CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers |NCERT CHEMISTRY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry : The NCERT solutions provided here will enhance the concepts of the students, as well as suggest alternative methods to solve particular problems to the teachers. The target is to direct individuals towards problem solving strategies, rather than solving problems in one prescribed format. The links below provide the detailed solutions for all the Class 12 Chemistry problems.

Chemistry is much more than the language of Science. We have made sure that our solutions reflect the same. We aim to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using logical approach and methodology. The NCERT Solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the subject.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter :11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers

INTEXT Questions

Question 1.
Classify the following as primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 1
Solution:
Primary alcohols : (i), (ii) and (iii)
Secondary alcohols : (iv) and (v)
Tertiary alcohols : (vi)

Question 2.
Identify allylic alcohols in the above examples.
Solution:
Allvlir alcohols : (ii) and (vi).

Question 3.
Name the following compounds according to IUPAC system.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 2
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 3
Solution:

  1. 3-Chloromethyl-2-isopropylpentan-l-ol
  2. 2, 5-Dimethylhexane-1,3-diol
  3. 3-Bromocyclohexanol
  4. Hex-l-en-3-ol
  5. 2-Bromo-3-methylbut-2-en-1 -ol

Question 4.
Show how are the following alcohols prepared by the reaction of a suitable Grignard reagent on methanal.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 4
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 5

Question 5.
Write structures of the products of the following reactions :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 6
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 7
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 8

Question 6.
Give structures of the products you would expect when each of the following alcohol reacts with (a) HCl – ZnCl2 (b) HBr and (c) SOCl2.

  1.  Butan-1-ol
  2. 2-Methylbutan-2-ol

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 9

Question 7.
Predict the major product of acid catalysed dehydration of

  1. 1-methylcyclohexanol and
  2. butan-1-ol

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 10

Question 8.
Ortho and para nitrophenols are more acidic than phenol. Draw the resonance structures of the corresponding phenoxide ions.
Solution:
The attachment of the -NO2 group to the phenol molecule at 0- and p-positions decreases the electron density on oxygen atom. This causes the oxygen atom to pull the bond pair of electrons of the O – H bond towards itself thereby facilitating the release of H as H+.

The resonance structures of the phenoxide ions are :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 11
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 12

Question 9.
Write the equations involved in the following reactions :

  1. Reimer-Tiemann reaction
  2. Kolbe’s reaction

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 13

 

Question 10.
Write the reactions of Williamson synthesis of 2-ethoxy-3-methylpentane starting from ethanol and 3-methylpentan-2-ol.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 14

Question 11.
Which of the following is an appropriate set of reactants for the preparation of 1 -methoxy-4- nitrobenzene and why?
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 15
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 16

Question 12.
Predict the products of the following reactions :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 17
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 18

NCERT Exercises

Question 1.
Write IUPAC names of the following compounds :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 19
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 20
Solution:

  1. 2,2,4-Trimethylpentan-3-ol
  2. 5-Ethylheptan-2,4-diol
  3. Butane-2,3-diol
  4. Propane-1,2,3-triol
  5. 2-Methylphenol
  6. 4-Methylphenol
  7. 2,5-Dimethylphenol
  8. 2,6-Dimethylphenol
  9. l-Methoxy-2-methylpropane
  10. Ethoxybenzene
  11. 1-Phenoxyheptane
  12. 2-Ethoxybutane

Question 2.
Write structures of the compounds whose IUPAC names are as follows :

  1. 2-Methylbutan-2-ol
  2. 1-Phenylpropan-2-ol
  3. 3,5-Dimethylhexane-1,3,5-triol
  4. 2,3-Diethylphenol
  5. 1-Ethoxypropane
  6. 2-Ethoxy-3-methylpentane
  7. Cyclohexylmethanol
  8. 3-Cydohexylpentan-3-ol
  9. Cyclopent-3-en-1 -ol
  10. 3-Chloromethylpentan-1-ol

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 21
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 22

Question 3.

  1. Draw the structures of all isomeric alcohols of molecular formula C5H12O and give their IUPAC names.
  2. Classify the isomers of alcohols in question 3 (i) as primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols.

Solution:
The isomeric alcohols with molecular formula C5H12O are :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 23
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 24

Question 4.
Explain why propanol has higher boiling point than that of the hydrocarbon, butane.
Solution:
The boiling point of any compound depends on the strength of inter-molecular forces. Stronger is the inter-molecular attraction, higher is the boiling point.

In butane, the molecules interact with each other through weak van der Waals forces. These weak forces can be easily overcome by supplying small amount of heat energy. Thus, they have low boiling point.

In propanol, the molecules are held together by strong hydrogen bonding. These attractive forces operating between molecules are more difficult to break and therefore higher amount of heat needs to be supplied, therefore, the higher boiling point.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 25

Question 5.
Alcohols are comparatively more soluble in water than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses. Explain this fact.
Solution:
Organic compounds are soluble in water if they are able to form hydrogen bonds with it. Alcohols are able to establish this interaction by the virtue of their OH group and are therefore soluble in water. On the other hand, other hydrocarbons of comparable mass do not dissolve in water since they cannot form hydrogen bonds.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 26

Question 6.
What is meant by hydroboration-oxidation reaction? Illustrate it with an example.
Solution:
Hydroboration-oxidation is a method of preparation of alcohols from alkenes. The main advantage of this method is the high yield of alcohol obtained. During hydroboration, diborane (BH3)2 is made to react with an alkene to form an addition product. This product is then treated with hydrogen peroxide in the presence of sodium hydroxide to give alcohol.
For example,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 27

Question 7.
Give the structure and IUPAC names of monohydric phenols of molecular formula, C7H8O.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 28

Question 8.
While separating a mixture of ortho and para nitrophenols by steam distillation, name the isomer which will be steam volatile. Give reason.
Solution:
During steam distillation, it is the lower boiling compound which distills out first. Between ortho- and para-nitrophenol it is the ortho-isomer which will be steam volatile since it has a lower boiling point.

The difference in boiling point between the two isomers can be understood based on the structural difference. In ortho-isomer intra¬molecular hydrogen bonding takes place while in the pttra-isomer, inter-molecular hydrogen bonding takes place.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 29
As a result of the strong forces operating between the molecules of p-isomer, the boiling point is higher and it is not steam volatile.

Question 9.
Give the equations of reactions for the preparation of phenol from cumene.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 30

Question 10.
Write chemical reaction for the preparation of phenol from chlorobenzene.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 31

Question 11.
Write the mechanism of hydration of ethene to yield ethanol.
Solution:
The acid catalysed hydration of ethene may be represented as :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 32
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 33

Question 12.
You are given benzene, cone. H2SOand NaOH. Write the equations for the preparation of phenol using these reagents.
Solution:
Using the given reagents, phenol may be prepared as :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 34

Question 13.
Show how will you synthesise :

  1. 1 -Phenylethanol from a suitable alkene.
  2. Cyclohexylmethanol using an alkyl halide by an SNreaction.
  3. Pentan-1-ol using a suitable alkyl halide.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 35
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 36

Question 14.
Give two reactions that show the acidic nature of phenol. Compare acidity of phenol with that of ethanol.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 37
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 38

The resonance stabilization provided by the contributing structures (I)-(V) more than compensates for the bond breakage energy of O – H bond and thus causes phenol to be acidic in nature.

No such resonance structures are possible for ethoxide ion and therefore the conversion of ethanol to ethoxide is not favoured under normal conditions. Therefore, ethanol is less acidic than phenol.

Question 15.
Explain why is ortho nitrophenol more acidic than methoxyphenol?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 39
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 40

Question 16.
Explain how does the -OH group attached to a carbon of benzene ring activates it towards electrophilic substitution.
Solution:
In an electrophilic substitution reaction, an electron deficient species attacks the benzene ring which is e rich.

When an -OH group is attached to the benzene ring, by the virtue of its electron releasing nature increases the e density of the ring and thus activates it, i.e., makes it a welcome site for electrophiles.

The increase in electron density can be visualised as :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 41

From structures (I) – (V), we find that the attachment of hydroxyl group to benzene has increased the electron density (-ve charge) on the ring carbon atoms (especially C-2, C-4 and C-6). It is therefore said to have activated the ring towards electrophiles which are attracted to the increased electron density.

Question 17.
Give equations of the following reactions :

  1. Oxidation of propan-1 -ol with alkaline KMnO4 solution.
  2. Bromine in CS2 with phenol.
  3. Dilute HNO3 with phenol.
  4. Treating phenol with chloroform in presence of aqueous NaOH.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 42
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 43

Question 18.
Explain the following with an example.
(i) Kolbe’s reaction
(ii) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(iii) Williamson ether synthesis
(iv) Unsymmetrical ether.
Solution:
(i) Kolbe’s reaction :
The fact that phenoxide ion is even more reactive than phenol towards incoming electrophiles is made use of in this reaction. Sodium phenoxide is reacted with CO2 followed by acid treatment to yield o-hydroxybenzoic acid as the major product.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 44
(ii) Reimer-Tiemann reaction :
Treatment of phenol with chloroform in the presence of aqueous alkali introduces a CHO group at the ortho position. Acidification yields salicylaldehyde.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 45
(iii) Williamson synthesis :
In this method, an alkyl halides is reacted with sodium alkoxide.
R-X + R’ – ONa → R-O-R’ + NaX
The reaction involves SN2 attack of an alkoxide ion on 1° RX.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 46

(iv) Unsymmetrical ethers :
Unsymmetrical ethers are organic compounds where the ethereal oxygen atom is attached to two different alkyl or aryl groups, e.g.,
C2H5 – O – CH3, C6H5O – C2H5, etc.

