1.(i) Name the hormones that are released in human males and females when they reach puberty.
(ii) Name a gland associated with brain. Which problem is caused due to the deficiency of the hormone released by this gland ?
Answer.
(i) Testes in males produces hormone testosterone.
Ovaries in females produces hormone oestrogen.
(ii)Pituitary gland present in the brain is responsible for body growth, development of bones and muscles (if excess-gigantism) (if less-dwarfism).

2. List in tabular form three differences between nervous control and chemical control.
Answer.

3.(a) Explain any three directional movements in plants.
(b) How brain and spinal cord are protected in human ?
(c) Name the master gland present in the brain.
Answer.
(a) Stimuli is responsible for the movement of the plant parts towards or away from it. This movement is called as Tropic Movement.
Phototropism: movement of plant towards or away from the light. Geotropism: movement of plant parts towards the earth or away from it. Hydrotropism: movement of plant parts towards or away from any source of water.
(b) Both the brain and the spinal cord are protected by bone: the brain by the bones of the skull and the spinal cord is protected by a set of ring-shaped bones called vertebrae. They are both cushioned by layers of membranes called meninges as well as a special fluid called cerebrospinal fluid. This fluid helps to protect the nerve tissue to keep it healthy, and remove waste products.
(c) Pituitary gland present in the brain is known as the master gland.

4. What is ‘hydrotropism’? Describe an experiment to demonstrate ‘hydrotropism’.
Answer. ‘Hydrotropism’ is the directional growth of a plant part in response to water. For example, roots show hydrotropism as they grow towards water in the soil and are positively hydrotropic.
An experiment to demonstrate hydrotropism is as follows:

1.  A porous pot filled with water is taken and inserted in a tub filled with dry sand.
2. A freshly germinated pea seedling is sowed in the sand.
3. As water is not available in sand, the root growing will bend towards the porous pot filled with water.
4. A hydrotropic curvature of the root is observed as it grows towards water.
5. This bending of root shows the movement in response towards water.

5. What are ‘hormones’? State one function of each of the following hormones:
(i) Thyroxine (ii) Insulin
Answer. Hormones are the chemical substances which coordinate and control the activities of living organisms and also their growth. The term hormone was introduced by Bayliss and Starling.
(i) Function of Thyroxine: This hormone regulates the metabolism of carbohydrates and fats.
(ii) Function of insulin: This hormone helps in regulating sugar level in the blood.

6. What is the function of receptors in our body? Think of situation where receptors do not work properly. What problems are likely to arise?
Answer. Receptors are present in our all parts of the body for example in skin, eye, nose tongue etc. They detect the signals and then send them to brain in the form of electrical signals. If these receptors are damaged then it they will not detect the input which leads to the harm for our body in dangerous situation.

7. Draw neat diagram of human brain and label on it the following parts :
(i) Midbrain (ii) Pituitary gland
Answer.

8.Write one example each of the following tropic movements :
(i) Positive phototropism (ii) Negative phototropism
(iii) Positive geotropism (iv) Negative geotropism
(v) Hydrotropism (vi) Chemotropism
Answer.
(i) Positive phototropism: shoots growing towards light.
(ii)Negative phototropism: roots growing away from light towards ground.
(iii) Positive geotropism: growth of roots towards earth due to the pull of the earth.
(iv)Negative geotropism: shoots growing away from the earth.
(v) Hydrotropism: roots growing towards the source of water.
(vi)Chemotropism: growth of pollen tubes towards the ovules.

9.(a) Name the hormone which is released into the blood when its sugar level rises. Explain the need of Chemical communication in multicellular organisms the organ which produces this hormone and its effect on blood sugar level. Also mention the digestive enzymes secreted by this organ with one function of each.
(b) Explain the need of Chemical communication in multicellular organisms.
Answer.
(a) Glucose is needed by cells for respiration. It is important that the concentration of glucose in the blood is maintained at a constant level. Insulin is a hormone produced by the a-cells that regulates glucose levels in the blood.
In order for multicellular organisms to function properly, their cells must communicate. For instance, your muscles must contract when your brain sends a message to contract.
Pancreas produces insulin and p-cells which increase glucose in blood. It also – produces digestive enzyme (pancreatic amylase).
(b) Cell-to-cell signaling is a critical component of coordinating cellular activities. Through this communication, messages are carried from signaling cells to receiving cells, also known as target cells. This signaling occurs with proteins and other types of signaling molecules. Other things which happens in our body due to cell communication are – growth and development, cellular reproduction, tissue repair, sensing pain, etc.

10 (a) Explain how auxins help in bending of plant stem towards light.
(b) State the objective of the experiment for which experimental set-up is shown in the given diagram.
Answer.
(a) In plant shoots, the role of auxin is to cause a positive phototropism, i.e. to grow the plant towards the light. When light is incident on a plant from one direction, it causes the auxins to redistribute towards the shaded side of the plant. One function of auxin is to cause cell elongation. The redistribution causes the cells on the shaded side to elongate more than those on the side with the light shining on them. This causes the shoot to bend towards the light.
(b) The objective of the experiment is to show phototropic movement of plant.

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Question 1.
The muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the pupil is
(a) cornea
(b) ciliary muscles
(c) iris
(d) retina

Answer/Explanation
Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Iris control the size of pupil.

2. Having two eyes facilitates in
   A : Increasing the field of view
   B : Bringing three-dimensional view
   C : Developing the concept of distance/ size
   Then the correct option is/are
   (a) A only
   (b) A and B only
   (c) B only
   (d) A, B and C

Answer: (d)

3. The black opening between the aqueous humour and the lens is called
   (a) retina
   (b) iris
   (c) cornea
   (d) pupil

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) The black opening between the aqueous humour and the eye lens is called pupil.

