C

Question10 : Agriculture education ,health and infrastructure were the priority areas in which five year plan.
A. 11th
B. 12th
C. 9th
D. 10th

Answer : A

Question11 : The policy makers of independent India tried to bring in growth and equity in the agriculture sector through:
i) Bringing in land Reforms
ii) Without using any ‘High Yielding Variety’ (HYV) seeds
Which of the above are correct?
A. Only i
B. Only ii
C. Both i and ii
D. Neither i nor ii

Answer :  C

Question 12: When was Twelfth five year plan started
A. 2007-2012
B. 1997-2002
C. 2012-2017
D. 2002-2007

Answer : C

Question13 : Agriculture education ,health and infrastructure were the priority areas in the
A. 12th
B. 9th
C. 11th
D. 10th

Answer : C

Question14 : Initially HYVP was implemented in about
A. 76 million hectares area
B. 75 million hectares area
C. 3 million hectares area
D. 2 million hectares area

Answer :  D

Question15 : Legally stipulated maximum size beyond which no individual farmer can hold any land
A. Tenancy reforms
B. Abolition of intermediaries
C. Land consolidation
D. Land Ceiling

Answer : D

Question 16: Who is the architect of Indian planning?
A. K.N. Raj
B. PC. Mahalanobis
C. R.C. Desai
D. Dadabhai Navoroji

Answer : B

Question 17: SEBI stands for
A. Science and Engineering Board of India
B. Securities and Exchange Board of India
C. Social Equity Bureau of India
D. Science and Educational Board of India

Answer : B

Question 18: What prevented firms from becoming efficient?
A. Tarrifs
B. Quotas
C. Permit License Raj
D. New Economic Policy

Answer : C

Question 19: Schedule________ comprise of industries which would be exclusively owned by the state:
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. None of these

Answer : A

Question20 : When was Planning commission established
A. 20th March 1951
B. 5th March 1951
C. 15th March 1951
D. 25th March 1951

Answer : C

Question 21: The economy of India is based on planning through the ___ Year Plan develop executed and monitored by the planning Commission
A. Six
B. Five
C. Three
D. Four

Answer : B

Question 22: Industrial sector and agricultural sector are
A. Have no economic relations with each other
B. Complementary to each other
C. Are substitute of each other
D. Compete with each other

Answer : B

Question 23: At the time of independence the government of India adopted which of the following for the future economic development
A. Free market forces
B. Planning by inducement
C. Planning by direction
D. Free market forces + planning by inducement

Answer : D

Question24 : Which of the following industries were exclusively reserved for public sector in IPR 1956
A. Arms & Ammunition
B. Atomic energy
C. Air craft
D. All of the above

Answer : D

Question 25: In which type of economic system goods are produced on purchasing power?
A. Socialist Economy
B. Mixed Economy
C. Capitalist Economy
D. None of the above

Answer : C

Question26 : Consider the below statements with reference to Abolition of zamindari system.
i) It brought some 200 lakh tenants into direct contact with the government.
ii) The ownership conferred on tenants gave them the incentive to increase output and this contributed to growth in agriculture.
iii) In some areas like Kerala and West Bengal, the former zamindars continued to own large areas of land by making use of some loopholes in the legislation.
Select the appropriate combination:
A. Only (i) correct
B. Only (i) and (ii) correct
C. Only (ii) and (iii) correct
D. All are correct

Answer : B

Question27 : Which of the following organizations looks after the credit needs of agriculture and rural development in India?
A. FCI
B. IDBI
C. NABARD
D. ICAR

Answer : C

Question 28: Following are the external factors responsible for industrial sickness except
A. Diversion of funds
B. Government policies related with production, distribution and prices
C. Shortage of power and raw materials
D. Change in investment pattern

Answer : A

Question 29: The basic problem the Indian economy is facing is shortage of
A. Entrepreneurial abilities
B. Natural resources
C. Man made resources
D. Human resources

Answer : C

Question30 : Land ceiling refers to _________
A. fixing rural landholding at the existing level
B. fixing the quantum of land held by an individual
C. fixing urban landholdings at the existing level
D. fixing land area for irrigation purposes

Answer : B

Question31 : First time the objective of self-reliance was incorporated in the ____ Five year plan
A. First
B. Fifth
C. Second
D. Third

Answer : D

Question 32: Define GDP
A. Factor value of all the final goods and services produced within a domestic territory
B. Market value of all the final goods and services produced within a domestic territory
C. Market value of all the final goods and services produced by the residents
D. Factor value of all the final goods and services produced produced by the residents

Answer : B

Question 33: Who developed HYV seeds
A. Normal Jones
B. Normal Borlaug
C. Norah Jones
D. Norten Borlaug

Answer : B

Question 34: Which of the following is not a goal of five year plan ?
A. Growth
B. Equity
C. Land reforms
D. Modernisation

Answer : C

Question 35: Which industry employs the largest number of women in India?
A. tea
B. textile
C. jute
D. coal

Answer : A

Question 36: Subsidies are
A. Grants taken by government so that commodities sold at prices above the market price
B. Grants taken by government so that commodities sold at prices below the market price
C. Grants given by government so that commodities sold at prices above the market price
D. Grants given by government so that commodities sold at prices below the market price

Answer : D

Question 37: Refers to an increase in the country’s capacity to produce the output of goods and services within the country.
A. Equity
B. Growth
C. Self-reliance
D. Modernization

Answer : B

Question 38: Tenancy reforms refers to
A. Bringing together all plots of land of a cultivator into one compact block
B. Dividing the land into small plots
C. Those who take cultivable land on rent and pay either in terms of money or a part of produce
D. None

Answer : C

Question39 : With reference to outcomes of the green revolution, evaluate the following:
1. The low income groups did not get any benefit from it.
2. The HYV crops were more prone to attack by pests.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : A

Question40 : Infant mortality rate fall due to
A. Better health facilities
B. All of these
C. Poor health facilities
D. No change in health facilities

Answer : A

Question41 : Which two crops were benefitted when green revolution was introduced?
A. Tea & coffee
B. Jowar & Bajra
C. Cotton & Jute
D. Rice & Wheat

Answer : D

Question 42: Planning commission was set up in
A. 5th March 1951
B. 15th March 1951
C. 25th March 1951
D. 20th March 1951

Answer : B

Question43 : The economy of India is based on planning through the ___ Year Plan develop executed and monitored by the planning Commission
A. Three
B. Four
C. Six
D. Five

Answer : D

Question44 : To protect goods produced in India from imports, Government made use of:
A. Quotas
B. Tariffs
C. both A. and B.
D. neitherA. norB.

