Daily Archives: January 29, 2022

NCERT MCQ ON Comparative Development Experiences of India and Its Neighbours :

Question1 : Reforms in __________ were introduced in 1978
a) China
b) Pakistan
c) India
d) None of the above

Answer :  A

Question2 : China discontinued the one child policy because:
a) They will be more elderly people in proportion to young people.
b) It increased the number of dependent population.
c) People became dissatisfied with the policy.
d) Population of the country decreased.

Answer :  A

Question 3: First five year plan of __________ commenced in the year 1956
a) Pakistan
b) China
c) India
d) a) and b)

Answer :  A

Question4 : Social Economic Zones were set up by China to:
a) Attract foreign investors.
b) To develop the backward regions.
c) To maintain economic equality.
d) To promote private sector.

Answer : A

Question5 : ____________ has the highest life expectancy at birth.
a)India
b)China
c) Pakistan
d) Both a) and b)

Answer :  B

Question6 : Proportion of people below poverty line is more in:
a) India
b) Pakistan
c) China
d) USA

Answer :  A

Question7 : Which economic system did India adopt as development strategy?
a) Capitalist system
b) Socialist system
c) Mixed capitalist system
d) Socialist system upto 1991 and then capitalist system

Answer :  C

Question8 : Reforms in _________ were introduced in 1988.
a) China
b) Pakistan
c) India
d) USA

Answer :  B 

Question9 : ___________ programme was started in China with the aim of industrialization.
a) Great leap Forward
b) Great proletarian Cultural Revolution
c) One child policy
d) None of these

Answer :  A

Question10 : The fertility rate is very high in
a) Pakistan
b) India
c) China
d) USA

Answer :  A

Question11 : Which of the three countries has highest life expectancy at birth?
a) India
b) China
c) Pakistan
d) All equal

Answer :  B

Question12 : One child norm is a feature of ____________ country.
a) France
b) India
c) Pakistan
d) China

Answer :  D

Question13 : A campaign in China in 1958 where people were encouraged to set up industries in their backyard was named as:
a) Great leap forward
b) Great proletarian cultural revolution
c) Anti- rightist movement
d) Four pests damping

Answer :  A

Question14 : Which economic sector is the highest contribution to GDP in India, Pakistan and China?
a) Agriculture
b) Industries
c) Services
d) all equal

Answer :  C

Question 15: Growth rate of population is highest in which of the following country?
a) India
b) China
c) Pakistan
d) None of the above

Answer : C

Question16 : In which of the following areas, Pakistan has an edge over Indian?
a) Export of software after economic reforms
b) Number of ph.d’s produced in science and engineering every year
c) Reducing the proportion of population below poverty line
d) All the above

Answer :  C

Question17 : According to demographic parameters, the density of population is lowest in:
a) China
b) India
c) Pakistan
d) Both b) and c)

Answer :  A

Question18 : China moving ahead of India and Pakistan is true for which indicator?
a) GDP per capita
b) Proportion of population below poverty line
c) HDI ranking
d) All the above

Answer :  D

Question 19: Which of the three countries has highest percentage of population above poverty line?
a) China
b) Pakistan
c) India
d) All equal

Answer :  C

Question20 : Rank India, Pakistan and China in terms of better value of human development index.
a) 1st – Pakistan; 2nd – China; 3rd– India.
b) 1st – Pakistan; 2nd – India; 3rd– China.
c) 1st – China; 2nd – Pakistan; 3rd – India
d) 1st – China; 2nd – India; 3rd- Pakistan

Answer :  D

Question21 : India, Pakistan and ____ have many similarities in their development strategies
a) Nepal
b) China
c) Sri Lanka
d) Bangladesh

Answer :   B

Question22 : _________ has the highest life expectancy
a) India
b) China
c) Pakistan
d) Both a) and c)

Answer :  B

Question23 : Which type of economic system is followed in China?
a) Mixed Economy
b) Socialist Economy
c) Capitalist Economy
d) None of these

Answer :  B

Question24 : Which sector of the economy contributes the highest to India’s GDP?
a) Service
b) Agriculture
c) Industry
d) None of these

Answer :  A 

Question25 : _______ Performance in providing sanitation is better in comparison to ______.
a) Pakistan’s, India
b)China’s, Pakistan
c) China’s, India
d) India’s, Pakistan

Answer :   B

Question26 : Which of the following two countries have adopted the Mixed Economic System?
a) India and China
b) India and Pakistan.
c) China and Pakistan
d) None of these

Answer :  B

Question27 : Which economic system did China chose for economic development?
a) Capitalist system
b) Socialist system
c) Mixed capitalist system
d) None of the above

Answer :  B

Question28 : China succeeded in achieving higher growth rate than India because:
a) It followed communist pattern of economy.
b) It started reforms early.
c) It gave much importance to manufacturing sector.
d) All of above

Answer : C

Question29 : Which of the three countries has lowest rate of population growth?
a) India
b) Pakistan
c) China
d) All equal

Answer :  C

Question30 : Which of the following countries has the lowest density of population?
a) India
b) China
c) Pakistan
d) None of the above

Answer :  B

Question31 : Which of the three countries has the highest growth rate of GDP?
a) India
b) Pakistan
c) China
d) All equal

Answer :  C

NCERT MCQ ON Environment and Sustainable Development:

Question1. Environmental includes:
(A) Biotic factors
(B) Abiotic factors
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) None of the above

Answer :   C

Question2. What can be the preventive measure for climate change:
(A) Plantation
(B) Using cycle instead of cars and bikes
(C) Using organic product
(D) All of them

Answer :   D

Question3.In which of the following layers of the atmosphere is ozone shield found?
(a) Troposphere
(b) Exosphere
(c) Stratosphere
(d) Mesosphere

Answer :   C

Question4. Absorptive capacity is defined as:
(A) Ability of the environment to absorb degradation
(B) Resource generation within the assimilating capacity of the environment
(C) Average number of organisms living in a given environment
(D) The minimum population surviving in the world as a whole