Question 19.
Write the mechanism of acid dehydration of ethanol to yield ethene.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 47

Question 20.
How are the following conversions carried out?

  1. Propene → Propan-2-ol
  2. Benzyl chloride → Benzyl alcohol
  3. Ethyl magnesium chloride → Propan-1-ol
  4. Methyl magnesium bromide → 2-Methylpropan-2-ol.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 48
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 49

Question 21.
Name the reagents used in the following reactions :

  1. Oxidation of primary alcohol to carboxylic acid.
  2. Oxidation of primary alcohol to aldehyde.
  3. Bromination of phenol to 2,4,6-tribromophenol.
  4. Benzyl alcohol to benzoic acid.
  5. Dehydration of propan-2-ol to propene.
  6. Butan-2-one to butan-2-ol.

Solution:

  1. Alkaline KMnO4
  2. Pyridinium chlorochromate in chloromethane (CH2Cl2)
  3. Br2/H2O
  4. Alkaline KMnO4
  5. Cone. H2SO4 or H3PO4 at 433-443 K
  6. H2/Ni or NaBH4 or LiAlH4

Question 22.
Give reason for the higher boiling point of ethanol in comparison to methoxymethane.
Solution:
The higher boiling point of ethanol may be attributed to the presence of intermolecular hydrogen bonding in it.

Due to such extensive bonding, more energy needs to be supplied to ethanol to break these bonds and move it into the vapour phase.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 50

Question 23.
Give IUPAC names of the following ethers :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 51
Solution:

  1. 1 -Ethoxy-2-methylpropane
  2. 2-Chloro-l-methoxyethane
  3. 4-Nitroanisole
  4. 1-Methoxypropane
  5. 1-Ethoxy-4,4-dimethylcyclohexane
  6. Ethoxybenzene

Question 24.
Write the names of reagents and equations for the preparation of the following ethers by Williamson’s synthesis :

  1. 1-Propoxypropane
  2. Ethoxybenzene
  3. 2-Methyl-2-methoxypropane
  4. 1-Methoxyethane

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 52
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 53

Question 25.
Illustrate with examples the limitations of Williamson synthesis for the preparation of certain types of ethers.
Solution:
The main limitation of Williamson’s ether synthesis lies in its unemployability for preparation of unsymmetrical ethers where the compound contains secondary or tertiary alkyl groups.

e.g., reaction between tert-butyl bromide and sodium methoxide yields an alkene.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 54
This is because the competing elimination reaction predominates over SN2 and alkene is formed.

Question 26.
How is 1-propoxypropane synthesised from propan-1 -ol? Write mechanism of this reaction.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 55

Question 27.
Preparation of ethers by acid dehydration of secondary or tertiary alcohols is not a suitable method. Give reason.
Solution:
Consider the reaction between propan- 2-ol molecules in the presence of acid.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 56
If an ether is to be formed, another alcohol molecule must carry out a nucleophilic attack on the carbocation as
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 57
However, this does not happen because of
(a) the steric hindrance around the carbocation, and
(b) bulky size of the nucleophile which would further cause crowding.
As a result, the carbocation prefers to lose a proton and forms an alkene.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 58
For the same reason 3° alcohols in the presence of acid do not form ethers since 3° alcohols are even more sterically hindered than 2° alcohols.

Question 28.
Write the equation of the reaction of hydrogen iodide with :

  1. 1-propoxypropane
  2. methoxybenzene; and
  3. benzyl ethyl ether.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 59

Question 29.
Explain the fact that in aryl alkyl ethers (i) the alkoxy group activates the benzene ring towards electrophilic substitution and (ii) it directs the incoming substituents to ortho and para positions in benzene ring.
Solution:
Consider the following resonance structures of aryl alkyl ethers :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 60
(i) From the above structures we find that the presence of the OR group has increased the electron density on the benzene ring and therefore the ring is said to have been activated towards incoming electrophiles.

(ii) From structures (II), (III) and (IV) we find that and the electron density has increased on C-2, C-4 and C-6, i.e., at the ortho and para positions. As a result the electrophile (E ) attaches itself to these e- rich sites and the -OR group is said to have directed the E® to ortho and para positions.

Question 30.
Write the mechanism of the reaction of Hl with methoxymethane.
Solution:
The reaction between methoxymethane and Hl is :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 61

Question 31.
Write equations of the following reactions :

  1. Friedel-Crafts reaction – alkylation of anisole.
  2. Nitration of anisole.
  3. Bromination of anisole in ethanoic acid medium.
  4. Friedel-Craft’s acetylation of anisole.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 62
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 63

 

Question 32.
Show how would you synthesise the following alcohols from appropriate alkenes.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 64
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 65
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 66

Question 33.
When 3-methylbutan-2-ol is treated with HBr, the following reaction takes place :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 67
Give a mechanism for this reaction.
[Hint : The secondary carbocation formed in step II rearranges to a more stable tertiary carbocation by a hydride ion shift from 3rd carbon atom.]
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 68
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers 69

Read More

CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes |NCERT CHEMISTRY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry : The NCERT solutions provided here will enhance the concepts of the students, as well as suggest alternative methods to solve particular problems to the teachers. The target is to direct individuals towards problem solving strategies, rather than solving problems in one prescribed format. The links below provide the detailed solutions for all the Class 12 Chemistry problems.

Chemistry is much more than the language of Science. We have made sure that our solutions reflect the same. We aim to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using logical approach and methodology. The NCERT Solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the subject.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter :10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

 INTEXT Questions

Question 1.
Write the structures of the following compounds :

(i) 2-Chloro-3-methylpentane
(ii) 1-Chloro-4-ethylcydohexane
(iii) 4-terf-Butyl-3-iodoheptane
(iv) 1, 4-Dibromobut-2-ene
(v) 1 -Bromo-4-sec-butyl-2-methylbenzene

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 1

Question 2.
Why is sulphuric acid not used during the reaction of alcohols with Kl ?
Solution:
H2SO4 is a strong oxidising agent. Therefore, when it is used in presence of KI, it tends to convert KI to HI and finally oxidises it to I2.

Question 3.
Write structures of different dihalogen derivatives of propane.
Solution:
The structures of all possible dihalogen derivatives of propane are
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 2

 Question 4.
Among the isomeric alkanes of molecular formula C5H12, identify the one that on photochemical chlorination yields
(i) A single monochloride
(ii) Three isomeric monochlorides
(iii) Four isomeric monochlorides.
Solution:
An alkane with molecular formula C5H12 can exist in the following isomeric forms :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 3
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 4
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 5

Question 5.
Draw the structures of major monohalo products in each of the following reactions :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 6
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 7
Solution:
The major haloderivatives formed in the given reactions are
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 8

Question 6.
Arrange each set of compounds in order of increasing boiling points.
(i) Bromomethane, bromoform, chloromethane, dibromomethane.
(ii) 1 – Chloropropane, isopropyl chloride, 1 – chlorobutane.
Solution:
The boiling points of organic compounds depend on the strength of the intermolecular forces in them. These forces are :
(a) van der Waals forces and
(b) dipole-dipole interactions These forces are dependent on the
(i) molecular mass and
(ii) surface area of the molecules

(i) As the molecular mass of the compound increases, the boiling point also increases. Therefore the correct order is
chloromethane < bromomethane < dibromomethane < bromoform

(ii) Amongst molecules with same mass, it is the size of the molecule that determines the boiling point. Branched compounds are more compact and therefore have less surface area as compared to their straight chain counterparts and therefore lower boiling point. The order of boiling point is
iso-propyl chloride < 1-chloropropane < 1-chlorobutane

Question 7.
Which alkyl halide from the following pairs would you expect to react more rapidly by an SNmechanism? Explain your answer.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 9
Haloalkanes And Haloarenes Class 12 NCERT Solutions:
We know that SN2 mechanism involves a transition state wherein both, the incoming nucleophile as well as the leaving group are present around the carbon atom. There are 5 atoms simultaneously bonded to it.

