Rohit0 comments

CLASS 11th CHAPTER – 9 Biomolecules |Biology | NCERT SOLUTION| EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter – 9 Biomolecules includes all the important topics with detailed explanation that aims to help students to understand the concepts better. Students who are preparing for their Class 11 Biology exams must go through NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chapter – 9 Biomolecules. NCERT Solutions will make you understand the topics in most simple manner and grasp it easily to perform better.

Class 11th Chapter -9 Biomolecules | NCERT BIOLOGY SOLUTION |

Page No: 160

Exercises

1. What are macromolecules? Give examples.

Answer
Biomolecules with molecular weights more than one thousand Dalton are called macromolecules. These are found in the acid-insoluble fraction. Examples: Protein, polysaccharides, lipids, etc.
 
2. Illustrate a glycosidic, peptide and a phospho-diester bond.
Answer
 
(a) Glycosidic bond is formed normally between carbon atoms, 1 and 4, of neighbouring monosaccharide units.
Glycosidic bond


(b) Peptide bond is a covalent bond that joins the two amino acids by – NH – CO linkage.
Peptite bond

(c) Phosphodiester bond is a strong covalent bond between phosphate and two sugar groups. Such bonds form the sugar phosphate backbone of nucleic acids.
Phosphodeister bond
3. What is meant by tertiary structure of proteins?

Answer
The helical polypeptide chain undergoes coiling and folding to form a complex three-dimensional shape is called tertiary structure of proteins. These coils and folds are arranged to hide the non-polar amino acid chains and to expose the polar side chains. The tertiary structure is held together by the weak bonds formed between various parts of the polypeptide chain.
Tertiary structure of protein
 
4. Find and write down structures of 10 interesting small molecular weight biomolecules. Find if there is any industry which manufactures the compounds by isolation. Find out who are the buyers.
 
Answer
1.
Glycine
2.
Fatty acid
3.
Adenine
4.
Glycerol
5.
Ribose
6.
Triglyceride
7.
Uridine
8.
Uracil
9.
Alanine
10.
Adenylic acid
Fat and many hormones are manufactured by isolation. Pharmaceutical and consumer goods industry can be the major buyers of these products.

5. Proteins have primary structure. If you are given a method to know which amino acid is at either of the two termini (ends) of a protein, can you connect this information to purity or homogeneity of a protein?

Answer

Yes, we can connect the given information to purity or homogeneity of a protein. It is known that an accurate sequence of a certain amino acid is very important for the functioning of a protein. If there is any change in the sequence, it would alter its structure, thereby altering the function. If we are provided with a method to know the sequence of an unknown protein, then using this information, we can determine its structure and compare it with any of the known correct protein sequence. Any change in the sequence can be linked to the purity or homogeneity of a protein.

6. Find out and make a list of proteins used as therapeutic agents. Find other applications of proteins (e.g., cosmetics, etc.)

Answer

List of proteins used as therapeutic agents are Insulin, Oxytocin, Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH), Thrombin, Fibrinogen, Renin, Immunoglobulin, Diastase and Streptokinase.
Proteins are also commonly used in the manufacture of cosmetics, toxins, and as biological buffers.

7. Explain the composition of triglyceride.

Answer

Triglycerides are composed of two types of molecules, i.e., glycerol (3 carbon molecules) and fatty acids which attach to the glycerol at the alcohol unit. It is mainly present in vegetable oils and animal fat. The structure is given:
 
Page No: 161

8. Can you describe what happens when milk is converted into curd or yoghurt from your understanding of proteins.

Answer
Milk is converted into curd or yogurt by the process of fermentation. Milk consists of globular proteins. During fermentation, the milk sugar (lactose) produces lactic acid. Lactic acid acts on the globular proteins present in the milk and denatures them. This denaturation destroys the tertiary and quaternary structures of proteins and the globular proteins are converted into fibrous proteins thus giving a thick texture to the milk due to coagulation of the proteins.

9. Can you attempt building models of biomolecules using commercially available atomic models (Ball and Stick models).

Answer

Yes. The biomolecules can be represented by the ball and stick model. The bonds which hold the atoms are represented by sticks, whereas the atoms are represented by balls.
Example: In the model of D-glucose, the oxygen atoms are represented by red balls, the hydrogen atoms by blue balls, while the carbon atoms are represented by grey balls.

10. Attempt titrating an amino acid against a weak base and discover the number of dissociating (ionizable) functional groups in the amino acid.

Answer

Titratinga neutral or basic amino acid against a weak base will dissociate only one functional group, whereas titration between acidic amino acid and a weak acid will dissociate two or more functional groups.

11. Draw the structure of the amino acid, alanine.
Answer
 
Structure of Alanine
 
12. What are gums made of? Is Fevicol different?
 
Answer
Gums are natural heteropolysaccharides which are formed of a large number of different monosaccharide units linked together by glycosidic bonds.
Yes, Fevicol is different from gums as it comprises synthetic polymers.

13. Find out a qualitative test for proteins, fats and oils, amino acids and test any fruit juice, saliva, sweat and urine for them.

Answer
Qualitative tests for proteins, amino acids and fats:

• Biuret test: The Biuret test for protein identifies the presence of protein by producing light blue to purple colour of the solution.

• Grease test for oil: Certain oils give a translucent stain on brown paper. This test can be used to show the presence of fat in vegetable oils.

• Ninhydrin test: If Ninhydrin reagent is added to the solution, then the colourless solution changes to pink, blue or purple colour depending on the type of amino acid.

Item
Name of the test
Procedure
Result
Inference
1.
Fruit juice
Biuret’s test
Fruit juice + Biuret’s reagent
Colour changes from light blue to purple
Protein is present.
  
Grease test
To a brown paper, add a few drops of fruit juice.
No translucent spot
Fats and oils are absent or are in negligible amounts.
  
Ninhydrin test
Fruit juice + Ninhydrin reagent + boil for 5 minutes
Colourless solution changes to pink, blue, or purple colour
Amino acids are present.
2.
Saliva
Biuret’s test
Saliva + Biuret’s reagent
Colour changes from light blue to purple
Proteins are present.
  
Grease test
On a brown paper, add a drop of saliva.
No translucent spot
Fats/oils are absent.
  
Ninhydrin test
Saliva + Ninhydrin reagent + boil for 5 minutes
Colourless solution changes to pink, blue, or purple colour
Amino acids are present.
3.
Sweat
Biuret’s test
Sweat + Biuret’s reagent
No colour change
Proteins are absent.
  
Solubility test
Sweat + Water
Oily appearance
Fats/oil may be present.
  
Ninhydrin test
Sweat + Ninhydrin reagent + boil for 5 minutes
No colour change, solution remains colourless
Amino acids are absent.
4.
Urine
Biuret’s test
Few drops of urine + Biuret’s reagent
Colour changes from light blue to purple
Proteins are present.
  
