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Chapter 1 Power Sharing Class 10 MCQs Question| NCERT Social-Science Chapter-1 – Edu grown

Question 1.
Tyranny of the majority is not just oppressive for the minority; it often brings ruin to:
(a) The minority as well
(b) The country as well
(c) Majority as well
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Majority as well
Tyranny brings ruin to the majority as well.

Question 2.
Power sharing is good because it helps to:
(a) Increase the possibility of conflict between social groups
(b) Reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups
(c) Share the powers between the social groups
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) Reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups
Power sharing helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.

Question 3.
A legitimate government is one where citizens:
(a) Through participation, acquire a stake in the system
(b) Through roles, acquire a stake in the system
(c) Without participation, acquire a stake in the system
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (a) Through participation, acquire a stake in the system
A legitimate government is one where citizens through participation, acquire a stake in the system.

Question 4.
One basic principle of democracy is that people:
(a) Can enjoy all the powers
(b) Can not enjoy all the powers
(c) Are the source of all political power
(d) Are not the source of all political power

Answer
Answer: (c) Are the source of all political power
In democracy, people are the source of all political power.

Question 5.
In a good democratic government:
(a) Due respect is not given to diverse groups
(b) Due respect is given to ministers only
(c) Due respect is given to diverse groups and views
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Due respect is given to diverse groups and views
In a good democratic government due respect is given to diverse groups and views.

Question 6.
In a democracy political power should be distributed among:
(а) As many ministers as possible
(b) As many citizens as possible
(c) As many women as possible
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) As many citizens as possible
In a democracy, political power should be distributed among as many citizens as possible.

Question 7.
Judges can cheek the functioning of laws made by the:
(a) Judiciary
(b) Executive
(c) Legislature
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Legislature
Judges can check the functioning of laws made by the legislature.

Question 8.
A general government for the entire country is called:
(a) General government
(b) Central government
(c) State.government
(d) Federal government

Answer
Answer: (d) Federal government
A general government for the entire country is called federal government.

Question 9.
The governments at the provincial jor regional level, in India, are called:
(а) Zila parishad
(b) Gram parishad
(c) Central government
(d) State government

Answer
Answer: (d) State government
In India governments at the provincial or regional level is called state government.

Question 10.
‘Community government’ exists in:
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Germany
(c) USA
(d) Belgium

Answer
Answer: (d) Belgium
‘Community government’ is the third government that exists in Belgium.

Question 11.
In a democracy, the citizens must have freedom:
(а) To choose their rights
(b) To choose among various contenders for power
(c) Not to vote
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) To choose among various contenders for power
In a democracy, the citizens must have freedom to choose among various contenders for power.

Question 12.
Power is shared among different political parties that represent :
(a) Different candidates
(b) Same ideologies
(c) Different ideologies and social groups
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Different ideologies and social groups
Power is shared among different political parties that represent different ideologies and social groups.

Question 13.
The government of Ontario State in Canada has agreed to a land claim settlement with the:
(a) Buddhists
(b) Social groups
(c) Aboriginal community
(d) Minority community

Answer
Answer: (c) Aboriginal community
The government of Ontario State has agreed with the aboriginal community.

Question 14.
The Bombay high count ordered the Maharashtra state government to immediately take action and improve living conditions for the
(а) 3000-odd women at seven women’s homes in Mumbai
(b) 2000-odd children at six childen’s homes in Mumbai
(c) 2000-odd children at seven children’s homes in Mumbai
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) 2000-odd children at seven children’s homes in Mumbai
The Bombay high court has ordered the Maharashtra state government to improve living conditions of the 2000-odd children at seven children’s homes in Mumbai.

Question 15.
Belgium has borders with:
(а) USA, Germany, Netherlands and France
(b) Russia, Germany, Netherlands and Luxembourg
(c) Canada, USA, Russia and Luxembourg
(d) France, Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg

Answer
Answer: (d) France, Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg
Belgium has borders with France, Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg.

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Chapter 5 Consumer Rights Class 10 MCQs | NCERT Social-Science Chapter-5 – Edu grown

Question 1.
Recently, India has witnessed an upsurge in the number of:
(а) Political parties
(b) Political leaders
(c) Consumer rights
(d) Consumer groups

Answer
Answer: (d) Consumer groups
It was consumer groups.

Question 2.
In which of the following years did United Nations adopt the UN Guide-lines for Consumer Protection:
(a) 1965
(b) 1975
(c) 1985
(d) 1995

Answer
Answer: (c) 1985
In the year 1985.