4. Near and far points of a young person normal eye respectively are
   (a) 0 and infinity
   (b) 0 and 25 cm
   (c) 25 cm and infinity
   (d) 25 cm and 150 cm.

Answer/Explanation
Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Near point = 25 cm while far point = infinity.

5. The defect of vision in which the person is able to see distant object distinctly but cannot see nearby objects clearly is called
   (a) Long-sightedness
   (b) Far-sightedness
   (c) Hypermetropia
   (d) All above

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) Hypermetropia is also called long-sightedness or far-sightedness.

6. The ability of eye lens to adjust its focal length to form a sharp image of the object at varying distances on the retina is called
(a) Power of observation of the eye
(b) Power of adjustment of the eye
(c) Power of accommodation of the eye
(d) Power of enabling of the eye

Answer/Explanation
Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) It is called power of accommodation of the eye.

7. Myopia and hypermetropia can be corrected by
   (a) Concave and plano-convex lens
   (b) Concave and convex lens
   (c) Convex and concave lens
   (d) Plano-concave lens for both defects.

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Myopia is corrected by using of suitable power of concave lens while hypermetropia is corrected by convex lens.

8. Bi-focal lens are required to correct
   (a) astigmatism
   (b) coma
   (c) myopia
   (d) presbyopia

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) Bifocal lens are required to correct the presbyopia. Upper point of bifocal lens consists of concave lens used for distant vision while lower point consists of convex lens facilitate near vision.

9. The defective eye of a person has near point 0.5 m and point 3 m. The power far corrective lens required for
(i) reading purpose and
(ii) seeing distant objects, respectively are:
(a) 0.5 D and +3D
(b) +2D and – (\frac{1}{3}) D
(c) – 2D and + (\frac{1}{3})D
(d) 0.5 D and-3.0 D

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) For reading purpose

10. The image formed on the retina of the human eye is
    (a) virtual and inverted
    (b) real and inverted
    (c) real and erect
    (d) virtual and erect

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Eye lens is convex in nature. So, image formed by it on the retina is real and inverted.

11. When white light enters a prism, it gets split into its constituent colours. This is due to
    (a) different refractive index for different wavelength of each colour
    (b) each colours has same velocity in the prism.
    (c) prism material have high density.
    (d) Scattering of light

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Dispersion takes place because refractive index of the material of prism is different for different wavelength.

12.
The air layer of atmosphere whose temperature is less then the hot layer behave as optically
(a) denser medium
(b) rarer medium
(c) inactive medium
(d) either denser or rarer medium

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) The cold air layer of the atmosphere acts as a optically denser medium than hot air because the molecules are closely packed together.

13. Refraction of light by the earth’s atmosphere due to variation in air density is called
    (a) atmospheric reflection
    (b) atmospheric dispersion
    (c) atmospheric scattering
    (d) atmospheric refraction

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) This phenomena is called atmospheric refraction.

14. The deflection of light by minute particles and molecules of the atmosphere in all direction is called __ of light.
    (a) dispersion
    (b) scattering
    (c) interference
    (d) tyndell effect

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) The said phenomenon is called scattering of light.

15. One cannot see through the fog, because
    (a) refractive index of the fog is very high
    (b) light suffers total reflection at droplets
    (c) fog absorbs light
    (d) light is scattered by the droplets

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) Objects are not visible through the fog because droplets scatter the light rays.

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Question 1. A wire of length /, made of material resistivity ρ is cut into two equal parts. The resistivity of the two parts are equal to,
(a) ρ
(b) (\frac{\rho}{2})
(c) 2 ρ
(d) 4 ρ

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Resistivity of the material depends only on the nature of material not dimensions.

2. A fuse wire repeatedly gets burnt when used with a good heater. It is advised to use a fuse wire of
   (a) more length
   (b) less radius
   (c) less length
   (d) more radius

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) In order to get the working of heater properly, fused wire of higher rating must be used

3. A battery of 10 volt carries 20,000 C of charge through a resistance of 20 Ω. The work done in 10 seconds is
   (a) 2 × 103 joule
   (b) 2 × 105joule
   (c) 2 × 104 joule
   (d) 2 × 102 joule

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) W= qV= 20000 × 10 = 2,00, 000 = 2 × 105 J

4. A boy records that 4000 joule of work is required to transfer 10 coulomb of charge between two points of a resistor of 50 Ω. The current passing through it is
   (a) 2 A
   (b) 4 A
   (c) 8 A
   (d) 16 A

Answer/Explanation
Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Work done in transferring the charge
W= qV = qlR …….. (V = IR)

5. A cooler of 1500 W, 200 volt and a fan of 500 W, 200 volt are to be used from a household supply. The rating of fuse to be used is
   (a) 2.5 A
   (b) 5.0 A
   (c) 7.5 A
   (d) 10 A

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) Total power used, P = P1 + P1 = 1500 + 500 = 2000 W.
Current drawn from the supply,.

6. To get 2 Ω resistance using only 6 Ω resistors, the number of them required is
   (a) 2
   (b) 3
   (c) 4
   (d) 6

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Three resistors of 2 Ω is required to get 6 Ω because resultant is more than individual so they all must be connected in series.

7. The effective resistance between A and b
   (a) 4Ω
   (b) 6Ω
   (c) May be 10 Ω
   (d) Must be 10 Ω

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) 6 Ω is shorted so effective resistance is 4 Ω.

8. Two devices are connected between two points say A and B in parallel. The physical quantity that will remain the same between the two points is
   (a) current
   (b) voltage
   (c) resistance
   (d) None of these

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) In parallel combination, voltage remains same across two points.