Thus, for such a transition state to be possible, there should be minimum steric hindrance. Hence, 1° alkyl halides are most reactive towards SN2 followed by 2° and finally 3°.
1° RX > 2° RX > 3° RX
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 10
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 11

Question 8.
In the following pairs of halogen compounds, which compound undergoes faster SN1 reaction?
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 63

Haloalkanes And Haloarenes Class 12 NCERT Solutions:
SN1 reaction proceeds via the formation of a carbocation intermediate. This intermediate is formed by the cleavage of the C — X bond. More stable is the resultant carbocation faster is the SN1 reaction.
Order of stability of carbocation is
3° carbocation > 2° carbocation >1° carbocation
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 12

Question 9.
Identify A, B, C, D, E, R and R’ in the following.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 13
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 14
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 15
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 16

10. A hydrocarbon C5H10 does not react with chlorine in dark but gives a single monochloro compound C5H9Cl in bright sunlight. Identify the hydrocarbon.
Ans. The hydrocarbon with molecular formula C5H10 can either a cycloalkane or an alkene.Since the compound does not react with Cl2 in the dark, therefore it cannot be an alkene but must be a cycloalkane. Since the cycloalkane reacts with Cl2 in the presence of bright sunlight to give a single monochloro compound, C5H9Cl, therefore, all the ten hydrogen atoms of the cycloalkanes must be equivalent. Thus, the cycloalkane is cyclopentane.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 64

NCERT Exercises

Question 1.
Name the following halides according to IUPAC system and classify them as alkyl, allyl, benzyl (primary, secondary, tertiary), vinyl or aryl halides :

(i) (CH3)2CHCH(Cl)CH3
(ii) CH3CH2CH (CH3)CH(C2H5)Cl

(iii) CH3CH2C(CH3)2CH2l
(iv) (CH3)3CCH2CH(Br)C6H5
(v) CH3CH(CH3)CH(Br)CH3
(vi) CH3C(C2H5)2CH2Br

(vii) CH3C(CI)(C2H5)CH2CH3
(viii) CH3CH = C(Cl)CH2CH(CH3)2
(ix) CH3CH = CHC(Br)(CH3)2
(x) p-ClC6H4CH2CH(CH3)2
(xi) m-CICH2C6H4CH2C(CH3)3
(xii) o-BrC6H4CH(CH3)CH2CH3

Haloalkanes And Haloarenes Class 12 NCERT Solutions:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 17
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 18
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 19

Question 2.
Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds:
(i) CH3CH(Cl)CH(Br) (CH3)
(ii) CHF2CBrClF
(iii) ClCH2C = CCH2Br
(iv) (CCl3)3CCl
(v) CH3C(p-ClC6H4)2CH(Br)CH3
(vi) (CH3)3CCH = C(CI) C6Hl-p

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 20
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 21

Question 3.
Write the structures of the following organic halogen compounds.
(i) 2-Chloro-3-methylpentane
(ii) p-Bromochlorobenzene
(iii) 1 -Chloro-4-ethylcyclohexane
(iv) 2-(2-Chlorophenyl)-1 -iodooctane
(v) Perfluorobenzene
(vi) 4-tert-Butyl-3-iodoheptane
(vii) 1 -Bromo-4-sec-butyl-2-methylbenzene
(viii) 1, 4-Dibromobut-2-ene
Solution:
Structures of the given compounds are :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 22
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 23

Question 4.
Which one of the following has the highest dipole moment?
(i) CH2Cl2
(ii) CHCl3
(iii) CCl
4
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 24
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 25

Question 5.
A hydrocarbon C5H10 does not react with chlorine in dark but gives a single monochloro compound C5H9Cl in bright sunlight. Identify the hydrocarbon.
Solution:
A number of structural isomers are possible for molecular formula C5H10. But, the given compound gives a single monochloro derivative when reacted with Cl2 in sunlight suggests that, all the H-atoms in the compound are equivalent. This is possible only if the compound is a cyclic alkane.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 26

Question 6.
Write the isomers of the compound having formula C4H9Br.
Solution:
The possible isomers of C4H9Br are
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 27

Question 7.
Write the equations for the preparation of 1 -iodobutane from
(i) 1-butanol
(ii) 1-chlorobutane
(iii) but-1-ene
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 28

Question 8.
What are ambident nucleophiles? Explain with an example.
Solution:
Ambident nucleophiles are nucleophiles that are capable of attacking the substrate (alkyl halide) through two different atoms.

It so ‘happens due to the presence of two nucleophilic centres which arise from the contributing (resonance) structures that are possible for the ion.

e.g., In NO2 ion, there is a lone pair of electrons on N and therefore makes it nucleophilic while oxygen by virtue of the negative charge acts as a nucleophile. Thus, NO2 can attack via O or N atom thereby making it ambidentate.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 29

Question 9.
Which compound in each of the following pairs will react faster in SN2 reaction with OH ?
(i) CH3Br or CH3l
(ii) (CH3)3CCI or CH3Cl
Solution:
(i) Between CH3Br and CH3I, CH3I will react faster via the SN2 mechanism. In SN2 mechanism, C – X bond breaks and the faster it breaks faster is the reaction.

I- is a better leaving group. Owing to its large size, the C – I bond breaks faster than the C – Br bond and reaction proceeds further at a greater rate.

(ii) The order of reactivity in an SN2 reaction depends on minimal steric hindrance around the carbon involved in the C – X bond. Lesser the steric hindrance felt by the incoming nucleophile, more reactive will be the alkyl halide towards SN2 reaction.
Based on this, CH3Cl will react faster than (CH3)3CCl.

Question 10.
predict all the alkenes that would be formed by dehydrohalogenation of the following halides with sodium ethoxide in ethanol and identify the major alkene :
(i) 1-Bromo-1-methylcyclohexane
(ii) 2-Chloro-2-methylbutane
(iii) 2, 2, 3-Trimethyl-3-bromopentane.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 30
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 31

Question 11.
How will you bring about the following conversions?

  1. Ethanol to but-1 -yne
  2. Ethane to bromoethene
  3. Propeneto 1-nitropropane
  4. Toluene to benzyl alcohol
  5. Propene to propyne
  6. Ethanol to ethyl fluoride
  7. Bromomethane to propanone
  8. But-1 -ene to but-2-ene
  9. 1-Chlorobutane ton-octane
  10. Benzene to biphenyl

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 32
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 33
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 34
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 35

Question 12.
Explain why

  1. the dipole moment of chlorobenzene is lower than that of cyclohexyl chloride?
  2. alkyl halides, though polar, are immiscible with water?
  3. Grignard reagents should be prepared under anhydrous conditions?

Solution:
(i) (a) In order to understand the lower dipole moment of chlorobenzene we need to look into the contributing structures of the molecules.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 36

(b) From the above structures we find that the C – Cl bond in chlorobenzene has a partial double bond character (structure II, III and IV). As a result, the C – Cl bond length here is shorter than the C – Cl single bond but longer than the C – Cl double bond.

(c) Also evident is the positive charge on Cl atom which reduces the partial negative (δ-) charge which it is expected to carry by the virtue of its electronegativity.

(d) Consequently, the dipole moment, which is a product of bond length and partial negative charge on Cl atom, reduces. However, in cyclohexyl chloride this does not happen. It is an alkyl halide and carbon is purely sp3 hybridised and C – Cl bond has the bond length of a single bond and 8“ appearing on Cl is also higher, thus, the greater dipole moment.

(ii) Only those compounds which can form hydrogen bonds with water are miscible with it. Alkyl halides, though polar due to the presence of electronegative halogen atom, are immiscible since they cannot form hydrogen bonds.

(iii) Grignard reagents R – Mg – X is a class of highly reactive compounds which can extract a proton even from water molecule. They thus, turn into the corresponding alkanes and render any other desired reaction ineffective.

This is why Grignard reagents are prepared in the absolute absence of water (anhydrous conditions), (e.g.,)
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 37

Question 13.
Give the uses of freon 12, DDT, carbon tetrachloride and iodoform.
Solution:
(i) Freon 12 (CCl2F2) is

  • used in aerosol propellants
  • refrigeration
  • air-conditioning.

(ii) DDT (p, p’- dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) is

  • used as an insecticide,
  • mainly used against mosquitoes.

(iii) Carbontetrachloride (CCl4) is used

  • in manufacture of refrigerants and propellants for aerosol cans
  • in synthesis of chlorofluorocarbons
  • as degreasing agent
  • as cleansing agent
  • as a solvent in laboratories

(iv) Iodoform (CHI3) is used as an antiseptic.

Question 14.
Write the structure of the major organic product in each of the following reactions :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 38
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 39
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 40
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 41

Question 15.
Write the mechanism of the following reaction
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 42
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 43

Question 16.
Arrange the compounds of each set in order of reactivity towards SN2 displacement :

  1. 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane, 1-Bromopentane, 2-Bromopentane
  2. 1-Bromo-3-methylbutane, 2-Bromo-2- methylbutane, 3-Bromo-2-methylbutane
  3. 1-Bromobutane, 1-Bromo-2,2-dimethylpropane, 1-Bromo-2-methyl butane, 1-Bromo-3- methylbutane.

Solution:
SN2 reaction proceeds via the formation of transition state where the carbon atom is surrounded by 5 other atoms (groups). Thus, for such a transition state to form, the steric interactions have to be minimum. Therefore, the most favourable substrates for SN2 reactions are 1° alkyl halides followed by 2° and 3° alkyl halide. Order of reactivity towards SN2 : 1° > 2° > 3° > aryl halide.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 44
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 45

In example (iii), although all the given alkyl halides are 1° but the steric hindrance around the carbon bearing the -Br atom decides the order of reactivity. More the number of bulky groups around this carbon lower will be its reactivity towards SN2.

Question 17.
Out of C6 H5 CH2 Cl and C6H5 CHClC6 H5, which is more easily hydrolysed by aqueous KOH?
Solution:
C6 H5 CHClC6 H5 is hydrolysed faster.
(a) Hydrolysis of an alkyl halide is an example of nucleophilic substitution reaction. In case of aryl halides this follows the SN1 pathway i.e., via the formation of carbocation.
(b) C6 H5 CH2 Cl or benzyl chloride gives
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 46
(c) Out of I & II, carbocation II is more stable. The reason is the presence of two phenyl rings attached to the carbon carrying the positive charge.
(d) As a result, the delocalisation of the +ve charge is greater and the carbocation is more stable. Due to this, (II) is formed faster and the corresponding halide is hydrolysed with greater ease as compared to benzyl chloride.