Solubility test
Few drops of urine + Water
Little bit of oily appearance
Fats may or may not be present.
  
Ninhydrin test
Few drops of urine + Ninhydrin reagent + boil for 5 minutes
Colourless solution changes to pink, blue, or purple colour depending on the type of amino acid
Amino acids are present.

14. Find out how much cellulose is made by all the plants in the biosphere and compare it with how much of paper is manufactured by man and hence what is the consumption of plant material by man annually. What a loss of vegetation!

Answer
Approximately, 100 billion tonnes of cellulose are made per year by all the plants in the biosphere and it takes 17 full grown trees to make one ton of paper. Trees are also used to fulfil the other requirements of man such as for timber, food, medicines, etc. Hence, it is difficult to calculate the annual consumption of plant material by man.

15. Describe the important properties of enzymes.
Answer
Important properties of enzymes are:
→ Enzymes are generally complex macromolecules of globular proteins with high molecular weight.
→ Enzymes do not start a reaction but increase the rate of chemical reaction.
→ Enzyme itself is not used up in the reaction it catalyzes so it can be used over again and again.
→ Enzymes have a high turn over number. It means the number of reactions that an enzyme molecule can catalyze per second.
→ Enzymes are specific in action.
→ The action of enzyme is greatly affected by temperatures. Their activity decreases with increase in temperature.
→ They show maximum activity at an optimum pH of 6 – 8.

→ The velocity of enzyme increases with increase in substrate concentration and then, ultimately reaches maximum velocity.
Read More
Rohit0 comments

CLASS 11th CHAPTER -8 Cell : The Unit of Life |Biology | NCERT SOLUTION| EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter – 8 Cell : The Unit of Life includes all the important topics with detailed explanation that aims to help students to understand the concepts better. Students who are preparing for their Class 11 Biology exams must go through NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chapter – 8 Cell : The Unit of Life. NCERT Solutions will make you understand the topics in most simple manner and grasp it easily to perform better.

Class 11th Chapter -8 Cell : The Unit of Life | NCERT BIOLOGY SOLUTION |

Page No: 141

Exercises

1. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Robert Brown discovered the cell.
(b) Schleiden and Schwann formulated the cell theory.
(c) Virchow explained that cells are formed from pre-existing cells.
(d) A unicellular organism carries out its life activities within a single cell.
► (a) Robert Brown discovered the cell.

2. New cells generate from
(a) bacterial fermentation
(b) regeneration of old cells
(c) pre-existing cells 
(d) abiotic materials
► (c) pre-existing cells

3. Match the following:

Column I
Column II
(a) Cristae
(b) Cisternae
(c) Thylakoids		(i) Flat membranous sacs in stroma
(ii) Infoldings in mitochondria
(iii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus

Answer

Column I
Column II
(a) Cristae
(b) Cisternae
(c) Thylakoids		(i) Infoldings in mitochondria       
(ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
(iii) Flat membranous sacs in stroma

4. Which of the following is correct:
(a) Cells of all living organisms have a nucleus.
(b) Both animal and plant cells have a well defined cell wall.
(c) In prokaryotes, there are no membrane bound organelles.
(d) Cells are formed de novo from abiotic materials.
► (c) In prokaryotes, there are no membrane bound organelles.

5. What is a mesosome in a prokaryotic cell? Mention the functions that it performs.

Answer
Mesosome is a convoluted membranous structure formed in a prokaryotic cell by the invagination of the plasma membrane. Its functions are:
→ These extensions help in cell wall formation, DNA replication and distribution to daughter cells.
→ They also help in respiration, secretion processes, to increase the surface area of the plasma membrane and enzymatic content.
 
6. How do neutral solutes move across the plasma membrane? Can the polar molecules also move across it in the same way? If not, then how are these transported across the membrane?

Answer
Neutral solutes move across the plasma membrane through osmosis. On the other hand polar molecules cannot pass through the non-polar membrane. They require a carrier protein to help them transverse across the membrane. Such a transport requires energy and is called active transport.

7. Name two cell-organelles that are double membrane bound. What are the characteristics of these two organelles? State their functions and draw labelled diagrams of both.

Answer
Mitochondria and chloroplasts are the two organelles that are double-membrane-bound.

Characteristics of Mitochondria are:
→ The mitochondria are sausage-shaped or cylindrical having a diameter of 0.2-1.0 µm and average 0.5 µm and length 1.0-4.1 µm.
→ Each mitochondrion is a double membrane bound structure with the outer membrane and the inner membrane dividing its lumen distinctly into two aqueous compartments,- outer and inner compartments.

→ The outer membrane forms the continuous limiting boundary of the organelle.
→ The inner membrane forms a number of infoldings called the cristae towards the matrix.
→ The two membranes have their own specific enzymes associated with the mitochondrial function. The matrix of mitochonrdria also possess single circular DMA molecule, a few RNA molecules, ribosomes (70 S) and the components required for the synthesis of proteins.

Functions of Mitochondria are:
→ They are the sites for aerobic respiration.
→ They provide energy in the form of ATP for all vital activities of living cells.
→ They have their own DNA and ribosomes. Hence, they are regarded as semi-autonomous organelles.
→ They have several enzymes, intermediately required for the synthesis of various chemicals such as fatty acids, steroids, and amino acids.
Diagram of Mitochondria
 
Characteristics of Chloroplast are:
→ The Chloroplasts are also double membrane bound organelles.
→ The space limited by the inner membrane of the chloroplast is called the stroma.
→ A number of organized flattened membranous sacs called the thylakoids are present in the stroma.
→ Thylakoids are arranged in stacks-like the piles of coins called grana.→ In addition, there are flat membranous tubules called the stroma lamellae connecting the thylakoids of the different grana.
→ The membrane of the thylakoids enclose a space called a lumen.

Functions of Chloroplast are:
→ They trap solar energy and utilise it for manufacturing food for plants. Hence, they are involved in the process of photosynthesis.
→ They contain the enzymes required for the synthesis of carbohydrates and proteins.
 
Diagram of Chloroplast
 
8. What are the characteristics of prokaryotic cells?
 
Answer
 
Prokaryotic cell is a unicellular organism lacking membrane-bound organelles.
The characteristics of prokaryotic cells are as follows:
→ Most of them are unicellular.
→ They are generally small in size. The size of a prokaryotic cell varies from 0.5 – 5 µm.
→ The nuclear region of a prokaryotic cell is poorly-defined because of the absence of a nuclear membrane. Hence, a prokaryotic cell lacks a true nucleus.