9. The least resistance obtained by using 2 Ω, 4 Ω, 1 Ω and 100 Ω is
   a) < 100 Ω (b) < 4 Ω (c) < 1 Ω (d) > 2 Ω

Answer/Explanation

Answer: cExplanation:
(c) In parallel combination, the equivalent resistance is smaller than the least resistance used in the circuit.

10. Two wires of same length and area, made of two materials of resistivity ρ1 and ρ2 are connected in parallel V to a source of potential. The equivalent resistivity for the same length and area is

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Equivalent resistance in parallel combination is (\frac{1}{R_{P}}=\frac{1}{R_{1}}+\frac{1}{R_{2}})
For the same length and area of cross-section, R ∝ p (resistivity)

11. Calculate the current flows through the 10 Ω resistor in the following circuit.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Electricity with Answers 5
(a) 1.2 A
(b) 0.6 A
(c) 0.2 A
(d) 2.0 A

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) In parallel, potential difference across each resistor will remain same. So, current through 10 Ω resistor
I = (\frac{V}{R}=\frac{6}{10}) = 0.6 A

12. Two resistors are connected in series gives an equivalent resistance of 10 Ω. When connected in parallel, gives 2.4 Ω. Then the individual resistance are
    (a) each of 5 Ω
    (b) 6 Ω and 4 Ω
    (c) 7 Ω and 4 Ω
    (d) 8 Ω and 2 Ω

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) In series, Rs = R1 + R2 = 10 Ω

13. If R1 and R2 be the resistance of the filament of 40 W and 60 W respectively operating 220 V, then
    (a) R1 < R2
    (b) R2 < R1
    (c) R1 = R2
    (d) R1 ≥ R2

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Using power, P = (\frac{V^{2}}{R}) or R = (\frac{V^{2}}{P})
For the same voltage, R ∝ (\frac{1}{P})
More the power, lesser the resistance.
Accordingly, R2 < R1

14. A wire of length /, made of material resistivity ρ is cut into two equal parts. The resistivity of the two parts are equal to,
(a) ρ
(b) (\frac{\rho}{2})
(c) 2 ρ
(d) 4 ρ

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Resistivity of the material depends only on the nature of material not dimensions.

15.What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5 W? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) 1/5 Ω
(b) 10 Ω
(c) 5 Ω
(d) 1 Ω

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) Series combination provide the maximum resistance

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1. Magnetic effect of current was discovered by
(a) Oersted
(b) Faraday
(c) Bohr
(d) Ampere

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Oersted showed that electricity and magnetism were related phenomena.

2. Inside the magnet, the field lines moves
   (a) from north to south
   (b) from south the north
   (c) away from south pole
   (d) away from north pole

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Magnetic field inside the magnet moves from south to north pole.

3. Relative strength of magnetic field at a point in the space surrounding the magnet is shown by the
   (a) length of magnet
   (b) thickness of magnet
   (c) degree of closeness of the field.
   (d) resistance offered by the surroundings

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) The force acting on the pole of another magnet by the crowded magnetic field lines is greater.

4. Which of the following statement is not correct about the magnetic field?
   (a) Magnetic field lines form a continuous closed curve.
   (b) Magnetic field line do not interest each other.
   (c) Direction of tangent at any point on the magnetic field line curve gives the direction of magnetic field at that point.
   (d) Outside the magnet, magnetic field lines go from South to North pole of the magnet.

Answer/Explanation
Answer:
Explanation:
(d) Outside the magnet, magnetic field line emerges from North-pole and moves towards south-pole.

5. By which instrument, the presence of magnetic field be determined?
   (a) Magnetic Needle
   (b) Ammeter
   (c) Galvanometer
   (d) Voltmeter

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(a) With the help of magnetic field, one can find the presence of magnetic field in a region by observing its deflection.

6. The pattern of the magnetic field produced by the straight current carrying conducting wire is
   (a) in the direction opposite to the current
   (b) in the direction parallel to the wire
   (c) circular around the wire
   (d) in the same direction of current

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(c) Magnetic field line around a current carrying straight conductor is represented by concentric circles.

7. The strength of magnetic field around a current carrying conductor is
   (a) inversely proportional to the current but directly proportional to the square of the distance from wire.
   (b) directly proportional to the current and inversely proportional to the distance from wire.
   (c) directly proportional to the distance and inversely proportional to the current
   (d) directly proportional to the current but inversely proportional the square of the distance from wire.

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
• magnetic field strength increases on increasing the current through the wire.
• magnetic field strength decreases as the distance from the wire increases.

8. A current through a horizontal power line flows from south to North direction. The direction of magnetic field line 0.5m above it is
   (a) North
   (b) South
   (c) West
   (d) East

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Apply right-hand thumb rule.

9. The nature of magnetic field line passing through the centre of current carrying circular loop is
   (a) circular
   (b) ellipse
   (c) parabolic
   (d) straight line

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) magnetic field line at the centre of current carrying loop appears as a straight line.

10. The strength of each of magnet reduces to half when it cut along its length into the equal parts magnetic field strength of a solenoid. Polarity of solenoid can be determined by
(a) use of compass needle
(b) Right hand thumb rule
(c) fleming left hand rule
(d) either (a) or (b)

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) both (a) and (b) can be use to determine the polarity of solenoid.

11. The factors on which one magnetic field strength produced by current carrying solenoids depends are
    (a) Magnitude of current
    (b) Number of turns
    (c) Nature of core material
    (d) All of the above

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) Factors shown in (a), (b) and (c).

12. A soft iron bar is introduced inside the current carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid
    (a) will decrease
    (b) will remains same
    (c) will increase
    (d) will become zero

Answer/Explanation
Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Soft iron inside the current carrying solenoid act as an electromagnet.

