NCERT MCQ CLASS-9 CHAPTER-2 | SOCIAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT MCQ | ECONOMICS IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | | PEOPLE AS RESOURCE | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-2 People as Resource NCERT MCQ for Class 9 Social Science Economics Important Questions which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON PEOPLE AS RESOURCE

Question 1.
Which of the following is the most labour absorbing sectors of the Indian economy?

(a) Primary sector
(b) tertiary sector
(c) Secondary sector
(d) Private sector

Answer: (a) Primary sector

Question 2.
Which of the following is included in the primary sector?

(a) Manufacturing
(b) Tourism
(c) Forestry
(d) Communication

Answer: (c) Forestry

Question 3.
Which of the following is included in the tertiary sector?

(a) Fishing
(b) Trade
(c) Mining
(d) Health

Answer: (d) Health

Question 4.
Which of the following is included in the secondary sector?

(a) Poultry farming
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Transport
(d) Quarrying

Answer: (b) Manufacturing

Question 5.
Investment in human capital can be made through

(a) Education
(b) Training
(c) Medical care
(d) All the three

Answer: (d) All the three

Question 6.
The literacy rate during 2010-11 was

(a) 64%
(b) 74%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%

Answer: (b) 74%

Question 7.
Which of the following sectors faces the problem of seasonal unemployment?

(a) Agriculture
(b) Service sector
(c) Trade
(d) IT sector

Answer: (a) Agriculture

Question 8.
Infant mortality rate is the death of a child under

(a) One year
(b) Three, year
(c) Two year
(d) Four year

Answer: (a) One year

Question 9.
The workforce population includes people from 15 years to

(a) 59 years
(b) 62 years
(c) 60 years
(d) 65 years

Answer: (a) 59 years

Question 10.
Which age group of children does the Sarva Siksha Abhiyan aim to promote education?

(a) 6 to 10 years
(b) 5 to 3 years
(c) 6 to 14 years
(d) 7 to 12 years

Answer: (c) 6 to 14 years

Question 11.
The number of females per thousand males refers to :

(a) Sex Ratio
(b) Literacy Rate
(c) Infant Mortality Rate
(d) Birth Rate

Answer: (a) Sex Ratio

Question 12.
Decrease in IMR (Infant Mortality Rate) of a country signifies:

(a) Increase in life expectancy
(b) Increase in GNP
(c) Economic development of a country
(d) Increase in number of colleges in a country

Answer: (a) Increase in life expectancy

Question 13.
What is the life expectancy in India as per the census of 2000?

(a) 72 years
(b) 53 years
(c) 64 years
(d) 80 years

Answer: (c) 64 years

Question 14.
Which one of the following is considered important to create a ‘virtuous cycle’ by the parents?
(a) To sand their children to the school
(b) To provide goods food to their children
(c) To join their children in corporate schools
(d) To take care of the health and education of their children

Answer: (d) To take care of the health and education of their children

Question 15.
Which one from the following is the most labour absorbing sector?

(a) Agriculture
(b) Fisheries
(c) Poultry farming
(d) Mining

Answer: (a) Agriculture


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NCERT MCQ CLASS-9 CHAPTER-1 SOCIAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT MCQ | ECONOMICS IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | | THE STORY OF VILLAGE PALAMPUR | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-1 The Story of Village Palampur in India NCERT MCQ for Class 9 Social Science Economics Important Questions which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE STORY OF VILLAGE PALAMPUR

Question 1. Tools, machines and buildings can be used to production over many years, are called:
(a) physical capital
(b) secondary capital
(c) fixed capital
(d) all the above

Answer :  C 

Question 2. High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds are developed in
(a) Research institutes
(b) Factories
(c) Krishak Bharati Cooperatives
(d) None of the above

Answer :  A

Question 3. Scope of farming activity is limited in Palampur due to
(a) fixed amount of land
(b) lack of irrigation
(c) lack of labour
(d) none of the above

Answer :  A

Question 4. All farmers in Palampur grow at least two main crops may are growing:
(a) sugarcane as the third crop
(b) rice as the third crop
(c) potatoes as the third crop
(d) onion as the third crop

Answer :  C

Question . Which of the following is a modern farming method?
(a) Multiple cropping
(b) Use of HYV seeds
(c) Use of chemical fertilizers
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer :  D

Question 5. Who is a person who puts together land, labour and capital?
(a) Moneylender
(b) Entrepreneur
(c) Zamindar
(d) Manager

Answer :  B

Question 6. Multiple Cropping refers to:
(a) cultivation of wheat and rice
(b) cultivation of two crops in alternate rows
(c) cultivating more than one crop on the same field each year
(d) cultivating crops and rearing animals on the same farm

Answer :  C

Question 7. Consumption of chemical fertilizers is highest in which state of India?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Himachal Pradesh

Answer :  A

Question 8. Which one among the following is not fixed capital?
(a) Machines
(b) Buildings
(c) Tools
(d) Raw materials

Answer :  D

Question 9. The SC’s population in the village comprises of:
(a) half
(b) two-thirds
(c) one-third
(d) none of the above

Answer :  C

Question 10. Which one among the following is a non-farm activity?
(a) Multiple cropping
(b) Crop rotation
(c) Dairy farming
(d) Modern farming

Answer :  C

Question 11. The concept of White Revolution is associated with
(a) food crops
(b) milk
(c) cotton
(d) pesticides

Answer :  B

Question 12. Which is the most abundant factor of production in India?
(a) Land
(b) Capital
(c) Labour
(d) Tools and machines

Answer :  C

Question 13. Which one of the following terms is used for measuring crop produced on a given piece of land during a single season?
(a) Yield
(b) Productivity
(c) Cultivation
(d) Output

Answer :   A

Question 14. During the rainy season, farmers in Palampur grow:
(a) wheat and barley
(b) wheat and rice
(c) wheat and bajra
(d) jowar and bajra

Answer :  D

Question 15. Which of the following transformed the system of irrigation in Palampur?
(a) Tube wells
(b) Persian wheel
(c) Rainwater harvesting
(d) None of these

Answer :  A

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CLASS 11th CHAPTER -5 Morphology of Flowering Plants |Biology | NCERT SOLUTION| EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter – 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants includes all the important topics with detailed explanation that aims to help students to understand the concepts better. Students who are preparing for their Class 11 Biology exams must go through NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chapter -5 Morphology of Flowering Plants. NCERT Solutions will make you understand the topics in most simple manner and grasp it easily to perform better.

Class 11th Chapter -5 Morphology of Flowering Plants | NCERT BIOLOGY SOLUTION |

Page No: 82

Exercises
 
1. What is meant by modification of root? What type of modification of root is found in the
(a) Banyan tree
(b) Turnip
(c) Mangrove trees
Answer
The primary function of the root is absorption of water and minerals and giving mechanical support to the plant. Sometimes roots get modified to carry out other functions like storage of food or additional mechanical support.
(a) Banyan Tree: In banyan trees long roots develop from branches and they go deep down to reach the ground. They are for providing additional mechanical support to the huge banyan tree. This modification is called as prop root. 
(b) Turnip: In turnip the root is modified to store extra food. 
(c) Mangrove trees: Mangrove trees are found in marshy area. The roots get modified into pneumatic structures providing extra passage to allow additional oxygen to the plant.