Question 18.
p-Dichlorobenzene has higher m.p. and solubility than those of o- and m-isomers. Discuss.
Solution:
The para-isomers have high melting points and solubility as compared to their ortho and meta isomers due to symmetry of para-isomers that fits into crystal lattice better than ortho and para isomers.

Question 19.
How can the following conversions be carried out?

  1. Propene to propan-1 -ol
  2. Ethanol to but-1 -yne
  3. 1 -Bromopropane to 2-bromopropane
  4. Toluene to benzyl alcohol
  5. Benzene to 4-bromonitrobenzene
  6. Benzyl alcohol to 2-phenylethanoic acid
  7. Ethanol to propanenitrile
  8. Aniline to chlorobenzene
  9. 2-Chlorobutane to 3,4-dimethylhexane
  10. 2-Methyl-1 -propene to 2-chloro-2- methylpropane
  11. Ethyl chloride to propanoic acid
  12. But-1-ene to n-butyliodide
  13. 2-Chloropropaneto 1-propanol
  14. Isopropyl alcohol to iodoform
  15. Chlorobenzene to p-nitrophenol
  16. 2-Bromopropane to 1-bromopropane
  17. Chloroethane to butane
  18. Benzene to diphenyl
  19. ferf-Butyl bromide to isobutyl bromide
  20. Aniline to phenylisocyanide

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 47
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 48
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 49
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 50
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 51
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 52
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 53

Question 20.
The treatment of alkyl chlorides with aqueous KOH leads to the formation of alcohols but in the presence of alcoholic KOH, alkenes are major products. Explain.
Solution:
Formation of alcohols from the reaction between alkyl chlorides and aqueous KOH is an example of simple nucleophilic substitution.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 54
But when aqueous KOH is replaced by alcoholic KOH, alkenes are formed instead of alcohols due to elimination of HCl from an alkyl halide.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 55
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 56
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 57

Question 21.
Primary alkyl halide C4H9Br (A) reacted with alcoholic KOH to give compound (B). Compound (B) is reacted with HBr to give (C) which is an isomer of (A). When (A) is reacted with sodium metal it gives compound (D). C8H18 which is different from the compound formed when n-butyl bromide is reacted with sodium. Give the structural formula of (A) and write the equations for all the reactions.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 58
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 59

Question 22.
What happens when

  1. n-butyl chloride is treated with alcoholic KOH,
  2. bromobenzene is treated with Mg in the presence of dry ether,
  3. chlorobenzene is subjected to hydrolysis,
  4. ethyl chloride is treated with aqueous KOH,
  5. methyl bromide is treated with sodium in the presence of dry ether,
  6. methyl chloride is treated with KCN?

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 60
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 61

Chlorobenzene is highly unreactive towards nucleophilic substitution. However, it can be hydrolysed to phenol by heating in aqueous sodium hydroxide solution at a temperature of 623 K and 300 atm pressure. The presence of an electron withdrawing group increases the reactivity of haloarenes.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 62

Read More

CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -9 Coordination Compounds |NCERT CHEMISTRY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry : The NCERT solutions provided here will enhance the concepts of the students, as well as suggest alternative methods to solve particular problems to the teachers. The target is to direct individuals towards problem solving strategies, rather than solving problems in one prescribed format. The links below provide the detailed solutions for all the Class 12 Chemistry problems.

Chemistry is much more than the language of Science. We have made sure that our solutions reflect the same. We aim to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using logical approach and methodology. The NCERT Solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the subject.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter :9 Coordination Compounds

INTEXT Questions

Question 1.
Write the formulas for the following coordination compounds :

  1. Tetraamminediaquacobalt (lll) chloride
  2. Potassium tetracyanonickelate (ll)
  3. Tris(ethane-1,2-diamine) chromium (lll) chloride
  4. Amminebromidochloridonitrito-N- platinate (ll)
  5. Dichloridobis(ethane-1,2-diamine) platinum (IV) nitrate
  6. Iron (lll) hexacyanoferrate (ll)

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 1

Question 2.
Write the IUPAC names of the following coordination compounds :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 2
Solution:

  1. Hexaamminecobalt (III) chloride
  2. Pentaamminechloridocobalt (III) chloride (HO3)2
  3. Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)
  4. Potassium trioxalatoferrate (III)
  5. Potassium tetrachloridopalladate (II)
  6. Diamminechlorido (methylamine) platinum (II) chloride

Question 3.
Indicate the types of isomerism exhibited by the following complexes and draw the structures for these isomers :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 3
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 4
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 5
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 6

Question 4.
Give evidence that [CO(NH3)5CI] SO4 and [CO(NH3)SO4]Cl are ionisation isomers.
Solution:
The ionisation isomers dissolve in water to yield different ions and thus react differently to various reagents :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 7

Question 5.
Explain on the basis of valence bond theory that [Ni(CN)4]2- ion with square planar structure is diamagnetic and the [NiCI4]2- ion with tetrahedral geometry is paramagnetic.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 8

Question 6.
[NiCl4]2- is paramagnetic while [Ni(CO)4] is diamagnetic though both are tetrahedral. Why?
Solution:
In Ni(CO)4, Ni is in zero oxidation state whereas in NiCl42-, it is in +2 oxidation state. In the presence of CO ligand, the unpaired d-electrons of Ni pair up but Cl being a weak ligand is unable to pair up the unpaired electrons.

Question 7.
[Fe(H2O)6]3+ is strongly paramagnetic whereas [Fe(CN)6]3- is weakly paramagnetic. Explain.
Solution:
In presence of CN, (a strong ligand), the 3d electrons pair up leaving only one unpaired electron. The hybridisation is dsp3 forming inner orbital complex. In the presence of H2O, (a weak ligand), 3d electrons do not pair up. The hybridisation is sp3 d2 forming an outer orbital complex containing five unpaired electrons hence, it is strongly paramagnetic.

Question 8.
Explain [CO(NH3)6]3+ is an inner orbital complex whereas [Ni(NH3)6]2+ is an outer orbital complex.
Solution:
in the presence of NH3, the 3d electrons pair up leaving two d orbitals empty to be involved in d2 sp3 hybridisation forming inner orbital complex in case of [CO(NH3)6]3+.
In Ni(NH3)6]2+, Ni is in +2 oxidation state and has d3 configuration, the hybridisation involved is sp3 d2 forming outer orbital complex.

Question 9.
Predict the number of unpaired electrons in the square planer [Pt(CN)4]2- ion.
Solution:
For square planer shape, the hybridisation is dsp2 . Hence, the unpaired electrons in 5d orbital pair up to make one f-orbital empty for dsp2 hybridisation. Thus there is no unpaired electron.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 9

Question 10.
The hexaaquomanganese (ll) ion contains five unpaired electrons, while the hexacyano ion contains only one unpaired electron. Explain using Crystal Field Theory.
Solution:
Mn(II) has 3d5 electronic configuration. Water is a weak field ligand and therefore ∆0 is small. Therefore, the hexaaqua complex will be high spin complex containing 5 unpaired electrons. On the other hand, CN is a strong field ligand and therefore, ∆0 is large. Therefore, in its cyano complex, the electrons pair up and have only one unpaired electron.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 10

Question 11.
Calculate the overall complex dissociation equilibrium constant for the Cu(NH3)42+ ion, given that β4 for this complex is 2.1 × 1013.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 11
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 12

NCERT Exercises

Question 1.
Explain the bonding in coordination compounds in terms of Werner’s postulates.
Solution:
The main postulates are :

  1. In coordination compounds metals show two types of linkages (valencies)-primary and secondary.
  2. The primary valencies are normally ionisable and are satisfied by negative ions.
  3. The secondary valencies are non ionisable. These are satisfied by neutral molecules or negative ions. The secondary valency is equal to the coordination number and is fixed for a metal.
  4. The ions/groups bound by the secondary linkages to the metal have characteristic spatial .arrangements corresponding to different coordination numbers.

Question 2.
FeSO4 solution mixed with (NH4)2SO4 solution in 1:1 molar ratio gives the test of Fe2+ ion but CuSO4 solution mixed with aqueous ammonia in 1:4 molar ratio does not give the test of Cu2+ ion. Explain why?
Solution:
FeSO4 solution when mixed with (NH4)2SO4 solution in 1:1 molar ratio forms a double salt FeSO4(NH4)2SO4-6H2O which when dissolved in water dissociates into simple ions to give tests for its constituent ions. When CuSO4 is mixed with aqueous ammonia a complex ion [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is formed which does not give Cu2+ in the solution.

Question 3.
Explain with two examples each of the following: coordination entity, ligand, coordination number, coordination polyhedron, homoleptic and heteroleptic.
Solution:
(i) Coordination entity : A coordination entity constitutes a central metal atom or ion bonded loa fixed number of ions or molecules. For example, [COCl3(NH3)3] is a coordination entity in which the cobalt ion is surrounded by three ammonia molecules and three chloride ions. Other examples are [Ni(CO)4], [PtCl2(NH3)2], [Fe(CN)6]4-, [CO(NH3)6]3+.

(ii) Ligand : The ions or molecules bound to the central atom/ion in the coordination entity are called ligands. These may be simple ions such as Cl, small molecules such as H2O or NH3, larger molecules such as H2NCH2CH2NH2 or N(CH2CH2NH2)3 or even macromolecules, such as proteins.