13. When current is parallel to magnetic field, then force experience by the current carrying conductor placed in uniform magnetic field is
    (a) Twice to that when angle is 60°
    (b) Thrice to that when angle is 60°
    (c) zero
    (d) infinite

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) If the current direction is parallel to the magnetic field, then there will no force on the conductor exerted by the magnetic field.

14. A positive charge is moving upwards in a magnetic field directed towards north. The particle will be deflected towards
    (a) west
    (b) north
    (c) south
    (d) east

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
(a) Apply fleming’s left hand rule

15. Which of the following factors affect the strength of force experience by a current carrying conduct in a uniform magnetic field?
    (a) magnetic field strength
    (b) magnitude of current in a conductor
    (c) length of the conductor within magnetic field
    (d) All of above.

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) All the factors affect the strength of magnetic force.

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1. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but still everybody discuss about the energy crisis because
   (a) Energy transform into different form continuously.
   (b) Usable form of energy is dissipated to the surroundings in less usable forms.
   (c) Energy is consumed and cannot be used again.
   (d) All of these

Answer/Explanation
Explanation:
(d) Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed but usable form is dissipated to surrounding in less usable farm which can’t be used again.

2. An ideal source of energy should have
   (a) higher calorific value
   (b) easy transportability
   (c) easy accessibility
   (d) All of these

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) These are the characterises of ideal source of energy.

3. Fossile fuels are
   (a) non-renewable source of energy
   (b) renewable source of energy
   (c) both (a) and (b)
   (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer/Explanation
Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Fossile fuels were formed over million of years ago and there are only limited reserve. So they are non-renewable source of energy.

4. Dead organisms are transformed into petroleum and natural gas in
   (a) presence of air
   (b) absence of air
   (c) presence of sunlight
   (d) none of the above

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) absence of air

5. Which of the following problem is associated with a burning of coal?
   (а) Carbon-dioxide emission
   (b) acid rain
   (c) ash with toxic metal supurity
   (d) all of these.

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) all of these.

6. Select the important factor for the site selection of a thermal power plant.
   (a) Distance from the populated area
   (b) Availability of fuel
   (c) Availability’ of water
   (d) Cost of plant

Answer/Explanation
Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Water is required to produce steam. Thermal power plants are setup near the coal field and transmission of electricity is easy than transporting fuel.

7.The material used for interconnection the solar cells in the solar panel is
(a) silicon
(b) silver
(c) aluminium
(d) copper

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Silver is the best conductor of electricity.

8. Hydropower plant are located in the
(a) desert area
(b) plane area
(c) hilly terrains
(d) none-of above

Answer/Explanation
Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Hydroelectric power plant are generally located in high hilly areas where dam can easily be buit and large reservoir for storage of water can be obtained.

9. Biogas is a better fuel than animal dung cake because
   (a) biogas has lower calorific value.
   (b) animal dung cake has high calorific value
   (c) biogas bums smoke and leaves no residue
   (d) biogas is used as a fuel for cooking only wheareas dung cake can be used for cooking, illuminant the lanterns.

Answer/Explanation
Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Biogas has high calorific value and leave no residue, no smoke after burning and can be used for domestic purpose, running engins and in gas lanterns for illumination.

10. Which of the following organism produces biogas from cow drug sherry in the biogas plant?
    (a) aerobic bectria
    (b) anaerobic bectria
    (c) prolozoa
    (d) fungi

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) In the absence of oxygen, anaerobic micro-organism decomposed the compound of cow- dung sturry to generate biogas.

11. Wind is caused due to
    (a) uneven heating of earth’s surface
    (b) rotation of earth
    (c) local conditions
    (d) All of these

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) All are the factors that responsible for the blowing of wind.

12. What are the disadvantage of solar energy
    (a) A large surface area is required collect the solar
    (b) Daily average of solar energy varies from 4 to 7 kwh/m2
    (c) Highly hazardous toxic material is used in the manufacturing of solar device.
    (d) All of the above are disadvantages.

Answer/Explanation
Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) All the points given are the disadvantage age of using solar energy.

13. The temperature inside the solar cooker ranges from
    (a) 500-100°C
    (b) 100-140°C
    (c) 150-200°C
    (d) 70-80°C

Answer/Explanation

Sources of Energy Questions and Answer: bExplanation:
(b) The box type solar cooker have a range 100-140°C.

14. The use of reflector in the solar cooker is to
    (a) Decrease efficiency
    (b) create green house effect
    (c) increase efficiency
    (d) none of these

Answer/Explanation
Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Reflectors (mirror) are used to focus the sun rays along with heat radiation inside the box to achieve high temperature.

15. Solar cells are made of
    (a) germanium
    (b) silicon
    (c) silver
    (d) aluminium

Answer/Explanation
Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) special grade silicon is used for making solar cells.

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Question 1.
Assertion: Vegetarian food habit is more beneficial to organisms.
Reason: Only 10% energy is available as food from one trophic level to next.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Answer
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
In natural ecosystems, decomposers include-
(a) only bacteria and fungi
(b) only microscopic animals
(c) herbivores and carnivores
(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer
(a) only bacteria and fungi

Question 3.
The percentage of solar radiation absorbed by all the green plants for the process of photosynthesis is about-
(a) 1%
(b) 8%
(c) 5%
(d) 10%

Answer
(a) 1%

Question 4.
The second trophic level is always of-
(a) herbivores
(b) autotrophs
(c) carnivores
(c) producers

Answer
(a) herbivores

Question 5.
The decomposers in an ecosystem-
(a) convert organic material to inorganic forms
(b) convert inorganic material to simpler forms
(c) convert inorganic material into organic compound
(d) do not break down organic compound

Answer
(a) convert organic material to inorganic forms

Question 6.
Which of the following is an abiotic component of an ecosystem?
(a) Humus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Plants
(d) Fungi

Answer
(a) Humus

Question 7.
What will happen if all the deer are killed in the given food chain?
Grass → Deer → Lion
(a) The population of grass decreases.
(b) The population of lions increases.
(c) The population of lions remains unchanged.
(d) The population of lions decreases and grass increases.

