CHAPTER 9 : Financial Management NCERT MCQ CLASS 12TH Business Studies | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON Financial Management :

Question1:  The Cheapest source of finance is:.

a. Debenture

b. Equity share capital

c. Preference share

d. Retained earnings

Answer: D

Question2: A decision to acquire a new and modern plant to upgrade an old one is a

a. Financing decision

b. Working capital decision

c. Investment decision

d. None of the above

Answer: C

Question3: Other things remaining the same, an increase in the tax rate on corporate profit will

a. Make the debt relatively cheaper

b. Make the debt relatively the dearer

c. Have no impact on the cost of debt

d. We can’t say

Answer: A

Question4: Companies with a higher growth potential are likely to

a. Pay lower dividends

b. Pay higher Dividends

c. Dividends are not affected

d. None of the above

Answer: A

Question5: Financial leverage is called favourable if:

a. Return on investment is lower than the cost of debt.

b. ROI is higher than the cost of Debt

c. Debt is easily available.

d. If the degree of existing financial leverage is low.

Answer: B

Question6: Higher debt – equity ratio results in:

a. Lower financial risk

b. Higher degree of operating risk

c. Higher degree of financial risk

d. Higher EPS.

Answer: C

Question7: Higher Working capital usually results in:

a. Higher current ratio, higher risk and higher profits

b. Lower current ratio, higher risk and profits

c. Higher equity, lower risk and lower profits

d. Lower equity, lower risk and higher profits.

Answer: A

Question8: Current assets are those assets which get converted into cash:

a. Within six months

b. Within one year

c. Between one year and three years

d. Between three and five years.

Answer: B

Question9: A fixed asset should be financed through:

a. A Long-term liability

b. A Short-term liability

c. A Medium-term liability

d. A Mix of long- and short-term liabilities

Answer: A

Question10: Current assets of a business firm should be financed through:

a. Current liability only

b. Long term liability only

c. Fixed liabilities only

d. Both types (i.e., long- and short-term liabilities)

Answer: A

 

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CHAPTER 8 : Controlling NCERT MCQ CLASS 12TH Business Studies | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON Controlling:

Question1: An efficient control system helps to:

(a) Accomplishes organizational objectives

(b) Boosts employee morale

(c) Judges accuracy of standards

(d) All of the above

Answer: D

Question2: Controlling function of an organization is

(a) Forward looking

(b) Backward looking

(c) Forward as well as backward looking

(d) None of the above

Answer: C

Question3: Management audit is a technique to keep a check on the performance of

(a) Company

(b) Management of the company

(c) Shareholders

(d) Customers

Answer: B

Question4: Budgetary control requires the preparation of

(a) Training schedule

(b) Budgets

(c) Network diagram

(d) Responsibility centres

Answer: B

Question5: Controlling is needed at which level of management?

(a) Top level

(b) Middle level

(c) Lower level

(d) All level

Answer: D

Question6: Controlling is related to:

(a) Results

(b) Individuals

(c)Things

(d) Managers

Answer: A

Question7: First step in controlling process is:

(a) Taking corrective action

(b) Analysing the deviations

(c) Determining standards

(d) Measurement of actual performance.

Answer: C

Question8: Cost at Rs. 100 per unit is an example of which standard?

(a) Quantitative

(b) Qualitative

(c) Both

(d) None of these

Answer: A

Question9: Which standard is associated with production?

(a) Quality

(b) Quantity

(c) Quality and Quantity

(d) Labour

Answer: C

Question10: Strike is which type of cause of deviation?

(a) Uncertain conditions

(b) Human cause

(c) Various hindrances

(d) Defective standards

Answer: B

Question11: Which function of management is controlling?

(a) First

(b) Second

(c) Third

(d) Last

Answer: D

Question12:  ‘Planning in the absence of controlling is meaningless’. What does this statement indicate in respect of both?

(a) Only planning is essential

(b) Only controlling is essential

(c) Both are essential

(d) Both are unnecessary

Answer: C

Question13:  Which of the following is associated with the marketing standard?

(a) Sales expenses

(b) Capital expense

(c) Quantity

(d) Dispute rate

Answer: A

Question14:  Which of the following qualities the standard should have?

(a) Achievable

(b) Measurable

(c) Flexible

(d) All of these

Answer: D

Question15: What type of nature the control has?

(a) Positive approach

(b) Negative approach

(c) Both of the above

(d) None of these

Answer: C

 

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CHAPTER 7 : Directing NCERT MCQ CLASS 12TH Business Studies | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON Directing:

Question1: Which one of the following is not an element of direction?

a. Motivation

b. Communication

c. Delegation

d. Supervision

Answer: A

Question2: The motivation theory which are classified needs in hierarchical order is developed by.

a. Fred luthans

b. Scott

c. Abraham Maslow

d. Peter sticker

Answer: C

Question3: Which of the following is a Financial incentive?

a. Promotion

b. Stock incentive

c. Job Security

d. Employee Participation

Answer: B

Question4: Which of the following is not an element of communication process?

a. Recording

b. Communication

c. Channel

d. Receiver

Answer: B

Question5: Grape vine is

a. Formal Communication

b. Barrier to Communication

c. Lateral Communication

d. Informal Communication

Answer: D

Question6: Status comes under the following type of barriers

a. Semantic barriers

b. Organizational barrier

c. Non semantic

d. Psychological barrier

Answer: B

Question7: The software company promoted by Narayana Murthyis

a. Wipro

b. Infosys

c. Satyam

d. HCL

Answer: B

Question8: The highest-level need in the need hierarchy of Abraham Maslow is

a. Safety need

b. Belongingness need

c. Self-actualization need

d. Prestige need

Answer: C

Question9: The process of converting the message into communication symbols is known

a. Media

b. Encoding

c. Recording

c. Feedback

Answer: B

Question10: Two way communication technique is used under

a. Laissez Faire

b. Democratic style

c. Autocratic style

d. None of these

Answer: B

Question11: Under which style of leadership there is no delegation of authority

a. Democratic

b. Autocratic

c. Laissez Faire

d. None of these

Answer: B

Question12: Which of the following is not a leadership style?

a. Free-rein

b. Autocratic

c. Democratic

d. Dictatorship

Answer: D

Question13: Self Actualisation Needs are concerned with

a . Autonomy status

b. Recognition

c. Growth and Self-fulfillment

d. None of these

Answer: C

Question14: Basic Physiological Needs are concerned with

a. Shelter

b. Hunger

c. Thirst

d. All of These

Answer: D

 

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CHAPTER 6 : Staffing NCERT MCQ CLASS 12TH Business Studies | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON  Staffing:

Question1: Staffing is
(a) Setting goals for the organization
(b) Translation of plans into action
(c) Putting right people in right job
(d) Filling and keeping filled positions in the organizational structure
Answer: (c) Putting right people in right job

Question2: This explains the reason for increase in importance of staffing.
(a) Increase in business operations
(b) Rapid advancement of technology
(c) Complexities in human behaviour
(d) All the above
Answer: (d) All the above

Question3: This determines the number and types of personnel required to perform the jobs
(a) Workforce analysis
(b) Workload analysis
(c) Selection
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Workforce analysis

Question4: Workforce analysis is a part of
(a) Recruitment process
(b) Selection process
(c) Training and development process
(d) estimation of manpower requirement
Answer: (d) estimation of manpower requirement

Question5: This is not a part of recruitment process
(a) Estimate manpower requirement
(b) Rejects applications of unqualified candidates
(c) Invites applications from potential candidates
(d) Identifies sources to find suitable candidates
Answer: (b) Rejects applications of unqualified candidates

Question6: This results in higher responsibilities and hike in salary
(a) Transfers
(b) Job rotation
(c) Promotion
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) Promotion

Question7: It is not an internal source of recruitment
(a) Direct recruitment
(b) Transfers
(c) Promotions
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a) Direct recruitment

Question8: This source of recruitment selects fresh talent
(a) Direct recruitment
(b) Campus interview
(c) Promotions
(d) All of the above
Answer: (b) Campus interview

Question9: The advantage of using internal sources for filling positions is
(a) Inducts fresh talent
(b) Gives wider choice
(c) Motivates existing employees
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c) Motivates existing employees

Question10: A test which measures emotions, reactions and maturity of an individual
(a) Intelligence test
(b) Trade test
(c) Personality test
(d) Aptitude test
Answer: (c) Personality test

Question11: A test to measure the level of existing knowledge and skills in a potential employee
(a) Intelligence test
(b) Trade test
(c) Personality test
(d) Aptitude test
Answer: (b) Trade test

Question12: This test is not a part of selection tests
(a) Aptitude test
(b) Personality test
(c) Trade test
(d) Medical test
Answer: (d) Medical test

Question13: It helps to improve the aptitude of an employee
(a) Training
(b) Development
(c) Education
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Development

Question14: This method of training help workers learn while working with superiors
(a) Apprenticeship training
(b) induction training
(c) Job rotation
(d) Coaching
Answer: (a) Apprenticeship training

Question15: The training technique which duplicates the actual work environment
(a) Computer modeling
(b) Programmed instruction
(c) Vestibule training
(d) Internship
Answer: (c) Vestibule training