(iii) Coordination number : The coordination number [C.N.] of a metal ion in a complex can be defined as the number of ligand or donor atoms to which the metal is directly bonded. For example, in the complex ions, [PtCl6]2- and [Ni(NH3)4]2+, the coordination number of Pt and Ni are 6 and 4 respectively. Similarly, in the complex ions, [Fe(C2O4)3]3- and [CO(en)3]3+,the coordination number of both, Fe and Co, is 6 because C2O42-and en (ethane-1,2-diamine) are bidentate ligands.

(iv) Coordination polyhedron : The spatial arrangement of the ligand atoms which are directly attached to the central atom/ion defines a coordination polyhedron about the central atom. The most common coordination polyhedra are octahedral, square planar and tetrahedral. For example, [CO(NH3)6]3+ is octahedral, [Ni(CO)4] is tetrahedral and [PtCl4]2- is square planar.

(v) Homoleptic and heteroleptic complexe : Complexes in which a metal is bound to only one kind of donor groups, e.g., [CO(NH3)6]3+, are known as homoleptic. Complexes in which a metal is bound to more than one kind of donor groups, e.g., [CO(NH3)4Cl2]+, are known as heteroleptic.

Question 4.
What is meant by unidentate, bidentate and ambidentate ligands? Give two examples for each.
Solution:
Unidentate ligands are those which bind to the metal ion through a single donor atom, e.g., Cl , H2O.

Bidentate ligands are those which bind to the metal ion through two donor atoms. e.g., ethane-1,2-diamine (H2NCH2CH2NH2), oxalate (C2O42-) ion.

Ambidentate ligands are those which can bind to metal ion through two different donor atoms, e.g., NO2 and SCN ion.

Question 5.
Specify the oxidation numbers of the metals in the following coordination entities :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 13
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 14

Question 6.
Using IUPAC norms write the formulas for the following :

  1. Tetrahydroxozincate (ll)
  2. Potassium tetrachloridopalladate (ll)
  3. Diamminedichloridoplatinum (ll)
  4. Potassium tetracyanonickelate (ll)
  5. Pentaamminenitritio-O-cobalt (lll)
  6. Hexaamminecobalt (lll) sulphate
  7. Potassium tri(oxalato)chromate (lll)
  8. Hexaammineplatinum (IV)
  9. Tetrabromidocuprate (ll)
  10. Pentaamminenitrito-N-cobalt (lll)

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 15
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 16

Question 7.
Using IUPAC norms write the systematic names of the following :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 17
Solution:

  1. Hexaamminecobalt (III) chloride
  2. Diamminechloridomethylamine platinum (II) chloride
  3. Hexaaquatitanium (III) ion
  4. Tetraamminechloridonitrito-N-cobalt (III) chloride
  5. Hexaaquamanganese (II) ion
  6. Tetrachloridonickelate (II) ion
  7. Hexaammine nickel (II) chloride
  8. Tris (ethane-1,2-diamine) cobalt(III) ion
  9. Tetracarbonylnickel (0)

Question 8.
List various types of isomerism possible for coordination compounds, giving an example of each.
Solution:
(i) Geometrical isomerism : This type of isomerism arises in heteroleptic complexes due to different possible geometric arrangements of the ligands. Important examples of this behaviour are found with coordination numbers 4 and 6. In a square planar complex of formula [MX2L2] (X and L are unidentate), the two identical ligands may be arranged adjacent to each other in a cis- isomer, or opposite to each other in a trans isomer.

Another type of geometrical isomerism occurs in octahedral coordination entities of the type [Ma3b3] like [CO(NH3)3(NO2)3]. If three donor atoms of the same ligands occupy adjacent positions at the corners of an octahedral face, we have the facial (fac) isomer. When the positions are around the meridian of the octahedron, we get the meridional (mer) isomer.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 18

(ii) Optical isomerism : Optical isomerism is common in octahedral complexes involving bidentate ligands. In a coordination entity of the [PtCl2(en)2]2+, only the ds-isomer shows optical activity.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 19

(iii) Linkage isomerism : Linkage isomerism arises in a coordination compound containing ambidentate ligand. A simple example is provided by complexes containing the thiocyanate ligand, NCS, which may bind through the nitrogen to give M-N CS or through sulphur to give M-SCN. This behaviour was seen in the complex [CO(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2, which is obtained as the red form, in which the nitrite ligand is bound through oxygen ( ONO), and as the yellow form, in which the nitrite ligand is bound through nitrogen (-NO2).

(iv) Coordination isomerism : This type of isomerism arises from the interchange of ligands between cationic and anionic entities of different metal ions present in a complex. An example is provided by [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6], in which the NH3 ligands are bound to CO3+ and the CN ligands to Cr3+. In its coordination isomer [Cr(NH3)6][CO(CN)6], the NH3 ligands are bound to Cr3+ and the CN ligands to CO3+.

(v) Ionisation isomerism : This form of isomerism arises when the counter ion in a complex salt is itself a potential ligand and can displace a ligand which can then become the counter ion. An example is provided by the ionisation isomers [CO(NH3)5SO4]Br and [CO(NH3)5Br]SO4.

(vi) Solvate isomerism : This form of isomerism is known as ‘hydrate isomerism in case where water is involved as a solvent. This is similar to ionisation isomerism. Solvate isomers differ by whether or not a solvent molecule is directly bonded to the metal ion or merely present as free solvent molecules in the crystal lattice. An example is provided by the aqua complex [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (violet) and its solvate isomer [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 H2O (grey green).

Question 9.
How many geometrical isomers are possible in the following coordination entities?

  1. [Cr(C2O4)3]3-
  2. [CO(NH3)3CI3]

Solution:

  1. Zero
  2. Two – Facial and meridional.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 50

Question 10.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 20
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 21

Question 11.
Draw all the isomers (geometrical and optical) of :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 22
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 23
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 24

Question 12.
Write all the geometrical isomers of [Pt(NH3)(Br)(CI)(py)] and how many of these will exhibit optical isomerism?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 25

Question 13.
Aqueous copper sulphate solution (blue in colour) gives :

  1. a green precipitate with aqueous potassium fluoride and
  2. a bright green solution with aqueous potassium chloride. Explain these experimental results.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 26

Question 14.
What is the coordination entity formed when excess of aqueous KCN is added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate? Why is it that no precipitate of copper sulphide is obtained when H2S(g) is passed through this solution?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 27

CN is a strong field ligand, therefore, [Cu(CN)4]2- is highly stable and has large value of stability constant. On passing H2S, CuS is not formed because this coordination entity does not give Cu2+ ion.

Question 15.
Discuss the nature of bonding in the following coordination entities on the basis of valence bond theory :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 28

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 29
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 30

Question 16.
Draw figure to show the splitting of d-orbitals in an octahedral crystal field.
Solution:
Let us assume that the six ligands are positioned symmetrically along the Cartesian axes, with metal atom at the origin.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 31

As the ligands approach, first there is an increase in energy of d-orbitals relative to that of the free ion just as would be the case in a spherical field.

The orbitals lying along the axes (dz2 and dx2 – y2) get repelled more strongly than dxy, dyz and dzx orbitals which have lobes directed between the axes.

The dz2 and dx2-y2 orbitals get raised in energy and dxy dyz, dxz orbitals are lowered in energy relative to the average energy in the spherical crystal field. Thus, the degenerate set of d-orbitals get split into two sets : the lower energy orbitals set, t2g and the higher energy orbitals set, eg. The energy is separated by ∆0

Question 17.
What is spectrochemical series? Explain the difference between a weak field ligand and a strong field ligand.
Solution:
The crystal field splitting, ∆0, depends upon the field produced by the ligand and charge on the metal ion. Some ligands are able to produce strong fields in which, the splitting will be large whereas others produce weak fields and consequently result in small splitting of d-orbitals. In general, ligands can be arranged in a series in the order of increasing field strength as given below :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 32

Such a series is termed as spectrochemical series.

If ∆0 < P, the fourth electron enters one of the eg orbitals giving the configuration t23g g e1g. Ligands for which ∆0 < P are known as weak field ligands and form high spin complexes. If ∆0 > P, it becomes more energetically favourable for the fourth electron to occupy a t2g orbital with configuration t2g 4e0g. Ligands which produce this effect are known as strong field ligands and form low spin complexes.

Question 18.
What is crystal field splitting energy? How does the magnitude of ∆0 decide the actual configuration of d-orbitals in a coordination entity?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 33

Question 19.
[Cr(NH3)6]3+ is paramagnetic while [Ni(CN)4]2- is diamagnetic. Explain why?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 34

Question 20.
A solution of [Ni(H2O)6]2+ is green but a solution of [Ni(CN)4]2- is colourless. Explain.
Solution:
[Ni(H2O)6]2+has unpaired electrons due to weak H2O ligands which absorb light from visible region and radiate complementary colour i.e., green whereas [Ni(CN)4]2- does not have any unpaired electron due to strong CN ligand, therefore, does not absorb light from visible region hence, it is colourless.

Question 21.
[Fe(CN)6]4- and [Fe(H2O)6]2+ are of different colours in dilute solutions. Why?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 35
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 36

Both ligands show different magnitude of crystal field splitting energy due to different nature hence, absorb different wavelengths ans show different colours.