Answer
(d) The population of lions decreases and grass increases.

Question 8.
Which of the following is not a terrestrial ecosystem–
(a) forest
(b) desert
(c) aquarium
(d) grassland

Answer
(c) aquarium

Question 9.
In the garden ecosystem, which of the following are producers?
(a) Insects
(b) Snakes
(c) Grasses
(d) Rabbits

Answer
(c) Grasses

Question 10.
Which of the following is biodegradable?
(a) Plastic mugs
(b) Leather belts
(c) Silver foil
(d) Iron nails

Answer
(b) Leather belts

Question 11.
Which of the following is an autotroph?
(a) Lion
(b) Insect
(c) Tree
(d) Mushroom

Answer
(c) Tree

Question 12.
Which of the following is a logical sequence of food chain
(a) producer → consumer → decomposer
(b) producer → decomposer → consumer
(c) consumer → producer → decomposer
(d) decomposer → producer → consumer

Answer
(a) producer → consumer → decomposer

Question 13.
A food chain comprising birds, green plants, fish and man. The concentration of harmful chemical entering the food chain will be maximum in
(a) green plants
(b) man
(c) birds
(d) fish

Answer
(b) man

Question 14.
Ozone layer is damaged by-
(a) methane
(b) carbon-dioxide
(c) Sulphur-dioxide
(d) CFCs

Answer
(d) CFCs

Question 15.
In an ecosystem, herbivores represent
(a) producers
(b) primary consumers
(c) secondary consumers
(d) decomposers

Answer
(b) primary consumers

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Question 1.
The better way to assess the pollution level of a water body is to calculate the:
(a) Nutrient level
(b) Number of organisms
(c) Coliform count
(d) Pesticide level.

Answer
Answer: (c) Coliform count

Question 2.
The purpose of rainwater harvesting is to:
(a) use it for irrigation
(b) culture fishes
(c) use it for washing ears
(d) recharge ground water

Answer
Answer: (d) recharge ground water

Question 3.
‘Kulhs’ the ancient water harvesting structure were made in
(a) Manipur
(b) Bihar
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer
Answer: (c) Himachal Pradesh

Question 4.
The three R’s that will help us to conserve natural resources for long term use are
(a) recycle, regenerate, reuse
(b) reduce, regenerate, reuse
(c) reduce, reuse, redistribute
(d) reduce, recycle, reuse

Answer
Answer: (d) reduce, recycle, reuse

Question 5.
Amrita Devi Bishnoi sacrificed her life to protect the
(a) Palm trees
(b) Khejri trees
(c) Sal trees
(d) Teakwood trees.

Answer
Answer: (b) Khejri trees

Question 6.
Khadins, bundhis, ahars and kattas are ancient structures built for the purpose of:
(a) store grains
(b) conserve soil
(c) water harvesting
(d) conserve wildlife.

Answer
Answer: (c) water harvesting

Question 7.
The Tehri Dam is constructed on River
(a) Yamuna
(b) Bhagirathi
(c) Ravi
(d) Sutlej

Answer
Answer: (b) Bhagirathi

Question 8.
The degraded Arabari forests were revived by the efforts of
(a) A.K. Chatterjee
(b) A.K. Baneijee
(c) Sunder Lai Bahuguna
(d) Amrita Devi

Answer
Answer: (b) A.K. Baneijee

Question 9.
Which plan has been started by government to control pollution of Ganga?
(a) Ganga Action Plan
(b) Ganga Revival Plan
(c) Swachh Jal Abhiyan
(d) Ganga Restoration Plan

Answer
Answer: (a) Ganga Action Plan

Question 10.
Which pH range is most suitable for life of fresh water plants and animals?
(a) 6.5 – 7.5
(b) 2.0 – 3.5
(c) 3.5 – 7.0
(d) 9.0 – 10.5

Answer
Answer: (a) 6.5 – 7.5

Question 11.
The most appropriate definition of a natural resource is that it is a substance/commodity that is
(a) present only on land
(b) a gift of nature which is very useful to mankind
(c) a man-made substance placed in nature
(d) available only in the forest

Answer
Answer: (b) a gift of nature which is very useful to mankind

Question 12.
The main cause for abundant coliform bacteria in the river Ganga is
(a) disposal of unbumt corpses into water
(b) discharge of effluents from electroplating industries
(c) washing of clothes
(d) immersion of ashes

Answer
Answer: (a) disposal of unbumt corpses into water

Question 13.
Among the statements given below select the ones that correctly describe the concept of sustainable development
(i) Planned growth with minimum damage to the environment
(ii) Growth irrespective of the extent of damage caused to the environment
(iii) Stopping all developmental work to conserve the environment
(iv) Growth that is acceptable to all the stakeholders
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (iii) only

Answer
Answer: (a) (i) and (iv)

Question 14.
In our country, there are attempts to increase the height of several existing dams like Tehri and Almati, dams across Narmada. Choose the correct statements among the following that are a consequence of raising the height of dams
(i) Terrestrial flora and fauna of the area is destroyed completely
(ii) Dislocation of people and domestic animals living in the area
(iii) Valuable agricultural land may be permanently lost
(iv) It will generate permanent employment for people
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Answer
Answer: (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 15.
Select the incorrect statement.
(a) Economic development is linked to environmental conservation
(b) Sustainable development encourages development for current generation and conservation of resources for future generations
(c) Sustainable development does not consider the view points of stakeholders
(d) Sustainable development is a long planned and persistent development