Question16:  ________ is included in Internal Source of Recruitment.
(a) Promotion
(b) Transfer
(c) Both
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Both

Question17: What do we call keeping the employee temporarily away from the person appointing him?
(a) Demotion
(b) Promotion
(c) Transfer
(d) Lay off
Answer: (d) Lay off

Question18: While selecting manpower, ________ is kept in mind.
(a) Education
(b) Experience
(c) Honesty
(d) All the above
Answer: (d) All the above

Question19: What is included in Psychological Test?
(a) Interest Test
(b) Intelligence Test
(c) Aptitude Test
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above

Question20: What is not included in the staffing?
(a) Selection
(b) Training
(c) Directing
(d) Promotion
Answer: (c) Directing

Question21: What is the relationship between human resource development and staffing?
(a) Human resource management is biggar than staffing
(b) Staffing is biggar than human resource management
(c) Both are equal
(d) There is no relationship between the two
Answer: (a) Human resource management is biggar than staffing

Question22:  ________ is that process of examining the applicants which ensures that only the most appropriate persons have been appointed.
(a) Recruitment
(b) Selection
(c) Training
(d) Management
Answer: (b) Selection

Question23: Which of the following is included in the human resource management?
(a) Recruitment
(b) Specialised services
(c) Handling grievances
(d) All the above
Answer: (d) All the above

Question24: When does the Personnel Manager act as the Line Manager?
(a) When he performs the function of staffing as a function of management
(b) When he completes the job of staffing as part of functional area of management
(c) In both the above situations
(d) He never acts as the Line Manager
Answer: (a) When he performs the function of staffing as a function of management

Question25: Which of the following is the element of staffing?
(a) Recruitment
(b) Selection
(c) Training
(d) All the above
Answer: (d) All the above

Question26: Our assets walk out of the door each evening. We have to make sure that they come back the next morning. Here the assets refer to ________ .
(a) Vehicles
(b) Goods
(c) Employees
(d) Machines
Answer: (c) Employees

Question27: Recruitment process starts with ________ .
(a) Strike
(b) Lock out
(c) Demand of employees
(d) Invitation to interested people
Answer: (c) Demand of employees

Question28: Staffing is the ________ stage of management process.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer: (c) Third

Question29: ________ is the internal source of recruitment.
(a) Transfer
(b) Promotion
(c) Lay off
(d) All the above
Answer: (d) All the above

Question30: Introducing employees to the organisation is called ________ .
(a) Recruitment
(b) Selection
(c) Orientation
(d) Placement
Answer: (c) Orientation

Question31: ________ is the merit of internal recruitment.
(a) Increase in motivation
(b) Industrial Peace
(c) Both the above
(d) Stopping the entry of young blood
Answer: (c) Both the above

Question32: With what responsibility is staffing related to?
(a) Social
(b) Political
(c) Government
(d) Individual
Answer: (a) Social

Question33: What stage does the requisition of employees occupy in the process of recruitment?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer: (a) First

Question34: ________ is helpful in finding out a competent employee.
(a) Planning
(b) Staffing
(c) Both the above
(d) Organisation
Answer: (b) Staffing

Question35: Which source of recruitment is not available to the new organisations?
(a) Internal
(b) External
(c) Both the above
(d) Direct Recruitment
Answer: (a) Internal

Question36: When a person undergoes a course in engineering, is ________ .
(a) Training
(b) Education
(c) Development
(d) All the Above
Answer: (b) Education

Question37: From which source of recruitment do we get Badli or casual employee?
(a) Direct Recruitment
(b) Casual Callers
(c) Media Advertisement
(d) Employment Exchange
Answer: (b) Casual Callers

Question38: Recruitment is a ________ process.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Qualitative
(d) Quantitative
Answer: (a) Positive

Question39: To which source of recruitment the direct recruitment from educational institutions is related?
(a) Employment Exchange
(b) Campus Recruitment
(c) Management Consultants
(d) Direct Recruitment
Answer: (b) Campus Recruitment

Question40: Which is not included in Internal Source of Recruitment?
(a) Transfer
(b) Trade Union
(c) Promotion
(d) Lay-off
Answer: (b) Trade Union

Question41: Which of the following training is given to the top level managers?
(a) Labour Relations
(b) Financial Management
(c) Production Management
(d) All the Above
Answer: (d) All the Above

Question42: ________ is included in External Source of Recruitment.
(a) Advertisement
(b) Employment Exchange
(c) Both
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Both

Question43: Filling up of blank application form during the selection process contains information about ________ .
(a) Qualifications
(b) Personal information
(c) Minimum Salary acceptable
(d) All the above
Answer: (d) All the above

Question44: (I) Training is job-oriented and development is career oriented.
(II) Scope of training is broad and that of development is limited.
Above both statements are:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Statement (I) is True and Statement (II) is False.
(d) Statement (I) is False and Statement (II) is True.
Answer: (c) Statement (I) is True and Statement (II) is False.

Question45: Contract of employment contains ________ information.
(a) Job Title
(b) Responsibilities
(c) Allowances
(d) All the above
Answer: (d) All the above

Question46: What type of the process selection is?
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Qualitative
(d) Quantitative
Answer: (b) Negative

Question47: What is the first step in the process of selection?
(a) Selection Tests
(b) Job Offer
(c) Preliminary Screening
(d) Selection Decision
Answer: (c) Preliminary Screening

Question48: Which of the following aims at examining the interest of the candidate?
(a) Intelligence Test
(b) Interest Test
(c) Aptitude Test
(d) All the above
Answer: (b) Interest Test

Question49: Sending an inefficient employee to a lower position is called ________ .
(a) Transfer
(b) Promotion
(c) Demotion
(d) Lay off
Answer: (c) Demotion

Question50: After crossing the bar of physical test which letter is given to the selected person?
(a) Letter of Regret
(b) Appointment Letter
(c) Both the above
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Appointment Letter

Question51: The purpose of ________ interview is to find out whether the applicant is physically and mentally fit for the position.
(a) Preliminary
(b) Employment
(c) Both the above
(d) Collective (or Group)
Answer: (a) Preliminary

Question52: Under training the employees are trained in ________ field/fields.
(a) A particular
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) All
Answer: (a) A particular

Question53: The meaning of development is to make the employees efficient in ________ field/fields.
(a) A particular
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) All
Answer: (d) All

Question54: The word development is linked or associated with ________ .
(a) Managers
(b) Workers
(c) Supervisors
(d) Workers and Supervisors
Answer: (a) Managers

Question55: The word Training is associated with ________ .
(a) Managers
(b) Workers
(c) Supervisors
(d) Workers and Supervisors
Answer: (d) Workers and Supervisors

Question56:At what level of management staffing is needed?
(a) Top level
(b) Middle level
(c) Lower level
(d) At all levels
Answer: (d) At all levels

Question57: Under which training method factory like conditions are created?
(a) Induction Training
(b) Apprenticeship Training
(c) Vestibule Training
(d) Internship Training
Answer: (c) Vestibule Training

Question58:  ________ is included in the psychological test.
(a) Interest Test
(b) Intelligence Test
(c) Both the Above
(d) General Knowledge Test
Answer: (c) Both the Above

Question59: Under which training method, both the technical institutes and the business organisations jointly impart training to their members?
(a) Induction Training
(b) Apprenticeship Training
(c) Vestibule Training
(d) Internship Training
Answer: (d) Internship Training

Question60: What does the Reference and Background test aims at knowing about the candidate?
(a) Character
(b) Social Relations
(c) Both the above
(d) Economic Condition
Answer: (c) Both the above

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CHAPTER 5 : Organising NCERT MCQ CLASS 12TH Business Studies | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON Organising:

Question1: Under what function of management the relationship between different posts (positions) is explained?

(a) Planning

(b) Communication

(c) Organisation

(d) Supervision

Answer: C

Question2: Where lies the need of organisation?

(a) In business organisation

(b) In non-business organisation

(c) In both (a) and (b)

(d) No where

Answer: C

Question3: Which organisation structure is consciously or deliberately established?

(a) Formal

(b) Informal

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None

Answer: A

Question4: Which organisation structure is based on rules and procedures?

(a) Informal

(b) Formal

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None

Answer: B

Question5: Which structure of organisation is helpful in locating the inefficient employees?

(a) Formal

(b) Informal

(c) Both the above

(d) None of the above

Answer: A

Question6: Which organisation structure does not have duplication of work?

(a) Formal

(b) Informal

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of these

Answer: A

Question7: Which of the following is not the disadvantage of formal organisation?

(a) Lack of initiative

(b) Delay in work

(c) Lack of favouritism

(d) Mechanical relationship

Answer: C

Question8: In which organisation structure do we find “group norms”?

(a) Formal

(b) Informal

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of these

Answer: B

Question9: Which of the following is not an element of delegation?

(a) Accountability

(b) Authority

(c) Responsibility

(d) Informal organisation

Answer: D

Question10: A network of social relationship that arises spontaneously due to interaction at work is called:

(a) Formal organisation

(b) Informal organisation

(c) Decentralisation

(d) Delegation

Answer: B

Question11: Which of the following does not follow the scalar chain?

(a) Functional structure

(b) Divisional structure

(c) Formal organisation

(d) Informal organisation.