Question 3.
The Consumer International has 240 organisations from how many of the given counties:
(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 300
(d) 400

Answer
Answer: (a) 100
In 100 countries.

Question 4.
COPRA was enacted in which of the following years the year:
(a) 1956
(b) 1966
(c) 1976
(d) 1986

Answer
Answer: (d) 1986
It was enacted in 1986.

Question 5.
The Consumer Protection Act is popularly known as:
(a) COPRA
(b) CORPA
(c) CORAP
(d) COPAR

Answer
Answer: (a) COPRA
It is known as COPRA.

Question 6.
The full form of RTI is:
(a) Right to Information
(b) Right to be Informed
(c) Right to Identity
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (a) Right to Information
It is Right to Information.

Question 7.
The full form of MRP is:
(a) Maximum retail price
(b) Maximum retail price
(c) Maximum return price
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (a) Maximum retail price
It is Maximum retail price.

Question 8.
Which of the following are rights of the consumer:
(а) To be informed
(b) To choose
(c) To seek redressal
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (d) All the above
All the above are rights of consumers.

Question 9.
The consumers have the right to seek redressal against:
(a) Fair trade practices and exploitation
(b) Unfair trade practices and exploitation
(c) Quality and quantity
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) Unfair trade practices and exploitation
It is always against unfair trade practices and exploitation.

Question 10.
Locally formed consumers organisations are known as:
(a) Consumer forums
(b) Consumer protection councils
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)
They are known as consumer forums or consumer protection councils.

Question 11.
RWA stands for:
(а) Railway Welfare Association
(b) Rapid Welfare Association
(c) Resident Welfare Association
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Resident Welfare Association
It stands for Resident Welfare Association.

Question 12.
The district level courts deal with the cases involving claims upto:
(a) Rs 10 lakhs
(b) Rs. 15 lakhs
(c) Rs. 20 lakhs
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Rs. 20 lakhs
They deal upto 20 lakhs.

Question 13.
The state level courts deal with the cases involving claims between:
(a) Rs. 10 lakhs and Rs. 1 crore
(b) Rs. 15 lakhs and Rs. 1 crore
(c) Rs. 20 lakhs and Rs. 1 crore
(d) Rs. 25 lakhs and Rs. 1 crore

Answer
Answer: (c) Rs. 20 lakhs and Rs. 1 crore
They deal upto Rs. 20 lakhs and Rs. 1 crore.

Question 14.
The national level courts deal with the cases involving claims exceeding:
(a) 1 crore
(b) 2 crores
(c) 2 crores
(d) 4 crores

Answer
Answer: (a) 1 crore
They deal exceeding 1 crore.

Question 15.
Today, there are more than consumer groups in the country:
(a) 400
(b) 500
(c) 600
(d) 700

Answer
Answer: (d) 700
There are more than 700 consumer groups in the country.

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Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy Class 10 MCQs | NCERT Social-Science Chapter-4 – Edu grown

Question 1.
Foreign trade results in connecting the markets or integration of markets:
(а) In same countries
(b) In different countries
(c) In friendly countries
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) In different countries
Foreign trade results in connecting the markets or integration of markets in different countries.

Question 2.
Foreign investments by MNCs in many countries have:
(a) been rising
(b) been decreasing
(c) remained the same
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (a) been rising
It has been rising.

Question 3.
A large part of the foreign trade is also controlled by:
(a) The government
(b) By MNCs
(c) The people
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) By MNCs
It is controlled by MNCs

Question 4.
Activities of most MNCs involve:
(a) goods and raw materials
(b) substantial goods and trade
(c) substantial trade in goods and services
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) substantial trade in goods and services
Activities of most MNCs involve substantial trade in goods and services.

Question 5.
MNCs are playing a major role in:
(a) Production of goods
(b) Increasing investment
(c) Providing employment
(d) The globalisation process

Answer
Answer: (d) The globalisation process
MNCs are playing a major role in the globalisation process.

Question 6.
More regions of the world are in closer contact with each other:
(a) Than a few years back
(b) Than a few days back
(c) Than a few centuries back
(d) Than a few decades back

Answer
Answer: (d) Than a few decades back

Question 7.
Tele communication facilities have been facilitated by:
(а) Remote connection devices
(b) Remote communication devices
(c) Satellite communication devices
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Satellite
communication devices
It has been facilitated by satellite communication devices.