→ The genetic materials of prokaryotic cells are naked. They contain single, circular chromosomes. In addition to the genomic DNA, they have a small, circular plasmid DNA.
→ They have specialised membranous structures called mesosomes. Mesosomes are formed by the invagination of the cell membrane. These extensions help in the synthesis of the cell wall, replication of DNA. They also help in the equal distribution of chromosomes into the daughter cells.
→ Membrane-bound cell organelles such as mitochondria, plastids, and endoplasmic reticulum are absent from a prokaryotic cell.
→ Most prokaryotic cells contain a three-layered structure – outermost glycocalyx, middle cell wall, and the innermost plasma membrane. This structure acts as a protective unit.

9. Multicellular organisms have division of labour. Explain.

Answer
The body of a multicellular organism has cell as a basic structural unit. The cells organised to form tissues such as blood, bone, etc. The tissues organised to form organs such as heart, kidney, etc. The organs then organised to form organ systems such as digestive system, reproductive system and respiratory system, etc. The various organ systems of organism get arranged to form a complete individual.

10. Cell is the basic unit of life. Discuss in brief.

Answer
Every animal or plant is made of many systems. Every system is made of many organs. Organs are made of many types of tissues and tissues are made of many cells. A cell is an autonomous structure and is capable of carrying out various functions on its own. A cell can do all an organism can do. In a sense cell is full of life at the minutest possible level. That is why a cell is called the basic unit of life.

11. What are nuclear pores? State their function.
Answer

Nuclear pores are tiny holes present in the nuclear membrane of the nucleus. They are formed by the fusion of two nuclear membranes.
These holes allow specific substances to be transferred into a cell and out from it. They allow molecules such as RNA and proteins to move in both directions, between the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

12. Both lysosomes and vacuoles are endomembrane structures, yet they differ in terms of their functions. Comment.

Answer
Both lysosomes and vacuoles are covered by a single membrane. Both of them perform different types of functions. Lysosomes contain hydrolysing enzymes and can hydrolyse all types of organic substances, except cellulose. They perform phagocytic function. Therefore, they are known as suicidal bags.
The vacuoles are non-cytoplasmic sacs which are also covered by a membrane. The sap vacuoles store sap or water with dissolved organic and inorganic substances. They maintain osmotic pressure or turgidity. Some freshwater invertebrates such as Amoeba, Paramecium occur contractile vacuoles, which perform osmoregulation and excretion. There is another type of vacuoles such as food vacuole which store food and gas vacuoles which store metabolic gases and take part in buoyancy regulation.

13. Describe the structure of the following with the help of labelled diagrams.
(i) Nucleus (ii) Centrosome

Answer
Nucleus controls all the cellular activities of the cell. It is spherical in shape. It is composed of the following structures:

• Nuclear membrane: It is a double membrane separating the contents of the nucleus from the cytoplasm. The narrow space between the two membranes is called the perinuclear space. Nuclear membrane has tiny holes called nuclear pores. These holes allow specific substances to be transferred into a cell and out from it.

• Nucleoplasm/Nuclear matrix: It is a homogenous granular fluid present inside the nucleus. It contains the nucleolus and chromatin. Nucleolus is a spherical structure that is not bound by any membrane. It is rich in protein and RNA molecules, and is the site for ribosome formation. Chromatin is an entangled mass of thread-like structures. It contains DNA and some basic proteins called histones.
Centrosome

Centrosome consists of two cylindrical structures called centrioles. Centrioles lie perpendicular to each other. Each has a cartwheel-like organisation.
A centriole is made up of microtubule triplets that are evenly spaced in a ring. The adjacent triplets are linked together. There is a proteinaceous hub in the central part of a centriole. The hub is connected to the triplets via radial spokes. These centrioles help in organising the spindle fibres and astral rays during cell division. They form the basal body of cilia and flagella.
Centrosome
 
14. What is a centromere? How does the position of centromere form the basis of classification of chromosomes. Support your answer with a diagram showing the position of centromere on different types of chromosomes.
 
Answer

Centromere is a narrow non-stainable area, which join two similar threads or chromatids of a late prophase or metaphase chromosome. The two parts of the chromosome on either side of the centromere are known as arm. They may be isobranchial (equal) or helerobranchial (unequal in length). Depending upon the position of the centromere, the chromosomes are classified as:
→ Acrocentric chromosome: Centromere sub-terminal, anaphasic stage J-shaped.
→ Sub-metacentric chromosome: The centromere is sub-median and the anaphasic chromosome appear L-shaped.
→ Metacentric chromosomes: The centromere is in the middle and the chromosome appears V-shaped.
→ Telocentric chromosome: Centromere is terminal, anaphasic stage is I-shaped.
Depending upon the number of centromeres a chromosome possess, it may be monocentric, dicentric (two centromeres), polycentric (many centromeres), acentric chromosome (having no centromere).
 
Types of chromosomes on number of centromere
Read More
Rohit0 comments

CLASS 11th CHAPTER -7 Structural Organisation in Animals |Biology | NCERT SOLUTION| EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter – 7 Structural Organisation in Animals includes all the important topics with detailed explanation that aims to help students to understand the concepts better. Students who are preparing for their Class 11 Biology exams must go through NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chapter – 7 Structural Organisation in Animals. NCERT Solutions will make you understand the topics in most simple manner and grasp it easily to perform better.

Class 11th Chapter -7 Structural Organisation in Animals | NCERT BIOLOGY SOLUTION |

Page No: 121

Exercises

1. Answer in one word or one line:
(i) Give the common name of Periplanata americana.
► American cockroach.

(ii) How many spermathecae are found in earthworm?
► Four pairs

(iii) What is the position of ovaries in cockroach?
► Between 12th and 13th abdominal segments

(iv) How many segments are present in the abdomen of cockroach?
► Ten segments

(v) Where do you find Malpighian tubules?
► Malpighian tubules are the main excretory organs of the cockroach.

Page No: 122

2. Answer the following:
(i) What is the function of nephridia?
(ii) How many types of nephridia are found in earthworm based on their location?

Answer
 
(i) Nephridia regulate the volume and composition of the body fluids.

(ii) There are three types of nephridia found in earthworm:
• Septal nephridia: present on both the sides of intersegmental septa of segment 15 to the last that open into intestine
• Integumentary nephridia: attached to lining of the body wall of segment 3 to the last that open on the body surface
• Pharyngeal nephridia: present as three paired tufts in the 4th , 5th and 6th segments.

3. Draw a labelled diagram of the reproductive organs of an earthworm.

Answer
Reproductive system of earthworm
 
4. Draw a labelled diagram of alimentary canal of a cockroach.
 
Answer
Alimentary Canal of Cockroach
 
5. Distinguish between the following
(a) Prostomium and peristomium
(b) Septal nephridium and pharyngeal nephridium

Answer

(a)
Prostomium
Peristomium
Prostomium is a small fleshy lobe, which overhangs the mouth of an earthworm. It helps the organism push into the soil and is sensory in function.The first body segment in the earthworm is called the peristomium. It surrounds the mouth opening.