Answer : C

NCERT MCQ ON Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence:

Question1 : Which of the following economist estimated per capita income during colonial period
A. William Digby
B. Findley Shirras
C. Dada Bhai Naoroji
D. All of these

Answer :   D

Question 2: Tata Airlines established in the year?
A. 1932
B. 1931
C. 1930
D. 1953

Answer :   A

Question3 : What was the condition of foreign trade under British rule
A. Net exporter of raw materials
B. Net importer of finished goods reproduced by British India
C. All of these
D. Surplus on account of foreign trade was spent on war expenses

Answer :   C

Question3 : Cotton textile mills were mainly located in
A. South
B. North
C. Western
D. Eastern

Answer :   C

Question4 : Cotton textile mills were dominated by
A. None
B. Britishers
C. Foreigners
D. Indians

Answer :   D

Question 5: _______ refers to relative distribution of a country’s workforce among various sectors of economic activity
A. Demographic structure
B. Income structure
C. Occupational structure
D. None of these

Answer :   C

Question6 : Industrial sector creates infrastructure which helps in growth of
A. Primary
B. Tertiary
C. Secondary
D. All of these

Answer :   D

Question7 : Which of the following is false regarding Positive effect of British rule was
A. Provision of post and telegraph service
B. Monopoly on foreign trade
C. Development of ports
D. Provide transport facilities

Answer :   B

Question 8: . The financial sector in India is primarily controlled by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Which of the following institutions are a part of financial sector?
1. Commercial banks
2. Money Lenders
3. Investment banks
4. Stock exchange operations
5. Insurance
6. Foreign exchange market
Code:
A. 1, 2, 3 and 6
B. 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6
C. 1, 3, 4 and 6
D. All of the above

Answer :   D

Question9 : What was the percent growth of per capita income in a year during first half of 20th century.
A. 1%
B. .5%
C. 2%
D. None

Answer :    B

Question10 : During major part of British period
A. Exports were more than imports
B. None of these
C. Imports were more than exports
D. Exports were equal to imports

Answer :   A

Question11 : When were the railways Introduced in India?
A. 1769
B. 1825
C. 1850
D. 1875

Answer :   C

Question 12: Aam Admi Bima Yojana was launched on:
A. November 14, 2011
B. March 5, 2009
C. March 10, 2008
D. October 2, 2007

Answer :   D

Question13 : When was the first census data collected during British India
A. 1882
B. 1982
C. 1881
D. 1981

Answer :   C

Question14 : Death rate and birth rate at the time of independence was
A. High birth rate and Low death rate
B. Low birth rate and low death rate
C. Low birth rate and high death rate
D. High birth rate and high death rate

Answer :   D

Question15 : India on the eve of independence was
A. Vibrant economy
B. Stagnant economy
C. None
D. Both

Answer :   B

Question16 : Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining astound and efficient accounting and financial reporting system in India?
A. The Comptroller General of Accounts
B. NITI Ayog
C. RBI
D. None of these

Answer :   A

Question 17: Iron and steel industries began coming up in
A. Twentieth century
B. Seventieth century
C. Eighteenth century
D. Nineteenth century

Answer :   A 

Question18 : TISCO stands for
A. Tata Iron and silver Company
B. Tata Iron and silver Corporation
C. Tata Iodine and silver Company
D. Tata Iron and steel Company

Answer :   D

Question 19: Consider the following statements about India’s approach in dealing with 1991 crisis.
1. India approached the international bank for reconstruction and development popularly known as IMF for loan to manage the crisis.
2. India came up with new economic policies which were based on the conditionality of international institutions.
3. Conditionality of international institutions was not as a punishment but were towards creating more competitive environment in the economy.
Select the correct ones.
A. All the above
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1 and 3

Answer :   B

Question 20: Which of the following economists made an attempt to calculate India’s national & per capita income during colonial period?

A. William Digby
B. Dadabhai Naoroji
C. VKRV Rao
D. All of the above

Answer :   D

Question21 : Life expectancy refers to
A. Both
B. Death rate of children below the age of one year
C. Average life of a person
D. None

Answer :   C

Question22 : What was the motive behind the de-industrialisation by the colonial Govt. in India?
A. Both
B. None
C. To sell British manufactured goods in Indian market at high rate prices
D. To get raw material from India at cheap rate

Answer :   A

Question23 : An important approach to addressing poverty is to provide minimum basic amenities to the people. Consider the following statements about schemes to provide basic amenities.
1. National Social Assistance Programme is a programme to give pension to elderly people who do not have anyone to take care of them.
2. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana aims to provide better connectivity in the villages by improving roads.
Select the correct statements using codes below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above

Answer :   C

Question24 : Indian economy at the time of independence was
A. None
B. Developing economy
C. Developed economy
D. Backward economy

Answer :   D

Question 25: What was the percentage of population dependent directly or indirectly on agriculture
A. 85
B. 60
C. 75
D. 65

Answer :   A

Question26 : Indian economy on the eve of independence was:
A. Developed
B. Underdeveloped
C. Stagnant
D. Both B & C

Answer :   D

Question27 : The theory of demographic transition has ____ stages.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Answer :   C

Question28 :  Which of the following was the major occupation on the eve of independence?
A. Industry
B. Services
C. Agriculture
D. None of these

Answer :   C

Question 29:  In accordance with the goal of the state controlling the commanding heights of the economy, the industrial policy resolution of 1956 was adopted consider the following statements about 1956- industrial policy resolution?
1. This resolution formed the basis of the second five year plan, the plan which tried to build the basis for a capitalist pattern of society.
2. This policy was used for promoting industries in backward regions.
3. License to expand production achieved easily.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3