Question 8.
Information and communication technology has played a major role in spreading out:
(a) Production of goods across countries
(b) Production of raw materials across countries
(c) Production of services across countries
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Production of services across countries
It has helped production of services across countries.

Question 9.
Tax on imports is an example of:
(а) Tax barrier
(b) Export barrier
(c) Import barrier
(d) Trade barrier

Answer
Answer: (d) Trade barrier
It is an example of trade barriers.

Question 10.
The Indian government, after independence, had put barriers to:
(a) MNCs
(b) Import and export
(c) Foreign trade and foreign investment
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (d) None of the above
It has put trade barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment.

Question 11.
Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is known as:
(a) Globalisation
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Free trade
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (b) Liberalisation
It is known as liberalisation.

Question 12.
The number of countries that are currently members of the WTO are:
(a) 119
(b) 129
(c) 139
(d) 149

Answer
Answer: (d) 149

Question 13.
WTO rules have forced the developing countries to remove:
(a) Export
(b) Import
(c) Trade
(d) Trade barriers

Answer
Answer: (d) Trade barriers
WTO has forced developing countries to remove trade barriers.

Question 14.
Among producers and workers the impact of globalisation has:
(а) Been uniform
(b) Been mixed
(c) Not been uniform
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Not been uniform
It has not been uniform.

Question 15.
Fair globalisation would create opportunities for all, and also ensure that the benefits of globalisation are:
(a) Shared between the rich
(b) Shared between the poor
(c) Shared between the rich and poor
(d) Shared better

Answer
Answer: (d) Shared better
The benefits of globalisation are shared better.

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Chapter 3 Money and Credit Class 10 MCQs | NCERT Social-Science Chapter-3 – Edu grown

Question 1.
Farmers usually take crop loans at the beginning of the season and repay the loan after:
(a) Sowing
(b) Tilling
(c) Harvesting
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Harvesting
After harvesting.

Question 2.
Credit sometimes, pushes the borrower to a situation from which recovery is:
(а) Easy
(b) Hard
(c) Very painful
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Very painful
To a condition which is very painful.

Question 3.
Sometimes lenders demand against loan:
(a) Payment
(b) Cheque
(c) Draft
(d) Collateral

Answer
Answer: (d) Collateral
Collateral is the security which lenders demand against loans.

Question 4.
Interest rate, security and documentation requirement, and the mode of repayment together comprise what is called the:
(a) Loan factor
(b) Credit factor
(c) Terms of loan
(d) Terms of credit

Answer
Answer: (d) Terms of credit
All are terms of credit.

Question 5.
Loans from banks and cooperatives are called:
(a) Mixed loans
(b) Term loans
(c) Formal loans
(d) Informal loan

Answer
Answer: (c) Formal loans
They are called formal loans.

Question 6.
Loans from moneylenders, traders, employers, relatives and friends are called:
(а) Mixed loans
(b) Term loans
(c) Formal loans
(d) Informal loans

Answer
Answer: (d) Informal loans
They are called informal loans.

Question 7.
The RBI monitors the banks are actually maintaining:
(а) Cash books
(b) Cash balance
(c) Cash register
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) Cash balance
The RBI monitors the banks are actually maintaining cash balance.

Question 8.
Most of the informal lenders charge:
(a) A less interest on loans
(b) A much higher interest on loans
(c) Can be both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) A much higher interest on loans
Most of the informal lenders charge a much higher interest on loans.

Question 9.
The rich households are availing cheap credit from formal lenders whereas the poor households:
(a) Do not get a loan
(b) Get loan at a much less interest
(c) Have to pay a heavy price for borrowing
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Have to pay a heavy price for borrowing
The poor households do not have papers and thus, have to pay a heavy price for borrowing.

Question 10.
Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for:
(а) The development of urban areas
(b) The development of rural areas
(c) The country’s development
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (c) The country’s development
For the country’s development.

Question 11.
About 85 percent of the loans taken by poor households in the urban areas are from:
(a) Formal sources
(b) Informal sources
(c) Mixed sources
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) Informal sources
Are from informal sources, because they do not have the required documents.

Question 12.
Most loans from informal lenders carry a very high interest rate and do little to:
(a) Do anything for the poor
(b) Pay the loans
(c) Increase the income of the borrowers
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Increase the income of the borrowers
Loans from informal lenders do a little to increase the income of the borrowers because their rates are high.