2. Justify the following statements on the basis of external features
(i) Underground parts of a plant are not always roots
(ii) Flower is a modified shoot
Answer
(i) In some plants stems remain underground to carry out some additional functions, like food storage and vegetative reproduction. For example, potatoes are modified form of underground stems.

(ii) When the stem takes on the role of sexual reproduction it is modified into a flower. That is why flower id often called a modified shoot.

3. How is pinnately compound leaf different from palmately compound leaf?
Answer
In pinnately compound leaf a number of leaflets are attached on a common axis. Example, neem leaves while in palmately compound leaf number of leaflets are attached at the common point on the leaf stalk. Example, cotton leaves.

4. Explain with suitable examples the different types of phyllotaxy?
Answer
Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of leaves on the stem or branch. It is of three types: alternate, opposite and whorled.

• Alternate Arrangement of Leaves: In alternate type of phyllotaxy, a single leaf arises at each node in alternate manner, as in china rose, mustard and sun flower plants.

• Opposite Arrangement of Leaves: In opposite type, a pair of leaves arise at each node and lie opposite to each other as in Calotropis and guava plants.

• Whorled Arrangement of Leaves: If more than two leaves arise at a node and form a whorl, it is called whorled, as in Alstonia.

Page No: 83
 
5. Define the following terms:
(a) Aestivation
(b) Placentation
(c) Actinomorphic
(d) Zygomorphic
(e) Superior ovary
(f) Perigynous flower
(g) Epipetalous Stamen

Answer
(a) The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in floral bud with respect to the other members of the same whorl is known as aestivation. The main types of aestivation are valvate, twisted, imbricate and vexillary.

(b) The arrangement of ovules within the ovary is known as placentation. The placentation are of different types namely, marginal, axile, parietal, basal, central and free central.

(c) When a flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in any radial plane passing through the centre, it is said to be actinomorphic, Example: mustard and chilli.

(d) When a flower can be divided into two similar halves only in one particular vertical plane, it is zygomorphic. Example: pea, gulmohur, bean and Cassia.

(e) Superior ovary flowers are those flowers in which the gynoecium is present at the highest position, while other floral parts are arranged below it. A flower with this arrangement is described as hypogynous. Example: brinjal and mustard.
(f) In perigynous flowers, the gynoecium is present in the centre and the rest of the floral parts are arranged at the rim of the thalamus at the same level. Example: plum and rose.
(g) When stamens are attached to the petals, they are epipetalous as in brinjal.

6. Differentiate between
(a) Racemose and cymose inflorescence
(b) Fibrous roots and adventitious roots
(c) Apocarpous and syncarpous ovary

Answer
(a)
Racemose inflorescence
Cymose inflorescence
→ Younger flowers are present at the tip while older flowers are arranged at the base of this inflorescence. Such an arrangement is called acropetal succession.

→ The main axis in racemose inflorescence continues to grow and produce flowers laterally.
→ Younger flowers are present at the base of the inflorescence, while older flowers are present at the top. Such an arrangement is called basipetal succession.

→ The main axis in cymose inflorescence has limited growth, which later terminates into a flower.

(b)
Fibrous root
Adventitious root
→ In monocots, the primary root which develops from the radicle of the seed is short-lived and is replaced by a large number of roots arising from the base of the stem.

→ It is found in wheat and other cereals.
→ These roots arise from any part of the plant other than the radicle of seeds.

→ It is found in banyan, Monstera, and other plants.

(c)
Apocarpous ovary
Syncarpous ovary
→ The flowers with apocarpus ovary have more than one carpel. These carpels are free.

→ It is found in lotus and rose flowers.
→ The flowers with syncarpous ovary have more than one carpel. However, these carpels are fused.

→ It is found in the flowers of tomato and mustard.

7. Draw the labelled diagram of the following:
(i) Gram seed
(ii) V.S. of maize seed

Answer

(a)
(b)
 
8. Describe modifications of stem with suitable examples.

Answer

The modifications of Stem with suitable examples are:
→ Food Storage: Stems are modified to perform different functions. Underground stems of potato, ginger, turmeric, zaminkand, Colocasia are modified to store food in them. They also act as organs of perennation to tide over conditions unfavourable for growth.

Tendrils: Stem tendrils which develop from axillary buds, are slender and spirally coiled and help plants to climb such as in gourds (cucumber, pumpkins, watermelon) and grapevines.

→ Thorns: Axillary buds of stems may also get modified into woody, straight and pointed thorns. Thorns are found in many plants such as Citrus, Bougainvillea. They protect plants from browsing animals. Some plants of arid regions modify their stems into flattened (Opuntia), or fleshycylindrical (Euphorbia) structures. They contain chlorophyll and carry out photosynthesis.

→ Vegetative Reproduction: Underground stems of some plants such as grass and strawberry, etc., spread to new niches and when older parts die new plants are formed. In plants like mint and jasmine a slender lateral branch arises from the base of the main axis and after growing aerially for some time arch downwards to touch the ground. A lateral branch with short internodes and each node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots is found in aquatic plants like Pistia and Eichhornia. In banana, pineapple and Chrysanthemum, the lateral branches originate from the basal and underground portion of the main stem, grow horizontally beneath the soil and then come out obliquely upward giving rise to leafy shoots.

9. Take one flower each of families Fabaceae and Solanaceae and write its semi-technical description. Also draw their floral diagrams after studying them.

Answer

→ Family Fabaceae (Pea)
Fabaceae (earlier called Papilionaceae) is a sub-family of the Leguminoseae family.

• Vegetative features:
Habit: Pinnately compound, alternately arranged with leaf tendrils with the pulvinus present at the leaf base along folacious stipules.
Root: Tap root system with root nodules.

• Floral features:
Inflorescence: Racemose, generally axial than terminal
Flower: Zygomorphic and bisexual flowers are found
Calyx: It contains five sepals which are gamosepalous while aestivation is imbricate.
Corolla: It contains five petals (polypetalous) with vexillary aestivation.
Androecium: It consists of ten anthers that are diadelphous with dithecous anthers.
Gynoecium: Monocarpellary superior ovary which is unilocular with marginal placentation.
Fruit: Legume pod with non-endospermic seeds
Floral formula: 
Economic importance: Peas are used as vegetables for making various culinary preparations.
Floral Diagram of Fabaceae
→ Flowers of Solanum nigrum Family Solanaceae

• Vegetative features:
Habit: Erect, herbaceous plant
Leaves: Simple, exstipulate leaves with reticulate venation
Stem: Erect stem with numerous branches.

• Floral features:
Inflorescence: Solitary and axillary
Flowers: Actinomorphic, bisexual flowers
Calyx: Calyx is composed of five sepals that are united and persistent. Aestivation is valvate.
Corolla: Corolla consists of five united petals with valvate aestivation.
Androecium: It consists of five epipetalous stamens.
Gynoecium: It consists of bicarpellary syncarpous superior ovary with axile placentation.
Fruits: Berry
Seeds: Numerous, endospermous
Floral formula:
Economic importance: Used for medicinal purposes.
 