Answer: D

Question12: A tall structure has a

(a) Narrow span of management

(b) Wide span of management

(c) No span of management

(d) Less levels of management

Answer: A

Question13: Centralisation refers to

(a) Retention of decision-making authority

(b) Dispersal of decision-making authority

(c) Creating divisions as profit centre’s

(d) Opening new centres or branches

Answer: A

Question14: For delegation to be effective it is essential that responsibility be accompanied with necessary

(a) Authority

(b) Manpower

(c) Incentives

(d) Promotions.

Answer: A

Question15: Span of management refers to

(a) Number of managers

(b) Length of term for which a manager is appointed

(c) Number of subordinates under a superior

(d) Number of members in top management

Answer: C

Question16: The form of organisation known for giving rise to rumours is called

(a) Centralised organisation

(b) Decentralised organisation

(c) Informal organisation

(d) Formal organization

Answer: B

Question17:  Grouping of activities on the basis of product lines is a part of

(a) Delegated organization

(b) Divisional organisation

(c) Functional organisation

(d) Autonomous organization

Answer: B

Question18:  Grouping of activities on the basis of functions is a part of

(a) Decentralised organisation

(b) Divisional organisation

(c) Functional organisation   

(d) Centralised organization

Answer: C

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CHAPTER 4 : Planning NCERT MCQ CLASS 12TH Business Studies | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON  Planning:

Question1: State true or false:

 Managers when plan, organise, lead and control are called decision makers.

a. True

b. False

Answer: A

Question2: Which of the following is an assumption of rationality to rationale decision making?

a. Preferences are clear

b. Final choice will maximize pay off

c. The problem is clear and unambiguous

d. All of the above

Answer: D

Question3: Is accepting solutions that are “good enough”.

a. Bounded rationality

b. Satisfying

c. Escalation of commitment

d. None of the above

Answer: B

Question4: Making decisions on the basis of experience, feelings and accumulated judgement is called as

a. Decision making

b. Structured problems

c. Intuitive decision making

d. None of the above

Answer: C

Question5: Which software provides key performance indicators to help managers monitor efficiency of projects and employees?

a. Management Information System

b. Business Performance Management

c. Enterprise Application Software

d. Online analytical Processing

Answer: B

Question6: Is a rule of thumb that managers use to simplify decision making.

a. Sunk costs

b. Framing

c. Heuristics

d. None of the above

Answer: C

Question7: State true or false.

Availability bias is when decisions makers tend to remember events that are most recent.

a. True

b. False

Answer: A

Question8: Which of the following quality a manager must possess to succeed in planning?

a. Reflective Thinking

b. Imagination

c. Farsightedness

d. All of these

Answer: D

Question9: Plan which is firstly discussed in business plan is mostly

a. Marketing plan

b. Financial planning

c. Personnel plan

d. Production plan

Answer: A

Question10:  First step in planning process is to

a. Setting an objectives

b. Evaluate alternative

c. Determine strength and weakness

d. None of the above.

Answer : A

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CHAPTER 3 : Business Environment NCERT MCQ CLASS 12TH Business Studies | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON Business Environment:

Question1: Which of the following does not characterise the business environment?

a) Uncertainty

b) Employees

c) Relativity

d) Complexity

Answer: B

Question2: Which of the following best indicates the importance of business environment?

a) Identification

b) Improvement in performance

c) Coping with rapid changes

d) All of them

Answer: D

Question3: Which of the following is an example of social environment?

a) Money supply in the economy

b) Consumer Protection Act

c) The Constitution of the country

d) Composition of family

Answer: D

Question4: Liberalisation means

a) Integration among economies

b) Reduced government controls and restrictions

c) Policy of planned disinvestments

d) None of them

Answer: B

Question5: Which of the following does not explain the impact of Government policy changes on business and industry?

a) More demanding customers

b) Increasing competition

c) Change in agricultural prices

d) Market orientation

Answer: C

Question6: Business environment is a group of powers.

a) Special

b) General

c) Internal

d) Special and General

Answer: D

Question7: Which factor is not included in Macro Environment?

a) Economic Environment

b) Competitors

c) Social Environment

d) Political Environment

Answer: B

Question8: The entry of the multinational companies in large numbers in the Indian market has created .

a) Huge Demand

b) Huge Supply

c) Tough Competition

d) Huge Demand and Supply

Answer: C

Question9: Reducing the role of Public Sector and increasing the role of Private Sector fall sunder .

a) Liberalisation

 b) Privatisation

c) Liberalisation and Privatisation

d) Globalisation

Answer: B

Question10: Under the Reserve Bank keeps control on the money supply in order to achieve the objectives of the general economic policy.

a) Fiscal Policy

b) Monetary Policy

c) Trade Policy

d) Industrial Policy

Answer: B

Question11: The income and expenditure policy of the government is called.

a) Fiscal Policy

b) Industrial Policy

c) Trade Policy

d) Monetary Reforms

Answer: A

Question12: In all the countries there is a free-flow of goods and services under which of the following does it come?

a) Liberalisation

b) Privatisation

c) Liberalisation and Privatisation

d) Globalisation

Answer: D

Question13: Which of the following deals with the process of simplification of Import-Export?

a) Liberalisation

b) Privatisation

c) Liberalisation and Privatisation

d) Globalisation

Answer: A

Question14: With the introduction of Photostat Machines in the market, the carbon paper industry was adversely affected. Which component of environment was responsible for it?

a) Economic

b) Political

c) Technical

d) All the above

Answer: C

Question15: Which factor is not included in Internal Environment?

a) Objective

b) Policies

c) Public

d) Production-Method

Answer: C 

Question16: Globalisation aims at ____

  • a) All the options
  • b) Export Promotion
  • c) Foreign exchange reforms
  • d) Import liberalisation

Answer: All the options

Question17: Which of the following does not explain the impact of Government policy changes on business and industry?

  • a) Change in agricultural prices
  • b) Market orientation
  • c) More demanding customers
  • d) Increasing competition

Answer: Change in agricultural prices

Question18: A possible obstacle to growth of privatisation is

  • a) Sale of least profitable enterprises
  • b) Profit earned by public enterprises
  • c) Licensing
  • d) All the options

Answer: Sale of least profitable enterprises

Question19: Which one is not an element of internal environment?

  • a) Money and capital market
  • b) Marketing capabilities
  • c) Operational Capabilities
  • d) Personal Capabilities

Answer: Money and capital market

Question20: Globalisation means

  • a) Adopting a global outlook
  • b) Setting of firms branches in other countries
  • c) Earning profit from Exports
  • d) Attracting foreign investment

Answer: Adopting a global outlook

Question21: Privatisation of ownership through sale of equity share is called

  • a) Disinvestment
  • b) Denationalisation
  • c) Contracting
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Disinvestment

Question22: Which among these can be condition for the success of privatisation

  • a) Barriers to enter the market
  • b) Alternative institutional arrangements
  • c) Measurability of performance
  • d) All the options

Answer: Barriers to enter the market

Question23: The pre-liberalisation era of Indian Economy was under the grip of

  • a) Unfavourable and alarming balance of payment
  • b) Fiscal Deficit
  • c) Under-employment
  • d) Unemployment

Answer: Unfavourable and alarming balance of payment

Question24: Which among these is not a method of privatisation

  • a) Sale of Business
  • b) Denationalisation
  • c) Franchising
  • d) All the options

Answer: Sale of Business

Question25: What are the decisions taken by government of India pertaining to Industrial Sector in the new industrial policy of 1991?

  • a) All the options
  • b) VRS to shed the excess load of workers
  • c) Disinvestment of public sector share holding
  • d) Referring sick units to BIFR

Answer: All the options

Question26: Which among the following is not opened for private sector participation

  • a) Railways
  • b) Power sector
  • c) Telecommunication sector
  • d) Education sector

Answer: Railways

Question27: Company images and brand equity is factor affecting business

  • a) Externally
  • b) Internally
  • c) Government Policy
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Externally

Question28: Relaxing the restrictions and controls imposed on Business and industry means

  • a) Liberalisation
  • b) Privatisation
  • c) Globalisation
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Liberalisation

Question29: By which act government checks restrictive trade?

  • a) MRTP Act
  • b) Industrial Policy Act 1991
  • c) FEMA act
  • d) None of the options

Answer: MRTP Act

Question30: Liberalization means

  • a) Liberating the industry, trade and economy from unwanted restrictions
  • b) Reducing number of reserved industries from 17 to 8
  • c) Opening up of economy to the world by attaining international competitiveness
  • d) Free determination of interest rates

Answer: Liberating the industry, trade and economy from unwanted restrictions

Question31: Which is not essential feature of Globalisation

  • a) The government redefined the role of public sector.
  • b) Import liberalisation
  • c) Export promotion
  • d) Foreign exchange reforms

Answer: The government redefined the role of public sector.

Question32: Which is not essential feature of Privatisation

  • a) No restriction on expansion or contraction of business
  • b) The government redefined the role of public sector.
  • c) Policy of planned disinvestments of the public sector.
  • d) Refining of sick enterprises to the Board of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction.

Answer: No restriction on expansion or contraction of business

Question33: Which is not essential feature of Liberalisation

  • a) The government redefined the role of public sector.
  • b) No restriction on expansion or contraction of business
  • c) Free movement of goods and services.
  • d) Freedom in fixing the prices of goods and services.