(b)
Septal nephridium
Pharyngeal nephridium
They are present on both sides of inter-segmental septa behind the 15th segment. They open into the intestines.They are present as three paired tufts in the fourth, fifth, and sixth segments.

6. What are the cellular components of blood?

Answer

The cellular components of blood are red blood cells (RBC), white blood cells (WBC) and platelets.

7. What are the following and where do you find them in animal body
(a) Chondriocytes
(b) Axons
(c) Ciliated epithelium

Answer

(a) Chondriocytes are cells of cartilages and are present in small cavities within the matrix secreted by them.

(b) Axons are long, slender projections of neurons that help in carrying nerve impulses from the neuron body. Axons aggregate in bundles which make up the nerves.

(c) Ciliated epithelium are columnar or cuboidal cells bear cilia on their free surface. They are mainly present in the inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles and fallopian tubes.

8. Describe various types of epithelial tissues with the help of labelled diagrams.

Answer

Epithelial tissue lines the surface of a body and forms a protective covering. Epithelium cells are packed tightly together with little intercellular matrix. Epithelial tissue in the body is of two types.
→ Simple epithelium: It consists of a single layer of cells where cells are in direct contact with the basement membrane. It is further sub-divided into the following types:
• Simple squamous epithelium: It consists of a single layer of flat cells with irregular boundaries. It is found in the walls of the blood vessels and in the lining of alveoli.
• Simple cuboidal epithelium: It consists of a single layer of cube-like cells. It is present in regions where secretion and absorption of substances takes place such as the proximal convoluted tubule region of the nephron.
• Simple columnar epithelium: It consists of a single layer of tall, slender cells with their nuclei present at the base of the cells. They may bear micro-villi on the free surfaces. Columnar epithelium forms the lining of the stomach and intestines, and is involved in the function of secretion andabsorption.
• Ciliated epithelium: It consists of columnar or cuboidal cells with cilia on their free surfaces. They are present in bronchioles and oviducts from where they direct mucus and eggs in specific directions.
• Glandular epithelium:It consists of columnar or cuboidal cells involved in the secretion of substances. Glands are of two types, unicellular glands (goblet cells of the alimentary canal) and multicellular glands (salivary glands). They can be classified as exocrine (ductless glands) and endocrine glands (duct glands) by the method through which they release enzymes.

Simple Epithelium
 
→ Compound epithelium: It consists of many layers of cells. It is involved mainly in the function of providing protection and has a limited role in secretion and absorption. Examples of compound epithelium include the dry surface of the skin or moist inner lining of the buccal cavity, pharynx, pancreatic ducts, and the inner lining of ducts of salivary glands.
Compound Epithelium
9. Distinguish between
(a) Simple epithelium and compound epithelium.
(b) Cardiac muscle and striated muscle
(c) Dense regular and dense irregular connective tissues
(d) Adipose and blood tissue
(e) Simple gland and compound gland

Answer

(a)
Simple epithelium
Compound epithelium
• It is composed of only one layer of cells.

• It is mainly involved in the function of absorption and secretion.

• It is present in the lining of the stomach, intestine.		• It is composed of many layers of cells.


• It is mainly involved in the function of protection and has a limited role in absorption and secretion.

• It is present in the lining of the pharynx and buccal cavity.

(b)
Cardiac muscles
Striated muscles
• They are involuntary in function.

• They are multi-nucleate and branched.

• They are found only in the heart.		• They are voluntary in function.

• They are multi-nucleate and unbranched.

• They are found only in triceps, biceps, and limbs.

(c)
Dense regular connective tissues
Dense irregular connective tissues
• In dense regular connective tissues, collagen fibres are present in rows between parallel boundless fibres.

• They are present in tendons and ligaments.		• In dense irregular connective tissues, fibres are arranged irregularly.

• They are present in the skin.

(d)
Adipose tissue
Blood tissue
• It is composed of collagen fibres, elastin fibres, fibroblasts, macrophages, and adipociytes.

• It helps in the synthesis, storage, and metabolism of fats.

• It is present beneath the skin.		• It is composed of RBCs, WBCs, platelets, and plasma.

• It helps in the transportation of food, wastes, gases, and hormones.

• It is present in the blood vessels.

(e)
Simple glands
Compound glands
• They contain isolated glandular cells.

• They are unicellular.

• Examples include goblet cells of the alimentary canal.		• They contain a cluster of secretory cells.

• They are multicellular.

• Examples include salivary glands.

10. Mark the odd one in each series:

(a) Areolar tissue; blood; neuron; tendon
► Neuron, because it is an example of neural tissue while all other are connective tissue.

(b) RBC; WBC; platelets; cartilage
► Cartilage, as all others are components of blood.

(c) Exocrine; endocrine; salivary gland; ligament
► Neuron, because it is an example of neural tissue while all other are connective tissue.

(d) Maxilla; mandible; labrum; antennae
► Neuron, because it is an example of connective tissue while all other are examples of simple glandular epithelium.

(e) Protonema; mesothorax; metathorax; coxa
► Antennae, as it is not a masticating part of cockroach

11. Match the terms in column I with those in Column II:

Column I
Column II
(a) Compound epithelium
(b) Compound eye
(c) Septal nephridia
(d) Open circulatory system
(e) Typhlosole
(f) Osteocytes
(g) Genitalia		(i) Alimentry canal
(ii) Cockroach
(iii) Skin
(iv) Mosaic vision
(v) Earthworm
(vi) Phallomere
(vii) Bone

Answer

Column I
Column II
(a) Compound epithelium
(b) Compound eye
(c) Septal nephridia
(d) Open circulatory system
(e) Typhlosole
(f) Osteocytes
(g) Genitalia		(iii) Skin
(iv) Mosaic vision
(v) Earthworm
(ii) Cockroach
(i) Alimentary canal
(vii) Bone
(vi) Phallomere

12. Mention briefly about the circulatory system of earthworm
Answer

Earthworm exhibits a closed type of blood vascular system. It consists of blood vessels, capillaries and heart. Due to a closed circulatory system, blood is confined to the heart and blood vessels. Contractions keep blood circulating in one direction. Smaller blood vessels supply the gut, nerve cord and body wall. Blood glands are present on the 4th, 5th and 6th segments. They produce blood cells and haemoglobin which is dissolved in blood plasma. Blood cells are phagocytic in nature.

13. Draw a neat diagram of digestive system of frog.

Answer

Digestive system of frog
 
14. Mention the function of the following
(a) Ureters in frog
(b) Malpighian tubules
(c) Body wall in earthworm

Answer

(a) Ureters in frogs: A ureter acts as a urinogenital duct, which carries sperms along with urine in male frogs.