Answer :   A

Question5. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) Global warming is entirely a natural phenomenon
(B) Global warming is simply an another term used for green house effect
(C) Global warming is the rise in average temperature at the earth’s surface
(D) Global warming is caused by ozone depletion

Answer :   C

Question6. The ability of the environment to absorb degradation is:
(A) Carrying capacity
(B) Absorptive capacity
(C) (a) and (b)
(D) None of the above

Answer :   B

Question7. In 1997, a UN conference on climate change was held in :
(a) Japan
(b) India
(c) Germany
(d) China

Answer :   A

Question8. Which of the following is the 7th goal of the eight millennium goals of United Nations?
a) To eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
b) To ensure environment sustainability
c) To reduce child mortality
d) To develop a global partnership for development

Answer :   B

Question9. GHGs refer to:
(A) Green Home Gases
(B) Greenhouse Gases
(C) Green Hurricane Gases
(D) Green Home Guards

Answer :   B

Question10. BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations Environment Porgramme
(d) World Bank

Answer :   D

Question11. Banning the use of chlorofluorocarbon compounds and other chlorine and bromine compounds and other chlorine and bromine compounds is called:
(A) Chipko movement
(B) Apiko movement
(C) Montreal protocol
(D) None of the above

Answer :   C

Question12. Which are the catch phases in the following UNCED definition of Sustainable Development:
“Development that meet the need of the present generation without compromising the ability of the future generation to meet their own needs.”
(A) Need
(B) Future generation
(C) Need and present generation
(D) Need and future generation

Answer :   D

Question13. The United Nation’s Commission on Sustainable Development (CSD) was started by the UN General Assembly in the year.
(a) 1995
(b) 1994
(c) 1993
(d) 1992

Answer :   D

Question14. Brundtland Commission in 1987 defined sustainable development as:
(A) A type to development which put the interests of developing countries ahead of the interests of the rich nations
(B) Development which meets the needs of present generation without compromising the ability of future generation to meet their own needs
(C) Development that protects the future generation even at the expense of present generation
(D) None of the above

Answer :   B

Question15. Biotic elements of environment is:
(A) Air
(B) Water
(C) Birds
(D) Land

Answer :   C

Question16. From the following which s a cleaner and greener energy souce:
(A) Thermal power
(B) Hydro power
(C) Wind power
(D) None of the above

Answer :   C

Question17. For sustainable development, environment damage rate _____ environment recovery rate.
a) should be greater than the
b) should be exponentially greater than the
c) should be same as the
d) should be lesser than the

Answer :   D

Question18. Which of the option is not incorporated as sustainable development parameters?
(a) Gender disparity and diversity
(b) Inter and Intra-generation equity
(c) Carrying capacity
(d) None of the above

Answer :  D

Question19. South Africa is leading exporter of which mineral?
(a) Copper
(b) Diamond
(c) Silver
(d) Gold

Answer :   D

Question20. The first airport powered by solar energy was
(a) Bangalore
(b) Cochin
(c) London
(d) Frankfurt

Answer :  B

Question21. The ‘Agenda 21’ of Rio Summit 1992 is related to:
(a) Sustainable Development
(b) Polluter-Pays Principle
(c) Environmental Education
(d) Preservation of Ozone Layer

Answer :  A

Question22. One of the conventional sources of energy is
(a) wind energy
(b) tidal energy
(c) hydroelectric energy
(d) None of the above

Answer :   D

Question23. Which of the following is a Conventional source of energy?
(a) Wind
(b) Sunlight
(c) LPG
(d) Tide

Answer :  C

Question24. What is the main problem with development of countries?
a) Strain on environment to absorb the damage and self-heal
b) Decrement in poverty
c) Higher energy consumption per capita
d) Lower energy consumption per capita

Answer :  A

Question25. Sustainability can be achieved by replacing existing resources with other resources of equal value.
a) True
b) False

Answer :  A

NCERT MCQ ON Infrastructure :

Question1 : The state known as ‘God’s own country
a) Karnataka
b) Gujarat
c) Kerala
d) Goa

Answer :   C

Question2 : Energy generated by sun is known as____________
a) Natural gas
b) Solar energy
c) Wind energy
d) Electricity

Answer : B

Question3 : Some states in India are performing much better than others in certain areas due to
a) Better irrigation facilities
b) Better transportation facilities
c) Better health care and sanitation faculties
d) All the above

Answer : B

Question4 : LPG is an example of ____________
a) Bio-energy
b) Solar energy
c) Wind energy
d) Natural gas

Answer : D

Question5 : ____________ infrastructure is important for the development of a nation
a) Economic
b) Social
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Neither (a) and (b)

Answer : C

Question6 : Essential indicator of good health in a country is increase in ___________
a) Death rate
b) Infant mortality rate
c) Expectancy of life
d) Incidence of deadly diseases

Answer : C

Question7 : Electricity generated from radioactive elements is called:
a) Thermal electricity
b) Atomic energy
c) Hydel electricity
d) Tidal energy

Answer : B

Question8 : ___________ is an example of social infrastructure
a) Transport
b) Communication
c) Energy
d) Education

Answer : D

Question9 : Power generated using water:
a) Atomic power
b) Thermal power
c) Hydroelectric power
d) None of these

Answer : C

Question10 : Education is an example of ____________
a) Sustainable development
b) Economic infrastructure
c) Economic development
d) Social infrastructure

Answer : D

Question11 : Indian system of medicine comprises of systems.
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six

Answer : D

Question12 : Which of the following is an example of conventional source of energy?
a) Natural gas
b) Solar energy
c) Biomass
d) Wind energy

Answer : A

Question13 : From the following which is not a commercial source of energy
a) Petroleum
b) Coal
c) Electricity
d) Dried dung

Answer : D

Question14 : Which of the following statement is not true? 
a) Distribution of electricity to farmer’s is the main reason for the losses of State Electricity Boards (SEB’s)
b) At present, nuclear energy accounts for only 2 per cent of total energy consumption
c) CFL consume 80 percent more power than ordinary bulbs
d) Energy shortage adversely affects transport sector, industries sector and agriculture production