Question 22.
Discuss the nature of bonding in metal carbonyls.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 37

The metal-carbon bond in metal carbonyls possess both s and p character. The M-C σ bond is formed by the donation of lone pair of electrons on the carbonyl carbon into a vacant orbital of the metal. The M-C π bond is formed by the donation of a pair of electrons from a filled d-orbital of metal into the vacant antibonding π* orbital of carbon monoxide. The metal to ligand bonding creates a synergic effect which strengthens the bond between CO and the metal.

Question 23.
Give the oxidation state, d-orbital occupation and coordination number of the central metal ion in the following complexes :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 38
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 39

Question 24.
Write down the IUPAC name for each of the following complexes and indicate the oxidation state,electronicconfigurationandcoordination number. Also give stereochemistry and magnetic moment of the complex :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 40
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 41
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 42
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 43

Question 25.
What is meant by stability of the coordination compound in solution? State the factors which govern stability of complexes.
Solution:
The stability of a complex in solution refers to the degree of association between the two species involved in the state of equilibrium. The magnitude of the (stability or formation) equilibrium constant for the association, quantitatively expresses the stability. Thus, if we have a reaction of the type :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 44 then, larger the stability constant, the higher is the proportion of ML4 that exists in solution. Free metal ions rarely exist in the solution so that M will usually be surrounded by solvent molecules which will compete with the ligand molecules, L and be successively replaced by them. For simplicity, we generally ignore these solvent molecules and write four stability constants as follows :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 45
Factors affecting stability of complexes :

  1. Smaller the size of cation, greater will be the stability of complex e.g., Fe3+ forms more stable complex than Fe2+.
  2. Greater the charge on central metal ion, more stable will be the complex e.g., Pt4+ forms more stable complex than Pt2+.
  3. Stronger the ligand, more stable will be the complex formed e.g., CN forms more stable complex then NH3.

Question 26.
What is meant by the chelate effect1 Give an example.
Solution:
When a di-or polydentate ligand uses its two or more donor atoms to bind a single metal ion, it is said to be a chelate ligand. The number of such ligating groups is called the denticity of the ligand. Such complexes, called chelate complexes tend to be more stable than similar complexes containing unidentate ligands. Example : EDTA, DMG, etc.

Question 27.
Discuss briefly giving an example in each case the role of coordination compound in :

  1. biological systems
  2. medicinal chemistry
  3. analytical chemistry
  4. extraction/metallurgy of metals.

Solution:
(i) Coordination compounds are of great importance in biological systems. The pigment responsible for photosynthesis, chlorophyll, is a coordination compound of magnesium. Haemoglobin, the red pigment 1 of blood which acts as oxygen carrier is a coordination compound of iron. Vitamin B12, cyanocobalamine, the anti- pernicious anaemia factor, is a coordination compound of cobalt. Among the other compounds of biological importance with coordinated metal ions are the enzymes like, carboxypeptidase A and carbonic anhydrase (catalysts of biological systems).

(ii) There is growing Interest in the use of chelate therapy in medicinal chemistry. An example is the treatment of problems caused by the presence of metals in toxic proportions in plant/animal systems. Thus, excess of copper and iron are removed by the chelating ligands D-penicillamine and desferrioxime B via the formation of coordination compounds.

EDTA is used in the treatment of lead poisoning. Some coordination compounds of platinum effectively inhibit the growth of tumours. Examples are: ds-platin and related compounds.

(iii) Coordination compounds find use in many qualitative and quantitative chemical analysis. The familiar colour reactions given by metal ions with a number of ligands (especially chelating ligands), as a result of formation of coordination entities, form the basis for their detection and estimation by classical and instrumental methods of analysis. Examples of such reagents include EDTA, DMG (dimethylglyoxime), a-nitroso- β-naphthol, cupron, etc.

(iv) Some important extraction processes of metals, like those of silver and gold, make use of complex formation. Gold, for example, combines with cyanide in the presence of oxygen and water to form the coordination entity [Au(CN)2]- in aqueous solution. Gold can be separated in metallic form from this solution by the addition of zinc.

Question 28.
How many ions are produced from the complex CO(NH3)6CI2 in solution?

(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 46

Question 29.
Amongst the following ions which one has the highest magnetic moment value?

(a) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
(b) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(c) [Zn(H2O)6]2+

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 47

Question 30.
The oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)4] is
(a) +1
(b) +3
(c) -1
(d) -3
Solution:
(c) : + 1 + x + 4(0) = 0
∴ x = – 1.

Question 31.
Amongst the following, the most stable complex is
(a) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
(b) [Fe(NH3)6]3+
(c) [Fe(C2O4)3]3-
(d) [FeCI6]3-
Solution:
(c) : Since C2O42- is a bidentate ligand, it forms the most stable complex.

Question 32.
What will be the correct order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region for the following :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 48
Solution:
In spectrochemical series the order of the given ligands is H2O < NH3 < NO2– . Hence, the wave length of light will be absorbed in the opposite order since E = \frac { hc }{ \lambda }
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 49

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CLASS 12TH CHAPTER -8 d-and f-Block Elements |NCERT CHEMISTRY SOLUTIONS | EDUGROWN

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry : The NCERT solutions provided here will enhance the concepts of the students, as well as suggest alternative methods to solve particular problems to the teachers. The target is to direct individuals towards problem solving strategies, rather than solving problems in one prescribed format. The links below provide the detailed solutions for all the Class 12 Chemistry problems.

Chemistry is much more than the language of Science. We have made sure that our solutions reflect the same. We aim to aid the students with answering the questions correctly, using logical approach and methodology. The NCERT Solutions provide ample material to enable students to form a good base with the fundamentals of the subject.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter :8 d-and f-Block Elements

INTEXT Questions

Question 1.
Silver atom has completely filled d-orbitals (4d10) in its ground state. How can you say that it is a transition element?
Solution:
Silver (Z = 47) can exhibit +2 oxidation state wherein it will have incompletely filled d-orbitals (4d), hence it is a transition element.

Question 2.
In the series Sc (Z = 21) to Zn (Z = 30), the enthalpy of atomisation of zinc is the lowest, i.e., 126 kJ mol-1. Why?
Solution:
In the formation of metallic bonds, no electrons from 3d-orbitals are involved in case of zinc, while in all other metals of the 3d-series, electrons from the d-orbitals are always involved in the formation of metallic bonds.

Question 3.
Which of the 3d-series of the transition metals exhibits the largest number of oxidation states and why?
Solution:
Manganese (Z = 25), as its atom has the maximum number of unpaired electrons.

Question 4.
The E°(M2+/M) value for copper is positive (+0.34 V). What is possibly the reason for this? (Hint: consider its high ∆aH° and low ∆hydH°)
Solution:
The high energy to transform Cu(s) to Cu2+(aq) is not found balanced by its hydration energy. Hydration energy and lattice energy of Cu2+ is more than Cu.

Question 5.
How would you account for the irregular variation of ionisation enthalpies (first and second) in the first series of the transition elements?
Solution:
Irregular variation of ionisation enthalpies is mainly attributed to varying degree of stability of different 3d – configurations (e.g., d°, d5, d10 are exceptionally stable).

Question 6.
Why is the highest oxidation state of a metal exhibited in its oxide or fluoride only?
Solution:
Because of small size and high electronegativity oxygen or fluorine can oxidise the metal to its highest oxidation state.

Question 7.
Which is a stronger reducing agent Cr2+ or Fe2+ and why?
Solution:
Cr2+ is stronger reducing agent than Fe2+ Reason: d4 → d3 occurs in case of Cr2+ to Cr2+. But d6 → d5 occurs in case of Fe2+ to Fe2+.
In a medium (like water) d’1 is more stable as compared to d5.

Question 8.
Calculate the ‘spin only’ magnetic moment of M2+(aq) ion (Z = 27).
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 d-and f-Block Elements 1

Question 9.
Explain why Cu+ ion is not stable in aqueous solutions?
Solution:
Cu+ in aqueous solution undergoes disproportionation, i.e.,
2Cu+(aq) → Cu2+(aq) + Cu(s)
The stability of Cu2+(aq) rather than Cu+(aq) is due to the much more negative ∆hyd H°of Cu2+(aq) than Cu+, which more than compensates for the second ionisation enthalpy of Cu.

Question 10.
Actinoid contraction is greater from element to element than lanthanoid contraction. Why?
Solution:
The 5f electrons are more effectively shielded from nuclear charge. In other words the 5f electrons themselves provide poor shielding from element to element in the seriest.

NCERT Exercises

Question 1.
Write down the electronic configuration of

  1. Cr3+
  2. Pm3+
  3. Cu+
  4. Ce4+
  5. CO2+
  6. Lu2+
  7. Mn2+
  8. Th4+

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 d-and f-Block Elements 2

Question 2.
Why are Mn2+ compounds more stable than Fe2+ towards oxidation of their +3 state?
Solution:
Mn2+ has an electronic configuration of 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s0. To go to Mn3+ state the electron has to be taken out from stable d5 orbital which is half filled and requires very high ionisation energy. In case of Fe2+ ion, the third electron is taken out from 3d6 configuration which results in more stable 3d5 configuration.

Question 3.
Explain briefly how +2 state becomes more and more stable in the first half of the first row With increasing atomic number the transition elements with increasing atomic numbers?
Solution:
With increasing atomic number the effective nuclear charge increases after losing two electrons from s-orbital. The ionic size decreases which results in more stability. The slability is less in the beginning due to too few electrons to lose or share.