Question 13.
It is important that the formal credit is distributed more equally so that:
(a) The rich can benefit from the cheaper loans
(b) The poor can benefit from the cheaper loans
(c) The women can benefit from the cheaper loans
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) The poor can benefit from the cheaper loans
So that the poor people can benefit from the cheaper loans.

Question 14.
The full form of SHG is:
(а) Station House Guard
(b) State Housing Guarantee
(c) Self Happy Groups
(d) Self Help Groups

Answer
Answer: (d) Self Help Groups
It is Self Help Groups.

Question 15.
The SHGs help borrowers overcome the problem of:
(а) Lack of funds
(b) Lack of money
(c) Lack of collateral
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Lack of collateral
The SHGs help borrowers overcome the problem of lack of collateral.

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Chapter 2 Sectors of the Indian Economy Class 10 MCQs | NCERT Social-Science Chapter-2- Edu grown

Question 1.
Which among the following was the largest employer in the year 2003:
(а) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (а) Primary sector
The primary sector.

Question 2.
More than half of the workers in the country are working in which of the primary sectors:
(а) Fishing
(b) Agriculture
(c) Basket making
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) Agriculture
Mainly in agriculture.

Question 3.
Workers in agricultural sector are:
(a) Over employed
(b) Less employed
(c) More employed
(d) Under employed

Answer
Answer: (d) Under employed
Since labour is vast, workers in agricultural sector are under-employed.

Question 4.
What is hidden under employment called:
(а) Hidden employment
(b) Open employment
(c) Disguised employment
(d) Visible employment

Answer
Answer: (c) Disguised employment
It is called disguised employment.

Question 5.
The full form of NREGA is:
(a) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(b) National Rural Employed Goods Act
(c) Natural Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (a) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
It is National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.

Question 6.
Under NREGA 2005, all those who are able to, and are in need of work have been guaranteed:
(a) 200 days employment in a year by the government
(b) 150 days employment in a year by the government
(c) 100 days employment in a year by the government
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) 100 days employment in a year by the government
100 days employment in a year is guaranteed by the government.

Question 7.
The sector which is characterised by small and scattered units largely outside the control of the government is called:
(a) Organised sector
(b) Fixed sector
(c) Temporary sector
(d) Unorganised sector

Answer
Answer: (d) Unorganised sector
It is called unorganised sector.

Question 8.
The sector which includes a large number of people was are employed on their own doing small jobs such as selling on the street or doing repair work is referred to as:
(a) Service sector
(b) Organised sector
(c) Unorganised sector
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Unorganised sector
It is the unorganised sector.

Question 9.
Since the 1990’s, it is common to see a large number of workers losing their jobs in the:
(a) Service sector
(b) Organised sector
(c) Unorganised sector
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) Organised sector
In the organised sector.

Question 10.
Protection and support to the unorganised sector workers is necessary for both:
(a) Rural and urban areas
(b) Economic and political development
(c) Social and political development
(d) Economic and social development

Answer
Answer: (d) Economic and social development
It is beneficial for both economic and social development.

Question 11.
The sector in which the government owns most of the assets and provides all the services is called:
(a) Public sector
(b) Private sector
(c) Mixed sector
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (a) Public sector
It is called public sector.

Question 12.
The sector in which the ownership of assets and delivery of services is in the hands of individuals is called:
(а) Private sector
(b) Public sector
(c) Secondary sector
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (а) Private sector
It is called private sector.

Question 13.
Railways, and Post office, are examples of:
(a) Public sector
(b) Private sector
(c) Mixed sector
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (a) Public sector
They are government owned and thus are examples of public sector.

Question 14.
Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited, Reliance Industries Limited are examples of:
(a) Public sector
(b) Private sector
(c) Mixed sector
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (b) Private sector
They are owned by individuals and thus are examples of private sector undertaking.

Question 15.
The purpose of the public sector is:
(a) To earn profits
(b) Not just to earn profits
(c) To run the government
(d) To provide employment

Answer
Answer: (b) Not just to earn profits
The purpose of the public sector is not just to earn profit.

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Chapter 1 Development Class 10 MCQs | NCERT Social-Science Chapter-1 – Edu grown

Question 1.
Countries with per capita income of Rs. 37,000 or less are called:
(а) Rich countries
(b) Poor countries
(c) Low income countries
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Low income countries
Such countries are called low-income countries.

Question 2.
The average income is also called:
(a) Per capita profit
(b) Per capita income
(c) Limited income
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) Per capita income
It is called per capita income.