Answer : C

Question15 : ISM stands for:
a) Indian systems of medicine
b) International system of medicine
c) Indian standard of medicine
d) None of the above

Answer : A

Question16 : A lot of power is wasted during its transmission and distribution from power stations to households. This can be controlled by:
a) Promoting the use of CFL’s
b) Proper lead management
c) Promoting non conventional sources
d) All the above

Answer : B

Question 17: From the following which is not a non-commercial source of energy
a) Solar energy
b) Wind energy
c) Tidal energy
d) Coal

Answer : D

Question18 : Which source of power accounted for only 2%?
a) Hydel power
b) Wind power
c) Nuclear power
d) Tidal power

Answer : C

Question19 : The highest use of commercial energy is:
a) Agriculture
b) Transport
c) Household
d) Industry

Answer : D

Question20 : ____________ include hospitals with better facilities of health care like X-ray, surgeries, ECG etc.
a) Primary health care
b) Secondary heath care
c) Tertiary heath care
d) None of these

Answer : B

Question21 : Indian system of medicine:
a) Unani
b) Yoga
c) Siddha
d) All of these

Answer : D

Question22 : Indicator of health status:
a) Expansion of health services
b) Decline of infant mortality rate
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer : C

Question23 : Sources of electricity are ____________
a) Water
b) Oil,Coal
c) Gas
d) All of these

Answer : D

Question24 : ___________ is an indicator which measures the number of people dying prematurely due to a particular disease:
a) Global burden of disease
b) Golden burden of disease
c) Global burden of depression
d) Global break down disease

Answer : A

NCERT MCQ ON Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues:

Question1 : The formula to calculate workforce participation ratio is:
(a) (workforce /Total population) X 100 Telegram: @commmmerce12
(b) (Number of unemployed persons/Labour force) X 100
(c) Workforce+ number of people who are willing to work but are unemployed
(d) (workforce/ labour force) X 100

Answer :  C

Question2 :  Work force refers to that part of
(a) Labour force which is employed
(b) Population which is unemployed
(c) Population which is forced to work
(d) Labour force which is when employed

Answer :  A

Question 3:  Workers who are on permanent pay-roll of their employer are called:
(a) Self- employed workers
(b) Casual workers
(c) Regular workers
(d) None of the above

Answer :  C

Question4 :  ____________ unemployment may result some workers are temporarily out of work while hanging job.
(a) Cyclical
(b) Voluntary
(c) Fictional
(d) Seasonal

Answer :  C

Question5 :  Men get opportunity to work in:
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Service sector
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer :  D

Question6 :  Sum total of final goods and services produced in domestic territory of an economy during a year is called __________.
(a) GDP
(b) NDP
(c) NNP
(d) GNP

Answer :  A

Question7 :  Agriculture labourers, farmers, owners of small enterprise which emply less than 20 workers fall in the category of :
(a) Formal sector
(b) Informal sector
(c) Casual workers
(d) Regular workers

Answer :  B

Question8 :  __________ is a common form of unemployment in rural India.
(a) Disguised unemployment
(b) Structural unemployment
(c) Educated unemployment
(d) None of these

Answer :  A

Question9 :  Due to the recent efforts of which international body the Indian government, initiated the modernization of informal sector?
(a) World Bank
(b) WTO
(c) International Labour Organisation
(d) G-20

Answer :  C

Question10 :  Find the odd one out.
(a) A private school teacher in a school with only 25 teachers
(b) A nurse in a government hospital
(c) Cycle-rickshaw puller
(d) A civil engineer working in a construction company which has 10 workers

Answer :  C

Question11 :  Unemployment common in urban areas
(a) Seasonal unemployment
(b) Disguised unemployment
(c) Open unemployment
(d) None of these

Answer :  C

Question12 :  Measure of reduce unemployment in very short period of time
(a) Reducing growth rate of population
(b) Reducing inequalities in the distribution of income and wealth
(c) Increasing investment in private and public sectors
(d) None of these

Answer :  C

Question13 :  Unemployment is defined as:
(a) The section of the population that is not capable of being employed
(b) The section of population willing to work but unable to find employment
(c) The section of population that is waiting to be employed
(d) The section of population that are without the skills needed by employers

Answer :  B

Question14 : Most of the unemployment in India is
(a) Voluntary
(b) Structural
(c) Frictional
(d) Technical

Answer :  B

Question15 : Data on unemployment in India can be obtained from which source?
(a) Reports of Census of India
(b) National sample survey organisation(NSSO)
(c) Directorate general of employment
(d) All the above

Answer :  D

Question16 : Those who work in their own establishment using their own resources are called _______.
(a) Hired workers
(b) Casual workers
(c) Regular workers
(d) Self-employed

Answer :  D

Question17 : About ___________ of the total population in the country is engaged in various economic activities.
(a) Three-fifth
(b) Four-fifth
(c) Two-fifth
(d) None of the above

Answer :  C

Question 18: When more persons are working in a job than actually required, it is known as ________.
(a) Disguised unemployment
(b) Seasonal unemployment
(c) Educated unemployment
(d) Open unemployment

Answer :  A

Question 19: The newly emerging jobs are found mostly in the _____________ sector.
(a) Service
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Agriculture
(d) None of the above

Answer :  A

Question 20: Electricity, gas and water supply belong to ___________ sector.
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) All the above

Answer :  B

Question21 : After the workers lost their jobs in 1980’s, which city experienced an economy recession and communal riots?
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Bombay
(c) Allahabad
(d) Bangalore

Answer :  A

Question22 : An establishment with four hired workers is known as _____________ sector establishment.
(a) Formal
(b) Informal
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer :  B

Question 23: The newly emerging jobs are found mostly in ___________ sector.
(a) Manufacturing
(b) Primary
(c) Service
(d) None of these