(b) Malphigian tubules: Malphigian tubules are excretory organs in cockroaches.

(c) Body wall in earthworms: In earthworms, the body wall consists of muscle layers. It helps in movement and burrowing.
Read More
Rohit0 comments

CLASS 11th CHAPTER -6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants |Biology | NCERT SOLUTION| EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter – 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants includes all the important topics with detailed explanation that aims to help students to understand the concepts better. Students who are preparing for their Class 11 Biology exams must go through NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chapter -6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants. NCERT Solutions will make you understand the topics in most simple manner and grasp it easily to perform better.

Class 11th Chapter -6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants | NCERT BIOLOGY SOLUTION |

Page No: 99

Exercises

1. State the location and function of different types of meristem.
Answer
Meristems are specialised regions of plant growth. The meristems mark the regions where active cell division and rapid division of cells take place. Meristems are of three types depending on their location.

→ Apical meristem: These are found at the tips of roots and shoots. The shoot apical meristem is present at the tip of the shoots and its active division results in the elongation of the stem and formation of new leaves. The root apical meristem helps in root elongation.

→ Intercalary meristem: These occurs between the mature tissues present at the bases of the leaves of grasses. It helps in the regeneration of grasses after they have been grazed by herbivores.
 
Both, apical meristems and intercalary meristems are primary meristems because they appear early in life of a plant and contribute to the formation of the primary plant body.

→ Lateral meristem: These occurs in the mature regions of roots and shoots of many plants and helps them in adding secondary tissues to the plant body and in increasing the girth of plants. It is called the secondary meristem as it appears later in a plant’s life.

2. Cork cambium forms tissues that form the cork. Do you agree with this statement? Explain.
Answer
When secondary growth occurs in the dicot stem and root, the epidermal layer gets broken and need to be replaced to provide new protective cell layers. Hence, sooner or later, another meristematic tissue called cork cambium or phellogen develops, usually in the cortex region. Phellogen is a couple of layers thick. It is made of narrow, thin-walled and nearly rectangular cells. Phellogen cuts off cells on both sides. The cells on the outer side get differentiated into the cork or phellem, while the cells on the inside give rise to the secondary cortex or phelloderm.

3. Explain the process of secondary growth in stems of woody angiosperm with help of schematic diagrams. What is the significance?
Answer
In woody dicots, the strip of cambium present between the primary xylem and phloem is called the interfascicular cambium. The interfascicular cambium is formed from the cells of the medullary rays adjoining the interfascicular cambium. This results in the formation of a continuous cambium ring. The cambium cuts off new cells toward its either sides. The cells present toward the outside differentiate into the secondary phloem, while the cells cut off toward the pith give rise to the secondary xylem. The amount of the secondary xylem produced is more than that of the secondary phloem. The secondary growth in plants increases the girth of plants, increases the amount of water and nutrients to support the growing number of leaves, and also provides support to plants.
Secondary growth in dicot system
 
4. Draw illustrations to bring out anatomical difference between 
(a) Monocot root and dicot root
(b) Monocot stem and dicot stem
 
Answer
(a)

Dicot Root and Monocot Root difference
(b)
Dicot Stem Monocot Stem difference
 
5. Cut a transverse section of young stem of a plant from your school garden and observe it under the microscope. How would you ascertain whether it is a monocot stem or dicot stem? Give reasons.
 
Answer
 
The transverse section of monocot and dicot stem are:
TS of stem dicot and Monocot
We can ascertain whether it is a monocot stem or dicot stem through the vascular bundles. In dicot system, they are arranged in ring while in monocot system, they are in scattered arrangement.
 
6. The transverse section of a plant material shows the following anatomical features, (a) the vascular bundles are conjoint, scattered and surrounded by sclerenchymatous bundle sheaths (b) phloem parenchyma is absent. What will you identify it as?
 
Answer
The monocot stem is characterised by conjoint, collateral, and closed vascular bundles, scattered in the ground tissue containing the parenchyma. Each vascular bundle is surrounded by sclerenchymatous bundle-sheath cells. Phloem parenchyma and medullary rays are absent in monocot stems.

7. Why are xylem and phloem called complex tissues?

Answer
Xylem and phloem are known as complex tissues as they are made up of more than one type of cells. These cells work in a coordinated manner, as a unit, to perform the various functions of the xylem and phloem.

Xylem helps in conducting water and minerals and composed of four different kinds of elements, namely, tracheids, vessels, xylem fibres and xylem parenchyma. 
• Tracheids are elongated, thick-walled dead cells with tapering ends. 
• Vessels are long, tubular, and cylindrical structures formed from the vessel members, with each having lignified walls and large central cavities. Both tracheids and vessels lack protoplasm. 
• Xylem fibres consist of thick walls with an almost insignificant lumen. They help in providing mechanical support to the plant. 
• Xylem parenchyma is made up of thin-walled parenchymatous cells that help in the storage of food materials and in the radial conduction of water.

Phloem transports food materials and composed of Sieve tube elements, Companion cells, Phloem parenchyma and Phloem fibres.
• Sieve tube elements are tube-like elongated structures associated with companion cells. The end walls of sieve tube elements are perforated to form the sieve plate. Sieve tube elements are living cells containing cytoplasm and nucleus.
• Companion cells are parenchymatous in nature. They help in maintaining the pressure gradient in the sieve tube elements.
• Phloem parenchyma helps in the storage of food and is made up of long tapering cells, with a dense cytoplasm.
• Phloem fibres are made up of elongated sclerenchymatous cells with thick cell walls.

8. What is stomatal apparatus? Explain the structure of stomata with a labelled diagram.

Answer
Stomata are structures present in the epidermis of leaves. Stomata regulate the process of transpiration and gaseous exchange. Each stoma is composed of two bean shaped cells known as guard cells which enclose stomatal pore. The inner walls of guard cells are thick, while the outer walls are thin. The guard cells are surrounded by subsidiary cells. These are the specialised epidermal cells present around the guard cells. The pores, the guard cells, and the subsidiary cells together constitute the stomatal apparatus.
Stomata structure
 
9. Name the three basic tissue systems in the flowering plants. Give the tissue names under each system.
 
Answer
Tissue System
Tissues present
Epidermal tissue systemEpidermis, trichomes, hairs, stomata
Ground tissue systemParenchyma, collenchyma, sclerenchyma, mesophyll
Vascular tissue systemXylem, phloem, cambium

10. How is the study of plant anatomy useful to us?

Answer
The study of plant anatomy is useful in many ways. It helps us understand the way a plant functions carrying out its routine activities like transpiration, photosynthesis and growth and repair. It also helps botanists and agriculture scientists to understand the disease and cure for plants. The study of plant-structure allows us to predict the strength of wood. This is useful in utilising it to its potential. The study of various plant fibres such as jute, flax, etc., helps in their commercial exploitation.