Question 3.
If per capita income were to be used as the measure of development, Punjab will be considered the most developed and which of the states the least developed:
(a) West-Bengal
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Haryana
(d) Bihar

Answer
Answer: (d) Bihar
Bihar is the least developed state.

Question 4.
Money cannot buy a:
(a) Pollution-free environment
(b) Unadulterated medicines
(c) Life without worries
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (d) All the above
Money cannot buy all the above factors.

Question 5.
Kerala has a low Infant Mortality Rate because it has:
(a) Surplus money
(b) Pollution free environment
(c) Basic health and educational facilities
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Basic health and educational facilities
Kerala has low Infant Mortality Rate because of basic health and educational facilities.

Question 6.
Literary rate for rural women population in UP is:
(a) 18%
(b) 19%
(c) 20%
(d) 21%

Answer
Answer: (b) 19%
It is 19%.

Question 7.
The percentage of rural children aged 10-14 years attending school in UP is:
(a) 21%
(b) 23%
(c) 27%
(d) 31%

Answer
Answer: (d) 31%
It is 31%.

Question 8.
The Human Development Report compares countries on the basis of:
(a) The educational levels of the people
(b) Health status of the people
(c) Per capita income of the people
(d) All the above factors

Answer
Answer: (d) All the above factors
The Human Development Report compares countries based on all the above factors.

Question 9.
The per capita income of Sri Lanka in US $ is:
(a) 102.7
(b) 222.5
(c) 149.0
(d) 439.0

Answer
Answer: (d) 439.0
It is 439.0$.

Question 10.
The per capita income of India in US $ is:
(a) 313.9
(b) 222.5
(c) 149.0
(d) 439.0

Answer
Answer: (a) 313.9
It is 313.9$.

Question 11.
Gross Enrolment Ratio for three levels means:
(a) Enrolment ratio for primary school, middle school and higher education
(b) Middle school, secondary school and colleges
(c) Primary school, secondary school and higher education
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Primary school, secondary school and higher education
Gross Enrolment Ratio for three levels means primary school, secondary school and higher education.

Question 12.
The per capita income for all countries is calculated in:
(a) Pounds
(b) Shillings
(c) Rupee
(d) Dollars

Answer
Answer: (d) Dollars
It is calculated in dollars.

Question 13.
Life expectancy at birth denotes:
(а) Average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth
(b) Average expected length of life of a person at the time of death
(c) Average expected length of life of a child at the time of birth
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (а) Average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth
It denotes average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth.

Question 14.
HDI stands for :
(а) Heavy Developed Industry
(b) Human Development Index
(c) Heavy Developed Infrastructure
(d) Heavy Industries Development

Answer
Answer: (b) Human Development Index
HDI stands for Human Development Index.

Question 15.
Nepal has half the per capita income of India, yet it is not far behind India in:
(а) Literacy rate
(b) Gross enrolment-ratio
(c) Life expectancy and literacy levels
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Life expectancy and literacy levels
Nepal is not for behind India in life expectancy and literacy levels.

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Chapter 7 Life Lines of National Economy Class 10 MCQs | NCERT Social- Science Chapter-7- Edu grown

Question 1.
Narrow Gauge has a width of:
(а) 0.662 and 0.610
(b) 0.552 and 0.510
(c) 0.762 and 0.610
(d) 0.452 and 0.510

Answer
Answer: (c) 0.762 and 0.610
It is from 0.762 and 0.610.

Question 2.
The Indian Railway is now reorganised into:
(a) 14 zones
(b) 15 zones
(c) 16 zones
(d) 17 zones

Answer
Answer: (c) 16 zones
The Indian Railways is now reorganised into 16 zones.

Question 3.
Which of the following is a factor in influencing the distribution pattern of the Railway network in the country.
(а) Physiography
(b) Economic
(c) Administrative
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (d) All the above
It has been influenced by all the above factors.

Question 4.
Solids can also be transported through a pipeline when converted into:
(а) Liquid
(b) Gas
(c) Slurry
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Administrative
In slurry form solids can also be transported through a pipeline.

Question 5.
The Gas pipeline from Hazira in Gujarat connects Jagdishpur in Uttar Pradesh, via Vijaipur in:
(a) Bihar
(b) Orissa
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Answer
Answer: (d) Madhya Pradesh
Via Vijaipur in Madhya Pradesh.