Answer
Answer: (c) Sustainable development does not consider the view points of stakeholders

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Q1
In Which Of The Following Statements Is Or Are Incorrect?
[A]. When calcium hydroxide solution lime water reacts with carbon dioxide gas a white precipitate of calcium carbonate is formed along with water.
[B]. When zinc metals react with dilute sulphuric acid to form zinc sulphate solution and hydrogen gas.
[C]. During respiration glucose combines with oxygen in the cells of our body to form carbon dioxide and water along with the production of energy.
[D]. The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen to form nitrogen monoxide is an an exothermic reaction.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen to form nitrogen monoxide is an endothermic reaction because heat is absorbed in this reaction. Actually, when nitrogen and oxygen are heated to a very high temperature about 3000 degree Celsius, they combined to form nitrogen monoxide and a lot of heat is absorbed in this reaction.

Q2
Nancy Is Writing Some Indicating Information About Chemical Equation. Choose The Correct One(S):
[A]. By indicating the physical state of the reactant and products.
[B]. By indicating the heat change take place in the reaction.
[C]. By indicating the condition under which their reaction takes place.
[D]. All the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Here are all the statements are correct. Hence, your answer will be option [D].

Q3
Which Of The Following Processes Involve Chemical Reactions?
[A]. A storing of oxygen gas under pressure in a gas cylinder.
[B]. Liquefaction of air.
[C]. Keeping petrol in china dish in an open.
[D]. Heating copper wire in the absence of air at high temperature.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
During a chemical reaction the chemical composition of a substance changes. A chemical reaction produces a new substance with new properties. Energy is either released or absorbed during a chemical reaction. It is an irreversible reaction. You can easily understand by this equation: 2CU (copper wire) + O2 → 2CuO (copper oxide)

Q4
In The Double Displacement Reaction Between Aqueous Potassium Iodide And Aqueous Lead Nitrate, A Yellow Precipitate Of Lead Iodide Is Formed. While Performing The Activity If Lead Nitrate Is Not Available, Which Of The Following Can Be Used In Place Of Lead Nitrate?
[A]. Lead sulphate (insoluble)
[B]. Lead acetate
[C]. Ammonium nitrate
[D]. Potassium sulphate
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Lead sulphate being insoluble will not dissociate into Pb2+ ions.

Q5
Pooja Is Writing Some Statements. She Wants To Know In Which Of The Following Statements Is Or Are Incorrect?
[A]. When hydrogen burns in oxygen to form water.
[B]. Liquid hydrogen burns to lift the space shuttle out of the earth’s gravitational field.
[C]. When glucose undergoes to slow combustion by combining with oxygen in the cells of our body to produce energy.
[D]. As a fuel CNG and LPG gives more energy than hydrogen.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
As a fuel hydrogen is more efficient then CNG and LPG. Hence, liquid hydrogen burns in liquid oxygen to form water providing a tremendous amount of energy to lift the space shuttle out of the earth’s gravitational field.

Q6
Consider The Following Statements, Choose The Incorrect One(S):
[A]. The chemical equation is balance to satisfy the law of conservation of mass in chemical reaction.
[B]. We should never change the formula of an element or compound to balance and equation.
[C]. Those reaction in which heat is evolved are known as exothermic reactions.
[D]. When Methane (CH4) burns in oxygen of air it forms carbon monoxide and water vapour.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
When Methane (CH4) burns in oxygen of air it forms carbon dioxide and water vapour. Rest of all statements are correct. Hence, your answer will be option [D].

Q7
Which Of The Following Gases Can Be Used For Storage Of Fresh Sample Of An Oil For A Long Time?
[A]. Carbon dioxide or oxygen
[B]. Nitrogen or oxygen
[C]. Carbon dioxide or helium
[D]. Helium or nitrogen
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Helium or nitrogen both can be used for storage of fresh sample of an oil for a long time. These gases are called inert gases as they do not react with most elements including oxygen. Thus, these gases create an inert environment for the oil and prevent its reaction with any element in the environment that prevent from getting it stale.

Q8
Which Of The Following Is (Are) An Endothermic Process (Es)?
[A]. Dilution of sulphuric acid, and Condensation of water vapours.
[B]. Sublimation of dry ice.
[C]. Condensation of water vapours.
[D]. Sublimation of dry ice, and Evaporation of water
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Sublimation of dry ice and evaporation of water both are endothermic processes. These processes pull heat (energy) from their surroundings to change from one state to another. Hence both these processes produce cooling rather than heating. Dry ice absorbs heat from the environment to convert into ga

Q9
Paheli Is Writing Some Statement Which Is Given By Her Teacher. Would You Help Him To Choose The Incorrect Statements?
[A]. The combustion reaction of candle wax is characterized by a change in state from solid to liquid and gas.
[B]. When a chemical reaction absorbs heat energy, then the temperature of reaction mixture is falls and it becomes cold.
[C]. When a Zinc metal reacts with dilute sulphuric acid to form zinc sulphate and hydrogen gas.
[D]. None of the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Here are all the statements are correct. Hence, your answer will be option [D].

Q10
Electrolysis Of Water Is A Decomposition Reaction. The Mole Ratio Of Hydrogen And Oxygen Gases Liberated During Electrolysis Of Water Is
[A]. 1 : 1
[B]. 2 : 1
[C]. 4 : 1
[D]. 1 : 2
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The mole ratio of hydrogen and oxygen gases liberated during electrolysis of water is 2:1 by volume. In a decomposition reaction, a compound is broken down into its simpler forms. During electrolysis water is broken down into oxygen gas and hydrogen gas due to passing of electric current through it. You can easily understand by this equation: 2H2O (I) → 2H2(g) + O2(g) The mole ratio of hydrogen and oxygen gases is 2:1 by volume.