Answer: The government redefined the role of public sector.

Question34: What is the Impact of Government policy changes on business and industry

  • a) All the options
  • b) Increasing Competition
  • c) More Demanding Customer
  • d) Rapidly Changing Technological Environment

Answer: All the options

Question35: ___________The new set of economic reforms that aim at giving greater role to the private sector in the nation building process and a reduced role to the public sector.

  • a) Privatisation
  • b) Liberalisation
  • c) Globalisation
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Privatisation

Question36: How many important features of New Economic Policy, 1991

  • a) 3
  • b) 2
  • c) 4
  • d) 5

Answer: 3

Question37: Why it is important for business enterprises to understand their environment

  • a) All the options
  • b) It Enables the Firm to Identify Opportunities
  • c) It Helps the Firm to Identify Threats
  • d) It Helps in Coping with Rapid Changes

Answer: All the options

Question38: Advance understanding of business environment will help in

  • a) Planning and Policy Formulation
  • b) Privatisation
  • c) Developing new principles of management
  • d) Liberalisation

Answer: Planning and Policy Formulation

Question39: Globalisation aims at ____

  • a) All the options
  • b) Export Promotion
  • c) Foreign exchange reforms
  • d) Import liberalisation

Answer: All the options

Question40: Through Environmental scanning a business firm can enjoy the ___________

  • a) First Mover Advantage
  • b) Benefit of taxes
  • c) Last Mover Advantage
  • d) None of the options

Answer: First Mover Advantage

Question41: The complete awareness and understanding of business environment is called _________

  • a) Environmental Scanning
  • b) Technological advancement
  • c) Liberalisation
  • d) Privatisation

Answer: Environmental Scanning

Question42: For the protection of a consumers right, there is

  • a) Consumer Protection Act, 1986
  • b) Consumer protection Act 1984
  • c) Consumer Protection Act, 1932
  • d) Consumer Protection Act, 1956

Answer: Consumer Protection Act, 1986

Question43: Advertisements of cigarettes carry the statutory warning. This is because of

  • a) Legal Environment
  • b) Social Environment
  • c) Political Environment
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Legal Environment

Question44: Technological improvements and innovations result in__

  • a) Render existing products obsolete
  • b) Increase in tax
  • c) Reduction in profit margins
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Render existing products obsolete

Question45: Increased competition in the market will _______

  • a) Reduce the profit margin
  • b) Increase the tax
  • c) Increase the profit
  • d) Increase the cost of production

Answer: Reduce the profit margin

Question46: What will be the affect of increase in tax by the government

  • a) Increase in cost of production
  • b) Creates fear in the minds of investors
  • c) Increase in profit margin
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Increase in cost of production

Question47: What creates fear in the minds of investors to invest in long term projects?

  • a) Political Uncertainty
  • b) Privatisation
  • c) Globalisation
  • d) All the options

Answer: Political Uncertainty

Question48: Reduction in the role of public sector is due to _________

  • a) Privatisation
  • b) Political Environment
  • c) Liberalisation
  • d) Globalisation

Answer: Privatisation

Question49: Giving freedom to Indian business and industries from all unnecessary government controls and restrictions is an example of ____________

  • a) Liberalisation
  • b) Privatisation
  • c) Globalisation
  • d) All the options

Answer: Liberalisation

Question50: Technological environment includes changes relating to

  • a) All the options
  • b) Scientific improvement
  • c) Method of production
  • d) Use of new equipment

Answer: All the options

Question51: Booking of Railway tickets through internet from home or office is an example of _________

  • a) Technological Environment
  • b) Political Environment
  • c) Economic Environment
  • d) All the options

Answer: Technological Environment

Question52: Advertisement of alcoholic beverages is prohibited. This is an example of __________

  • a) Legal Environment
  • b) Economic Environment
  • c) Political Environment
  • d) All the options

Answer: Legal Environment

Question53: Subsidy to cotton textile businesses is the __________

  • a) Political Environment
  • b) Legal Environment
  • c) Social Environment
  • d) Economic Environment

Answer: Political Environment

Question54: The trend of health and fitness has created a demand for products like gyms, bottled mineral water and food supplements etc., these are the example of

  • a) Social Environment
  • b) Political Environment
  • c) Legal Environment
  • d) Economic Environment

Answer: Social Environment

Question55: Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is concerned with ____________

  • a) Economic Environment
  • b) Social Environment
  • c) Political Environment
  • d) Legal Environment

Answer: Economic Environment

Question56: Which of the following does not explain the impact of Government policy changes on business and industry?

  • a) Change in agricultural prices
  • b) Market orientation
  • c) More demanding customers
  • d) Increasing competition

Answer: Change in agricultural prices

Question57: ________reduces the control of government and encourages private participation

  • a) Liberalization
  • b) Privatization
  • c) Globalization
  • d) All the options

Answer: Liberalization

Question58: Liberalisation means

  • a) Reduced government controls and restrictions
  • b) Integration among economies
  • c) Policy of planned disinvestments
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Reduced government controls and restrictions

Read More

CHAPTER 2 : Principles of Management NCERT MCQ CLASS 12TH Business Studies | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON Principles of Management :

Question1:  Who is the considered as the father of Scientific Management?

a)  Henry Fayol

b)  Gilberth

c)  F W Taylor

d)  Harold Koontz                                            

Answer: C

Question2:  Who is known as father of General Management?

a) Henry Fayol

b) Gilberth

c) F  W Taylor

d) Harold Koontz.                                                            

Answer: A

Question3:  Harmony Not discord principle is concerned with                       

a)  Management should share the gain of the company with workers

b)  Investigation of Task

c)  Scientific inquiry

d)  Observation and Analysis.

Answer: A

Question4:  Unity of  Direction is concerned with         

a)  One head one plan

b)  One head different plans

c)  Planning by employee

d)  Planning by production manager                            

Answer: A

Question5:  Espirit De Corps mean               

a)  Gang plank

b)  Gang boss

c)  Order

d)  Union is strength.                                                 

Answer: D

Question6:  Gang plank is concerned about ______________

a)  Contact not allowed

b)  Indirect contact

c)  Direct contact

d)  Contact before application.                                    

Answer: C
 Question7:  Which of the following is not considered with F W Taylor?

a)  Method Study

b)  Motion Study

c)  Time Study

d)  Scalar chain                                                         

Answer: D

Question8:  Functional foremanship is concerned with   ______

a)  Marketing

b)  Division of work

c)  Insurance

d)  Gang plank                                                          

Answer: B

Question9:  The main objective of functional foremanship is _____ 

a)  Not to provide free time to workers

b)  Separate planning functions from executive functions

c)  To separate top level management from CEO

d)  Not to divide the work.      

Answer: B

Question10:  The main objective of the motion Study is ______ 

a)  To provide more work to the workers

b)  To separate planning functions with other functions

c)  To eliminate unproductive movement

d)  To study standard time.                             

Answer: C

Question11: Science not rule of thumb principle is given by _______ 

a)  Hanry  Fayol

b)  L M Prasad

c)  F W Taylor

d)  L H Haney.                                              

Answer: C

Question12:  What is the main motive of Fatigue Study?

a)  Calculation of standard time

b)  Calculation of standard output

c)  Calculation of frequent rest interval to be given to the employees

d)   Direct contact.

Answer:  C

Question13: Which principle of management discuss about route clerk and gang boss? 

a)  Equity

b)  Order 

c)  Functional Foremanship

d)  Motion study.                                           

Answer: C

Question14: Principle of Order is concerned with                 

a) Orderly arrangements of various  resources

b)  Giving order to employees

c)  Receiving order from top level

d)  None of the above.                                    

Answer: A

Question15:  Which principle of management suggest the concept of replacing I with we.

a)  Order

b)  Equity

c)  Espirit De Corp

d)  None of these.                                          

Answer: C

 Question16: Which is the principles of management given by Fayol

  • a) All the options
  • b) Unity of direction
  • c) Equity
  • d) Centralisation and decentralisation

Answer: All the options

Question17: Which is the techniques of scientific work

  • a) All the options
  • b) Time study
  • c) Motion study
  • d) Fatigue study

Answer: All the options

Question18: Which is determines the standard time taken to perform a well-defined job.

  • a) Time Study
  • b) Motion study
  • c) Fatigue study
  • d) Method study

Answer: Time Study

Question19: The method of time study will depend Upon

  • a) Volume and frequency of the task
  • b) Volume
  • c) frequency of the task
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Volume and frequency of the task

Question20: Which are the objectives achieved through time study

  • a) All the options
  • b) Determine the number of workers
  • c) Frame suitable incentive schemes.
  • d) Determines labour costs

Answer: All the options

Question21: ___________study refers to the study of movements like lifting, putting objects, sitting and changing positions

  • a) Motion study
  • b) Time Study
  • c) Fatigue study
  • d) Method study

Answer: Motion study

Question22: On close examination of body motions, e.g., it is possible to find out Which types motions

  • a) All the options
  • b) Motions which are productive
  • c) Motions which are incidental
  • d) Motions which are unproductive.