Question 4.
To what extent do the electronic configurations decide the stability of oxidation states in the first series of the transition elements? Illustrate your answer with examples.
Solution:
Sc3+ has stable electronic configuration (vacant d-orbital), therefore Sc3+ is more stable than Sc+.

Fe3+ is more stable than Fe2+ due to half filled d-orbitals.

Mn2+ is more stable than Mn3+ due to half filled d-orbitals.

V5+ is more stable (due to vacant d-orbital) than V3+.

Question 5.
What may be the stable oxidation state of the transition element with the following d-electron configurations in the ground state of their atoms: 3d3, 3d5, 3d8 and 3d4 ?
Solution:

  1. 3d3 : Stable oxidation state will be +5 due to outer electronic configuration 3d34s2 (+2, +3, +4, +5).
  2. 3d5: Stable oxidation state will be +2 and +7 due to outer electronic configuration 3d4s2 (+2, +3, +4, +6, +7).
  3. 3d8: Stable oxidation state will be +2 due to outer electronic configuration 3d8 4s2 (+2, +3, +4).
  4. 3d4 : Stable oxidation state will be +3 and +6 due to outer electronic configuration 3d4s1. There is no d4 configuration in ground state, as it becomes 3d4s1

Question 6.
Name the oxometal anions of the first series of the transition metals in which the metal exhibits the oxidation state equal to its group number.
Solution:
Manganese shows oxidation state of +7 in its oxometal anion MnO4 which is equivalent to its group number 7. Cr in Cr2O72- and CrO42- show oxidation state +6 which is equivalent to its group number 6.

Question 7.
What is lanthanoid contraction? What are the consequences of lanthanoid contraction?
Solution:
The overall decrease in atomic and ionic radii from lanthanum to lutetium is a unique feature in the chemistry of the lanthanoids. It has far reaching consequences in the chemistry of the third transition series of the elements.

This contraction is attributed to the imperfect shielding of one electron by another in the same sub-shell. However, the shielding of one 4f electron by another is less than one d electron by another with the increase in nuclear charge along the series. There is fairly regular decrease in the sizes with increasing atomic number.

The cumulative effect of the contraction of the lanthanoid series, known as lanthanoid contraction, causes the radii of the members of the third transition series to be very similar to those of the corresponding members of the second series. The almost identical radii of Zr (160 pm) and Hf (159 pm), a consequence of the lanthanoid contraction, account for their occurrence together in nature and for the difficulty faced in their separation.

Question 8.
What are the characteristics of the transition elements and why are they called transition elements? Which of the d-block elements may not be regarded as the transition elements?
Solution:
General characteristics of transition elements.

  1. Electronic configuration – (n – 1) d1-10 ns1-2
  2. Metallic character – With the exceptions of Zn, Cd and Hg, they have typical metallic structures.
  3. Atomic and ionic size – Ions of same charge in a given series show progressive decrease in radius with increasing atomic number.
  4. Oxidation state – Variable ; ranging from + 2 to + 7.
  5. Paramagnetism – The ions with unpaired electrons are paramagnetic.
  6. Ionisation enthalpy – Increases due to increase in molecular charge.
  7. Formation of coloured ions – Due to unpaired electrons.
  8. Formation of complex compounds – Due to small size and high charge density of metal ions.
  9. They possess catalytic properties – Due to their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states.
  10. Formation of interstitial compounds.
  11. Alloy formation.

They are called transition elements due to their incompletely filled d-orbitals in ground state or any stable oxidation state and they are placed between s and p-block elements. Zn, Cd and Hg have fully filled d° configuration in their ground state hence may not be regarded as the transition elements.

Question 9.
In what way is the electronic configuration of the transition elements different from that of the non-transition elements?.
Solution:
The electronic configuration of the transition elements is (n – 1 )d1-10 ns1-2. (n-1) stands for penultimate shell and d-orbitals may have one to ten d electrons and n denotes valence s or the outermost shell which can have one or two electrons. Hence the basic difference in electronic configuration of transition metals is that their penultimate shell is incomplete and progressively filled and not the valence shell.

Question 10.
What are the different oxidation states exhibited by the lanthanoids?
Solution:
In lanthanoids +3 oxidation state is predominant. However occasionally +2 and +4 ions in the solution or in solid compounds are also obtained, e.g. Ce4+, Tb4+, Eu2+, Yb2+, etc. +2 and +4 oxidation states are exhibited due to extra stability of empty, half – filled or fully filled f – subshells.

Question 11.
Explain giving reasons :

  1. Transition metals and many of their compounds show paramagnetic behaviour.
  2. The enthalpies of atomisation of the transition metals are high.
  3. The transition metals generally form coloured compounds.
  4. Transition metals and their many compounds act as good catalysts.

Solution:
(i) Paramagnetism arises from the presence of unpaired electrons, each such electron has magnetic moment associated with its spin angular momentum and orbital angular momentum. For the compounds of the first series of transition metals, the contribution of the orbital angular momentum is effectively quenched and hence is of no significance. For these, the magnetic moment,is determined by the number of unpaired electrons and is calculated by using the ‘spin’ only’ formula, i.e., µ = \sqrt { n(n+2) } B.M

Where n is the number of unpaired electrons and µ is the magnetic moment in units of Bohr magneton (BM). A single unpaired electron has a magnetic moment of 1.73 Bohr magneton (BM).

(ii) Because of large number of unpaired electrons in their atoms they have stronger interatomic interactions and hence stronger metallic bonding between atoms resulting in higher enthalpies of atomisation.

(iii) Due to presence of unpaired electrons and d-d transitions, the transition metals are generally coloured. When an electron from a lower energy d orbital is excited to a higher energy d-orbital, the energy of excitation corresponds to the frequency of light absorbed. This frequency generally lies in the visible region. The colour observed corresponds to the complementary colour of the light absorbed. The frequency of the light absorbed is determined by the nature of the ligand.

(iv) The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity. This activity is ascribed to their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes. Vanadium(V) oxide (in Contact Process), finely divided iron (in Haber’s Process), and nickel (in r Catalytic Hydrogenation) are some of the examples.Catalysts at a solid surface involve the formation of bonds between reactant molecules and atoms of the surface of the catalyst.

Question 12.
What are interstitial compounds? Why are such compounds well known for transitions metals ?
Solution:
Interstitial compounds are those which are formed when small atoms like H, C or N are trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals. They are usually non stoichiometric and are neither typically ionic nor covalent, for example, TiC, Mn4N, Fe3H, VH0.56 and TiH1.7, etc.

These do not correspond to any normal oxidation state of the metal. Because of the nature of their composition, these compounds are referred to as interstitial compounds.The principal physical and chemical characteristics of these compounds are as follows :

  1. They have high melting points, higher than those of pure metals.
  2. They are very hard, some borides approach diamond in hardness.
  3. They retain metallic conductivity
  4. They are chemically inert.

Question 13.
How is the variability in oxidation states of transition metals different from that of the non-transition metals ? Illustrate with examples.
Solution:
The variability of oxidation states, a characteristic of transition elements, arises out of incomplete filling of d-orbitals in such a way that their oxidation states differ from each other by unity, e.g., VII, VIII, VIV, VV. This is in contrast with the variability of oxidation sates of non transition elements where oxidation states normally differ by a unit of two.

In the p-block the lower oxidation states are favoured by the heavier members (due to inert pair effect), the opposite is true in the groups of d-block. For example, in group 6, Mo(VI) and W(VI) are found to be more stable than Cr(VI). Thus Cr(VI) in the form of dichromate in acidic medium is a strong oxidising agent, whereas MoO3 and WO3 are not.

Question 14.
Describe the preparation of potassium dichromate from iron chromite ore. What is the effect of increasing pH on a solution of potassium dichromate?
Solution:
Potassium dichromate is prepared from chromate, which in turn is obtained by the fusion of chromite ore (FeCr2O4) with sodium or potassium carbonate in free access of air. The reaction with sodium carbonate occurs as follows :
4FeCr2O4 + 8Na2CO3 + 7O2 → 8Na2CrO4 + 2Fe2O3 + 8CO2
The yellow solution of sodium chromate is filtered and acidified with sulphuric acid to give a solution from which orange sodium dichromate, Na2Cr2O7-2H2O can be crystallised.
2Na2CrO4 + 2H+ → Na2Cr2O7 + 2Na+ + H2O
Sodium dichromate is more soluble than potassium dichromate. The latter is therefore, prepared by treating the solution of sodium dichromate with potassium chloride.
Na2Cr2O7 + 2KCl → K2Cr2O7 + 2NaCl
Orange crystals of potassium dichromate crystallise out. The chromates and dichromates are interconvertible in aqueous solution depending upon pH of the solution. If pH of potassium dichromate is increased it is converted to yellow potassium chromate.
2CrO42- + 2H+ → Cr2O72- + H2O
Cr2O72- + 2OH → 2CrO42- + H2O

Question 15.
Describe the oxidising action of potassium dichromate and write the ionic equations for its reaction with

  1. iodide
  2. iron(ll) solution and
  3. H2S.