Floral Diagram of Solanum nigrum

10. Describe the various types of placentations found in flowering plants.
 
Answer
 
Placentation: The arrangement of ovules within the ovary is known as placentation. The placentation are of different types namely, marginal, axile, parietal, basal, central and free central.
The various types of placentations found in flowering plants are:

→ Marginal placentation: The ovary in which the placenta forms a ridge along the ventral suture of the ovary and the ovules develop on two separate rows is known to have marginal placentation. This type of placentation is found in peas.
Marginal Placentation
→ Parietal placentation: When the ovules develop on the inner walls of the ovary, the ovary is said to have parietal placentation.
Parietal Placentation
→ Axile placentation: In axile placentation, the placenta is axial and ovules are attached to it. Examples include China rose, lemon, and tomato.
Axile placentation
→ Basal placentation: The ovary in which the placenta develops from its base and a single ovule is found attached to the base is said to have basal placentation. It is found in marigold and sunflower.
Basal placentation
→ Free central placentation: In free central placentation, the ovules develop on the central axis while the septa are absent. This type of placentation is found in Dianthus and primrose.
Free central placentation

11. What is a flower? Describe the parts of a typical angiosperm flower?

Answer
The flower is the reproductive unit in the angiosperms. It is meant for sexual reproduction. A flower has four different parts i.e., the calyx, corolla, androecium, and gynoecium. Androecium and gynoecium represent the male and female reproductive organs of a flower respectively. Parts of flower are:

→ The calyx: The calyx is the outermost whorl of the flower and the members are called sepals. Generally, sepals are green, leaf like and protect the flower in the bud stage. When the sepals of a flower are free, they are called polysepalous, while fused sepals of a flower are called gamosepalous.

→ Corolla: Corolla is composed of petals. Petals are usually brightly coloured to attract insects for pollination. When the petals are free, they are called polypetalous, while fused petals are called gamopetalous. Corolla may be tubular, bell-shaped, funnel-shaped or wheel-shaped.

→ The androecium or the stamen is the male reproductive part of a flower. It consists of two parts, the filament and the bilobed anther. The bilobed anther is the site for meiosis and the generation of pollen grains.

→ Gynoecium represents the female reproductive part of a flower. It consists of an ovary. The ovary is connected by a long tube (called style) to the stigma. The ovary bears numerous ovules attached to the placenta.

12. How do the various leaf modifications help plants?
Answer
Leaves are often modified to perform functions other than photosynthesis. These are:
→ Tendrils: The leaves of a pea plant are modified into tendrils that help the plant in climbing.
→ Spines: The leaves in cactus are modified into sharp spines that act as an organ of defense.
→Phyllode: The leaves of some Australian acacia are short-lived and soon replaced by flattened, green structures called phyllodes that arise from the petiole of the leaves. The petioles in these plants synthesize food.
→ Pitcher: The leaves of the pitcher plant are modified into pitcher-like structures, which contain digestive juices and help in trapping and digesting insects.

13. Define the term inflorescence. Explain the basis for the different types of inflorescence in flowering plants.

Answer
Inflorescence is the manner in which the flowers are arranged on the flowering axis. During the flowering season, the vegetative apex of the stem gets converted into a floral meristem. Depending on
whether the apex gets converted into a flower or continues to grow, two major types of inflorescences are defined – racemose and cymose.
In racemose inflorescence, the floral axis continues to grow and produces flowers laterally while in cymose inflorescence, the main axis terminates into a flower. Hence, it is limited in growth.

14. Write the floral formula of an actinomorphic bisexual, hypogynous flower with five united sepals, five free petals, five free stamens and two united carpals with superior ovary and axile placentation.

Answer
The floral formula of the described flower is
as
Actinomorphic flowers are represented by the symbol 
A bisexual flower is indicated by
The calyx contains five united sepals which can be represented as K(5).
The corolla consists of five free petals and it represented as C5.
The androecium consists of five free stamens and is represented by A5.
The gynoecium consists of a superior ovary with two united carpels and axile placentations, which can be represented as 

15. Describe the arrangement of floral members in relation to their insertion on thalamus?

Answer
Based on the position of the calyx, corolla, and androecium (with respect to the ovary on the thalamus), the flowers are described as hypognous, perigynous, and epigynous.
In hypogynous flowers, the ovary occupies the highest position on the thalamus while other floral parts are situated below it. In such flowers, the ovary is superior e.g., China rose, mustard etc.
In perigynous flowers, the ovary is situated at the centre and other floral parts are arranged on the rim of the thalamus. The ovary here is said to be half inferior e.g., plum, rose, peach
In epigynous flowers, the thalamus grows around the ovary fusing with its wall. The other floral parts are present above the ovary. Hence, the ovary is said to be inferior e.g., flowers of guava and cucumber.
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CLASS 11th CHAPTER -4 Animal Kingdom |Biology | NCERT SOLUTION| EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter -4 Animal Kingdom includes all the important topics with detailed explanation that aims to help students to understand the concepts better. Students who are preparing for their Class 11 Biology exams must go through NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chapter -4 Animal Kingdom. NCERT Solutions will make you understand the topics in most simple manner and grasp it easily to perform better.

Class 11th Chapter -4 Animal Kingdom | NCERT BIOLOGY SOLUTION |

Page No: 62

Exercises

1. What are the difficulties that you would face in classification of animals, if common fundamental features are not taken into account?
Answer
If we consider specific characteristics instead of fundamental features then each organism will be placed in a separate group and the entire objective of classification would not be achieved.
Classification of animals is also important in comparing different organisms and judging their individual evolutionary significance. If only a single characteristic is considered, then this objective would not be achieved.

 
2. If you are given a specimen, what are the steps that you would follow to classify it?Answer
→ First Step: Look for the presence or absence of vertebral column.
→ Second Step: Identify the level of organization.
→ Third Step: Look for symmetry, i.e. radial or bilateral or asymmetrical.
→ Fourth Step: Look for presence or absence of body cavity.


3. How useful is the study of the nature of body cavity and coelom in the classification of animals?
Answer
The presence or absence of the body cavity gives a clue about a particular animal’s position in evolutionary ladder. The absence of coelom indicates that the animal is yet to develop a functional dividion of labour to carry out various activities. This indicates towards a simplicity of activities going on inside the body. The presence of coelom paves the way for evolution of a more complex and more efficient organ system for various activities.

4. Distinguish between intracellular and extracellular digestion?
Answer
Intracellular digestionExtracellular digestion
The digestion of food occurs within the cell.The digestion occurs in the cavity of alimentary canal.
Digestive enzymes are secreted by the surrounding cytoplasm into the food vacuole.Digestive enzymes are secreted by special cells into the cavity of alimentary canal.
Digestive products are diffused into the cytoplasm.Digestive products diffuse across the intestinal wall into various parts of the body.
It is a less efficient method.It is a more efficient method of digestion.
It occurs in unicellular organisms.It occurs in multicellular organisms.

5. What is the difference between direct and indirect development?
Answer

Direct developmentIndirect development
It is a type of development in which an embryo develops into a mature individual without involving a larval stage.It is a type of development that involves a sexually-immature larval stage, having different food requirements than adults.
Metamorphosis is absent.Metamorphosis involving development of larva to a sexually-mature adult is present.
It occurs in fishes, reptiles, birds, and mammals.It occurs in most of the invertebrates and amphibians.