Answer: All the options

Question23: _________________study seeks to determine the amount and frequency of rest intervals in completing a task

  • a) Fatigue Study Fatigue
  • b) Method study
  • c) Motion study
  • d) Time Study

Answer: Fatigue Study Fatigue

Question24: Which is the objective of standardisation

  • a) All the options
  • b) To reduce product to fixed types, sizes, features etc.
  • c) To establish interchangeability of various parts.
  • d) To establish standards of excellence and quality in materials.

Answer: All the options

Question25: Which nature is not present in Principles of management

  • a) Absolute
  • b) Behavioural
  • c) Flexible
  • d) Universal

Answer: Absolute

Question26: What is the aim of Method study

  • a) To find one best method of doing the job
  • b) To find None method of doing the job
  • c) To find Time method of doing the job
  • d) All the options

Answer: To find one best method of doing the job

Question27: Who was the first to identity functions of management

  • a) Henry Fayol
  • b) James Lundy
  • c) Harold Koontz
  • d) F.W.Taylor

Answer: Henry Fayol

Question28: How are the principles developed

  • a) All the options
  • b) On the basis of observation
  • c) on the basis of experimentation
  • d) Personal experiences of the managers

Answer: All the options

Question29: Harmony, Not Discord principle is concerned with______________

  • a) Management should share the gains of company with workers
  • b) Observation and Analysis
  • c) Scientific inquiry
  • d) Investigation of Task

Answer: Management should share the gains of company with workers

Question30: Which is the objective of standardisation

  • a) All the options
  • b) To reduce product to fixed types, sizes, features etc.
  • c) To establish interchangeability of various parts.
  • d) To establish standards of excellence and quality in materials.

Answer: All the options

Question31: Which is determines the standard time taken to perform a well-defined job.

  • a) Time Study
  • b) Motion study
  • c) Fatigue study
  • d) Method study

Answer: Time Study

Question32: How many principles are given by Henry Fayol

  • a) 14
  • b) 20
  • c) 18
  • d) 16

Answer: 14

Question33: Lifetime of Henry Fayol is ______________

  • a) 1841 to 1925
  • b) 1841 to 1930
  • c) 1845 to 1925
  • d) 1845 to 1930

Answer: 1841 to 1925

Question34: Name and explain that principle of Fayol which suggest that communication from top to bottom should follow the official lines of command?

  • a) Principle of Scalar Chain
  • b) Remuneration of Employees
  • c) Centralization and Decentralization
  • d) Unity of Direction

Answer: Principle of Scalar Chain

Question35: Identify the technique of scientific management When uniformity is introduced in materials. Machine, tools, method of works and working conditions after, due research.

  • a) Standardization of works
  • b) Method Study
  • c) Differential Piece Wage system
  • d) Fatigue study

Answer: Standardization of works

Question36: Identify the technique of scientific management when specialists supervise each worker

  • a) Functional Foremanship
  • b) Method Study
  • c) Motion Study
  • d) Time study

Answer: Functional Foremanship

Question37: Which of the following is not an objective of management

  • a) Earning profits
  • b) Growth of the organisation
  • c) Providing employment
  • d) Policy making

Answer: Earning profits

Question38: Which is not a function of management of the following

  • a) Cooperating
  • b) Planning
  • c) Controlling
  • d) Staffing

Answer: Cooperating

Question39: Hina & Harish are typist in a company having same educational qualification. Hina is getting Rs.3000 per month and Harish Rs. 4000 per month as salary far the same working hour. Which principle of management is violated in this case? Name and explain the principle?

  • a) Principle of fair remuneration.
  • b) Principle of Equity
  • c) Principle of Order
  • d) Principle of initiative

Answer: Principle of fair remuneration.

Question40: Why is it said that principles of management are flexible

  • a) Because they can be modified
  • b) Because they can be Fixed
  • c) Because they can be modified and Because they can be Fixed
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Because they can be modified

Question41: Who gave 14 general principles of Management

  • a) Henri Fayol
  • b) F.W.Taylor
  • c) Harold Koontz
  • d) Gilbreth

Answer: Henri Fayol

Question42: Henri Fayol was a

  • a) Mechanical engineer
  • b) French Doctor
  • c) Russian Mechanical engineer
  • d) All the options

Answer: Mechanical engineer

Question43: Henri Fayol Period was

  • a) 1841-1925
  • b) 1851-1925
  • c) 1861-1925
  • d) 1841-1926

Answer: 1841-1925

Question44: Henri Fayol was a

  • a) French Mechanical engineer
  • b) French Doctor
  • c) Russian Mechanical engineer
  • d) All the options

Answer: French Mechanical engineer

Question45: Taylors book Principles of Scientific Management was published

  • a) 1911
  • b) 1912
  • c) 1914
  • d) 1915

Answer: 1911 

Question46: F.W. Taylor period was

  • a) 1856 to 1915
  • b) 1856 to 1925
  • c) 1756 to 1925
  • d) 1750 to 1925

Answer: 1856 to 1915

Question47: Significance of the Principles of Management

  • a) All the options
  • b) Providing managers with useful insights into reality
  • c) Optimum utilization of resource and effective administration
  • d) Scientific decisions.

Answer: All the options

Question48: Which principle of management aims at securing the loyalty and devotion of the employees by giving them fair and just treatment?

  • a) Principle of Equity.
  • b) Principle of Order.
  • c) Unity of Direction
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Principle of Equity.

Question49: Which principle of management is violated if an employee is asked to receive orders from two superiors?

  • a) Principle of unity of Command
  • b) Principle of Order.
  • c) Principle of Equity.
  • d) All the options

Answer: Principle of unity of Command

Question50: Workers should be encouraged to develop and carry out their plans for improvements. Identify the principle of management formulated by Fayol.

  • a) Principle of initiative.
  • b) Unity of Direction
  • c) Principle of Order.
  • d) Principle of Equity.

Answer: Principle of initiative.

Question51: Taylors principles are specific as they are

  • a) Scientific in nature.
  • b) Doctor in nature.
  • c) Manager in nature.
  • d) All the options

Answer: Scientific in nature.

Question52: Taylors principles are

  • a) Specific
  • b) General
  • c) Universal
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Specific

Read More

CHAPTER 1 : Nature and Significance of Management NCERT MCQ CLASS 12TH Business Studies | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON Nature and Significance of Management:

Question1: Which is not a function of Management of the following?

a) Planning

b) Controlling

c) Cooperating.

d) Staffing.

Answer: C

Question2:  Setting Objective is a function of:-

a) Middle level management

b) Operational level management

c) Top level Management

d) None of the above

Answer: C

Question3: Which one of the following sequence of process of management is correct:

a) Planning, Controlling, Organising, Staffing

b) Staffing, Planning, Organising, Controlling

c) Planning, Organising, Staffing, Controlling

d) Organising, Planning, Staffing, Controlling

Answer:  C

Question4:  Management ensures:

a) Providing employment opportunities

b) Maintaining profit

c) Ensuring maximum utilisation of resources

d) Control on cost

Answer:  C

Question5: A manager obtains the required capital at 12% interest while the prevailing rate of interest happens to be10%. How would you describe such a manager?

a) Efficient

b) Effective

c) Efficient and Effective

d) Inefficient

Answer:  B

Question6: Whose specialty happens to be ‘personal skill’?

a) Profession

b) Art

c) Science

d) None of these

Answer:  B

Question7: At what level of management does the Chief Executive Officer operate?

a) Top-level

b) Middle-level

c) Lower-level

d) None of these

Answer:  A

Question8: ‘Thinking before doing’, under which function of management is this performed?

a) Controlling

b) Directing

c) Organising

d) Planning

Answer:  D

Question9: ‘Arrangement of various resources for achieving Target, under which function of management is this performed

a) Controlling

b) Directing

c) Organising

d) Planning

Answer:  C

Question10: Under what function of management does the ‘corrective action’ fall?

a) Planning

b) Organising

c) Directing

d) Controlling

Answer:  D

Question11: Coordination is

a) Function of management

b) The essence of management

c) an objective of management

d) none of the above

Answer:  B

Question12: Number of levels of management are:

a) one 

b) two

c) three 

d) four

Answer:  C

Question13: Which of the following is true?

a) Coordination is not equally important at all levels of management

b) Coordination has no importance

c) Coordination is equally important at all levels of

d) None of these

Answer: C

Question14: What out of the following has been called the essence of management?

a) Communication

b) Coordination c) Supervision

d) Leadership

Answer:  B

Question15: The following is not an objective of management

a) Earning profits

b) growth of the organisation

c) providing employment

d) policy making

Answer: D  

Question16: Mr. Gaurav is working as the Finance Manager of XYZ ltd. At what level of management is he working

  • a) Middle level
  • b) Lower Level
  • c) Top level
  • d) All the options

Answer: Middle level

Question17: Your uncle is serving as a foreman in a factory. At what level of management is he working

  • a) Lower Level
  • b) Middle level
  • c) Top level
  • d) All the options

Answer: Lower Level

Question18: Which force binds all other functions of management

  • a) Coordination
  • b) Production
  • c) Finance
  • d) Staffing

Answer: Coordination

Question19: Planning, Organising, Staffing, Directing and Controlling is the sequence of functions in a process, Name it.

  • a) Management
  • b) Production
  • c) Finance
  • d) Staffing

Answer: Management

Question20: Name the process that synchronises the activities of different departments.