Q11
Boojho Appeared In Class Test Where He Wrote Some Statements But He Confused To Know The Correct Statement. Would You Help Him To Know That?
[A]. Some chemical reaction and are characterized by a change in colour.
[B]. The purple colour of potassium permanganate solution disappears when citric acid reacts with potassium permanganate solution.
[C]. The orange colour of potassium dichromate solution changes to green when sulphur dioxide gas is passed through acidified potassium dichromate solution.
[D]. All the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Here are all the statements are correct. Hence, your answer will be option [D].

Q12
Barium Chloride On Reacting With Ammonium Sulphate Forms Barium Sulphate And Ammonium Chloride. Which Of The Following Correctly Represents The Type Of The Reaction Involved?
[A]. Displacement reaction
[B]. Precipitation reaction
[C]. Double displacement reaction
[D]. Precipitation reaction, and Double displacement reaction
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
This reaction is a double displacement reaction as well as a precipitation reaction. This is a double displacement reaction because one component of each compound has exchanged places with each other. It is also called a precipitation reaction due to the formation of white precipitate of barium sulphate. Rest other products formed are soluble in water except barium sulphate that precipitates out.

Q13
Solid Calcium Oxide Reacts Vigorously With Water To Form Calcium Hydroxide Accompanied By The Liberation Of Heat. This Process Is Called Slaking Of Lime Water. Which Among The Following Is/Are True About Slaking Of Lime Water And The Solution Formed?
[A]. It is an endothermic reaction, and It is exothermic reaction.
[B]. It is exothermic reaction, and The pH of the resulting solution will be more than seven.
[C]. It is an endothermic reaction, and The pH of the resulting solution will be less than seven.
[D]. The pH of the resulting solution will be more than seven, and The pH of the resulting solution will be less than seven.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Slaking of lime is an exothermic reaction because a large amount heat is produced during the reaction. The heat can be felt by touching the beaker from outside. The resulting compound Ca(OH)2, which is also called slaked lime, turns red litmus solution to blue and hence proves it to be a basic solution. Thus, the pH of this solution will be more than seven. You can easily understand by this equation: CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + Heat

Q14
Consider The Given Statements And Choose The Incorrect One:
[A]. The bubbles of hydrogen gas are produced, when zinc granules reacts with dilute sulphuric acid.
[B]. Hydrogen gas is evolved when magnesium reacts with a dilute acid.
[C]. Hydrogen gas is evolved when dilute hydrochloric acid is poured over sodium carbonate.
[D]. None of the above.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Carbon dioxide gas is evolved when dilute hydrochloric acid is poured over sodium carbonate.

Q15
Which Among The Following Statement (S) Is (Are) True? Exposure Of Silver Chloride To Sunlight For A Long Duration Turns Grey Due To:
[A]. The formation of silver by decomposition of silver chloride.
[B]. The formation of silver by decomposition of silver chloride, and Decomposition of chlorine gas from silver chloride.
[C]. Sublimation of silver chloride, and Decomposition of chlorine gas from silver chloride.
[D]. Oxidation of silver chloride.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
When silver chloride is exposed to sunlight, it is decomposed to form silver. During this reaction, white silver chloride changes into greyish white silver metal. This is also known as photolytic decomposition reaction as it takes place in the presence of sunlight. You can easily understand by this equation: 2AgCl + Sunlight → 2Ag(s) + Cl2

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Question 1.
Penny magazines were especially meant for:
(a) Children
(b) Adults
(c) Men
(d) Women

Answer
Answer: (d) Women
Penny magazines were especially meant for women.

Question 2.
Leading libraries in England became instruments for educating:
(a) White-collar workers and artisans
(b) Artisans and lower-middle class people
(c) While-collar workers
(d) White-collar workers artisans and lower-middle class people

Answer
Answer: (d) White-collar workers artisans and lower-middle class people
Leading libraries in England became instruments for educating white-collar workers, artisans and lower-middle class people.

Question 3.
By the late eighteenth century the press came to made up of:
(a) Paper
(b) Stone
(c) Metal
(d) Wood

Answer
Answer: (c) Metal
By the late eighteenth century the press came to be made up of metal.

Question 4.
The power-driven cylindrical press was capable of:
(a) Printing 6,000 sheets per hour
(b) Printing 7,000 sheets per hour
(c) Printing 8,000 sheets per hour
(d) Printing 9,000 sheets per hour

Answer
Answer: (c) Printing 8,000 sheets per hour
It was capable of printing 8,000 sheets per hour.

Question 5.
In the 1920s in England, popular works were sold in cheap series, called the:
(a) Dollar series
(b) Pound Series
(c) Shilling Series
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Shilling Series
In the 1920s in England, popular works were sold in cheap series called the shilling series.

Question 6.
India had a very rich and old tradition of hand-written manuscripts in:
(a) Sanskrit, Arabic and various vernacular languages
(b) Arabic, Persian and various vernacular languages
(c) Sanskrit, Arabic and Persian
(d) Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian and various vernacular languages

Answer
Answer: (d) Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian and various vernacular languages
In India most of the manuscripts were written in Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian and various vernacular languages.

Question 7.
Manuscripts were highly:
(а) Expensive and fragile
(b) Decorated and fragile
(c) Expensive
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (а) Expensive and fragile
Since manuscripts were written by hand, they were expensive and fragile.

Question 8.
The printing press first came to Goa with Portuguese missionaries in the:
(а) Mid-fourteenth century
(b) Mid-sixteenth century
(c) Mid-seventeenth century
(d) Mid-eighteenth century

Answer
Answer: (b) Mid-sixteenth century
In the mid-sixteenth century.