6. What are the peculiar features that you find in parasitic platyhelminthes?
Answer

Peculiar features in parasitic platyhelminthes are:
→ They have dorsiventrally flattened body and bear hooks and suckers to get attached inside the body of the host.

→ Their body is covered with thick tegument, which protects them from the action of digestive juices of the host.
→The tegument also helps in absorbing nutrients from the host’s body.

7. What are the reasons that you can think of for the arthropods to constitute the largest group of the animal kingdom?
Answer
Arthropods are the first phylum to have well developed systems to carry out different activities. There is distinct system for respiration, locomotion and reproduction. Their survival capacity is great because of elaborate system. This has helped them survive in diverse conditions. This can be one of the reasons why arthropods are the largest group among the animal kingdom.

8. Water vascular system is the characteristic of which group of the following:

(a) Porifera (b) Ctenophora (c) Echinodermata (d) Chordata
Answer
(c) Phylum, Echinodermata is having water vascular system. This system is used for locomotion, food and waste transportation, and respiration in this group. This system consists of Madreporite, Stone canal, Circular ring canal, Radial canals, Lateral canals and Tube feet.

9. “All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates”. Justify the statement.
Answer
The characteristic features of the phylum, Chordata, include the presence of a notochord and paired pharyngeal gill slits. In sub-phylum Vertebrata, the notochord present in embryos gets replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults. Thus, it can be said that all vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.

10. How important is the presence of air bladder in Pisces?
Answer
Gas bladder or air bladder is a gas filled sac present in fishes. It helps in maintaining buoyancy. Thus, it helps fishes to ascend or descend and stay in the water current.

11. What are the modifications that are observed in birds that help them fly?
Answer

The modifications modifications in birds help them fly:
→ Streamlined body for rapid and smooth movement
→ Covering of feathers for insulation
→ Forelimbs modified into wings and hind limbs used for walking, perching, and swimming
→ Presence of pneumatic bones to reduce weight
→ Presence of additional air sacs to supplement respiration.

12. Could the number of eggs or young ones produced by an oviparous and viviparous mother be equal? Why?
Answer
The numbers of eggs produced by an oviparous mother will be more than the young ones produced by a viviparous mother because in oviparous animals, the development of young ones takes place outside the mother’s body. Their eggs are more prone to environmental conditions and predators. Therefore, to overcome the loss, more eggs are produced by mothers so that even under harsh environmental conditions, some eggs might be able to survive and produce young ones. On the other hand, in viviparous organisms, the development of young ones takes place in safe conditions inside the body of the mother. They are less exposed to environmental conditions and predators. Therefore, there are more chances of their survival and hence, less number of young ones is produced compared to the number of eggs.

13. Segmentation in the body is first observed in which of the following:

(a) Platyhelminthes (b) Aschelminthes (c) Annelida (d) Arthropoda

Answer
The body segmentation first appeared in the phylum, Annelida.

14.Match the following:
(a) Operculum(i) Ctenophora
(b) Parapodia(ii) Mollusca
(c) Scales(iii) Porifera
(d) Comb plates(iv) Reptilia
(e) Radula(v) Annelida
(f) Hairs(vi) Cyclostomata and Chondrichthyes
(g) Choanocytes(vii) Mammalia
(h) Gill slits(viii) Osteichthyes

Answer

(a) Operculum(viii) Osteichthyes
(b) Parapodia(v) Annelida
(c) Scales(iv) Reptilia
(d) Comb plates(i) Ctenophora
(e) Radula(ii) Mollusca
(f) Hairs(vii) Mammalia
(g) Choanocytes(iii) Porifera
(h) Gill slits(vi) Cyclostomata and Chondrichthyes

15. Prepare a list of some animals that are found parasitic on human beings.

Answer

Ascaris, Wucheraria, Acylostoma, Taenia, Fasciola.
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CLASS 11th CHAPTER -3 Plant Kingdom |Biology | NCERT SOLUTION| EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter -3 Plant Kingdom includes all the important topics with detailed explanation that aims to help students to understand the concepts better. Students who are preparing for their Class 11 Biology exams must go through NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chapter -3 Plant Kingdom. NCERT Solutions will make you understand the topics in most simple manner and grasp it easily to perform better.

Class 11th Chapter -3 Plant Kingdom | NCERT BIOLOGY SOLUTION |

Page No: 44

Exercises

1. What is the basis of classification of algae?
Answer
The presence or absence of pigments is the main basis of classification of algae.

• Chlorophyceae: Chlorophyll a and b are present in them and impart green colour. Chlorophyceae are also called ‘blue-green algae’.

• Phaeophyceae: Chlorophyll a and c and fuxoxanthin are present. Fucoxanthin imparts brown colour. Phaeophyceae are also called ‘brown algae’.

• Rhodophyceae: Chlorophyll a and d and phycoerythrin are present. Phycoerythrin imparts red colour. Rhodophyceae are also called ‘red algae’.


2. When and where does reduction division take place in the life cycle of a liverwort, a moss, a fern, a gymnosperm and an angiosperm?
Answer
In liverwort, moss and fern, the saprophytic plant produces haploid spores after meiosis while in gymnosperm and angiosperm, meiosis takes place in antheridium and ovary for the formation of pollen grains and ovules.
 
3. Name three groups of plants that bear archegonia. Briefly describe the life cycle of any one of them.
Answer
Bryophytes, Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms bear distinct archegonia.
Life cycle of gymnosperms

• Reproduction: The gymnosperms are heterosporous; they produce haploid microspores and megaspores. The two kinds of spores are produced within sporangia that are borne on sporophylls which are arranged spirally along an axis to form lax or compact strobili or cones.

• Male gamete: The strobili bearing microsporophylls and microsporangia are called microsporangiate or male strobili. The microspores develop into a male gametophytic generation which is highly reduced and is confined to only a limited number of cells. This reduced gametophyte is called a pollen grain. The development of pollen grains takes place within the microsporangia. 

• Female gamete: The cones bearing megasporophylls with ovules or megasporangia are called macrosporangiate or female strobili. The male or female cones or strobili may be borne on the same tree (Pinus) or on different trees (Cycas). The megaspore mother cell is differentiated from one of the cells of the nucellus. The nucellus is protected by envelopes and the composite structure is called an ovule. The ovules are borne on megasporophylls which may be clustered to form the female cones. The megaspore mother cell divides meiotically to form four megaspores. One of the megaspores enclosed within the megasporangium (nucellus) develops into a multicellular female gametophyte that bears two or more archegonia or female sex organs. The multicellular female gametophyte is also retained within megasporangium.

• Fertilization: The pollen grain is released from the microsporangium. They are carried in air currents and come in contact with the opening of the ovules borne on megasporophylls. The pollen tube carrying the male gametes grows towards archegonia in the ovules and discharge their contents near the mouth of the archegonia. Following fertilisation, zygote develops into an embryo and the ovules into seeds.