Answer :  C

Question24 :  When due to introduction of new machinery, some workers tend to be replaced by machines, their unemployment is termed as
(a) Structural
(b) Technological
(c) Mechanical
(d) Seasonal

Answer :  B

Question25 : Formal sector includes all those enterprises which employ
(a) More than 10 workers
(b) 10 workers
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer :  C

Question26 : Unemployed person is one who is not able to get employment of even one hour in half a day.
This definition is given by:
(a) Economists
(b) National Sample Survey Organisation
(c) Census of India
(d) Directorate general of Employment and Training

Answer :  A

Question 27: Unemployment is a situation in which all those who, owing to lack of work, are not working but either seek work though employment exchanges, intermediaries, friends or relatives or by making applications to prospective employers or express their willingness or availability for work under the prevailing condition of work and remunerations. This definition is given by:
(a) Economists
(b) National Sample Survey Organisation
(c) Census of India
(d) Directorate general of Employment and Training

Answer :  B

Question28 : Find the odd man out:
(a) A clerk in the electricity office
(b) Computer operator in the state government office working on a temporary basis
(c) Worker in a hotel which has seven hired workers and three family workers.

Answer :  C

Question 29: Which of the following is working in the informal sector?
(a) A private school teacher In a school which has 25 teachers.
(b) The owner of a textile shop employing nine workers.
(c) Driver of a bus company which has more than 10 buses with 20 drivers, conductors and others workers.
(d) Civil engineer working in a construction company which has 10 workers.

Answer :  B

Question30 : ___________ is a major source of livelihood for both men and women as this category accounts for more than 50 per cent of India’s workforce.
(a) Self-employment
(b) Casual wage labour
(c) Regular salaried employment
(d) None of these

Answer :  Self-employment

NCERT MCQ ON Rural Development:

Question1 :  The institutional aource of credit whose area of operation is the one where banking facilities and cooperatives are absent and which operate at the district level is:
(A) Regional rural bank
(B) Commercial bank
(C) Self-help group
(D) NABARD

Answer :   A

Question2 :  Diversification in agriculture activities means finding alternate employment in
(A) Non-farm sectors
(B) Urban sectors
(C) Rural sectors
(D) None of these

Answer :   A

Question3 :  The sector providing alternate livelihood options to 70 million small and marginal farmers is:
(A) Livestock
(B) Agro-processing
(C) Apni Mandi
(D) Fisheries

Answer :   A

Question4 :  Production of a diverse variety of crops rather than one specialised crop is called:
(A) Diversification of production activity
(B) Diversification of crop production
(C) Diversification of employment
(D) All the above

Answer :   B

Question5:  The farming which relies on naturally occurring ecological process and biodiversity:
(A) Organic farming
(B) Conventional agriculture
(C) (a) and (b)
(D) None of the above

Answer :   A

Question6 :  Which of the following is true about organic farming?
(A) Organically grown food is more healthier and tastier
(B) Yields in organic farming are lower than in chemical farming
(C) It adversely effects the fertility of the soil
(D) It is quite expensive method of farming

Answer :   A

Question7 :  Credit needs related to constructing fences and digging wells are fulfilled by:
(A) Short term credit
(B) Medium term credit
(C) Long term credit
(D) None of the above

Answer :   B

Question8 :  Credit taken for a period of 15 years is
(A) Short term credit
(B) Medium term credit
(C) Long term credit
(D) All of these

Answer :   C

Question 9: Organic farming uses
(A) Organic manure
(B) Bio-fertilisers
(C) Organic pesticides
(D) All of these

Answer :   D

Question10 :  Traditional sources of rural credit in India are :
(A) Money lenders
(B) Relatives and friends
(C) Traders
(D) All of these

Answer :   D

Question11 :  Non farm areas of employment :
(A) Animal husbandary
(B) Fisheries
(C) Horticulture
(D) All of these

Answer :   D

Question 12:  AMUL stands for :
(A) Anand Multiple Union Ltd.
(B) Agriculture and Milk Union Ltd.
(C) Anand Mil Union Ltd.
(D) Anand Manufacturing Union Ltd.

Answer :   C

Question13 :  The ‘Golden Revolution’ was a period of very high productivity in:
(A) Foodgrain production
(B) Horticulture
(C) Organic farming
(D) Piscicultre

Answer :   B

Question14 :  Which is related to microfinance:
(A) Self Help Group
(B) NABARD
(C) Both
(D) None

Answer :   C

Question15 :  Institutional sources of agricultural credit are :
(A) Land development banks
(B) NABARD
(C) Self-help group
(D) All of these

Answer :   D

Question16 :  NABARD is ____________ source of rural credit
(A) Institutional
(B) Non-institutional
(C) Cooperative society
(D) Regional

Answer :   A

Question 17:  Growth in rural marketing relates to
(A) Provision of physical infrastructure
(B) Regulation of markets
(C) Cooperative farming
(D) All of these

Answer :   D

Question18 :  Short term credit is needed for
(A) Period of 15 months
(B) Period 5 years
(C) Period of 15 years
(D) Period of 20 years

Answer :   A

Question19 : From the following which is not a non-institutional source of credit in India.
(A) Money lenders
(B) Traders
(C) Commission agents
(D) Commercial banks

Answer :   D

Question20 :  Father of ‘Green Revolution’ In India
(A) M.S. Swaminathan
(B) Norman Borlong
(C) Chidambaram Subramaniam
(D) None of the above

Answer :   A

Question21 :  Government has assured the farmers of some minimum income from the sale of their crop by introducing:
(A) Warehousing facilities
(B) Regulated markets
(C) Minimum support price policy
(D) Co-operative agriculture marketing societies

Answer :   C

Question 22:  SHG stands for :
(A) Self Human Group
(B) Sufficient Humidity Growth
(C) Self Help Group
(D) Self Human Growth

Answer :   A

Question23 :  Organic farming is needed because it
(A) Maintains and enhances the ecological balance
(B) is free from chemical based fertilizers
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer :   C

Question 24:  National Bank of Agriculture and Rural Development was set up in ________ as an apex body to coordinate the activities of all institutions in the rural financing system.
(A) 1969
(B) 1982 
(C) 1949
(D) 1991  

Answer :   B

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 7 MASS MEDIA AND COMMUNICATIONSNCERT MCQ for Class 12 SOCIOLOGY PART B which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON MASS MEDIA AND COMMUNICATIONS

Question 1.
Modulation index of an AM signal:
(a) depends upon the peak amplitude of the modulating signal and the carrier.
(b) depends upon the peak amplitude of modulating signal.
(c) is a function of carrier frequency.
(d) None of these.