11. What is periderm? How does periderm formation take place in dicot stem?

Answer
Periderm is composed of the phellogen, phellem, and phelloderm.
During secondary growth, the outer epidermal layer and the cortical layer are broken because of the cambium. To replace them, the cells of the cortex turn meristematic, giving rise to cork cambium or phellogen. It is composed of thin-walled, narrow and rectangular cells.

Phellogen cuts off cells on its either side. The cells cut off toward the outside give rise to the phellem or cork. The suberin deposits in its cell wall make it impervious to water. The inner cells give rise to the secondary cortex or phelloderm. The secondary cortex is parenchymatous.

12. Describe the internal structure of a dorsiventral leaf with the help of labelled diagrams.

Answer
Dorsiventral leaves are found in dicots. The vertical section of a dorsiventral leaf contains three distinct parts:
→ Epidermis: The epidermis is present on both upper surface (adaxial epidermis) and lower surface (abaxial epidermis) of the leaf has a conspicuous cuticle.. It is made up of elongated, compactly arranged cells, which form a continuous layer. The epidermis on the outside is covered with a thick cuticle. Abaxial epidermis bears more stomata than the adaxial epidermis.

→ Mesophyll: It is a tissue of the leaf present between the adaxial and abaxial epidermises. It is differentiated into the palisade parenchyma (composed of tall, compactly-placed cells) and the spongy parenchyma (comprising oval or round, loosely-arranged cells with inter cellular spaces). Mesophyll contains the chloroplasts which perform the function of photosynthesis.

→ Vascular system: Vascular system includes vascular bundles, which can be seen in the veins and the midrib. The size of the vascular bundles is dependent on the size of the veins. The veins vary
in thickness in the reticulate venation of the dicot leaves. The vascular bundles are surrounded by a layer of thick walled bundle sheath cells.
Ts structure of dicot leaf
TS of dicot leaf
Read More
Priyanka0 comments

NCERT MCQ CLASS-9 CHAPTER-4 | ENGLISH NCERT MCQ | | BEEHIVE IMPORTANT MCQ | | A TRULY BEAUTIFUL MIND | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-4 A Truly Beautiful Mind NCERT MCQ for Class 9 English which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON A TRULY BEAUTIFUL MIND

Question 1: Philistines are people who do not like –
(a) Art-Literature
(b) Games
(c) Mathematics
(d) People

Answer:   A

Question 2. What is the message of this lesson?
(a) a beautiful mind not only creates beautiful ideas but also to use them for the welfare of the humanitycorrect
(b) always think big
(c) be like Einstein
(d) win a Nobel Prize

Answer:   A

Question 3 : In the year 1905 Einstein’s special theory of —— was published.
(a) Cartan
(b) Relativity
(c) Gravitation
(d) Geomagnetism

Answer:   B

Question 4. When did Einstein publish his General Theory of Relativity?
(a) 1919
(b) 1918
(c) 1915
(d) 1920

Answer:   C

Question 5: His general theory of relativity was published in the year.
(a) 1905
(b) 1914
(c) 1915
(d) 1920

Answer:   C

Question 6. Mileva was _____ years older than Albert
(a) 3 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 2 years
(d) 5 years

Answer:   A

Question 7. Einstein’s mother was bothered by the intelligence of
(a)  Mileva
(b)  Einstein
(c)  Elsa
(d)  Margie

Answer:   A

Question 8. In which subject did Einstein receive Nobel Prize?
(a)  Physics
(b)  Mathematics
(c)  Chemistry
(d)  Literature

Answer:   A

Question 9. Whom did Albert want to marry right after finishing studies?
(a)  Blair
(b)  Mileva
(c)  Mary
(d)  Margie

Answer:   B

Question 10. After finishing graduation, Albert worked as a
(a)  Mechanical engineer
(b)  As a space scientist
(c)  As a teaching statement correct
(d)  As a technical expert

Answer:   C

Question 11- Whose genius still reigns after 50 years of his death?
(a) M.K. Gandhi
(b) Nehru
(c) Stephen
(d) Einstein

Answer:   D

Question 12- What did Albert’s mother think of him?
(a) He was a born genius
(b) He is intelligent
(c) He will rule the world
(d) Albert was a freak

Answer:   D

Question 13- What did Einstein love to play with?
(a) Plastic Toys
(b) Mechanical toys
(c) Friends
(d) None

Answer:   B

Question 14- Why did Einstein leave the school?
(a) For good
(b) He had clash with the teachers
(c) He didn’t like discipline and order in the school
(d) All

Answer:   D

Question 15- In which subjects was Einstein gifted and interested?
(a) English and History
(b) Mathematics and Physics
(c) Mathematics and Biology
(d) Physics and English

Answer:   B

Read More
Priyanka0 comments

NCERT MCQ CLASS-9 CHAPTER-3 | ENGLISH NCERT MCQ | | BEEHIVE IMPORTANT MCQ | | THE LITTLE GIRL | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-3 The Little Girl NCERT MCQ for Class 9 English which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE LITTLE GIRL

Question 1:

Name of the little girl was

(a) Kezia

(b) Simmy

(c) Kezi

(d) Sony

Answer:

(a) Kezia.

Question 2:

Who was a figure to fear and avoided to the little girl Kezia

(a) Father

(b) Brother

(c) Mother

(d) Grandmother

Answer:

(a) Father.

Question 3:

The sound of—–was a great relief for Kezia.

(a) Bus

(b) Car

(c) Carriage

(d) Train

Answer:

(c) Carriage.

Question 4:

In the evening when her father came home Kezia used to stand near the

(a) Staircase

(b) Dining table

(c) Door

(d) Storeroom

Answer:

(a) Staircase.

Question 5:

After coming back home Kezia’s father ordered for tea, news paper and his

(a) Spectacles

(b) T-shirt

(c) Slippers

(d) Trousers

Answer:

(c) Slippers.

Question 6:

According to Kezia’s mother if she was a good girl she should talks off his father’s ——

(a) Coat

(b) Socks

(c) Boots

(d) Shirt

Answer:

(c) Boots.

Question 7:

Kezia should be taken to the doctor to check her

(a) Fever

(b) Stammering

(c) Cough

(d) Cold

Answer:

(b) Stammering.

Question 8:

Meaning of wretched is

(a) Happy

(b) Sad

(c) Clever

(d) Wicked

Answer:

(b) Sad.

Question 9:

Who seemed like a giant for Kezia

(a) Father

(b) Mother

(c) Grandfather

(d) Teacher

Answer:

(a) Father.