4. Mention the ploidy of the following: protonemal cell of a moss; primary endosperm nucleus in dicot, leaf cell of a moss; prothallus cell of a ferm; gemma cell in Marchantia; meristem cell of monocot, ovum of a liverwort, and zygote of a fern.
Answer
• Protonemal cell of a moss – Haploid
• Primary endosperm nucleus in a dicot – Triploid
• Leaf cell of a moss – Haploid
• Prothallus of a fern – Haploid
• Gemma cell in Marchantia- Haploid
• Meristem cell of a monocot – Diploid
• Ovum of a liverwort – Haploid
• Zygote of a fern – Diploid

5. Write a note on economic importance of algae and gymnosperms.
Answer
Economic importance of algae: Algae are useful to man in a variety of ways. They perform half of the total carbon dioxide-fixation on earth by photosynthesis, acting as the primary producers in aquatic habitats. Many species of marine algae such as Porphyra, Sargassum, and Laminaria are edible. Chlorella and Spirulina are rich in proteins. Thus, they are used as food supplements. Agar is used in the preparation of jellies and ice-cream. It is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria. Carrageenin is used as an emulsifier in chocolates, paints, and toothpastes. It is obtained from the red algae. Many red algae such as Corallina are used in treating worm infections.

Economic importance of gymnosperms: Gymnospermous plants are widely used as ornamentals.  Many conifers such as pine, cedar, etc., are sources of the soft wood used in construction and packing. Medicinal uses: An anticancer drug Taxol is obtained from Taxus. Many species of Ephedraproduce ephedrine, which can be used in the treatment of asthma and bronchitis. The seeds of Pinus gerardiana are edible. Resins are used commercially for manufacturing sealing waxes and water-proof paints. A type of resin known as turpentine is obtained from various species of Pinus.


6. Both gymnosperms and angiosperms bear seeds, then why are they classified separately?
Answer
The seeds of gymnosperms are naked, while that of angiosperms are covered by a membrane. Therefore, they are classified separately.

7. What is heterospory? Briefly comment on its significance. Give two examples.
Answer
Heterospory is a phenomenon in which two kinds of spores are borne by the same plant. These spores differ in size. The smaller one are called microspore and the bigger ones are called megaspore. Microspore produce male gametophytes and megaspores produces female gametophyte. Thus it is considered as a crucial step in evolution as it is a precursor to the seed habit.
This ultimately led to seed development in gymnosperms and angiosperms.

Page No: 45

8. Explain briefly the following terms with suitable examples:-
(i) protonema
(ii) antheridium
(iii) archegonium
(iv) diplontic
(v) sporophyll
(vi) isogamy

Answer
(i) Protonema: It is the first stage in the life cycle of a moss, developing directly from the spore. It consists of creeping, green, branched, and often filamentous structures.

(ii) Antheridium: It is the male sex organ present in bryophytes and pteridophytes and is surrounded by a jacket of sterile cells. It encloses the sperm mother cells, which give rise to the male gametes.

(iii) Archegonium: It is the female sex organ present in bryophytes, pteridophytes, and gymnosperms. In bryophytes and pteridophytes, it generally has a swollen venter and a tubular neck, and contains the female gamete called the egg.

(iv) Diplontic: It is the term used for the life cycles of seed-bearing plants (gymnosperms and angiosperms). In these plants, the diploid sporophyte is dominant, photosynthetic, and independent. The gametophyte is represented by a single-celled (or a few-celled) structure.

(v) Sporophyll: In pteridophytes, the sporophytic plant body bears sporangia. These sporangia are subtended by leaf-like appendages known as sporophylls. In gymnosperms, microsporophylls and megasporophylls are found. These bear microspores and megaspores respectively.

(vi) Isogamy: It is a type of sexual reproduction involving the fusion of morphologically-similar gametes. This means that the gametes are of the same size, but perform different functions. This type of reproduction is commonly observed in Spirogyra.

9. Differentiate between the following:-
(i) red algae and brown algae
(ii) liverworts and moss
(iii) homosporous and heterosporous pteridophyte
(iv) syngamy and triple fusion

Answer

(i)
Red algae
Brown algae
Red algae are grouped under the class Rhodophyceae.Brown algae are grouped under the class Phaeophyceae.
They contain floridean starch as stored food.They contain mannitol or laminarin as stored food.
They contain the photosynthetic pigments chlorophylls a and d, and phycoerythrin.They contain the photosynthetic pigments chlorophylls a and c, and fucoxanthin.
Their cell walls are composed of cellulose, pectin, and phycocolloids.Their cell walls are composed of cellulose and algin.
Flagella are absentFlagella are present

(ii)
Liverworts
Moss
They have unicellular rhizoids.They have multicellular rhizoids.
Scales are present very oftenScales are absent
They are generally thalloid, with dichotomous branching.They are foliage, with lateral branching.
Gemma cups are presentGemma cups are absent
Sporophyte has very little photosynthetic tissueSporophyte has abundant photosynthetic tissue

(iii)
Homosporous pteridophytesHeterosporous pteridophytes
They bear spores that are of the same type.They bear two kinds of spores – microspores and megaspores.
They produce bisexual gametophytes.They produce unisexual gametophytes.

(iv)
SyngamyTriple fusion
It is the process of fusion of the male gamete with the egg in an angiosperm.It is the process of fusion of the male gamete with the diploid secondary nucleus in an angiosperm.
A diploid zygote is formed as a result of syngamy.A triploid primary endosperm is formed as a result of triple fusion.

10. How would you distinguish monocots from dicots?
Answer

CharacteristicMonocotDicot
Morphology  
RootsFibrous rootsTap roots
VenationGenerally parallel venationGenerally reticulate venation
FlowersTrimerous flowersPentamerous flowers
Cotyledons in seedsOneTwo
Anatomy  
No. of vascular bundles in stemNumerousGenerally 2 – 6
CambiumAbsentPresent
LeavesIsobilateralDorsiventral

11. Match the followings (column I with column II)

 
Column I
 
Column II
(a)
Chlamydomonas
(i)
Moss
(b)
Cycas
(ii)
Pteridophyte
(c)
Selaginella
(iii)
Algae
(d)
Sphagnum
(iv)
Gymnosperm

Answer

 
Column I
 
Column II
(a)
Chlamydomonas
(i)
Algae
(b)
Cycas
(ii)
Gymnosperm
(c)
Selaginella
(iii)
Pteridophyte
(d)
Sphagnum
(iv)
Moss

12. Describe the important characteristics of gymnosperms.
Answer
 
Important characteristics of gymnosperms are:
 
→ The seeds of these plants are not enclosed in fruits.

→The plant-body ranges from medium to tall trees and shrubs. The giant redwood tree Sequoia is one of the tallest trees in the world.

→ The root system consists of tap roots. The coralloid roots present in Cycas are associated with nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria.

→ The stem can be branched (as in Pinus and Cedrus) or un-branched (as in Cycas).

→ The leaves can be simple (as in Pinus)or compound (pinnate in Cycas). The leaves are needle-like, with a thick cuticle and sunken stomata. These help in preventing water loss.

→ Gymnosperms are heterosporous. They bear two kinds of spores – microspores and megaspores.

→ Flowers are absent. The microsporophylls and megasporophylls are arranged to form compact male and female cones.


→ Pollination occurs mostly through wind and pollen grains reach the pollen chamber of the ovule through the micropyle.

→ The male and female gametophytes are dependent on the sporophyte.