Answer: (a) depends upon the peak amplitude of the modulating signal and the carrier.

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Question 2.
In amplitude modulation
(a) the amplitude of the carrier remains constant.
(b) the amplitude of the carrier varies in accordance with the amplitude of the modulating signal.
(c) the amplitude of carrier varies in accordance with the frequency of the modulating signal.
(d) None of these.

Answer: (b) the amplitude of the carrier varies in accordance with the amplitude of the modulating signal.

---

Question 3.
In modulation process, radio frequency wave is termed as
(a) modulating wave
(b) modulated wave
(c) carrier wave
(d) none

Answer: (c) carrier wave

---

Question 4.
Digital signals:
(a) represent values as discrete steps.
(b) utilise binary code system.
(c) do not provide a continuous set of values.
(d) All of these.

Answer: (d) All of these.

---

Question 5.
Modulation index in an FM signal:
(a) Varies directly as the modulating frequency.
(b) Varies directly as frequency deviation and inversely as the modulating frequency.
(c) varies inversely as the frequency deviation. ‘
(d) None of these.

Answer: (b) Varies directly as frequency deviation and inversely as the modulating frequency.

---

Question 6.
The most commonly employed analog modulation technique in satellite communication is the
(a) amplitude modulation
(b) frequency modulation
(c) phase modulation
(d) All of the above

Answer: (b) frequency modulation

---

Question 7.
Satellite transponders
(a) use a high frequency for reception and a lower frequency for retransmission of information to and from earth
(b) use a lower frequency for reception and a higher frequency for retransmission of information to and from earth.
(c) Use a single frequency for reception and retransmission of information to and from earth.
(d) none of the above.

Answer: (a) use a high frequency for reception and a lower frequency for retransmission of information to and from earth

---

Question 8.
For television transmission, the frequency employed is normally in the range
(a) 30-300 Hz
(b) 30-300 kHz
(c) 30-300 MHz
(d) 30-300 GHz.

Answer: (c) 30-300 MHz

---

Question 9.
Which one of the following can happen to the electromagnetic waves travelling in free space:
(a) Reflection
(b) Refraction
(c) absorption
(d) attenuation

Answer: (d) attenuation

---

Question 10.
High frequency waves are
(a) reflected by E layer.
(b) absorbed by F layer.
(c) affected by the solar cycle.
(d) capable of use for long-distance transmission.

Answer: (a) and (c).

---

Question 11.
Which of the following is invariably found on all communication satellites as a payload
(a) transponder
(b) photographic camera
(c) optical telescope
(d) None of these

Answer: (a) transponder

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Question 12.
An antenna is
(a) capacitive
(b) reactive
(c) inductive above its resonance frequency.
(d) None of these

Answer: (c) inductive above its resonance frequency.

---

Question 13.
Microwave link repeaters are typically 50 km apart,
(a) because of atmospheric attenuation.
(b) because of the earth’s curvature.
(c) to ensure that signal voltage may not harm the repeater.
(d) None of these.

Answer: (b) because of the earth’s curvature.

---

Question 14.
Optical communication uses the frequency range of
(a) 10⁹ to 10¹⁰ Hz
(b) 10⁵ to 10⁶ Hz
(c) 10¹⁴ to 10¹⁵ Hz
(d) 10¹⁶ to 10¹⁷ Hz.

Answer: (c) 10¹⁴ to 10¹⁵ Hz

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Question 15.
Audio signals have frequency range.
(a) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
(b) 20 kHz to 20 MHz
(c) 20 MHz to 20 GHz
(d) All of these.

Answer: (a) 20 Hz to 20 kHz

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NCERT MCQ ON Human Capital Formation In India:

Question1 : Which of the following is not an indicator of education level?
a) Years of schooling
b) Life expectancy
c) Teacher-pupil ratio
d) Enrollment rate

Answer :   B

Question2 :  Which programme started in 1994
a) District Primary Education Programme
b) Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya
c) Sarva Siksha Abhiyan
d) Mid-day meal

Answer :   A

Question3 :  What percent of GDP was invested in education in the year 1952?
a) 7.92 percent
b) 11.7 percent
c) 0.64 percent
d) 3.31 percent

Answer :   C

Question4 :  Human capital consists of
a) Enterpreneurs
b) Both workers and entrepreneurs
c) Workers
d) Entire population

Answer :   D

Question5 :  GER stands for
a) General Enrolment Ratio
b) Gross Enrolment Ratio
c) General Estimated Ratio
d) Gross Education Ratio

Answer :   B

Question6 :  Human capital can be increased by incurring expenditure on
a) All of these
b) Improvement in technology
c) Increase in GDP
d) Improvement of health

Answer :   D

Question 7:  SSA started in
a) 2005
b) 2000
c) 2006
d) 2004

Answer :   B

Question 8:  Human Development refers to
a) None
b) Both
c) Development of the individuals by acquiring good education
d) Consists of skills as used in the process of production

Answer :   C

Question9:  How much India spend on education?
a) 2% Of GDP
b) 4% of GDP
c) 6% of GDP
d) 5% Of GDP

Answer :   B

Question10 .What percent of GDP was invested in education in the year 1952?
a) 7.92 percent
b) 11.7 percent
c) 0.64 percent
d) 3.31 percent

Answer :   C

Question11 :  The most important indicator of the status of education of a country is the
a) Death rate
b) Population rate
c) Birth rate
d) Literacy rate