Question 6.
India has inland navigation waterways of …………………………… km in length.
(a) 14,500
(b) 15,500
(c) 16,500
(d) 17,500

Answer
Answer: (a) 14,500
It has 14,500 km in length navigable waterways.

Question 7.
95 percent of the country’s trade volume is moved by:
(a) Air
(b) Planes
(c) Ships
(d) Sea

Answer
Answer: (d) Sea
It is moved by sea.

Question 8.
The first port developed to ease the volume of trade on the Mumbai port:
(а) Jawaharlal Nehru Port
(b) Haldia port
(c) Mumbai port
(d) Kandla

Answer
Answer: (d) Kandla
It was Kandla port.

Question 9.
New Mangalore port in Karnataka eaters to the export of iron ore concentrates from which of following mines:
(a) Balaghat
(b) Kudremukh
(c) Kolapur
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) Kudremukh
From Kudremukh mines.

Question 10.
Chennai is one of the oldest …………………. ports of the country.
(a) Natural
(b) Artificial
(c) Smallest
(d) Biggest

Answer
Answer: (b) Artificial
Chennai is one of the oldest artificial ports of the country.

Question 11.
Paradwip port located in Orissa, specialises in the export of:
(a) Copper
(b) Bauxite
(c) Iron ore
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Iron ore
It specialises in the export of iron ore.

Question 12.
Haldia port was developed as a subsidiary port, to relieve growing pressure on which of the following ports:
(a) Kolkata
(b) Kandla
(c) Mumbai
(d) Tuticorin

Answer
Answer: (a) Kolkata
On the Kolkata port.

Question 13.
In which of the given years was air transport nationalised:
(a) 1943
(b) 1953
(c) 1963
(d) 1973

Answer
Answer: (b) 1953
Air Transport was nationalised in 1953.

Question 14.
The total number of telephone exchanges in India are:
(a) 37,565
(b) 36,565
(c) 35,565
(d) 34,565

Answer
Answer: (a) 37,565
There are 37,565 telephone exchanges spread all over the country.

Question 15.
When the value of imports exceeds the value of exports, it is termed as:
(a) Favourable balance of trade
(b) Unfavourable balance of trade
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) Unfavourable balance of trade
It is termed as unfavourable balance of trade because imports are more than the exports

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Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQs | NCERT Social-Science Chapter-6 – Edu grown

Question 1.
India occupies the first place in the production of:
(a) Sugar
(b) Jute
(c) Gur and khandsari
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Gur and khandsari
India stands second as a world producer of sugar but occupies the first place in the production of gur and khandsari.

Question 2.
The number of sugar mills in the country are:
(a) 400
(b) 420
(c) 440
(d) 460

Answer
Answer: (d) 460
There are 460.

Question 3.
Industries that use minerals and metals as raw materials are called:
(a) Agro based industries
(b) Metal based industries
(c) Mineral based industries
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Mineral based industries
They are called mineral based industries.

Question 4.
Which of the following is basic industry:
(а) Sugar
(b) Cotton
(c) Jute
(d) Iron and steel

Answer
Answer: (d) Iron and steel
The basic industry is iron and steel industry.

Question 5.
Iron ore, coking coal and limestone are required to make steel in the ratio of approximately:
(a) 1 : 2 : 4
(b) 2 : 1 : 4
(c) 4 : 2 : 1
(d) 4:1:2

Answer
Answer: (c) 4 : 2 : 1
They are required in the ratio of 4 : 2 : 1.

Question 6.
India ranks ……………………………. among the world crude steel producers.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Ninth
(d) Tenth

Answer
Answer: (c) Ninth
India ranks ninth among the world crude steel producers.

Question 7.
Inspite of large quantity of production of steel, per capita consumption per annum is only:
(a) 20 kg
(b) 32 kg
(c) 40 kg
(d) 52 kg

Answer
Answer: (b) 32 kg
It is only 32 kg per annum.

Question 8.
In the 1950s China and India produced almost the same quantity of:
(a) Iron
(b) Manganese
(c) Copper
(d) Steel

Answer
Answer: (d) Steel
Both these countries produced the same amount of steel.

Question 9.
The number of aluminium smelting plants in India are:
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 14

Answer
Answer: (a) 8
There are eight aluminium smelting plants in India.

Question 10.
In 2004, India produced over 600 million tonnes of:
(a) Steel
(b) Aluminium
(c) Copper
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (b) Aluminium
In 2004, India produced over 600 million tonnes of aluminium.