→ The seeds contain haploid endosperms and remain uncovered.
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CLASS 11th CHAPTER – 2 Biological Classification |Biology | NCERT SOLUTION| EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter -2 Biological Classification includes all the important topics with detailed explanation that aims to help students to understand the concepts better. Students who are preparing for their Class 11 Biology exams must go through NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chapter -2 Biological Classification. NCERT Solutions will make you understand the topics in most simple manner and grasp it easily to perform better.

Class 11th Chapter -2 Biological Classification | NCERT BIOLOGY SOLUTION |

Page No: 28
Exercises

1. Discuss how classification systems have undergone several changes over a period of time?
Answer
The classification systems have undergone several changes with time. The first attempt of classification was made by Aristotle. He classified plants as herbs, shrubs, and trees. Animals, on the other hand, were classified on the basis of presence or absence of red blood cells. This system of classification failed to classify all the known organisms.

Therefore, Linnaeus gave a two kingdom system of classification. It consists of kingdom Plantae and kingdom Animalia. However, this system did not differentiate between unicellular and multicellular organisms and between eukaryotes and prokaryotes. Therefore, there were large numbers of organisms that could not be classified under the two kingdoms.
To solve these problems, a five kingdom system of classification was proposed by R.H Whittaker in 1969. On the basis of characteristics, such as cell structure, mode of nutrition, presence of cell wall, etc., five kingdoms, Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia were formed.

2. State two economically important uses of:
(a) Heterotrophic bacteria
(b) Archaebacteria
Answer
Two economically important uses of Heterotrophic bacteria are:
→ They help in the production of curd from milk.
→ Many antibiotics are obtained from some species of bacteria.

Two economically important uses of Archaebacteria are:
→ Methane gas is produced from the dung of ruminants by the methanogens.
→ Methanogens are also involved in the formation of biogas and sewage treatment.

3. What is the nature of cell-walls in diatoms?
Answer
The cell walls in diatoms are embedded with silica, which makes them indestructible. They form two thin overlapping shells which fit together as in a soap box. Thus diatoms have left behind large amounts of cell wall deposits in their habitat.

4. Find out what do the terms ‘algal bloom’ and ‘red-tides’ signify.
Answer
Algal bloom refers to an increase in the population of algae or blue-green algae in water, resulting in discoloration of the water body.

Red tides are caused by red dinoflagellates that multiply rapidly. Due to their large numbers, the sea appears red in colour. Toxins released by them can kill other marine species.

5. How are viroids different from viruses?
Answer
Viroids are free RNAs without the protein coat, while virus have a protein coat encapsulating the RNA.

6. Describe briefly the four major groups of Protozoa.
Answer
The four major groups of Protozoa are:

• Amoeboid protozoans: These organisms live in fresh water, sea water or moist soil. They move and capture their prey by putting out pseudopodia (false feet) as in Amoeba. Marine forms have silica shells on their surface. Some of them such as Entamoeba are parasites.

• Flagellated protozoans: The members of this group are either free-living or parasitic. They have flagella. The parasitic forms cause diaseases such as sleeping sickness. Example: Trypanosoma

• Ciliated protozoa or ciliates: They are aquatic individuals that form a large group of protozoa. Their characteristic features are the presence of numerous cilia on the entire body surface and the presence of two types of nuclei. All the cilia beat in the same direction to move the water laden food inside a cavity called gullet. Example: Paramoecium, Vorticella,etc.

• Sporozoans: They include disease causing endoparasites and other pathogens. They are uninucleate and their body is covered by a pellicle. They do not possess cilia or flagella. They include the malaria causing parasite Plasmodium.

7. Plants are autotrophic. Can you think of some plants that are partially heterotrophic?
Answer
Some insectivorous plants, like bladderwort and venus fly trap are partially heterotrophic.
 
8. What do the terms phycobiont and mycobiont signify?
Answer
Lichens are good examples of symbiotic life of algae and fungi. Phycobiont is the name of the part composed of algae and Mycobiont is the name of the part composed of fungi. Fungi provide minerals and support to the alage, while algae provide nutrition to the fungi.

9. Give a comparative account of the classes of Kingdom Fungi under the following:
(i) Mode of nutrition
(ii) Mode of reproduction
Answer
→ Phycomycetes- This group of fungi includes members such as Rhizopus, Albugo, etc.
• Mode of nutrition: They are obligate parasites on plants or are found on decaying matter such as wood.

• Mode of reproduction: Asexual reproduction takes place through motile zoospores or non-motile aplanospores that are produced endogenously in sporangium.
Sexual reproduction may be of isogamous, anisogamous, or oogamous type. It results in the formation of thick-walled zygospore.

→ Ascomycetes- This group of fungi includes members such as Penicillium, Aspergillus,Claviceps, and Neurospora.
• Mode of nutrition: They are sporophytic, decomposers, parasitic or coprophilous.

• Mode of reproduction: Asexual reproduction occurs through asexual spores produced exogenously, such as conidia produced on conidiophores.
Sexual reproduction takes place through ascospores produced endogenously in sac – like asci and arranged inside ascocarps.

→ Basidiomycetes- This group of fungi includes members such as Ustilago,Agaricus and Puccinia.
• Mode of nutrition: They grow as decomposers in soil or on logs and tree stumps. They also occur as parasites in plants causing diseases such as rusts and smuts.
• Mode of reproduction: Asexual reproduction takes place commonly through fragmentation. Asexual spores are absent.

Sex organs are absent but sexual reproduction takes place through plasmogamy. It involves fusion of two different strains of hyphae. The resulting dikaryon gives rise to a basidium. Four basidiospores are produced inside a basidium.

→ Deuteromycetes – This group of fungi includes members such as Alternaria, Trichoderma, and Colletotrichum.
• Mode of nutritionSome members are saprophytes while others are parasites. However, a large number act as decomposers of leaf litter.

• Mode of reproduction: Asexual reproduction is the only way of reproduction in deuteromycetes. It occurs through asexual spores called conidia.
Sexual reproduction is absent in deuteromycetes.

10. What are the characteristic features of Euglenoids?
Answer
Characterisitic Features of Euglenoids:
→ Fresh water organisms found in stagnant water.
→ Instead of cell wall they have a protein rich layer called pellicle whick makes their body flexible.
→ They are autotrophs in the presence of sunlight and heterotrophs in the absence of sunlight.
→ A small light sensitive eye spot is present.

11. Give a brief account of viruses with respect to their structure and nature of genetic material. Also name four common viral diseases.
Answer
Viruses have a protein capsule and genetic materials inside the capsule. These genetic material become active once they are inside the nucleus of a host cell. They start replicating themselves and in turn spreading the disease.
Generally viruses that infect plants have single stranded RNA. Viruses infecting animals have double stranded RNA or DNA. Viruses which infect bacteria have double stranded DNA.
A.I.D.S, small pox, mumps, and influenza are some common examples of viral diseases.