Answer :   B

Question 30:   Which of the following statement is true regarding the condition of Infrastructure
A. Balanced regional development in infrastructure in all areas
B. Barter system was still prevailing
C. Development in the area of transport and communication
D. No developments in the areas of roads and railways

Answer :   C

Question31 :   Jute industries were located in
A. Maharashtra
B. Rajasthan
C. Gujarat
D. Bengal

Answer :   D

Question 32.What was the life expectancy in India during the British rule?
A. 65
B. 38
C. 32
D. 44

Answer :   D

Question 33. Per capita income means:
A. National income / population
B.  Population / national income
C. Total capital /population
D. None of these

Answer :   A

Question34 : Which year regarded as Year of great divide
A. 1931
B. 1911
C. 1921
D. 1941

Answer :   C

Question 35:  In India, which of the following is having highest share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied activities?
A. Cooperative Banks
B. Regional Rural Banks
C. Commercial Banks
D. Microfinance institutions

Answer :   C

Question36 :  India followed a planned economy from the time of independence. Consider the following statements.
1. India‘s plans were of five years and lacked a perspective approach.
2. Directive principles of Indian constitution reflect the planned outlook of India.
3. Our five year plans do not spell out how much of each and every good and service is to be produced.
Select the correct statements using codes below.
A. Only 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. All the above

Answer :    B

Question37 :  Decay of handicrafts was caused by:
A. British tarrif policy
B. Competition from man made machines
C. New demand patterns
D. All of the above

Answer :    D

Question38 :  % _____ while 18% workforce were engaged in ______ sector
A. Manufacturing , Service
B. Service, Manufacturing
C. Primary, Service
D. Manufacturing , Primary

Answer :   A

Question 39:  During colonial period India’s demographic profile showed __
A. high birth rate
B. low death rate
C. low infant mortality rate
D. high literacy rate

Answer :   D 

Question40 :  Capital goods industries are those
A. None
B. Which can produce consumer goods
C. Both
D. Which can produce machine tools

Answer :   D

Question41 :  Buffer stock is the stock of foodgrains procured by the government through Food Corporation of India (FCI). Consider the following statements in relation to the FCI procurements.
1. The FCI purchases wheat and rice from the states where there is a surplus.
2. Minimum support price is the price announced by the FCI before the sowing season.
3. Issue price is the price issued by the FCI for their procurements based on the market price.
Select the correct ones.
A. 1 and 2
B. Only 2
C. Only 1
D. All the above

Answer :    C

Question42 .Who made significant estimates about calculating national income in India during the British period?
A. V.K.R.V. Rao
B. Dadabhai Naoroji
C. Findlay Shirras
D. William Digby

Answer :   A

Question43 :  In which of the following sectors is manufacturing activity included?
A. Primary
B. Tertiary
C. Secondary
D. All of these

Answer :   C

Question44 :  Which year is referred to as ‘Year of Great Divide’?
A. 1881
B. 1891
C. 1921
D. 1951

Answer :   C

Question 45:  Economy of a country is classified into various sectors based on different types of economic activity undertaken in each. Consider the following statements related to some of them.
1. All Agricultural activities are included in Primary sector
2. All Industrial activities are included in secondary sector.
3. Service sector includes only those activities that help in production of goods.
Select the incorrect statements using codes given below.
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All of the above

Answer :   C

Question 46:  Life expectancy during colonial period in India?
A. 30yrs
B. 50 yrs
C. 60 yrs
D. 63yrs

Answer :   A

Question47 :  In order to bring stability in Agriculture the Britishers introduced land settlement in 1773. Where was it first introduced?
A. fertile lands of Punjab province
B. Bombay province
C. all directly British ruled areas
D. Bengal
E. none of these.

Answer :   D

Question 48: Which of the following(s) is/are cause(s) of slow growth of private enterprises in India’s industrialization (1850-1957)?
A. Unimaginative private enterprise, short-sighted Indian industrialists.
B. complete absense of financial institutions to help transfer of savings to industrial investment.
C. Banking was not highly developed & was more concerned with commerce rather than industry.
D. Lack of support from British government
E. All of these

Answer :   E

Question49 :  RBI’s first census of India’s foreign Assets & Liability as on 30 June 1948 revealed total foreign business investments of Rs 302 cr, out of it what was the % of British investments in India?
A. 51%
B. 60%
C. 72%
D. 91%
E. 100%.

Answer :   C

Question50 :  First train on India soil was run on 1853 between?
A. Bombay to Thane.
B. Thane to Bombay.
C. Bombay to Surat.
D. None of these.

Answer :   A

NCERT MCQ ON International Business-II:

Q.1 Which one of the following is not a part of export documents?

(a) Commercial invoice
(b) Certificate of origin
(c) Bill of entry
(d) Mate’s receipt

Answer

(c) Bill of entry

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Q.2 Which of the following do not form part of duty drawback scheme?

(a) Refund of excise duties
(b) Refund of customs duties
(c) Refund of export duties
(d) Refund of income dock charges at the port of shipment

Answer

(d) Refund of income dock charges at the port of shipment

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Q.3 Which of the following documents are not required for obtaining an export license?

(a) IEC number
(b) Letter of credit
(c) Registration cum membership certificate
(d) Bank account number

Answer

(b) Letter of credit

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Q.4 The first phase of globalization started around 1870 and ended with___________

(a) World War I
(b) World War II
(c) The Establishment of GATT
(d) In 1913 when GDP was High

Answer

(a) World War I

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Q.5 Which of the following does not belong to the World Bank group?

(a) IBRD
(b) IDA
(c) MIGA
(d) IMF

Answer

(d) IMF

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Q.6 Which of the following document is prepared by the exporter and includes details of the cargo in terms of the shipper’s name, the number of packages, the shipping bill, port of destination, name of the vehicle carrying the cargo?

(a) Shipping bill
(b) Packaging list
(c) Mate’s receipt
(d) Bill of exchange

Answer

(d) Bill of exchange

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Q.7 _______ is only a legal agreement and it is not an institution, but ________ is a permanent institution.