Question 10:

Where did Kezia’s grandmother send her to have a nice talk to her mother and father

(a) Drawing room

(b) Barandah

(c) Dinning room

(d) Bedroom

Answer:

(a) Drawing room.

Question 11:

On every —- Kezia went to have a nice talk with her parents.

(a) Saturday

(b) Monday

(c) Sunday

(d) Friday

Answer:

(c) Sunday.

Question 12:

Kezia found her mother —- after going to the drawing room.

(a) Cooking

(b) Sleeping

(c) Fating

(d) Reading

Answer:

(d) Reading.

Question 13:

Covering his face with ——-Kezia’s father used to sleep on Sunday afternoon in their drawing room.

(a) Handkerchief

(b) Cap

(c) Cushion

(d) Pillow

Answer:

(a) Handkerchief.

Question 14:

According to Kezia’s father she was looking like a — while staring at him.

(a) Owl

(b) Crow

(c) Tiger

(d) Elephant

Answer:

(a) Owl.

Question 15:

Kezia’s grand mother gave her a —-coloured fabric of silk to make cushion for her father’s birthday.

(a) Red

(b) Brown

(c) Blue

(d) Yellow

Answer:

(d) Yellow.

Read More
Priyanka0 comments

NCERT MCQ CLASS-9 CHAPTER-2 | ENGLISH NCERT MCQ | | BEEHIVE IMPORTANT MCQ | | THE SOUND OF MUSIC | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-2 The Sound of Music NCERT MCQ for Class 9 English which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE SOUND OF MUSIC

Question 1:

Ustaad Bishmillah Khan was a well-known ______ player.

(a) Shehnai

(b) Santoor

(c) Piano

(d) Tabla

Answer:

(a) Shehnai.

Question 2:

Emperor —— had banned the musical instrument, Pungi.

(a) Jahangir

(b) Aurangzeb

(c) Babur

(d) Akbar

Answer:

(b) Aurangzeb.

Question 3:

According to Aurangzeb Pungi had —– sound.

(a) Shrill

(b) Pleasant

(c) Soothing

(d) Good

Answer:

(a) Shrill.

Question 4:

Which instrument got the name reeded noisemaker.

(a) Flute

(b) Piano

(c) Harmonium

(d) Pungi

Answer:

(d) Pungi.

Question 5:

—– decided to improve the tonal quality of the Pungi.

(a) A barbar

(b) A tailor

(c) A cobler

(d) A farmer

Answer:

(a) A barber.

Question 6:

The barbar made —— holes on the body of the pipe make that musical instrument.

(a) Five

(b) Four

(c) Seven

(d) Eight

Answer:

(c) Seven.

Question 7:

The barbar gave the name of the new instrument –

(a) Shehnai

(b) Pungi

(c) Santoor

(d) Sarod

Answer:

(a) Shehnai.

Question 8:

Shehnai is an indispensable component of any ——– wedding.

(a) North Indian

(b) East Indian

(c) West Indian

(d) South Indian

Answer:

(a) North Indian.

Question 9:

In naubat ——- instruments were played together.

(a) Nine

(b) Eight

(c) Ten

(d) Five

Answer:

(a) Nine.

Question 10:

—– brought Shehnai onto the classical stage.

(a) Ustaad Zahir Hussain

(b) Ustaad Amjad Ali Khan

(c) Ustaad Amir Khan

(d) Ustaad Bishmillah khan

Answer:

(d) Ustaad Bishmillah khan.

Question 11:

Name the estate where Ustaad Bishmillah khan lived.

(a) Dumraon

(b) Damayanti

(c) Dungrigaon

(d) Rihand

Answer:

(a) Dumraon.

Question 12:

Dumraon is a small place in –

(a) Tamilnadu

(b) Bihar

(c) Telengana

(d) Jharkhand

Answer:

(b) Bihar.

Question 13:

Name the temple where Ustaad Bismillah Khan used to go to sing.

(a) Balaji temple

(b) Biswanath temple

(c) Mayurkashi temple

(d) Biharji temple

Answer:

(d) Biharji temple.

Question 14:

In Biharji temple he used to sing “Chaita” in ______ language.

(a) Bhojpuri

(b) Bihari

(c) Marathi

(d) Tamil

Answer:

(a) Bhojpuri.

Question 15:

What had he earned as a prize of his performance from the local Maharaja.

(a) Laddu

(b) Barfi

(c) Sandesh

(d) Modak

Answer:

(a) Laddu.

Read More
Priyanka0 comments

NCERT MCQ CLASS-9 CHAPTER-1 | ENGLISH NCERT MCQ | | BEEHIVE IMPORTANT MCQ | | THE FUN THEY HAD | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-1 The Fun They Had NCERT MCQ for Class 9 English which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE FUN THEY HAD

Question 1. Tommy walked away with the ______ book beneath his arm
(a) Torn
(b) Dusty
(c) Imaginary
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer :   B

Question 2. “……..If you don’t like it, you don’t have to read the book”- Who said this?
(a) Tommy
(b) Margie
(c) County Inspector
(d) Mrs. Jones

Answer :   A

Question 3. Who are Margie and Tommy?
(a) cousins
(b) brother sister
(c) friends
(d) neighbors

Answer :   D

Question 4. How long (approx.) did the inspector take to fix the mechanical teacher?
(a) 2 hours
(b) 1 hour
(c) 3 hours
(d) 4 hours

Answer :   B

Question 5. What was the difference between old schools and modern schools/
(a) old schools had many friends and modern school had no fellows
(b) old schools had human teachers and modern schools had robots
(c) old schools had playgrounds and modern school had only computers
(d) All

Answer :   D

Question 6. “Why would anyone write about school” -Who said this?
(a) Tommy
(b) Margie
(c) Mrs. Jones
(d) Blair

Answer :   B

Question 7. Margie was scornful-
(a) About her geography scores
(b) Knowing that the real book detailed about school
(c) About Tommy’s scores
(d) About festivals

Answer :   B

Question 8. The section of which subject was completely deleted from Tommy’s computer?
(a) English
(b) History
(c) Social Studies
(d) Geography

Answer :   B

Question 9. How old is Tommy?
(a) 10 years old
(b) 13 years old
(c) 15 years old
(d) 12 years old

Answer :   B

Question 10. What subjects did Margie and Tommy learn?
(a) Mathematics
(b) Science
(c) Geography
(d) All

Answer :   D

Question 11. According to Margie, in an older time, the schools were
(a) Big
(b) Brown
(c) Funny
(d) Stupid

Answer :   C

Question 12. Margie had to write out her homework
(a) In Russian
(b) In Punch code
(c) In English
(d) None of the above

Answer :   B

Question 13. The kids in the old schooling pattern went home together
(a) In between classes
(b) During afternoon breaks
(c) During festivals
(d) At the end of the day