12. Organise a discussion in your class on the topic- Are viruses living or non-living?
Answer
Viruses are microscopic organisms that have characteristics of both living and non-living. A virus consists of a strand of DNA or RNA covered by a protein coat. This presence of nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) suggests that viruses are alive. In addition, they can also respond to their environment (inside the host cell) in a limited manner.
However, some other characters, such as their inability to reproduce without using the host cell machinery and their a cellular nature, indicate that viruses are non-living. Therefore, classifying viruses has remained a mystery for modern systematics.
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CLASS 11th CHAPTER -1 The Living World |Biology | NCERT SOLUTION| EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter -1 The Living World includes all the important topics with detailed explanation that aims to help students to understand the concepts better. Students who are preparing for their Class 11 Biology exams must go through NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chapter -1 The Living World. NCERT Solutions will make you understand the topics in most simple manner and grasp it easily to perform better.

Class 11th Chapter -1 The Living World | NCERT BIOLOGY SOLUTION |

Exercises
Page No: 15

1. Why are living organisms classified?
Answer
The diversity of living beings makes it a challenge to systematically study them. Classification is a helpful tool to categorize them based on certain common characteristics. This enables scientists to study them in a more systematic way. The study of living beings is essential for the benefit of humankind. Discovery of new medicines, and better yielding crop varieties can be made possible only by systematic study of living beings. Moreover, environmental protection also makes it necessary for us to study the living beings in a systematic way.
 
2. Why are the classification systems changing every now and then?
Answer
Millions of plants, animals, and microorganisms found on earth, have been identified by the scientists while many new species are still being discovered around the world. Therefore, to classify these newly discovered species, with new characters, new systems of classification have to be devised every now and then. This creates the requirement to change the existing systems of classification.

3. What different criteria would you choose to classify people that you meet often?
Answer
In our day to day life we categorize people based on the basis of level of education, profession, hobbies, native place, sex etc.

4. What do we learn from identification of individuals and populations?
Answer
In a diverse country like India we can learn from identification of individuals and populations about the native place, mother tongue, costumes, food habit, religion, caste, etc.

5. Given below is the scientific name of Mango. Identify the correctly written name.
Mangifera Indica
Mangifera indica

Answer

In binomial system of nomenclature, the generic name of a species always starts with a capital letter whereas the specific name starts with a small letter. Therefore, the correct scientific name of Mango is Mangifera indica.

6. Define a taxon. Give some examples of taxa at different hierarchical levels.
Answer
A particular level of hierarchy in the classification of living beings is called a taxon. For example, the basic level of classification is species, followed by genus, family, order, class, phylum or division, in ascending order.

7. Can you identify the correct sequence of taxonomical categories?
(a) Species → Order → Phylum → Kingdom
(b) Genus → Species → Order → Kingdom
(c) Species → Genus → Order → Phylum
Answer
Both (a) and (c) represent correct sequences of taxonomic categories as the correct hierarchical arrangement of taxonomic categories in ascending order is
Species → Genus → Family → Order → Class → Phylum → Kingdom

In sequence (b), species should have been followed by genus. Therefore, it does not represent the correct sequence.

8. Try to collect all the currently accepted meanings for the word species. Discuss with your teacher the meaning of species in case of higher plants and animals on one hand and bacteria on the other hand.
Answer
In biological terms, species is the basic unit of taxonomy. It can be defined as a group of similar organisms capable of interbreeding freely among themselves under natural conditions to produce fertile off springs.
Therefore, a group of similar individuals that are reproductively isolated from other group of individuals form a species.

Species can also be defined as group of individuals that share the same gene pool.

9. Define and understand the following terms:
Answer
(i) Phylum: A group of closely related classes is called phylum. For example: pisces, amphibia, reptilia, aves and mammalia belong to the Phylum Chordata.
 
(ii) Class: The group of closely related orders is called class. For example: orders Primata and Carnivora belong to the class Mammalia.

(iii) Family: A group of closely related genera is called a family. For example: family hominidae contains Apes, Monkeys and Man. In plants, families are categorized on the basis of vegetative and reproductive features.
 
(iv) Order: A group of closely related families is called order. For example: order carnivora, includes many families.
 
(v) Genus: A group of closely related species is called genus. For example: genus Solanum, includes many species such as nigrum, melongena, tuberosum, etc.

10. How is a key helpful in the identification and classification of an organism?
Answer
Key is taxonomical aid used for identification of plants and animals based on the similarities and dissimilarities. Selection of one character leads to rejection of another character while identifying a particular species or genera or family and so on. For example presence or absence of hair on body can give a clue if an animal belongs to mammalian or not.

11. Illustrate the taxonomical hierarchy with suitable examples of a plant and an animal.
Answer
Classification of a plant
As an example, let us classify Mango
Phylum: Angiosperm
Class: Dicotyledons
Order: Sapindales
Family: Anacardiaceae
Genus: Mangifera
Species: Mangifera indica

Classification of a animal
As an example, let us classify Humans
Phylum: Chordata
Class: Mammalia
Order: Primata
Family: Hominidae
Genus: Homo
Species: Homo sapiens
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NCERT MCQ CLASS-9 CHAPTER-5 | SOCIAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT MCQ | | POLITICAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | | DEMOCRATIC RIGHTS | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON DEMOCRATIC RIGHTS

Question 1.
Civil Rights are given to the individual by:

(a) Nature
(b) God
(c) The State
(d) The people

Answer: (c) The State

Question 2.
Which one of the following fundamental rights is called the heart and
soul of Indian constitution?
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right to constitutional remedies
(c) Right to freedom
(d) Right to freedom of religion

Answer: (b) Right to constitutional remedies

Question 3.
Which of the following rights is not available under the fundamental rights?

(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(b) Right to protect one’s culture
(d) Right to property.

Answer: (d) Right to property.

Question 4.
Which among the following cannot be challenged in a court?

(a) Directive principles of state policy
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Freedom to choose any profession or business
(d) Right to move freely to any part of the country.

Answer: (b) Fundamental Rights

Question 5.
Laws have been made to
prohibit children’s from working in which of these industries?
(a) Beedi making
(b) Fire crackers and matches
(c) Printing and dyeing
(d) All the above

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 6.
One of the forms of exploitation as mentioned in the constitution is ‘traffic’. What does it mean?

(a) Transport system
(b) Buying and selling of human beings
(c) Buying and selling of goods
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Buying and selling of human beings

Question 7.
How many Fundamental Rights does the Indian constitution provide?

(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 8

Answer: (b) 6

Question 8.
When was the NHRC set up?

(a) 1998
(b) 1996
(c) 1993
(d) 2001

Answer: (c) 1993

Question 9.
Which of these is not seen as a
standard of human rights by the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights?
(a) Right to social security and insurance
(b) Right to health
(c) Right to accumulate wealth
(d) Right to adequate standard of living

Answer: (c) Right to accumulate wealth

Question 10.
What did Dr. Ambedkar refer to
the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies as?
(a) The brain of our Constitution
(b) The heart and soul of our Constitution
(c) The heart of our Constitution
(d) The soul of our Constitution

Answer: (b) The heart and soul of our Constitution

Question 11.
Which of these is/are the new rights guaranteed by the constitution of South Africa for its citizens?
(a) Right to privacy
(b) Right to an environment that is not harmful to the people’s health
(c) Right to have access to adequate housing
(d) All the above

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 12.
Which of these statements about the relationship between democracy and rights is more valid?