Answer :   D

Question12 :  Human capital is similar to physical capital because
a) Both
b) none
c) They are factors of production
d) Raise nation’s ability to produce goods and services

Answer:   A

Question13 : The objective of midday meal scheme is __________
a) to boost universalisation of primary education
b) to boost the nutritional status of children in schools
c) to increase enrolment attendance and retention, and also improving the nutritional status of children in school
d) to boost universalisation of upper primary level of education

Answer:   C

Question 14:  Which of the following is not an indicator of education level?
a) Years of schooling
b) Life expectancy
c) Teacher-pupil ratio
d) Enrollment rate

Answer :   B

Question15 :  The most important indicator of education status of a country is the
a) Literacy rate
b) Death rate
c) Population rate
d) Birth rate

Answer:   A

Question 16:  Educational attainment is measured by the two-third weighted average of the _____and one-third weight ______
a) literacy rate, mean years of primary schooling
b) adult literacy rate, mean years of secondary schooling
c) adult gross literacy rate, mean years of schooling
d) adult literacy rate, mean years of schooling

Answer:   C

Question 17: Which of the following is not the role of on-the-job training?
a) Eradicates inequality
b) Encourages innovation
c) Promotes modern methods
d) Enhances productivity

Answer :   D

Question18 :  The government has levied –% of education cess on all union taxes?
a) 3%
b) 4%
c) 2%
d) 10%

Answer. C

Question19 :   In which state the per capita expenditure on elementary education is highest?
a) Maharashtra
b) Kerala
c) Karnataka
d) Himachal Pradesh

Answer :   D

Question 20:  Machines and buildings are
a) Human capital
b) None of these
c) Physical capital
d) Natural capital

Answer :   B

Question21 :  Which of the following is not the feature of India Vision 2020 Report
a) 90% of literacy in India
b) If we double the investments in education it will increase the country’s GDP per capita by four times
c) 100 % enrolment of all children of age group 6-14 years
d) Importance of technical education

Answer:   A

Question 22:  Literacy refers to
a) All urban people
b) All educated people
c) All rural educated people
d) The ability to read and write

Answer :   D

Question 23:  If ____ capital represents production capacity of a nation, _____ capital is the cause that designs machines.
a) Human, Physical
b) Financial, Human
c) Physical, Human
d) Physical, Financial

Answer :   C

Question 24:  It controls and guides higher education
a) IGNOU
b) None
c) NCERT
d) UGC

Answer :   D

Question 25:  Secondary level education for age group
a) 13-15
b) 18-40
c) 15-18
d) 14-18

Answer :   D

Question26 :  What is the reason for rural-urban migration in India?
a) Marriage
b) Disease
c) Unemployment
d) None

Answer :   C

Question27 :  Navodaya Vidyalaya started in
a) 1988-89
b) 1985-86
c) 1989-90
d) 1986-1987

Answer :   B

Question28 :  Which of the following is not the role of on-the-job training?
a) Eradicates inequality
b) Encourages innovation
c) Promotes modern methods
d) Enhances productivity

Answer :   D

Question29 :  In how many stages of education are there in India
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 3.0

Answer :   D

Question30 :  Which Five Year Plan stressed upon the importance of human capital
a) 7th
b) 8th
c) 6th
d) 5th

Answer :   A

Question31 :  In 1950-51 India literacy rate was
a) 0.16
b) 0.12
c) 0.15
d) 0.18

Answer :   D

Question32 :  Which one of the following is a reason for poor human capital formation in India?
a) Brain drain
b) Insufficient resources
c) High growth of population
d) All of these

Answer :   D

Question 33:   considers education & health as a means to increase labour productivity?
a) Human capital
b) Human development
c) Physical capital
d) A&B Both

Answer :   A

Question34 :  How do human capital formation contributes towards economic growth?
a) By stimulating innovations & inventions
b) Human capital formation is inversely related with economic growth 
c) By enabling human resource to understand changes in scientific advancement
d) Both A & C

Answer :   D

Question35 :  Which of the following are indicators of HDI are
a) Educational attainment
b) All of these
c) Standard of living
d) Longevity

Answer :   B

NCERT MCQ ON Poverty :

Question1 : JGSY programme of poverty alleviation was submerged into _____:
a) SGRY
b) NFFWP
c) PMGSY
d) All of above

Answer : D

Question2 :  Mid day meal, Public distribution system, integrated child development scheme etc.
a) Poverty alleviation approach
b) Growth oriented approach
c) None
d) Minimum basic needs approach

Answer : D

Question3 :  Economists identify the poor on the basis of their ________________and ownership of assets
a) Income
b) Occupation
c) Expenditure
d) Living standard

Answer :  B

Question4 :  The food work programme was renamed as
a) Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme
b) Jawaharlal Rural Yojna
c) National Rural Employment Programme (NREP)
d) Integrated Rural Development Programme

Answer : C

Question 5:  Which programme has the government adopted to help the elderly people and poor and destitute women
a) National Social Assistance Programme
b) None
c) National Social Awas Programme
d) National Social Awas Product

Answer : A

Question 6:  When poverty is taken in relative term and is related to the distribution of income consumption expenditure its called:
a) Law line poverty
b) Absolute poverty
c) Relative poverty
a) None

Answer : C

Question7 :  What do you mean by Gross National Product?
a) The total value of goods and services produced in the country
b) The total value of all the transactions in the country
c) The depreciation in the total value of goods and services produced in the country
d) The total value of goods and services produced in the country and the net factor income from abroad

Answer : D

Question8 :  Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yojna being implemented on a cost sharing ratio of ____ between the centre and states
a) it is 25:75
b) it is 75:25
c) it is 50:50
d) it is 75:28

Answer : B

Question9 :  Who was the first person to define poverty in terms of Jail Cost of Living?
a) Dadabai Naroji
b) V.K.R.V. Rao
c) Willian Digby
d) R.c) Desai

Answer :  A

Question 10:  Who is considered as poor?
a) A rich farmer
b) Businessman.
c) Landlords
d) Landless labourer