(a) GATT, WTO
(b) WTO, GATT
(c)WTO, IMF
(d) IMF, GATT

Answer

(a) GATT, WTO

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Q.8 _________corporation produces in the home country or in a single country and focuses on marketing these products globally or vice a versa.

(a) Global
(b) International
(c) Transnational
(d) None of the above

Answer

(a) Global

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Q.9 Key controllable factors in global marketing are:

(a) Government policy and legislation
(b) social and technical changes
(c) marketing activities and plans
(d) all of the above

Answer

(c) marketing activities and plans

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Q.10 Comparative Cost Trade Theory is given by

(a) Adam Smith
(b) David Ricardo
(c) Gottfried Haberler
(d) Heckscher Ohlin

Answer

(b) David Ricardo

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Q.11 Globalization refers to:

(a) Lower incomes worldwide
(b) Less foreign trade and investment
(c) Global warming and their effects
(d) A more integrated and interdependent world

Answer

(d) A more integrated and interdependent world

---

Q.12 Capitalistic, communistic and Mixed are the types of

(a) Economic System
(b) Social System
(c) Cultural Attitudes
(d) Political System

Answer

(a) Economic System

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Q.13 Which of the following documents is not required in connection with an import transaction?

(a) Bill of lading
(b) Shipping bill
(c) Certificate of origin
(d) Shipment advice

Answer

(c) Certificate of origin

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Q.14 SMEs stands for:

(a) Small and Medium Entrepreneurs
(b) Small Management of Enterprises
(c) Small and Medium-sized Enterprises
(d) Societies for Managing Exports

Answer

(c) Small and Medium-sized Enterprises

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Q.15 MNC Stands for

(a) Multi-National Cooperation
(b) Multi-National Corporation
(c) Multi-National Company
(d) Multi-National Collaboration

Answer

(b) Multi-National Corporation

---

Q.16 IPR stands for

(a) Intellectual property rights
(b) International property rights
(c) Internal promotion rights
(d) Interior promotional rights

Answer

(a) Intellectual property rights

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Q.17 WTO stands for

(a) World technology association
(b) World time organization
(c) World trade organization
(d) World tourism organization

Answer

(c) World trade organization

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Q.18 Subsidiaries consider the regional environment for policy / Strategy formulation is known as

(a) Polycentric Approach
(b) Regiocentric Approach
(c) Ethnocentric Approach
(d) Geocentric Approach

Answer

(b) Regiocentric Approach

NCERT MCQ ON International Business-I :

Q.1 Which one of the following is not amongst India’s major trading partners?

(a) Germany
(b) New Zealand
(c) the UK
(d) the USA

Answer

(b) New Zealand

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Q.2 A receipt issued by the commanding officer of the ship when the cargo is loaded on the ship is known as

(a) Cargo receipt
(b) Mate receipt
(c) Shipping receipt
(d) Charter receipt

Answer

(b) Mate receipt

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Q.3 Which one of the following is not a document related to fulfilling the customs formalities

(a) Letter of insurance
(b) Shipping bill
(c) Export license
(d) Proforma invoice

Answer

(d) Proforma invoice

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Q.4 Which one of the following is not a part of export documents?

(a) Commercial invoice
(b) Mate’s receipt
(c) Certificate of origin
(d) Bill of entry

Answer

(d) Bill of entry

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Q.5 The document containing the guarantee of a bank to honour drafts drawn on it by an exporter is

(a) Letter of hypothecation
(b) Letter of credit
(c) Bill of exchange
(d) Bill of lading

Answer

(b) Letter of credit

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Q.6 Which one of the following is not amongst India’s major export items?

(a) Textiles and garments
(b) Gems and jewellery
(c) Oil and petroleum products
(d) Basmati rice

Answer

(c) Oil and petroleum products

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Q.7 Which one of the following modes of entry permits greatest degree of control over overseas operations?

(a) Licensing/franchising
(b) Wholly owned subsidiary
(c) Contract manufacturing
(d) Joint venture

Answer

(b) Wholly owned subsidiary

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Q.8 Which of the following is not an advantage of exporting?

(a) Easier way to enter into international markets
(b) Comparatively lower risks
(c) Limited presence in foreign markets
(d) Less investment requirements

Answer

(c) Limited presence in foreign markets

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Q.9 Outsourcing a part of or entire production and concentrating on marketing operations in international business is known as

(a) Licensing
(b) Franchising
(c) Contract manufacturing
(d) Joint venture

Answer

(c) Contract manufacturing

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Q.10 The OECD stands for:

(a) Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development
(b) Organization for Economic Coordination and Development
(c) Organization for Environmental Cooperation and Development
(d) Organization for Environmental Control and Development

Answer

(a) Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development

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Q.11 Which of the following documents are not required for obtaining an export license?

(a) IEC number
(b) Registration cum membership certificate
(c) Letter of credit
(d) Bank account number

Answer

(c) Letter of credit

---

Q.12 Which of the following documents is not required in connection with an import transaction?

(a) Certificate of origin
(b) Bill of lading
(c) Shipping bill
(d) Shipment advice

Answer

(c) Shipping bill

---

Q.13 W.T.O is the only organization dealing with the:

(a) Home trade rules
(b) Entrepot trade rules
(c) Global trade rules
(d) None of the above

Answer

(c) Global trade rules

---

Q.14 Import trade procedure starts with

(a) Obtaining quota
(b) Arranging L.C
(c) Trade enquiry
(d) Placing Indent

Answer

(c) Trade enquiry

---

Q.15 When two or more firms come together to create a new business entity that is legally separate and distinct from its parents it is known as

(a) Franchising
(b) Contract manufacturing
(c) Joint Ventures
(d) Licensing

Answer

(c) Joint Ventures

---

Q.16 Select example of Indian Multinational Company

(a) Hindusthan Unilever
(b) Videocon
(c) Cargill
(d) Tesco

Answer

(b) Videocon

---

Q.17 ________is the payment method most often used in International Trade which offers the exporter best assurance of being paid for the products sold internationally.