Question 11.
The chemical industry in India contributes approximately:
(а) 3 percent of the GDP
(b) 4 percent of the GDP
(c) 5 percent of the GDP
(d) 6 percent of the GDP

Answer
Answer: (а) 3 percent of the GDP
It contributes about 3 per cent of the GDP.

Question 12.
The fertilizer industry is centred around the production of:
(а) organic fertilizers
(b) inorganic fertilizers
(c) nitrogenous fertilizers
(d) phosphate fertilizers

Answer
Answer: (c) Nitrogenous fertilizers
The fertilizer industry produces mostly nitrogenous fertilizer.

Question 13.
The industry which requires bulky and heavy raw materials like limestone, silica, alumina and gypsum is:
(а) Iron and steel industry
(b) Aluminium industry
(c) Cement industry
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Cement industry
The cement industry requires all the above raw materials.

Question 14.
The first cement plant was set up in Chennai in:
(a) 1804
(b) 1904
(c) 1814
(d) 1914

Answer
Answer: (b) 1904
It was set up in 1904.

Question 15.
At present the number of manufactures of passenger cars and multi-utility vehicles are:
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 20

Answer
Answer: (c) 15
There are 15.

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Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources Class 10 MCQs | NCERT Social-Science Chapter-5 – Edu grown

Question 1.
The mineral used in the manufacture of steel is:
(a) Copper
(b) Lead
(c) Magnesium
(d) Manganese

Answer
Answer: (d) Manganese
Manganese is used in the manufacturing of steel.

Question 2.
The state which is the largest producer of manganese is:
(a) Gujarat
(b) West Bengal
(c) Bihar
(d) Orissa

Answer
Answer: (d) Orissa
Orissa is the largest producer of manganese.

Question 3.
The ……………………. mines of Madhya Pradesh produce 52 percent of India’s copper.
(a) Kolaghat
(b) Khetri
(c) Balaghat
(d) Singbhum

Answer
Answer: (c) Balaghat
The Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh produce 52 percent of India’s copper.

Question 4.
The most important bauxite deposits in the state of Orissa are in ……………………… district.
(a) Singbhum
(b) Khetri
(c) Balaghat
(d) Koraput

Answer
Answer: (d) Koraput
The most important bauxite deposits in the states of Orissa are in Koraput district.

Question 5.
The mineral made up of a series of plates or leaves in:
(a) Bauxite
(b) Lead
(c) Copper
(d) Mica

Answer
Answer: (d) Mica
The mineral made up of a series of plates or leaves is mica.

Question 6.
Nellore mica belt is in the state of:
(a) Orrisa
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer
Answer: (d) Andhra Pradesh
Nellore mica belt is in the state of Andhra Pradesh.

Question 7.
The basic raw material for the cement industry and essential for smelting iron ore in the blast furnace is:
(a) Iron
(b) Mica
(c) Limestone
(d) Sodium chloride

Answer
Answer: (c) Limestone
Limestone is the basic raw material for the cement industry and essential for smelting iron ore in the blast furnace.

Question 8.
Low grade brown coal is known as:
(а) Bituminous
(b) Anthracite
(c) Lignite
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Lignite
Low grade brown coal is known as lignite.

Question 9.
The highest quality hard coal is:
(a) Bituminous
(b) Anthracite
(c) Lignite
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) Anthracite
Anthracite is the hardest quality of hard coal.

Question 10.
Tertiary coals occur in which of the following:
(a) Orissa, West Bengal and Bihar
(b) Punjab, Haryana, Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Meghalaya, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland
(d) Gujarat, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka

Answer
Answer: (c) Meghalaya, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland
Tertiary coals occur in the states of Meghalaya, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland.

Question 11.
About ………………… percent of India’s petroleum production is from Mumbai High.
(a) 63
(b) 73
(c) 83
(d) 93

Answer
Answer: (a) 63
About 63 percent of India’s petroleum production is from “Mumbai High.

Question 12.
Large reserves of natural gas have been discovered in the:
(a) Ganga – Godavari Basin
(b) Ganga – Yamuna Basi
(c) Ganga – Brahmaputra Basin
(d) Krishna – Godavari Basin

Answer
Answer: (d) Krishna – Godavari Basin
Large reserves of Natural gas have been discovered in the Krishna-Godavari Basin.

Question 13.
The number of thermal power plants in India is:
(a) 110
(b) 210
(c) 310
(d) 410

Answer
Answer: (c) 310
The number of Thermal Power Plants in India are 310.