  • a) Coordination
  • b) Staffing
  • c) Production
  • d) Finance

Answer: Coordination

Question21: Which is The reasons that bring out the importance or the necessity for coordination

  • a) All the options
  • b) Growth in the size
  • c) Functional Differentiation
  • d) Specialisation

Answer: All the options

Question22: In which level coordination in the activities of workers to ensure work progresses as per plans

  • a) Lower level
  • b) Middle level
  • c) Top level
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Lower level

Question23: In which level needs coordination to integrate activities of the organisation for accomplishing the organisational goals

  • a) Top level
  • b) Middle level
  • c) Lower level
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Top level

Question24: Which are the characteristics of coordination

  • a) All the options
  • b) Coordination integrates group efforts
  • c) Coordination ensures unity of action
  • d) Coordination is a continuous process

Answer: All the options

Question25: Lack of coordination results in

  • a) All the options
  • b) Overlapping
  • c) Duplication
  • d) Delay

Answer: All the options

Question26: The meaning of coordination is to balance its various activities are

  • a) All the options
  • b) Sale & Purchase
  • c) Production
  • d) Finance

Answer: All the options

Question27: Finding out deficiencies in implementation of plans, Identify the functions of this management

  • a) Controlling
  • b) Staffing
  • c) Directing
  • d) Co-Ordination

Answer: Controlling

Question28: Recruitment and selection of the personnel, Identify the functions of the management

  • a) Staffing
  • b) Directing
  • c) Controlling
  • d) Co-Ordination

Answer: Staffing

Question29: Motivating employees and giving instructions to them to perform the tasks assigned to them, Identify the functions of this management

  • a) Directing
  • b) Staffing
  • c) Controlling
  • d) Co-Ordination

Answer: Directing

Question30: Name the level at which the managers are responsible for implementing and controlling the plans and strategies of the organisation

  • a) Middle Level
  • b) Top Level
  • c) Lower Level
  • d) All the options

Answer: Middle Level

Question31: Rakesh is working as Regional Manager in ABC Ltd. Name the level at which he is working.

  • a) Middle Level
  • b) Top Level
  • c) Lower Level
  • d) All the options

Answer: Middle Level

Question32: Which are the objectives of management

  • a) All the options
  • b) Survival
  • c) Profit
  • d) Growth

Answer: All the options

Question33: In order to be successful an organisation must change its goals according to the needs of environment. Which characteristic of management is highlighted here

  • a) Dynamic
  • b) Intangible Force
  • c) Universal
  • d) All the options

Answer: Dynamic

Question34: An educational institution as well as a business organization both need to be managed. Which characteristic of management is highlighted here

  • a) Universal
  • b) Intangible Force
  • c) Dynamic
  • d) All the options

Answer: Universal

Question35: Management is multi-dimensional. Which is the dimensions of it

  • a) Work and People
  • b) Work
  • c) People
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Work and People

Question36: Managements main considerations are

  • a) Time and Cost
  • b) Time
  • c) Cost
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Time and Cost

Question37: Management can be defined as, the process of getting things done with the aim of achieving organizational goals

  • a) Effectiveness and Efficiency
  • b) Effectiveness
  • c) Efficiency
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Effectiveness and Efficiency

Question38: ______is needed at all levels of management and in all departments.

  • a) Co-Ordination
  • b) Cooperation
  • c) Staffing
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Co-Ordination

Question39: Reasons which clarify that management as a function is gaining importance day by day.

  • a) All the options
  • b) Multidisciplinary
  • c) Goal oriented
  • d) Dynamic function

Answer: All the options

Question40: Management is an activity conducted in a group through

  • a) All the options
  • b) Cooperation
  • c) Collaboration
  • d) Co-Ordination

Answer: All the options

Question41: At which level of management the managers are responsible for the welfare and survival of the organization?

  • a) Top management
  • b) Middle Level
  • c) Supervisory Level
  • d) All the options

Answer: Top management

Question42: Surya Enterprise Ltd. manufactures toys. The production department produces more of toys than required and sales department is not able to sell the total production. What quality of management do you think the company is lacking? 

  • a) Co-ordination.
  • b) Staffing
  • c) Controlling
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Co-ordination.

Question43: A petrol pump needs to be managed as much as a school or a hospital. Which Characteristic of management has been highlighted here?

  • a) Management is all pervasive.
  • b) Only School
  • c) Only Hospital
  • d) All the options

Answer: Management is all pervasive.

Question44: Which function of management is concerned with finding the right people for the right job?

  • a) Staffing
  • b) Planning
  • c) Controlling
  • d) Co-operating

Answer: Staffing

Question45: Name the process of designing and maintaining an environment in which individual working together in groups efficiently accomplish selected aims.

  • a) Management
  • b) Partnership
  • c) Consultancy
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Management

Question46: The task of management is to make people work towards achieving the organisations goals, by making their strengths effective and their weaknesses irrelevant. Which dimension of management is being referred here?

  • a) Management of People
  • b) Management of Work
  • c) Management of Operations
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Management of People

Question47: Coordination is the essence of management because

  • a) Coordination is a part of all management functions
  • b) Coordination is a part of Planning management functions
  • c) Coordination is a part of Staffing management functions
  • d) Coordination is a part of Controlling management functions

Answer: Coordination is a part of all management functions

Question48: Management is an Art because

  • a) Existence of theoretical Knowledge and Application of knowledge
  • b) Existence of theoretical Knowledge
  • c) Application of knowledge
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Existence of theoretical Knowledge and Application of knowledge

Question49: Management is a science because

  • a) Systematic body of Knowledge and Principles are based on repeated experiments
  • b) Systematic body of Knowledge
  • c) Principles are based on repeated experiments
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Systematic body of Knowledge and Principles are based on repeated experiments 

Question50: To meet the objectives of the firm the Management of ABC Ltd., offers employment to physically challenged person. Identify the organization and objective it is trying to achieve?

  • a) It is social objective
  • b) It is Profit objective
  • c) It is social objective and It is Profit objective
  • d) None of the options

Answer: It is social objective

Question51: Who is known as the Father of Modern Management Theory

  • a) Henry Fayol.
  • b) Stanley Vence
  • c) Peter F. Drucker
  • d) Bayard Wheeler

Answer: Henry Fayol.

Question52: Which function of management is bridges the gap between where we stand today and where we want to reach.

  • a) Planning
  • b) Efficiency
  • c) Co-Ordination
  • d) Staffing

Answer: Planning

Question53: Objectives of Management are______

  • a) All the options
  • b) Achieve maximum output with minimum efforts
  • c) Optimum use of resource
  • d) Maximum prosperity

Answer: All the options

Question54: Management is all pervasive because it is required

  • a) In all type of business
  • b) Only in Big Organisation
  • c) Only in Small Organisation
  • d) Only in Partnership business

Answer: In all type of business

Question55: Which force is consisted as the essence of management

  • a) Co-Ordination
  • b) Less Communication
  • c) Lack of Co-Ordination
  • d) All the options

Answer: Co-Ordination

Question56: Management is the process of conducting which set of function ____________

  • a) All the options
  • b) Planning
  • c) Organizing
  • d) Staffing

Answer: All the options

Question57: Management is considered an art due to

  • a) All the options
  • b) Existence of Theoretical Knowledge
  • c) Personalised Application
  • d) Based on Practice and Creativity

Answer: All the options

Question58: Where is need of Management

  • a) All the options
  • b) Top Level
  • c) Middle Level
  • d) Supervisory Level

Answer: All the options

Question59: What is the Scope of Management

  • a) All the options
  • b) Production Management
  • c) Financial Management
  • d) Office Management

Answer: All the options

Question60: What is the Nature of Management

  • a) All the options
  • b) Management is an Universal Process
  • c) Management is a profession
  • d) Management is an Acquired and inborn Quality

Answer: All the options

Question61: According to the nature of management, Management can be considered as

  • a) Science and Art Both
  • b) Only Science
  • c) Only Art
  • d) Neither a science nor an art

Answer: Science and Art Both

Question62: Management word uses as _____

  • a) A Process
  • b) A Subject
  • c) A Time Waste
  • d) All the options

Answer: A Process

Question63: Management is considered as a multi-faceted concept because it is a complex activity that has __________main dimensions.

  • a) 3
  • b) 2
  • c) 4
  • d) 5

Answer: 3

Question64: Management is a _______ Process

  • a) Goal Oriented
  • b) Target Oriented
  • c) Very Easy
  • d) All the options

Answer: Goal Oriented

Question65: What are the characteristics of Management

  • a) All the options
  • b) Management is a social process
  • c) Management is a purposeful process
  • d) Management is a Collective process

Answer: All the options

Question66: Rakesh is working as Regional Manager in ABC Ltd. Name the level at which he is working.