(a) Bill of Lading
(b) Letter of Credit
(c) Open Account
(d) Drafts

Answer

(b) Letter of Credit

---

Q.18 Which of the following is not a force in the Porter Five Forces model?

(a) Buyers
(b) Suppliers
(c) Complementary products
(d) Industry rivalry

Answer

(c) Complementary products

---

Q.19 Which is not an Indian Multinational Company?

(a) Unilever
(b) Asian Paints
(c) Piramal
(d) Wipro

Answer

(a) Unilever

---

Q.20 ___________is the application of knowledge which redefines the boundaries of global business

(a) Cultural Values
(b) Society
(c) Technology
(d) Economy

Answer

(c) Technology

---

Q.21 The Theory of Relative Factor Endowments is given by

(a) David Ricardo
(b) Adam Smith
(c) F W Taussig
(d) Ohlin and Hecksher

Answer

(d) Ohlin and Heckshery

NCERT MCQ ON Internal Trade :

Q.1 Small scale Fixed retailers includes __________

(a) Hawkers
(b) Pedlars
(c) Cheap Jacks
(d) General stores

Answer

(d) General stores

---

Q.2 __________ are agents who merely bring the buyer and the seller into contact.

(a) Selling agent
(b) Commission agent
(c) Stockist
(d) Broker

Answer

(d) Broker

---

Q.3 Wholesalers deals in ___________quantity of goods

(a) Small
(b) Limited
(c) Large
(d) Medium

Answer

(c) Large

---

Q.4 The purchase of goods from a foreign country is called ____________

(a) Entreport
(b) Import
(c) Re-Export
(d) Export

Answer

(b) Import

---

Q.5 The risk of bad debts in this business is eliminated particularly when payment is received through V.P.P.

(a) Tele-shopping
(b) mail order trading house
(c) Departmental store
(d) co-operative store

Answer

(b) mail order trading house

---

Q.6 It is a network of a number of branches situated at different localities in the city or in the different parts of the country.

(a) Multiple shop
(b) Consumers? co-operative store
(c) Hire purchase system
(d) Internet marketing

Answer

(a) Multiple shop

---

Q.7 An agent is appointed by the _________

(a) Principal
(b) Manufacturer
(c) Wholesaler
(d) Retailer

Answer

(a) Principal

---

Q.8 The persons who come in between the primary producer and the final consumer to promote trade is called as ________

(a) Trader
(b) Middleman
(c) Auctioneer
(d) Agent

Answer

(b) Middleman

---

Q.9 A warehouse keeper accepts goods for the purpose of _________

(a) Selling
(b) Packaging
(c) Export
(d) Storage

Answer

(d) Storage

---

Q.10 When goods are imported for the purpose of export is called as ________

(a) Foreign trade
(b) Entrepot
(c) Home trade
(d) Trade

Answer

(b) Entrepot

---

Q.11 It helps disabled and elderly people.

(a) Tele-shopping
(b) E-commerce
(c) multiple shop
(d) installment system

Answer

(a) Tele-shopping

---

Q.12 ___________ are mobile traders who deal in low priced articles with no fixed place of business.

(a) Street stalls
(b) Retailers
(c) Itinerant traders
(d) Agents

Answer

(c) Itinerant traders

---

Q.13 __________can check the price fluctuations in the market by holding back the goods when prices fall and releasing the goods when prices raise.

(a) Wholesaler
(b) Agent
(c) Retailer
(d) Mercantile agent

Answer

(a) Wholesaler

---

Q.14 This retail business acts as a universal supplier of a wide variety of products.

(a) Departmental store
(b) Multiple shop
(c) Mail order Business
(d) Tele-shopping

Answer

(a) Departmental store

---

Q.15 The aim is to economies by buying in common and to retain their profits by selling in common.

(a) multiple shop
(b) web marketing
(c) teleshopping
(d) consumers co-operative store

Answer

(d) consumers co-operative store

---

NCERT MCQ ON  Small Business:

Q.1 ISO 9000 is concerned with

(a) Export
(b) Quantity
(c) Quality
(d) Import

Answer

(c) Quality

---

Q.2 Which of the following comes under the Modern Small Industries?

(a) Coir
(b) Powerlooms
(c) Handicrafts
(d) Khadi

Answer

(b) Powerlooms

---

Q.3 Small industries contribute _ of gross industrial value.

(a) 49 percent
(b) 45 percent
(c) 48 percent
(d) 40 percent

Answer

(d) 40 percent

---

Q.4 Expand EOUs

(a) Essential Operating units
(b) Export Order Units
(c) Export Oriented units
(d) Essential order units

Answer

(c) Export Oriented units

---

Q.5 Which of the following is organised by individuals?

(a) Cottage Industries
(b) Railway industry
(c) None of these
(d) Chemical industry

Answer

(a) Cottage Industries

---

Q.6 Any industry located in a rural area which produces any goods, renders any service with or without the use of power is known as _____________

(a) City Industry
(b) Town Industry
(c) Village Industry
(d) District Industry

Answer

(c) Village Industry

---

Q.7 The small scale industry can enjoy the status of ___________unit if it exports more than 50% of its production.

(a) Import oriented units
(b) Export Oriented units
(c) Small scale unit
(d) Domestic unit

Answer

(b) Export Oriented units

---

Q.8 NSIC was setup in

(a) 1982
(b) 1975
(c) 1965
(d) 1955

Answer

(d) 1955

---

Q.9 ___________are also known as Rural industries or Traditional industries

(a) Agricultural industry
(b) Food industry
(c) Cottage Industries
(d) None of the above

Answer

(c) Cottage Industries

---

Q.10 Small scale industries owned and managed by women entrepreneurs have a share capital of not less than ____________

(a) 20 percent
(b) 51 percent
(c) 25 percent
(d) 50 percent

Answer

(b) 51 percent

---

Q.11 Expand DIC

(a) Directorate of Industry corporation
(b) Directorate of Indian Corporation
(c) District Industries Centers
(d) None of the above

Answer

(c) District Industries Centers

---

Q.12 Which of the following is part of the small-scale sector?