Question 14.
Nuclear energy is obtained by altering the:
(a) Structure of atoms
(b) Structure of electrons
(c) Structure of protons
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (a) Structure of atoms
Nuclear energy is obtained by altering the structure of atoms.

Question 15.
The largest solar plant of India is located at:
(a) Madhapur
(b) Khetri
(c) Kolhapur
(d) Jaisalmer

Answer
Answer: (a) Madhapur
The largest solar plant of India is located at Madhapur.

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Chapter 4 Agriculture Class 10 MCQs | NCERT Social-Science Chapter-4 – Edu grown

Question 1.
Three crops of paddy grown in a year in the states of Assam, West Bengal and Orissa are:
(a) Aus, Aman and Boro
(b) Aus, Aman and Poro
(c) Bus, Bman and Boro
(d) Aman, Poro, and Boro

Answer
Answer: (a) Aus, Aman and Boro
Aus, Aman and Boro are the three crops of paddy grown in a year in the states of Assam, West Bengal and Orissa.

Question 2.
A short season during the summer months between the rabi and the kharif season is called the:
(a) Jaid season
(b) Zaid season
(c) Short season
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) Zaid season
It is called Zaid season.

Question 3.
The major crops grown in India are:
(a) Water-melon, musk-melon, cucumber etc.
(b) Mango, jute, cotton, barley etc.
(c) Rice, wheat, pulses, tea, coffee, sugarcane etc.
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Rice, wheat, pulses, tea, coffee, sugarcane etc.
Rice wheat, pulses, tea, coffee, sugarcane, etc. are the main crops grown in India.

Question 4.
The annual rainfall needed for the cultivation of rice is :
(a) 400 cm
(b) 300 cm
(c) 200 cm
(d) 100 cm

Answer
Answer: (d) 100 cm
It is 100 cm.

Question 5.
Bajra grows well on:
(а) Alluvial and loamy soils
(b) Alluvial and sandy soils
(c) Sandy soils and shallow black soil
(d) Alluvial and clayey soils

Answer
Answer: (c) Sandy soils and shallow black soil
Bajra grows well in sandy soils and shallow black soil.

Question 6.
India is the largest producer as well as the consumer of in the world.
(a) Rice
(6) Wheat
(c) Pulses
(d) Sugarcane

Answer
Answer: (c) Pulses

Question 7.
The state which is the largest producer of groundnut is:
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Gujarat

Answer
Answer: (c) Andhra Pradesh
It is Andhra Pradesh. Tamil Nadu is the second.

Question 8.
The major tea producing states are:
(a) Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala
(b) Punjab, Haryana Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Maharashtra, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu
(d) Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh and Gujarat

Answer
Answer: (a) Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala
Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

Question 9.
India produces about ……………….. percent of the world’s coffee production:
(a) Five
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Two

Answer
Answer: (b) Four

Question 10.
India produces about …………………….. percent of the world’s vegetables:
(a) 13
(b) 14
(c) 15
(d) 16

Answer
Answer: (a) 13

Question 11.
The rainfall and temperature required for the cultivation of rubber is:
(a) 100 cm-25°C
(6) 150cm-30°C
(c) 200 cm-25°C
(d) 300cm-40°C

Answer
Answer: (c) 200 cm – 25°C
200 cm of rainfall and 25°C temperature.

Question 12.
Rearing of silk worms for the production of silk fibre is known as:
(a) Pesciculture
(b) Monoculture
(c) Silk culture
(d) Sericulture

Answer
Answer: (d) Sericulture
It is called sericulture; pisiculture is rearing of fishes.

Question 13.
Cotton is a kharif crop and requires ……………………… to ……………………… months to nature:
(a) 5-6
(b) 7-8
(c) 6-8
(d) 4-6

Answer
Answer: (c) 6-8
Cotton requires 6 to 8 months to mature.

Question 14.
Jute is also known as:
(a) White fibre
(b) Silver fibre
(c) Golden fibre
(d) Diamond fibre

Answer
Answer: (c) Golden fibre
Jute is also known as golden fibre.

Question 15.
Genetic engineering is recognized as a powerful supplement in inventing new:
(a) Agricultural tools
(b) Modern machines
(c) Hybrid variety of plants
(d) Hybrid variety of seeds

Answer
Answer: (d) Hybrid variety of seeds
Genetic engineering is powerful supplement in inventing new hybrid variety of seeds.

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