  • a) Middle Level
  • b) Top Level
  • c) Lower Level
  • d) All the options

Answer: Middle Level

Question67: Which is the Scope of Management

  • a) All the options
  • b) Production Management
  • c) Financial Management
  • d) Office Management

Answer: All the options

Question68: Management is both Science and Art. Science can be defined as _________

  • a) Systematised body of knowledge
  • b) Restricted Entry
  • c) How to apply knowledge
  • d) All the options

Answer: Systematised body of knowledge

Question69: Management is _________________

  • a) Multi Dimensional
  • b) Individual Activity
  • c) Not required in small business firms
  • d) Tangible force

Answer: Multi Dimensional

Question70: Organisational objective is not concerned with__________

  • a) Supply of quality goods
  • b) Survival
  • c) Profit
  • d) Growth

Answer: Supply of quality goods

Question71: Which is not a separate function of management out of the following

  • a) Cooperating
  • b) Planning
  • c) Controlling
  • d) Staffing

Answer: Cooperating

Question72: Why Management is considered as Multi dimensional function

  • a) All the options
  • b) Management of work
  • c) Management of People
  • d) Management of operation

Answer: All the options

Question73: Which are the functions performed by operational Level

  • a) All the options
  • b) Looking to safety of workers
  • c) To boost morale of workers.
  • d) Representing the problems of workers before the middle level management

Answer: All the options

Question74: Management is essential for successful running of an enterprise, How

  • a) All the options
  • b) Management increases efficiency
  • c) Ensures optimum utilization of resources
  • d) Management creates dynamic organization

Answer: All the options

Question75: Survival profit and growth are essential target of any business which objectives of management is referred here

  • a) Organizational objectives
  • b) Social objectives
  • c) Personal objectives
  • d) All the options

Answer: Organizational objectives

Question76: Superintendent are included at which level of management

  • a) Supervisory Level
  • b) Top level
  • c) Middle level
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Supervisory Level

Question77: Departmental managers are included at which level of management

  • a) Middle level
  • b) Top level
  • c) Lower level
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Middle level

Question78: In which functions of management, standards are compared with actual, deviations are find out and corrective steps are taken

  • a) Controlling
  • b) Production
  • c) Finance
  • d) Staffing

Answer: Controlling

Question79: Name the function of management which establishes organization structure and establishes authority and responsibility relations

  • a) Organizing
  • b) Finance
  • c) Staffing
  • d) Production

Answer: Organizing

Question80: Doing the task with minimum cost name the term associated with management

  • a) Efficiency
  • b) Staffing
  • c) Production
  • d) Finance

Answer: Efficiency

Question81: Which function of management bridges the gap between where we stand today and where we want to reach

  • a) Planning
  • b) Staffing
  • c) Coordination
  • d) Finance

Answer: Planning

 

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CHAPTER 5 : Dissolution of Partnership Firm NCERT MCQ CLASS 12TH ACCOUNTS | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON Dissolution of Partnership Firm:

Question1: Dissolution of the firm means

  • a) All of the options
  • b) Business of the firms ends
  • c) Assets Sold
  • d) Liabilities paid

Answer: All of the options

Question2: The modes by which a firm may be dissolved are

  • a) All of the options
  • b) By Mutual agreement
  • c) Compulsory Dissolution
  • d) By Notice

Answer: All of the options

Question3: Why is realisation account prepared

  • a) Closing the accounts
  • b) Opening the account
  • c) For profit sharing
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Closing the accounts

Question4: How will goodwill account appearing in the balance sheet be treated in case of dissolution of the firm

  • a) By transferring to realisation A/c (Dr. Side)
  • b) By transferring to realisation A/c (Cr. Side)
  • c) Both Side
  • d) None of the options

Answer: By transferring to realisation A/c (Dr. Side)

Question5: How will you treat accumulated profit/losses at the time of dissolution of the firm

  • a) Transferred to partners Capital A/C
  • b) Transferred to partners Capital A/C
  • c) Transferred to partners Salary A/C
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Transferred to partners Capital A/C

Question6: what will be the accounting treatment of balance of the realisation account

  • a) Transferred to partners Capital A/C in their profit sharing ratio
  • b) Transferred to partners Capital A/C in their old ratio
  • c) Transferred to partners Capital A/C in their new ratio
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Transferred to partners Capital A/C in their profit sharing ratio

Question7: At the time of dissolution of the firm , if goodwill appears in the balance sheet , it is transferred to

  • a) Realisation A/c
  • b) Revaluation A/c
  • c) Capital A/c
  • d) Current Account

Answer: Realisation A/c

Question8: At the time of dissolution of the firm , the assets and liabilities appearing in the balance sheet are transferred to

  • a) Realisation A/c
  • b) Real Account
  • c) Capital A/c
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Realisation A/c

Question9: at the time of dissolution of firm, loan from partner is

  • a) Not transferred to realisation A/c
  • b) Transferred to realisation A/transferred to partners capital A/c
  • c) None of the options

Answer: Not transferred to realisation A/c

Question10: Where it is agreed that a partner will be paid a lump sum amount for dissolution, if the payment is made by the firm, the payment is debited to

  • a) Concerned partners capital Account
  • b) Realisation Account
  • c) All the partners capital Account
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Concerned partners capital Account

Question11: Unrecorded assets when realised is credit to

  • a) Realisation A/c
  • b) Partners capital A/c
  • c) Current Account
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Realisation A/c

Question12: Unrecorded Liabilities when paid are debited to

  • a) Realisation A/c
  • b) Partners capital A/c
  • c) Current Account
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Realisation A/c

Question13: Why a new partner is admitted in the firm?

  • a) For Increase the Capital of the firm.
  • b) For Increase the Number of partners
  • c) For Increase the Profit sharing Ratio
  • d) None of the options

Answer: For Increase the Capital of the firm.

Question14: Which is the main right of a partner?

  • a) Share the Profits of the firm.
  • b) Stop other partners for drawings
  • c) Share the old profits of the firm
  • d) All of the options

Answer: Share the Profits of the firm.

Question15: According to Section 30 of Partnership Act 1932:

  • a) A Minor can be admitted as a partner by the consent of all partners for the time being.
  • b) New partner will bring capital and goodwill in cash
  • c) New partner will inspect the books of accounts
  • d) New partner is allowed to share old profits

Answer: A Minor can be admitted as a partner by the consent of all partners for the time being.

Question16: The incoming partner cannot acquire his share of profits :

  • a) From the old partners in their new profit sharing ratio
  • b) From the old partners in their old profit sharing ratio
  • c) From one or more partners (not from all partners)
  • d) From the old partners in some agreed ratio

Answer: From the old partners in their new profit sharing ratio

Question17: At the time of admission of a new partner, the new partner acquires his share from the old partners in the:

  • a) Sacrificing ratio
  • b) New Ratio
  • c) New Ratio
  • d) Old ratio

Answer: Sacrificing ratio

Question18: Sacrifice ratio is used only for

  • a) Distribution of Premium for goodwill
  • b) Revaluation profit
  • c) Distribution of Reserve
  • d) Revaluation of Assets

Answer: Distribution of Premium for goodwill

Question19: Section ____ of the Indian Partnership Act provides that a new partner shall not be inducted into a firm without the consent of all existing partners

  • a) 31
  • b) 35
  • c) 40
  • d) 45

Answer: 31

Question20: When a new partner is admitted he acquires his share of profits from the old partners , this will ____ the old partners shares in profits:

  • a) Reduce
  • b) Remain same
  • c) No change
  • d) Decrease

Answer: Reduce

Question21: Is admission of a new partner a reconstitution of partnership firm:

  • a) Yes
  • b) It is dissolution of firm
  • c) It is called merger
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Yes

Question22: Why new profit ratio is determined even for old partners?

  • a) Change in the agreement among all partners
  • b) No change in agreement
  • c) Due to change in external environment
  • d) All of the options

Answer: Change in the agreement among all partners

Question23: Sacrificing ratio is calculated for

  • a) old partners
  • b) new partners
  • c) all partners (including new)
  • d) None of the options

Answer: old partners

Question24: Revaluation Account is also known as ________

  • a) Profit and Loss Adjustment Account
  • b) Asset Account
  • c) Profit and Loss Account
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Profit and Loss Adjustment Account

Question25: At the time of increase in the value of assets which account should be debited while preparing Revaluation Account?

  • a) Asset A/c
  • b) Partners Capital A/c
  • c) Revaluation Account
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Asset A/c

Question26: Revaluation account is not prepared at the time of _________________

  • a) Dissolution
  • b) Admission
  • c) Retirement
  • d) All of the options

Answer: Dissolution

Question27: Which of the following is calculated at the time of Retirement of a Partner?

  • a) Gaining Ratio
  • b) Old Ratio
  • c) Profit Sharing ratio
  • d) All of the options

Answer: Gaining Ratio

Question28: When the New ratio is deducted with Old Ratio we get:

  • a) Gaining Ratio
  • b) Sacrifice only
  • c) Profit Sharing ratio
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Gaining Ratio

Question29: Gaining Ratio is Applicable for:

  • a) Retiring partners share of goodwill only
  • b) For the distribution of Reserves and profits
  • c) For the Calculation of profit
  • d) For Revaluation

Answer: Retiring partners share of goodwill only

Question30: Gaining ratio is the ratio in which continuing partners have ______ the share from the outgoing partner

  • a) Acquired
  • b) Sacrificed
  • c) Both Acquired and Sacrificed
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Acquired

Question31: Why there is need to calculate New profit share ratio

  • a) After retirement of a partner, there will be change in the continuing partners ratio.
  • b) After retirement of a partner, there is no change in the continuing partners ratio.
  • c) To settle the loan amount due to outgoing partner
  • d) All of the options

Answer: After retirement of a partner, there will be change in the continuing partners ratio.