Answer :  D

Question11 :  Which of the following is the poverty determination measure?
a) Head Count Ratio
b) Sen Index
c) Poverty Gap Index
d) All of these

Answer :  D

Question 12:  Integrated rural development programme, Development of women and children in rural areas , Million wells scheme etc. all these amalgamated into a single self-employment programme known as
a) REGP
b) PMRY
c) SGSY
d) SISRY

Answer :  C

Question13 :  The average calories required per person in urban area is
a) 2400
b) 2100
c) 2500
d) 2150

Answer :  B

Question14 :  Who was the first to use the concept of poverty line in India
a) Jawahar lal Nehru
b) b)R.Ambedkar
c) Dadabhai Naroji
d) Mahatma Gandhi

Answer :  C

Question15 :  Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojne was launched in
a) 2005
b) 2000
c) 2004
d) 2001

Answer :  D

Question 16:  According to UNO those countries are considered relative poor where per capita income is less than
a) One dollar
b) Four dollar
c) Two dollar
d) Three dollar

Answer :  A

Question 17:  In April 1999 which programme launched
a) SISRY
b) JGSY
c) REGP
d) PMRY

Answer :  B

Question18 :  The approach to reduce poverty through specific poverty alleviation programmes has been initiated from the
a) Second Five Year plan
b) Third Five Year plan
c) Fifth Five Year plan
d) Seventh Five Year plan

Answer :  B

Question19 :   The approach to addressing poverty through public expenditure in providing minimum basic amenities to the people has been initiated from the ___________
a) Second Five Year plan
b) Third Five Year plan
c) Fifth Five Year plan
d) Seventh Five Year plan

Answer :  C

Question20 :  Those who regularly move in and out of poverty are called
a) Chronically poor
b) Churning poor
c) Occasionally poor
d) Transient poor

Answer :  B

Question21 : The poverty line defined for urban areas as consumption worth rs ____ per person a month
a) 454
b) 428
c) 228
d) 328

Answer :  A

Question 22:  NFFWP was launched in:
a) December 2000
b) April 1999
c) November 2005
d) April 2002

Answer :  C

Question23 :  Which of the following programmed was launched in the year of 2000?
a) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.
b) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana
c) Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
d) Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana

Answer :  B

Question24 :  In which programme people were encouraged to form SHG
a) SGSY
b) REGP
c) SISRY
d) PMRY

Answer :  A

NCERT MCQ ON Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation: An Appraisal:

Question 1: Which of the following is the feature of New Economic Reforms ?
(a) Globalization
(b) Liberalization
(c) Privatization
(d) All of the above

Answer :   D

Question2 : MUDRA Bank was set up to meet the credit needs of the _
(a) farmers
(b) small enterprises
(c) large enterprises
(d) exporters

Answer :   B

Question 3:  Why there was a need for economic reforms in India?
(a) Due to fiscal deficit
(b) Due to adverse BOP
(c) Rise in prices
(d) All of the above

Answer :   D

Question4 :  How many industries are entirely reserved for the public sector?
(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 2
(d) 4

Answer :   C

Question5 :  Who is the Chairman of the GST Council?
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Finance Secretary
(d) Deputy Chairman of NITI Aayog

Answer :   A

Question6 : New Economic Policy was introduced in the year___________.
(a) 1980
(b) 1991
(c) 2013
(d) 2015

Answer :   B

Question7 :  Special Economic Zones (SEZ) developed by the Government of India aim
(a) to attract foreign companies to invest in India
(b) to encourage small investors
(c) to encourage regional development
(d) none of the above

Answer :    A

Question8 :  Where is the headquarters of WTO located?
(a) Italy
(b) Geneva
(c) New York
(d) Washington

Answer :   B

Question9 :  Freedom of the producing units from direct or physical control imposed by the government is called____
(a) Privatization
(b) Globalization
(c) Liberalization
(d) None of the above

Answer :   C

Question10 :  FDI (Foreign Direct Investment) attracted by globalisation in India belongs to the
(a) World Bank
(b) multinationals
(c) foreign governments
(d) none of the above

Answer :   B

Question11 :  When was WTO established?
(a) 1996
(b) 1998
(c) 2000
(d) 1995

Answer :   D

Question12 :  If a country liberalises its trade, it will make the country more attractive for
(a) inward investment
(b) exchange reserve
(c) consumption
(d) price

Answer :   A

Question13 : Globalisation has improved the living structure of which of the following?
(a) All the people
(B) Workers in developing countries
(C) People in developed countries
(D) None of the above

Answer :   B

Question 14:  Where is the headquarters of WTO located?
(a) Italy
(b) Geneva
(c) New York
(d) Washington

Answer :   B

Question15 :  Economic reforms were introduced in India in the year _________
(a) 1991
(b) 1992
(c) 2001
(d) 2005

Answer :   A

Question16 :  Tax on imports is an example of:
(a) Terms of Trade
(b) Collateral
(c) Trade Barriers
(d) Foreign Trade

Answer :   C

Question17 :  For how many industries, licensing is still necessary?
(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 10

Answer :   B

Question18 :  Which one of the following is a major benefit of joint production between a local company and a Multi-National Company?
(a) MNC can bring latest technology in the production
(b) MNC can control the increase in the price
(c) MNC can buy the local company
(d) MNC can sell the products under their brand name

Answer :   A

Question19 :  Which of the following replaced MRTP Act?
(a) Competition Act
(b) Foreign Exchange Management Act
(c) New Companies Act
(d) None of these

Answer :   A

Question20 :  When did the Gulf Crisis take place?
(a) 1985
(b) 1990-91
(c) 1995
(d) 1975

Answer :   B

Question21 :  The removal of tariff barriers can lead to lower prices for
(a) suppliers
(b) consumers
(c) competitors
(d) none of these

Answer :   B

Question22 :  The New Economic Policy was introduced in India in _____________.
(a) 1991
(b) 1998
(c) 1997
(d) None of these