(a) Paper Products and Printing
(b) Food Products
(c) Cotton Textiles
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

---

Q.13 Exemption from paying taxes for 5 ot 10 years is known as ____________

(a) Tax Deduction
(b) TDS
(c) Value Added Tax
(d) Tax Holiday

Answer

(d) Tax Holiday

---

Q.14 Which of the following is part of Village and Small Industries Sector?

(a) Handicrafts
(b) Sericulture
(c) Handlooms
(d) All of these

Answer

(d) All of these

---

Q.15 In India, the Village and Small Industries. Sector consists of both traditional and modern small industries. This sector has ___________sub groups.

(a) Eleven
(b) Five
(c) Ten
(d) Eight

Answer

(d) Eight

---

Q.16 Limit of investment in small scale industry is ____________

(a) one crore
(b) two crore
(c) five crore
(d) Ten crore

Answer

(a) one crore

---

Q.17 __________ is defined as one in which the investment in fixed assets of plant and machinery does not exceed rupees one crore.

(a) Small Scale Industry
(b) Limited Companies
(c) Large Scale industry
(d) None of the above

Answer

(a) Small Scale Industry

---

Q.18 Micro enterprises are those whose investment in plant and machinery does not exceed rupees____________

(a) 5 Lakh
(b) 3 Lakh
(c) 1 Lakh
(d) 2 Lakh

Answer

(c) 1 Lakh

---

Q.19 The small scale industry can enjoy the status of ___________ if it supplies not less than 50% of its production to another industry, referred to as the parent unit.

(a) Village industries
(b) Micro Business industry
(c) Export oriented unit
(d) Ancillary small industry

Answer

(d) Ancillary small industry

---

Q.20 Expand KVIC

(a) Khadi and Village Industries Commission
(b) Khadi and Village industries core
(c) King of Village Industries Commission
(d) King of Village Investment culture

Answer

(a) Khadi and Village Industries Commission

---

Q.21 Expand SIDBI

(a) Society Industrial development bank of India
(b) Small Industries development bank of India
(c) Super Industrial development bank of India
(d) Small Indian Development bank of India

Answer

(b) Small Industries development bank of India

NCERT MCQ ON  Sources of Business Finance :

Q.1 Hindu Succession Act was passed in_______

(a) 1960
(b) 1956
(c) 1952
(d) 1932

Answer

(b) 1956

---

Q.2 A prospectus is issued by

(a) Public company
(b) Private company
(c) Statutory Corporation
(d) Departmental undertaking

Answer

(a) Public company

---

Q.3 A partner whose association with the firm is unknown to the general public is called

(a) Active partner
(b) Nominal partner
(c) Secret partner
(d) Sleeping partner

Answer

(c) Secret partner

---

Q.4 Unit Trust of India was established by ________

(a) ICICI
(b) State Bank Group
(c) Indian Government
(d) HDFC Bank

Answer

(c) Indian Government

---

Q.5 ICICI was established in ________

(a) 1975
(b) 1955
(c) 1985
(d) 1965

Answer

(b) 1955

---

Q.6 Expand ICICI

(a) None of these
(b) International Credit and Investment Corporation of India
(c) Indian Credit and Investment Corporation of India
(d) Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India

Answer

(d) Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India

---

Q.7 Which of the following forms of business enterprises suffer from a lack of public confidence because they are not required to publish their accounts legally?

(a) Partnership
(b) Cooperative Society
(c) Company
(d) None of the above

Answer

(a) Partnership

---

Q.8 A company cannot come into existence without

(a) Issuing prospectus
(b) Electing directors
(c) Certificate of incorporation
(d) All of the above

Answer

(c) Certificate of incorporation

---

Q.9 Every partner is both an agent and a principal. Identify the characteristic of the partnership being referred here.

(a) Mutual Agency
(b) Risk Bearing
(c) Membership
(d) Formation

Answer

(a) Mutual Agency

---

Q.10 Which of the following is not a feature of a Joint Stock Company?

(a) Artificial person
(b) Separate legal entity
(c) Formation
(d) Lack of business continuity

Answer

(d) Lack of business continuity

---

Q.11 The life of sole proprietorship business is ________

(a) Very short life
(b) Stable
(c) Long life
(d) Unstable

Answer

(d) Unstable

---

Q.12 The partnership deed generally includes the following

(a) Name of firm
(b) Nature of business
(c) Location of business
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

---

Q.13 Which of the following contract is signed by the promoters with the third party on behalf of the proposed company?

(a) Preliminary contracts
(b) Provisional contract
(c) Prospectus
(d) Memorandum of association

Answer

(a) Preliminary contracts

---

Q.14 Which one of the following is the CORRECT sequence of stages in the formation of a company?

(a) Promotion, incorporation, capital subscription, the commencement of business
(b) Incorporation, capital subscription, promotion, the commencement of business
(c) Promotion, the commencement of business, incorporation, capital subscription
(d) Promotion, Incorporation, Certificate of commencement, capital subscription

Answer

(a) Promotion, incorporation, capital subscription, the commencement of business

---

Q.15 Which of the following business enterprises does not have a separate legal entity?

(a) Sole Proprietorship
(b) Partnership
(c) Company
(d) Cooperative Society

Answer

(a) Sole Proprietorship

---

Q.16 _________ company does not invite the public to subscribe to its share capital.

(a) Both Private and Public Company
(b) Public Company
(c) Private Company
(d) None of the above

Answer

(c) Private Company

---

Q.17 ADRs are issued in

(a) Canada
(b) China
(c) India
(d) USA

Answer

(d) USA

---

Q.18 The term ‘redeemable’ is used for

(a) Preference shares
(b) Commercial paper
(c) Equity shares
(d) Public deposits

Answer

(b) Commercial paper

---

Q.19 Which of the following cooperative society is established to help small producers in selling their products?