Question32: Except outgoing partner, which other partner can be credited at the time of settlement of goodwill amount?

  • a) Sacrificing partner
  • b) Gaining partner
  • c) All the partners
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Sacrificing partner

Question33: Retirement or death of a partner will create a situation for the continuing partners, which is known as:

  • a) Reconstitution of Firm
  • b) Dissolution of firm
  • c) Amalgamation
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Reconstitution of Firm

Question34: New Ratio Old Ratio is called

  • a) Gaining Ratio
  • b) Profit Sharing ratio
  • c) Sacrificing ratio
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Gaining Ratio

Question35: How sacrificing ratio is differ from gaining ratio on the basis of mode of calculation

  • a) calculated by taking difference between old and new ratio
  • b) calculated by taking difference between new and old ratio
  • c) calculated by taking difference between old and gaining ratio
  • d) None of the options

Answer: calculated by taking difference between old and new ratio

Question36: Which of the following is effect of the retirement of a partner?

  • a) share of remaining partners increases
  • b) share of remaining partners remains same
  • c) share of remaining partners decreases
  • d) All of the options

Answer: share of remaining partners increases

Question37: Only in Balance Sheet At the time of retirement of a partner, general reserve given in the balance sheet should be credited to all the partners (including outgoing partner) in their old profit sharing ratio.

  • a) Credit side of Capital account of all the partners
  • b) Debit side of Capital account of all the partners
  • c) Both
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Credit side of Capital account of all the partners

Question38: Which of the following is prepared at the time of retirement of a partner?

  • a) Revaluation Account
  • b) Profit and Loss Suspense Account
  • c) Both
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Revaluation Account

Question39: Which of the following item is not shown in the credit side of deceased partners capital account?

  • a) Share of loss
  • b) Share of profit
  • c) Revaluation profit
  • d) All of the options

Answer: Share of loss

Question40: Bad debts recovered will be recorded in:

  • a) Cr. Side of revaluation account
  • b) Dr. Side of revaluation account
  • c) Both
  • d) None of the options

Answer: Cr. Side of revaluation account

Question41: At the time of dissolution of firm, “Loan of partners” (Loans given by partners to the firm) is paid out of the amount realised on sale of assets :

a) After making the payment of loans given by third party

b) After making the payment of balance of Capital Accounts of partners

c) After making the payment of above a) and b)

d) Before the payment of loans given by third party

Answer: A

Question42: At the time of dissolution of firm, at which stage the balance of partner’s capital accounts is paid?

a) After making the payment to third party’s loans

b) Before making the payment of partners in respect of their loans

c) After making the payment to third party for their loans as well as partners loans

d) None of the above.

 Answer: C

Question43: On firm’s dissolution, which one of the following account should be prepared at the last?

a) Realisation Account

b) Partner’s Capital Accounts

c) Cash Account

d) Partner’s Loan Account

Answer: C

Question44: On dissolution of a firm, a partner paid Rs.700 for firm’s realisation expenses. Which account will be debited?

a) Cash Account

b) Realisation Account

c) Capital Account of the Partner

d) Profit & Loss A/c

 Answer: B

Question45: On taking responsibility of payment of realisation expenses by a partner, the account credited will be :

a) Realisation Account

b) Cash Account

c) Capital Account of the Partnei

d) None of the Above

Answer: C

Question46: On dissolution of firm, loss calculate in realisation account is debited/credited to which account?

a) Cash Account (Credit)

b) Partners’ Capital Accounts (Debit)

c) Partners’ Capital Accounts (Credit)

d) Realisation Account (Debit)

Answer: B

Question47: On dissolution of a firm, an unrecorded furniture of the value of Rs.5,000 was taken up by a partner for Rs.4,300. Which Account will be credited and by how much amount? :

a) Cash Account by Rs.4,300

b) Realisation Account by Rs.700

c) Partner’s Capital Account by Rs.5,000

d) Realisation Account by Rs.4,300

 Answer: D

Question48: On the basis of following data, final payment to a partner on firm’s dissolution will be made :

Debit balance of Capital Account Rs. 14,000; Share of his profit on realisation Rs.43,000; Firm’s asset taken over by him for Rs. 17,000.

a) Rs.31,000

b) Rs.29,000

c) Rs. 12,000

d) Rs.60,000

Answer: C

Question49: On payment of expenses of dissolution, account will be debited :

a) Realisation Account

b) Cash Account

c) Profit & Loss Account

d) None of the Above

Answer: A

Question50: Investments valued Rs.2,00,000 were not shown in the books. One of the creditors took over these investments in full satisfaction of his debt of Rs.2,20,000. How much amount will be deducted from creditors?

a) Rs.20,000

b) Rs.2,20,000

c) Rs.4,20,000

d) Rs.2,00,000

Answer: B

Question:51 If creditors are Rs.25,000, capital is X 1,50,000 and cash balance is X 10,000, what will be the amount of sundry assets?

a) Rs. 1,75,000

b) X 1,85,000

c) X 1,65,000

d) X 1,40,000

Answer: C

Question52: If opening capitals of partners are A Rs.3,00,000, B Rs.2,00,000 and C Rs.1,00,000 and their drawings during the year are A Rs. 50,000, B Rs.40,000 and C Rs. 30,000 and creditors are Rs.60,000, what will be the amount of assets of the firm?

a) Rs.5,40,000

b) Rs.4,20,000

c) Rs.4,80,000

d) Rs.6,60,000

Answer: A

Question53: On dissolution of a firm, firm’s Balance Sheet total is Rs.77,000. On the assets side of the Balance Sheet items were shown preliminary expenses Rs.2,000; Profit & Loss Account (Debit) Balance Rs.4,000 and Cash Balance Rs. 1,800. Loss on realisation was Rs.6,300. Total assets (including cash balance) realised will be :

a) Rs.69,200

b) Rs.71,000

c) Rs.64,700

d) Rs.62,900

Answer: C

Question54: On dissolution of a firm, partners’ capital accounts balance was Rs.63,000; creditors balance was Rs. 12,000 and profit & loss account debit balance was Rs.6,000. Profit on realisation of assets was Rs.7,800. Total amount realised from assets was:

a) Rs.81,000

b) Rs.76,800

c) Rs.70,800

d) None

Answer: B

Question55: On dissolution of a firm, a partner took-over the investments of Rs. 15,000 at Rs. 19,000. By how much amount the Realisation Account will be credited?

a) Rs.4,000

b) Rs. 19,000

c) Nil

d) Rs.23,000

Answer: B

Question56: Anu, Bina and Charan are partners. The firm had given a loan of Rs. 20,000 to Bina. They decided to dissolve the firm. In the event of dissolution, the loan will be settled by

a) transferring it to debit side of Realisation Account.

b) transferring it to credit side of Realisation Account.

c) transferring it to debit side of Bina’s Capital Account.

d) Bina paying Anu and Charan privately.

Answer: C

Question57: Rohit, a partner is to carry out dissolution and he gets Rs. 50,000 as remuneration. Realisation Expenses were Rs. 25,000. Realisation Account will be debited with

a) Rs. 50,000.

b) Rs. 75,000.

c) Rs. 25,000.

d) Rs. 1,00,000.

Answer: B

Question58: The firm paid realisation expenses of Rs. 10,000 on behalf of Nihar,a partner with whom it was agreed at Rs. 25,000. Realisation Expenses came to Rs. 35,000. Realisation Account will be debited by

a) Rs. 10,000.

b) Rs. 35,000.

c) Rs. 25,000.

d) Rs. 70,000.

Answer: C

Question59: Amount received from sale of unrecorded asset at the time of dissolution ofthe firm is credited to

a) Partners’ Capital Accounts.

b) Profit and Loss Account.

c) Realisation Account.

d) Cash Account.

Answer: C

Question60: On dissolution, Goodwill Account is transferred to

a) In the Capital Accounts of Partners.

b) On the Credit of Cash Account.

c) On the Debit of Realisation Account

d) On the Credit of Realisation Account.

Answer: C

Question61: At the time of dissolution of partnership firm, Deferred Revenue Expenditure (Advertisement Expenditure) is transferred to

a) Capital Accounts of Partners.

b) Realisation Account.

c) Cash Account.

d) Loan by Partner Account.

Answer: A

Question62: Court can make an order to dissolve the firm when :

a) Some partner has become fully mad

b) Partnership deed is fully followed

c) Continued future profits are expected

d) Firm is running legal business

Answer: A

Question63: On dissolution of a firm, realisation account is debited with

a) All assets to be realised

b) All outside liabilities of the firm

c) Cash received on sale of assets

d) Any asset taken over by one of the partners

 Answer: A

Question64: On dissolution of a firm, out of the proceeds received from the sale of assets ………… wiltjbe paid first of all

a) Partner’s Capital

b) Partner’s Loan to Firm

c) Partner’s additional capital

d) Outside Creditors

Answer: D

Question65: On firm’s dissolution, on realisation of goodwill (which was shown in Balance Sheet) will be credited to :

a) Cash A/c

b) Realisation A/c

c) Profit & Loss A/c

d) None of the A/c

Answer: B

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