(a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens
(b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy
(c) Giving rights is good, but it is not necessary for a democracy
(d) All the above

Answer: (b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy

Question 13.
What can be done in case of infr
ingement of the rights in a democracy?
(a) Citizens are helpless; they cannot do anything
(b) They can approach courts to protect their rights
(c) They can ask their representatives to do the needful
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) They can approach courts to protect their rights

Question 14.
What is the position of women in Saudi Arabia?

(a) Women are given all the rights
(b) Women are given equal status with men
(c) Women are subjected to many public restrictions
(d) They are offered high positions

Answer: (c) Women are subjected to many public restrictions

Question 15.
Of which country was Kosovo a province before its split?

(a) USSR
(b) Yugoslavia
(c) South Africa
(d) Germany

Answer: (b) Yugoslavia











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NCERT MCQ CLASS-9 CHAPTER-4 | SOCIAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT MCQ | | POLITICAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | | WORKING OF INSTITUTIONS | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON WORKING OF INSTITUTIONS

Question 1.
Who exercises all governmental powers?

(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(d) Chief Election Commission

Answer: (b) Prime Minister

Question 2.
The Second Backward Classes Commission was appointed by the government of India in

(a) 1979
(b) 1981
(c) 1985
(d) 1999Answer

Answer: (a) 1979

Question 3.
Which one of the following statement about the President is wrong?
(a) He is the head of the state.
(b) He is the highest formal authority in the country.
(c) He exercises only nominal powers.
(d) He is elected directly by the people.

Answer: (d) He is elected directly by the people.

Question 4.
The strength of the Council of Ministers ranges from

(a) 60 to 80
(b) 60 to 100
(c) 70 to 85
(d) 80 to 100

Answer: (a) 60 to 80

Question 5.
Once the Lok Sabha passes the budget of the government or any other money related law, the Rajya Sabha cannot rejected it. The Rajya Sabha can only delay it by

(a) 14 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 16 days
(d) 17 days

Answer: (a) 14 days

Question 6.
When was the Second Backward Class Commission appointed?

(a) 1989
(b) 1979
(c) 1999
(d) 2001

Answer: (b) 1979

Question 7.
What do the Civil Servants do?

(a) They take important policy decisions
(b) They implement the ministers’ decisions
(c) They settle the disputes
(d) none of the above

Answer: (b) They implement the ministers’ decisions

Question 8.
What is ‘Parliament’?

(a) Assembly of elected representatives at the national level
(b) A body consisting of appointed ministers
(c) Body comprising judges
(d) Assembly of only appointed members

Answer: (a) Assembly of elected representatives at the national level

Question 9.
Apart from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, who else constitutes the Parliament?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Governor
(d) President

Answer: (d) President

Question 10.
For how long can the Rajya Sabha delay a Money Bill?

(a) 15 days
(b) 1 month
(c) 3 months
(d) 14 days

Answer: (d) 14 days

Question 11.
Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts?

(a) President, according to his own wishes
(b) President, on the advice of the PM
(c) President on the advice of the PM in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) President on the advice of the PM in consultation with the Chief Justice of India

Question 12.
Two features of Indian judicial system are:

(a) Independent Judiciary
(b) Integrated Judiciary
(c) Dependent Judiciary
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 13.
Which of the following institutions can make changes to the existing law of the country?

(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The President
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Parliament

Answer: (d) The Parliament

Question 14.
Which body acts as the guardian of Fundamental Rights?

(a) District Courts
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Election Commission
(d) Legislature

Answer: (b) Supreme Court

Question 15.
Why does the political executive have more powers than the permanent executive?

(a) Because hardly any expertise is required in taking policy decisions
(b) Because political executive consists of the direct representatives of the people
(c) Political leaders are more educated
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Because political executive consists of the direct representatives of the people


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NCERT MCQ CLASS-9 CHAPTER-3 | SOCIAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT MCQ | | POLITICAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | | ELECTORAL POLITICS | EDUGROWN

NCERT MCQ ON ELECTORAL POLITICS

Question 1: During election the voters make many choices. Select the correct options.

  • a) Who will make laws for them?
  • b) Who will form the government and take major decisions?
  • c) Who will grant Fundamental Rights?
  • d) Who will check the functioning of courts?

Answer: Who will make laws for them?

Question 2: What are the main challenges to free and fair elections in India? Select the correct options.

  • a) Model of Code of Conduct
  • b) Lack of Internal Democracy among Political Parties
  • c) Influence of Money and Muscle Power
  • d) Dynastic Rule

Answer: Model of Code of Conduct

Question 3: Is it good to have Political Competition? Which of the following statements justify this?

  • a) Political Competition helps to force political parties and leaders to serve people
  • b) It creates a sense of disunity and factionalism
  • c) It gives fair chance to people for the responsible government
  • d) Political competition causes divisions and some ugliness

Answer: Political Competition helps to force political parties and leaders to serve people

Question 4: Which of the following is not allowed while carrying out an election campaign?

  • a) Giving money to voters to cast vote for particular candidate
  • b) Using television channels.
  • c) Door-to-door canvassing.
  • d) Contacting voters on phone.

Answer: Giving money to voters to cast vote for particular candidate

Question 5: Which of the following does not include election procedure?

  • a) Booth capturing
  • b) Voting
  • c) Nomination of Candidate
  • d) Canvassing

Answer: Booth capturing

Question 6: What makes an election democratic? Select the correct option.

  • a) Free and fair Election.
  • b) Universal Adult Franchise
  • c) Fundamental Rights
  • d) Directive Principles of State Policy

Answer: Free and fair Election.

Question 7: Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false?

  • a) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government
  • b) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary
  • c) People select the representative of their choice in an election
  • d) People can indicate which policies they prefer

Answer: Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government

Question 8: Which one of the following provisions fails to ensure fair and equal chance to compete to candidates and political parties?

  • a) No party or candidate is bound by the model code of conduct
  • b) No party or candidate can bribe or threaten voters
  • c) No party or candidate can use government resources for election campaign
  • d) Nobody can appeal to the voters in the name of caste or religion

Answer: No party or candidate is bound by the model code of conduct

Question 9: The number of seats reserved for scheduled caste in Lok Sabha is:

  • a) 79
  • b) 59
  • c) 89
  • d) 99

Answer: 79

Question 10: Which of the following statements is against the democratic process of elections?

  • a) The Right to Vote should be given to selected people only
  • b) Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections
  • c) Elections must be held regularly immediately after the term is over
  • d) Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner

Answer: The Right to Vote should be given to selected people only

Question 11: The voters list is also known as:

  • a) Electoral Roll
  • b) Election
  • c) Voter Identity Card
  • d) None of these

Answer: Electoral Roll

Question 12: The number of Lok Sabha Constituencies in India at present is:

  • a) 543
  • b) 541
  • c) 546
  • d) 540

Answer: 543

Question 13: What is the age of a person who can contest election for Lok Sabha in India?

  • a) 25 Years
  • b) 30 Years
  • c) 35 Years
  • d) 40 Years

Answer: 25 Years

Question 14: Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner (CCE) of India?

  • a) The President of India
  • b) The Chief Justice of India
  • c) The Prime Minister of India
  • d) The People of India

Answer: The President of India

Question 15: Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?

  • a) India has the largest number of voters
  • b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful
  • c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote
  • d) In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict

Answer: India has the largest number of voters

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