Answer :   D

Question 14. What did the teacher in the real book do?
(a) Teaches through computer
(b) Gives lessons online
(c) Taught and gave questions in person
(d) Mailed them the lesson

Answer :   C

Question 15. How much time was taken to repair Tommy’s teacher?
(a) 5 days
(b) 25 days
(c) 20 days
(d) one month

Answer :   D

Read More
Priyanka0 comments

NCERT MCQ CLASS-9 CHAPTER-4 | SOCIAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT MCQ | ECONOMICS IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | | FOOD SECURITY IN INDIA | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-4 Food Security in India NCERT MCQ for Class 9 Social Science Economics Important Questions which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON FOOD SECURITY IN INDIA

Question 1.
Name the cooperative that provides milk and vegetables controlled rate decided by the Government of Delhi:
(a) Amul
(b) Kendriya Bhandar
(c) Mother Dairy
(d) None of these

Answer: (c) Mother Dairy

Question 2.
The society which facilitated setting up of grain banks in different regions is :
(a) Amul (Gujarat)
(b) Academy of Development Science (Maharashtra)
(c) Mother Dairy (Delhi)
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Academy of Development Science (Maharashtra)

Question 3.
When was National Food Security Act passed?
(a) 2010
(b) 2011
(c) 2012
(d) 2013

Answer: (d) 2013

Question 4.
The price that is announced before the sowing season is called:
(a) Issue price
(b) Fair price
(c) Market price
(d) Minimum support price

Answer: (d) Minimum support price

Question 5.
Chronic hunger refers to:
(a) Low income
(b) Inadequate quantity of food
(c) Inadequate quality of food
(d) All of the above

Answer: (d) All of the above

Question 6.
In which of the following year did our country cross the 200 million tons per year mark in food grain production?
(a) 2013-14
(b) 2014-15
(c) 2015-16
(d) 2016-17

Answer: (c) 2015-16

Question 7.
In which of the following years was the food grain stock with the FCI the maximum?
(a) 2001
(b) 2009
(c) 2002
(d) 2000

Answer: (c) 2002

Question 8.
Name the NGO which facilitated setting up of grain banks in different regions.
(a) Academy of Development Science, Maharashtra
(b) Anand Milk Union Limited
(c) Mother Dairy
(d) None of these

Answer: (a) Academy of Development Science, Maharashtra

Question 9.
In which decades was the Rationing System introduced in India?
(a) 1940s
(b) 1950s
(c) 1960s
(d) 1970s

Answer: (a) 1940s

Question 10.
When was the Antyodaya Anna Yojana scheme launched?
(a) In Jan 1999
(b) In May 2000
(c) In Dec 2000
(d) In October 2005

Answer: (c) In Dec 2000

Question 11.
What is the alternative name for ration shops?
(a) Fair Price Shops
(b) Grain Shops
(c) Distribution Shops
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Fair Price Shops

Question 12.
Who released a special stamp entitled ‘Wheat Revolution’ in July 1968?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Motilal Nehru

Answer: (b) Indira Gandhi

Question 13.
Under the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) food grains given per family per month is :
(a) 40 kg
(b) 35 kg
(c) 20 kg
(d) 25 kg

Answer: (b) 35 kg

Question 14.
Annapurna Scheme (APS) has been launched in April:
(a) 2000
(b) 2005
(c) 1999
(d) 2003

Answer: (a) 2000

Question 15.
Which of the following is not a dimension of food security?
(a) Availability
(b) Accessibility
(c) Affordability
(d) Costly

Answer: (d) Costly

Read More
Priyanka0 comments

NCERT MCQ CLASS-9 CHAPTER-3 | SOCIAL SCIENCE IMPORTANT MCQ | ECONOMICS IMPORTANT QUESTIONS | | POVERTY AS A CHALLENGE | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-3 Poverty as a Challenge NCERT MCQ for Class 9 Social Science Economics Important Questions which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON POVERTY AS A CHALLENGE

Question 1: Which one is a social group from amongst the following groups vulnerable to poverty?

  • a) Scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households
  • b) Rural agricultural labour households
  • c) Urban casual labour households
  • d) The female daily wagers

Answer: Scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households

Question 2: What is accepted average calories required in India in urban areas?

  • a) 2400
  • b) 2100
  • c) 2800
  • d) 2500

Answer: 2400

Question 3: Which state has the largest percentage of poor in India?

  • a) Orissa
  • b) Bihar
  • c) Kerala
  • d) Punjab

Answer: Orissa

Question 4: Which one of the social groups is vulnerable to poverty?

  • a) All of these
  • b) Scheduled caste
  • c) Urban casual labour
  • d) Rural agricultural households

Answer: All of these

Question 5 : Which of the following is a social indicator of poverty laid by social scientists?

  • a) Illiteracy level
  • b) Increase in population
  • c) Caste
  • d) Health club membership

Answer: Illiteracy level

Question 6: In which of the following countries did poverty actually rise from 1981 to 2001?

  • a) Sub-Saharan Africa
  • b) India
  • c) China
  • d) Russia

Answer: Sub-Saharan Africa

Question 7: Every____ person in India is poor.

  • a) Fourth
  • b) Third
  • c) Fifth
  • d) Tenth

Answer: Fourth

Question 8: What is the number of persons living below poverty line in 2001-02 ?

  • a) 26.02 crore
  • b) 22.67 crore
  • c) 20.52 crore
  • d) 24.52 crore

Answer: 26.02 crore

Question 9: Which region has high percentage of people living below poverty line

  • a) Rural
  • b) Hilly
  • c) Urban
  • d) All the above

Answer: Rural

Question 10: What is accepted average calorie requirement in rural areas in India

  • a) 2400 cal
  • b) 2000 cal
  • c) 2600 cal
  • d) 3000 cal

Answer: 2400 cal

Question 11: What is the accepted average calorie requirement in Urban areas in India

  • a) 2100 cal
  • b) 2700 cal
  • c) 1500 cal
  • d) 2400 cal

Answer: 2100 cal

Question 12: What is the poverty line for the rural areas in India at present

  • a) Rs. 328 per month
  • b) Rs. 350 per month
  • c) Rs. 375 per month
  • d) Rs. 400 per month

Answer: Rs. 328 per month

Question 13: What is the poverty line for the Urban areas in India at present ?

  • a) Rs 454 per month
  • b) Rs. 300 per month
  • c) Rs. 550 per month
  • d) Rs 454 per month

Answer: Rs 454 per month

Question 14: Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana was launched in

  • a) 1999
  • b) 1998
  • c) 1997
  • d) 1996

Answer: 1999

Question 15: Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana was started in-

  • a) 1993
  • b) 1991
  • c) 1990
  • d) 1992

Answer: 1993

Read More