(a) Producer cooperative society
(b) Marketing cooperative society
(c) Credit cooperative society
(d) Consumers cooperative society

Answer

(a) Producer cooperative society

---

Q.20 Investors who want steady income may not prefer ________

(a) None of these
(b) Debentures
(c) Equity Shares
(d) Bonds

Answer

(c) Equity Shares

---

Q.21 GDRs can be converted into shares ___________

(a) At any time
(b) After 5 years
(c) After 10 years
(d) After one year

Answer

(a) At any time

NCERT MCQ ON Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics :

Q.1 Ethics is important for

(a) Non-managerial employees
(b) Middle-level managers
(c) Top management
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

---

Q.2 Business people have the skill to involve

(a) Some social problems
(b) All economic problems
(c) No social problems
(d) All social problems

Answer

(a) Some social problems

---

Q.3 The word ‘Ethics’ has its origin in the________

(a) Greek Word
(b) British Word
(c) Indian Word
(d) Latin Word

Answer

(a) Greek Word

---

Q.4 Which of the following is capable of doing maximum good to society?

(a) Business success
(b) Laws and regulations
(c) Ethics
(d) Professional management

Answer

(c) Ethics

---

Q.5 Carbon monoxide emitted by automobiles directly contributes to

(a) Water pollution
(b) Noise pollution
(c) Land pollution
(d) Air pollution

Answer

(d) Air pollution

---

Q.6 That an enterprise must behave as a good citizen is an example of its responsibility towards

(a) Owners
(b) Workers
(c) Consumers
(d) Community

Answer

(d) Community

---

Q.7 If business is to operate in a society which is full of diverse and complicated problems, it may have

(a) Little chance of success
(b) Great chance of success
(c) Little chance of failure
(d) No relation with success or failure

Answer

(a) Little chance of success

---

Q.8 The need for social responsibility arises due to the______

(a) Firm’s interest
(b) Interest of society
(c) Both firm’s and society interest
(d) None of the above

Answer

(c) Both firm’s and society interest

---

Q.9 Social responsibility is

(a) Broader than legal responsibility
(b) Same as a legal responsibility
(c) Narrower than legal responsibility
(d) None of the above

Answer

(a) Broader than legal responsibility

---

Q.10 ADRs are issued in

(a) USA
(b) China
(c) India
(d) Canada

Answer

(a) USA

---

Q.11 Running of factories and vehicles cause______

(a) Land pollution
(b) Water Pollution
(c) Noise Pollution
(d) None of the above

Answer

(c) Noise Pollution

---

Q.12 Funds required for purchasing current assets are known as

(a) Working capital
(b) Fixed capital
(c) Lease financing
(d) Retained earnings

Answer

(a) Working capital

---

Q.13 It includes the behavior of the firm expected by the society but not codified by law. Identify the category of social responsibility referred to here.

(a) Economic Responsibility
(b) Ethical Responsibility
(c) Legal Responsibility
(d) All of the above

Answer

(b) Ethical Responsibility

---

Q.14 Which of the following statements about ethical standards are TRUE?

(a) The upper limits of ethical standards are set by individual standards
(b) The laws of economically developed countries generally define the lowest common denominator of acceptable behaviour
(c) The actual degree of enforcement of the law in an underdeveloped country would determine the lower limit of permissible behaviour
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

---

Q.15 Which statement is true?

(a) Human values system plays a vital role in total quality management
(b) Values give the real meaning to total quality management effort
(c) Total quality management is a corporate management strategy
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

---

Q.16 The national Society of Professional Engineers had a code, which requires professionals to

(a) Dissociate themselves from organizations that are of a questionable character
(b) Further the cause of public good
(c) Advise clarity, the consequences, if a technical opinion is overruled by a non-technical person
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

---

Q.17 Which of the following institution provides financial assistance towards balanced regional development and development of management education in the country?

(a) Industrial development bank of India (IDBI)
(b) Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI)
(c) Life insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
(d) Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI)

Answer

(a) Industrial development bank of India (IDBI)

---

Q.18 Providing charitable contributions to educational institutions is ______

(a) Legal responsibility
(b) Economic responsibility
(c) Discretionary responsibility
(d) None of the above

Answer

(c) Discretionary responsibility

---

Q.19 Every business has a responsibility to operate within the laws of the land as per the _______

(a) Legal responsibility
(b) Financial responsibility
(c) Economic responsibility
(d) None of the above

Answer

(a) Legal responsibility

---

Q.20 Which of the following does not contribute to the development of a manager’s standard of ethics?

(a) competitor behaviours
(b) society’s norms and values
(c) individual life experiences
(d) environmental situations

Answer

(a) competitor behaviours

---

Q.21 The hand-of-government refers to the

(a) ability of the government to interfere in business negotiations
(b) role of corporations to be profitable within the law
(c) effect of national politics on business decisions
(d) impact of changing government regulations

Answer

(d) impact of changing government regulations

NCERT MCQ ON Emerging Modes of Business :

Q.1 Question Expand VPN

(a) Virtual Public Network
(b) Virtual Popular Network
(c) Virtual Private Network
(d) Virtual Personal Network

(c) Virtual Private Network

---

Q.2 ________refers to contracting out some of its activities to a third party which was earlier performed by the organisation.

(a) Outsourcing
(b) BPO
(c) E-Commerce
(d) E-Banking

Answer

(a) Outsourcing

---

Q.3 Factoring is _____type of outsourcing service.

(a) Financing
(b) Advertising
(c) Courier service
(d) Customer support

Answer

(a) Financing

---

Q.4 Here, parties involved in the electronic transactions are from within a given business firm, hence, the name is ________

(a) Intra-C Commerce
(b) Intra-D Commerce
(c) Intra-B Commerce
(d) Intra-A Commerce

Answer

(c) Intra-B Commerce

---

Q.5 Which one of the following is NOT an example of transactional risk?

(a) Hacking
(b) Default on order taking
(c) Default on payment
(d) Default on delivery

Answer

(a) Hacking

---

Q.6 The annoyance in terms of some onscreen display

(a) Firms interaction with its customers
(b) Firms interaction with other business firms
(c) Firms interaction with its own departments
(d) None of the above

Answer

(a) Firms interaction with its customers

---

Q.7 An important C2C area of interactive commerce can be the formation of _

(a) Consumers forum and pressure group
(b) B2B Commerce
(c) Banking
(d) Insurance

Answer

(a) Consumers forum and pressure group

---

Q.8 Which method is very popular for making online transactions?