Question 9.
Catholic priests printed the first Tamil book in ……………. at Cochin.
(a) 1549
(b) 1559
(c) 1569
(d) 1579

Answer
Answer: (d) 1579
In 1579, Catholic priests printed the first Tamil book at Cochin.

Question 10.
The Deoband Seminary was founded in:
(a) 1857
(b) 1867
(c) 1877
(d) 1887

Answer
Answer: (b) 1867
In 1867.

Question 11.
Amar Jiban was the autobiography of:
(а) Rashsundari Debi
(b) Kalpana Debi
(c) Mahasundari Debi
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (а) Rashsundari Debi
Amar Jiban was the autobiography of Rashsundari Debi.

Question 12.
Istri Dharm Vichar was published by:
(a) Shyam Chaddha
(b) Sohan Chaddha
(c) Mohan Chaddha
(d) Ram Chaddha

Answer
Answer: (d) Ram Chaddha
Ram Chaddha published Istri Dharma Vichar to teach women how to be obedient wives.

Question 13.
Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal was written and published by:
(a) Kashi baba
(b) Kali baba
(c) Sohan baba
(d) Mohan baba

Answer
Answer: (a) Kashi baba
Kashi Baba, a Kanpur mill worker, wrote and published Chotte Aur Bade Ka Sawal in 1938.

Question 14.
Kesari was owned by:
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Kesari, a newspaper was owned by Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

Question 15.
Bal Gangadhar was imprisoned in:
(a) 1908
(b) 1909
(c) 1910
(d) 1911

Answer
Answer: (a) 1908
When Bal Gangadhar Tilak wrote about the Punjab revolutionaries he was imprisoned in 1908.

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Question 1.
The company appointed a paid servant to supervise weavers. He was called:
(a) Officers
(b) Tehsildar
(c) Gomastha
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Gomastha
He was known as Gomastha.

Question 2.
The first cotton mill in Bombay came up in :
(a) 1852
(b) 1853
(c) 1854
(d) 1855

Answer
Answer: (c) 1854
The first cotton mill came up in 1854 and it went into production two years later.

Question 3.
The history of many business groups goes back to trade with:
(a) Japan
(b) Britain
(c) USA
(d) China

Answer
Answer: (d) China
China had trade links with many countries.

Question 4.
The Marwari businessman who set up the first Indian jute mill in Calcutta in 1917 was:
(a) Seth Hukumchand
(b) Seth Manikchand
(c) Seth Ramchand
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (a) Seth Hukumchand
Seth Hukumchand set up the first Indian jute mill in Calcutta in 1917.

Question 5.
Advertisements of Indian manufacturers became a vehicle of the nationalist message of:
(a) Purely Indian
(b) Purely English
(c) Swadeshi
(d) None of the

Answer
Answer: (c) Swadeshi
Indian manufactures became a vehicle of the nationalist message and thus their advertisements were called swadeshi messages.

Question 6.
E.T. Pauli produced a music book that had a picture on the cover page announcing the:
(a) ‘Dawn of the year’
(b) ‘Dawn of the Century’
(c) ‘Dawn of the country’
(d) none of the above

Answer
Answer: (b) ‘Dawn of the Century’
In 1900, a popular music publisher E.T. Pauli produced a music book that had a picture on the cover page announcing the ‘Dawn of the Century’.

Question 7.
Most historians refer to the phase of industrialisation as:
(a) Dawn-industrialisation
(b) Present-industrialisation
(c) Proto-industrialisation
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (c) Proto-industrialisation
Many historians refer to the phase of industrialisation as proto-industrialisation. ‘Proto’ means the first of early form of something.

Question 8.
In the countryside poor peasants and artisans began working:
(a) For the king
(b) For the richmen
(c) For merchants
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (c) For merchants
Merchants were rich people, who had astisans and the poor working for them.

Question 9.
Merchants were based in towns but the work was done mostly:
(a) On the roadside
(b) In their houses
(c) In the countryside
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (c) In the countryside
Though merchants were based in towns the work was done mostly in the countryside.

Question 10.
A merchant clothier in England, purchased wool from a wool stapler and:
(a) Carried it to the spinners
(b) Carried it to the weaver
(c) Carried it to the factory
(d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: (a) Carried it to the spinners
A merchant clothier in England purchased wool for a wool stapler, and carried it to the spinners.

Question 11.
The finishing of the cloth was done in ……………………… before the export merchants sold the cloth in the international market.
(a) US
(b) Sydney
(c) London
(d) Moscow

Answer
Answer: (c) London
All the finishing was done in London before the export merchant sold the cloth in the international market.

Question 12.
The proto-industrial system was a part of a network of:
(a) Commercial exchanges
(b) Loose exchanges
(c) A global exchanges
(d) All the above

Answer
Answer: (a) commercial exchanges
The proto-industrial system was a part of a network of commercial exchanges. It was controlled by merchants and the goods were produced by a vast number of producers.

Question 13.
The earliest factories in England came up by the:
(a) 1720s
(b) 1730s
(c) 1740s
(d) 1750s

Answer
Answer: (b) 1730s
The earliest factories in England came up by the 1730s.

Question 14.
In the early nineteenth century, ……………………… increasingly became an intimate part of the English landscape.
(a) Quantity
(b) Quality
(c) Factories
(d) Agriculture

Answer
Answer: (c) Factories
In the early nineteenth century, factories became an intimate part of the English landscape.

Question 15.
The most dynamic industries in Britain were clearly:
(а) Cotton and jute
(b) Jute and metals
(c) Cotton and metals
(d) Only metals

Answer
Answer: (c) Cotton and metals
In Britain, at that time the most dynamic industries were cotton and metals.

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