Answer :   A

Question23 :  New economic policy is also known as___
(a) New economic reforms
(b) New economic region
(c) New economic law
(d) None of the above

Answer :   A

Question 24:  Which of these institutes supports investments and foreign trade in India?
(a)  International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(b) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
(c) World Bank
(d) International Labour Organisation (ILO)

Answer:  B

Question25 :  What is the investment limit in small scale industries?
(a) 50 lakh
(b) 1 crore
(c) 25 lakh
(d) 75 crore

Answer :  B

Question 26:  LPG stands for
(a) Liberalization, Privatization, Globalization
(b) Liquidity, Publicity, Government
(c) Liberalization, Privatization,Government
(d) None of the above

Answer :   A

Question27 :  How many countries are the members of WTO?
(a) 164
(b) 120
(c) 96
(d) 48

Answer :   A

Question 28:  Globalisation results in
(a) inflow of labour from abroad
(b) inflow of capital from abroad
(c) inflow of tourists from abroad
(d) all the above

Answer :   B

Question29 :  Opening the doors of economy for foreign companies , technology, capital, human resource et(c) is called___
(a) Globalization
(b) Liberalization
(c) Privatization
(d) None of the above

Answer :   A

Question30 :  Which one of the following Indian indus¬tries has been hit hard by globalisation?
(a) Information Technology (IT)
(b) Toy making
(c) Jute
(d) Cement

Answer :   B

Question31 :  is the result of New Industrial Policy which abolished the ‘License System’.
(a) Globalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Liberalisation
(d) None of these

Answer :   B

Question32 :  Globalisation has led to improvement in
(a) choice to consumers
(b) quality of goods and services
(c) foreign investment
(d) all the above

Answer :   D

Question33 :  Globalisation so far has been more in favour of:
(a) developed countries
(b) developing countries
(c) poor countries
(d) none of the above

Answer :   A

Question 34:  Globalisation has led to higher standards of living of:
(a) well-off consumers
(b) poor consumers
(c) big producers

Answer :   A

Question 35:  What is happening with the import of Chinese toys in India ? 
(a) Indian toys are selling more
(b) Indian consumers are buying less
(c) Indian consumers are getting more choice at cheaper rates
(d) Chinese consumers are falling short of choice

Answer :   C

Question 35:  Which out of the following is an example of a trade barrier? 
(a) Foreign investment
(b) Delay or damage of goods
(c) Tax on imports
(d) None of these

Answer :    C

Question 36:  Globalisation has posed major challenges for:
(a) big producers
(b) small producers
(c) rural poor
(d) none of these

Answer :    B

In This Post we are  providing  CHAPTER 8 SOCIAL MOVEMENT NCERT MCQ for Class 12 SOCIOLOGY PART B which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON SOCIAL MOVEMENT

1.Because of a socio-cultural phenomenon, death rate registers a sharp fall at times but, ________________ does not.
(a) Birth rate

(b) Maternal mortality rate

(c) Life expectancy

(d) Dependency ratio
Answer: (a) Birth rate

2.Which of the following is incorrect in the context of the Caste system’s imposed rules?

a) Endogamous Caste groups

b) A hierarchical system

c) Open occupational choices

d) Restrictions on food sharing
Answer:c) Open occupational choices

3.How did the British understand the caste system’s complexity?

a) Interview

b) Survey

c) Participant Observation

d) Interview and Participant Observation
Answer:b) Survey

4.What are the two broad sets of issues that have been most important in giving rise to tribal

movements?

a) control over vital economic resources and issues relating to matters of ethnic-cultural identity

b) control over vital economic resources and globalisation

c) control over vital economic resources and colonialism

d) control over vital economic resources and secularisation
Answer: a) control over vital economic resources and issues relating to matters of ethnic-cultural identity

5.How can be the ideas of inclusive nationalism can be built to be effective?

a) Constitution

b) Parliament

c) Supreme Court

d) Legislature
Answer: a) Constitution

6.Minority in the sociological sense can be defined by:

a) Privilege

b) Only numerical distinction

c) Solidarity due to experience of disadvantage

d) Individualism
Answer:c) Solidarity due to experience of disadvantage

7.What is the type of governance/rule, that often limit or abolish civil liberties?

a) Authoritarian

b) Democratic

c) Civil Society

d) Libertarian
Answer: a) Authoritarian

8.Who wrote Stree Purush Tulane?
a) Tarabai Shinde

b) Savitri Phule

c) Annie Beasant

d) Anita Ghai
Answer: a) Tarabai Shinde
9.Inequalities between men and women according to the Scholars are not ______ but ______

a) Natural, Social

b) Social, Natural

c) Desirable, undesirable

d) Economic, racial
Answer: b) Social, Natural
10.Which of the following is not a factor related to low child sex ratio?
a) Illiteracy

b) Socio-cultural beliefs

c) Economic condition

d) Preference for girl child
Answer: d) Preference for girl child

11.What are the two sets of principles of the Caste system?
a) Wholism-hierarchy and difference and separation

b) Segmental division and hereditary occupation

c) Exogamy and endogamy

d) Purity and Pollution
Answer: a) Wholism-hierarchy and difference and separation
12.Which among the following is a process involving our significant others is important in

developing a sense of community identity:

a) Socialisation

b) Secularisation

c) Globalisation

d) Marketisation
Answer: a) Socialisation

13.What does the population reach, when the growth rate is 0?
a) Replacement level

b) Negative growth

c) Positive growth

d) High birth rate

Answer: a) Replacement level
14.The demographic indicators not used to calculate the total fertility rate is:

a) Number of live births in the reproductive age group

b) Age-specific fertility rate

c) Sex ratio

d) Number of women in the child-bearing age group
Answer: c) Sex ratio

15.Which of the following is true in the context of Kerala, beginning to acquire an age structure like that of the developed countries?

a) High birth rate and high death rate

b) Low birth rate and low death rate

c) High birth rate and low death rate

d) Low birth rate and high death rate
Answer: b) Low birth rate and low death rate