(a) Credit Card
(b) All of these
(c) Net banking
(d) Debit Card

Answer

(b) All of these

---

Q.9 Under what method payment is made at the time of physical delivery of goods

(a) Cash on delivery
(b) Debit card payment
(c) Credit card payment
(d) Prepaid amount

Answer

(a) Cash on delivery

---

Q.10 Which of the following is a limitation of e-business?

(a) Ethical fallouts
(b) Risk
(c) Low personal touch
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

---

Q.11 It is not an application of e-business

(a) Online bidding
(b) Online procurement
(c) Online trading
(d) Contract R&D

Answer

(d) Contract R&D

---

Q.12 Formation of Consumers Forum and Pressure groups is an example of

(a) C2C
(b) B2B
(c) B2C
(d) Intra B

Answer

(a) C2C

---

Q.13 Principle types of outsourcing services are:

(a) Courier service
(b) Advertising
(c) Financing
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

---

Q.14 It is not an application of e-business

(a) Contract R&D
(b) Online trading
(c) Online procurement
(d) Online bidding

Answer

(a) Contract R&D

---

Q.15 The payment mechanism typical to e-business

(a) Credit and Debit Cards
(b) Cash on Delivery (CoD)
(c) Cheques
(d) e-Cash

Answer

(a) Credit and Debit Cards

---

Q.16 e-commerce does not include

(a) A business?s interactions with its customers
(b) Interactions among the various departments within the business
(c) A business?s interactions with its suppliers
(d) Interactions among the geographically dispersed units of the business

Answer

(b) Interactions among the various departments within the business

---

Q.17 India is the preferred destination for BPO because of_______

(a) Tax Free Zone for BPOs
(b) Cheap People
(c) Cheap Manpower
(d) Poor conditions

Answer

(c) Cheap Manpower

---

Q.18 Online buying and selling shares and other financial instruments is known as____

(a) E-Procurement
(b) E-Auction
(c) E-Delivery
(d) E-Trading

Answer

(d) E-Trading

---

Q.19 _____ transactions have business firms at one end and its customers on the other end.

(a) C2C Commerce
(b) B2B Commerce
(c) B2C Commerce
(d) C2B Commerce

Answer

(c) B2C Commerce

---

Q.20 Both buyers and sellers are customers under_______ type of e-business transaction

(a) C2C Commerce
(b) B2C Commerce
(c) C2B Commerce
(c) B2B Commerce

Answer

(a) C2C Commerce

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 2 CULTURAL CHANGE NCERT MCQ for Class 12 SOCIOLOGY which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON CULTURAL CHANGE

1.How can be the ideas of inclusive nationalism can be built to be effective?

a) Constitution

b) Parliament

c) Supreme Court

d) Legislature
Answer: a) Constitution

2.Minority in the sociological sense can be defined by:

a) Privilege

b) Only numerical distinction

c) Solidarity due to experience of disadvantage

d) Individualism
Answer:c) Solidarity due to experience of disadvantage

3.What is the type of governance/rule, that often limit or abolish civil liberties?

a) Authoritarian

b) Democratic

c) Civil Society

d) Libertarian
Answer: a) Authoritarian

4.Who wrote Stree Purush Tulane?
a) Tarabai Shinde

b) Savitri Phule

c) Annie Beasant

d) Anita Ghai
Answer: a) Tarabai Shinde
5.Inequalities between men and women according to the Scholars are not ______ but ______

a) Natural, Social

b) Social, Natural

c) Desirable, undesirable

d) Economic, racial
Answer: b) Social, Natural
6.Which of the following is not a factor related to low child sex ratio?
a) Illiteracy

b) Socio-cultural beliefs

c) Economic condition

d) Preference for girl child
Answer: d) Preference for girl child

7.What are the two sets of principles of the Caste system?
a) Wholism-hierarchy and difference and separation

b) Segmental division and hereditary occupation

c) Exogamy and endogamy

d) Purity and Pollution
Answer: a) Wholism-hierarchy and difference and separation
8.Which among the following is a process involving our significant others is important in

developing a sense of community identity:

a) Socialisation

b) Secularisation

c) Globalisation

d) Marketisation
Answer: a) Socialisation

9.What does the population reach, when the growth rate is 0?
a) Replacement level

b) Negative growth

c) Positive growth

d) High birth rate

Answer: a) Replacement level
10.The demographic indicators not used to calculate the total fertility rate is:

a) Number of live births in the reproductive age group

b) Age-specific fertility rate

c) Sex ratio

d) Number of women in the child-bearing age group
Answer: c) Sex ratio

11.Which of the following is true in the context of Kerala, beginning to acquire an age structure like that of the developed countries?

a) High birth rate and high death rate

b) Low birth rate and low death rate

c) High birth rate and low death rate

d) Low birth rate and high death rate
Answer: b) Low birth rate and low death rate

12.Which of the following explains the situation of Tripura, where the tribal share of its population halved within a single

decade, reducing them to a minority?

a) heavy in-migration of non-tribals

b) accommodation of tribal identity

c) climate change

d) community-based forms of collective ownership
Answer: a) heavy in-migration of non-tribals

13.What type of families are present among the Khasis?
a) Patrilocal

b) Matrilocal

c) Avunculocal

d) neolocal
Answer: a) heavy in-migration of non-tribals

14.Khasi tribes don’t fit along one of the following statements:

a) Matrilineal generates intense role conflict for men.

b) Women possess only token authority

c) Men are more adversely affected than women

d) The system is weighted in favour of male matri-kin
Answer: c) Men are more adversely affected than women

15.Which of the following is not true:

a) Land revenue settlements, as well as related agreements and laws, provided legal protection.
Upper castes’ traditional (caste-based) rights are recognised.
b) Large-scale irrigation programmes, such as those in Punjab, were complemented by large-scale irrigation schemes by efforts to establish inhabitants there, which had a caste component to them.
c) The colonial state was not concerned with the welfare of the oppressed.
d) A direct endeavour to count caste and legally record caste status resulted in a shift in the caste system of the establishment itself.
Answer: c) Colonial states did not work for the welfare of the downtrodden.