Solution:
K2Cr2O7 is a powerful oxidising agent. In dilute sulphuric acid medium the oxidation state of Cr changes from +6 to +3. The oxidising action can be represented as follows :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 d-and f-Block Elements 3

Question 16.
Describe the preparation of potassium permanganate. How does the acidified permanganate solution react with (i) iron (ii) ions (ii) SO2 and (iii) oxalic acid ? Write the ionic equations for the reactions.
Solution:
Potassium permanganate (KMnO4) is prepared by the fusion of a mixture of pyrolusite (MnO2), potassium hydroxide and oxygen, first green coloured potassium manganate is formed.
2MnO2 + 4KOH + O2 → 2K2MnO4 + 2H2O
The potassium manganate is extracted by water, which then undergoes disproportionation in neutral or acidic solution to give potassium permanganate.
Electrolytically :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 d-and f-Block Elements 4

Question 17.
For M2+/M and M3+/M2+ systems the P values for some metals are as follows
Use this data to comment upon
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 d-and f-Block Elements 5

  1. the stability of Fe3+ in acid solution as compared to that of Cr3+ or Mn3+ and
  2. the ease with which iron can be oxidised as compared to a similar process for either chromium or manganese metal.

Solution:

  1. From the E° values for M3+/M2+ for Cr, Mn and Fe, it is very clear that Fe3+ is more stable than Mn3+ in an acidic medium, whereas less stable than Cr3+ because of the higher reduction potential in comparison to Cr3+/Cr2+ and lower reduction potential than Mn3+/Mn2+.
  2. Reduction potential for Mn2+/Mn is most negative and therefore, it will be most easily oxidised and ease of getting oxidised will be Mn > Cr > Fe.

Question 18.
Predict which of the following will be coloured in aqueous solution? Ti3+, V3+, Cu+, Sc3+, Mn2+, Fe3+ and CO32+. Give reasons for each.
Solution:
The configuration of the given metal ions can be given as
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 d-and f-Block Elements 6

Question 19.
Compare the stability of +2 oxidation state for the elements of the first transition series.
Solution:
The common oxidation state of 3d series elements is + 2 which arises due to participation of only 4s electrons. The tendency to show highest oxidation state increases from Sc to Mn, then decreases due to pairing of electrons in 3d subshell. Thus in the series Sc(II) does not exist, Ti(II) is less stable than Ti(IV). At the other end of the series, oxidation state of Zn is +2 only.

Question 20.
Compare the chemistry of actinoids with that of the lanthanoids with special reference to
(i) electronic configuration
(ii) atomic and ionic sizes
(iii) oxidation state and
(iv) chemical reactivity.
Solution:
(i)Electronicconfiguration : Lanthanoids have general electronic configuration of [Xe] 4f1-14 5d0-1 6s2 and actinoids have general electronic configuration of [Rn]5f1-14 6d0-1 7s2. Thus, lanthanoids belong to 4 f-series whereas actinoids belong to 5 f-series.

(ii) Atomic and ionic sizes : The atomic size of lanthanoids decreases from lanthanum to lutetium. Though the decrease is not regular, in case of atomic radii, the decrease in the ionic size (M3+) is regular. Decrease in size between two successive elements is higher in actinoids due to poor screening by 5f electrons.

(iii) Oxidation state : The most common oxidation state of lanthanoids is +3 while actinoids show more variable oxidation states than lanthanoids ranging from +3 to +7. The tendency of showing greater range of oxidation states can be attributed to the fact that the 5f 6d and 7s levels are of comparable energies and larger distance of 5fas compared to 4f from the nucleus.

(iv) Chemical reactivity : Actinoids are far more reactive than lanthanoids. They react with non-metals at moderate temperatures whereas lanthanoids react at high temperatures. Most actinoids are attacked by HCl but are slightly affected by HNO3 due to formation of a protective layer of oxide and alkalies give no reaction.

Lanthanoids liberate hydrogen from dilute acids and burn in halogens to form halides.

Question 21.
How would you account for the following?
(i) Of the d4 species, Cr2+ is strongly reducing while manganese(lll) is strongly oxidising.
(ii) Cobalt(ll) is stable in aqueous solution but in the presence of complexing reagents it is easily oxidised.
(iii) The d1 configuration is very unstable in ions.
Solution:
(i) Both Cr2+ and Mn3+ have d4 configuration, Cr2+ is reducing since its configuration is converted to d3 from d4. d3 has half filled t28, configuration with higher stability. Mn3+ is oxidising since in changing from d4 to d5 the configuration becomes half filled which has extra stability,

(ii) Co(II) gets oxidised to Co(III) in presence of complexing agent because Co(III) is more stable than Co(II). Most of the strong field ligands cause pairing of electrons forming diamagnetic octahedral complexes which are very stable due to very large crystal field stabilization energy.

(iii) d1 configuration is very unstable in ions because after losing one more electron it will become more stable due to vacant d-orbital. All elements with d1 configuration are either reduced or undergo disproportionation, e.g.,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 d-and f-Block Elements 7

Question 22.
What is meant by ‘disproportionation’? Give two examples of disproportionation reaction in aqueous solution.
Solution:
Disproportionation reaction involves the oxidation and reduction of the same substance. The two examples of disproportionation reaction are

  1. 2Cu+ → Cu2+ + Cu
  2. 3MnO42- + 4H+ → 2MnO4 + MnO2 + 2H2O

Question 23.
Which metal in the first series of transition metals exhibits +1 oxidation state most frequently and why?
Solution:
Copper exhibits +1 oxidation state in the first series of transition metals because when one electron is lost, the configuration becomes stable due to fully filled d10 configuration.

Question 24.
Calculate the number of unpaired electrons in the following gaseous ions : Mn3+, Cr3+, V3+ and Ti3+. Which ono of these is the most stable in aqueous solution ?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 d-and f-Block Elements 8

Question 25.
Give examples and suggest reasons for the following features of the transition metal chemistry :
(i) The lowest, oxide of transition metal is basic, the highest is amphoteric/acidic.
(ii) A transition metal exhibits highest oxidation state in oxides and fluorides.
(iii) The highest oxidation state is exhibited in oxoanions of a metal.
Solution:
(i) Lowest oxidation compounds of transition metals are basic due to their ability to get oxidised to higher oxidation states. Whereas the higher oxidation state of metal and compounds gets reduced to lower ones and hence acts as acidic in nature.
e.g. MnO is basic whereas Mn2O7 is acidic.

(ii) Due to high electronegativities of oxygen and fluorine, the oxides and fluorides of transition metals exhibit highest oxidation state.
e.g. OSF6,V2O5

(iii) In oxoanions of metals, the metals from bonds with oxygen and hence are present in their highest oxidation states. For example : Cr forms CrO42- and Cr2O72-, both contain chromium in +6 oxidation state.

Permanganate ion, MnO4 contains Mn in its highest oxidation state of +7.

Question 26.
Indicate the steps in the preparation of

  1. K2Cr2O7 from chromite ore
  2. KMnO4 from pyrolusite ore.

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 d-and f-Block Elements 9

Question 27.
What are alloys? Name an important alloy which contains some of the lanthanoid metals. Mention its uses.
Solution:
An allov is a blend of metals prepared by mixing the components. Alloys are homogeneous solid solutions in which the atoms of one metal are distributed randomly among the atoms of other. Misch metal is an alloy which contains some of the lanthanoid metals. It contains 95% lanthanoid metals, 5% iron and traces of S, C, Ca and Al. Mischmetall is used in Mg-based alloy to produce bullets, shell and lighter flint.

Question 28.
What are inner transition elements? Decide which of the following atomic numbers are the atomic numbers oftheinnertransition element: 29, 59, 74, 95,102,104.
Solution:
Lanthanoids and actinoids are called inner transition elements because inner f-orbitals are progressively filled and the last electron goes to anti penultimate f orbital.

Elements with atomic number 59, 95, 102 are inner transition metals because they belong to lanthanoids and actinoids.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 d-and f-Block Elements 10

Question 29.
The chemistry of the actinoid elements is not so smooth as that of the lanthanoids. Justify this statement by giving some examples from the oxidation state of these elements.
Solution:
The actinoids are radioactive elements and the earlier members have relatively long half-lives, the latter ones have half-life values ranging from a day to 3 minutes for lawrencium (Z = 103). The latter members could be prepared only in nanogram quantities. These facts render their study more difficult.

There is a greater range of oxidation states, which is attributed to the fact that the 5f, 6d and 7s levels are of comparable energies. The actinoids show in general +3 oxidation state. The elements, in the first half of the series frequently exhibit higher oxidation states. For example, the maximum oxidation state increases from +4 in Th to +5, +6 and +7 respectively in Pa, U and Np but decreases in succeeding elements, The actinoids resemble the lanthanoids in having more compounds in +3 state than in the +4 state. However, +3 and +4 ions tend to hydrolyse. Because the distribution of oxidation states among the actinoids is so uneven and so different for the earlier and latter elements. It is unsatisfactory to review their chemistry in terms of oxidation states.

Question 30.
Which is the last element in the series of the actinoids? Write the electronic configuration of this element. Comment on the possible oxidation state of this element.
Solution:
Lawrencium (Lr) is the last element of actinoids. Its outer electronic configuration is 5f14 6d1 7s2 and its possible oxidation state is +3.

Question 31.
Use Hund’s rule to derive the electronic configuration of Ce3+ ion, and calculate its magnetic moment on the basis of ‘spin-only’ formula.
Solution:
The electronic configuration of Ce3+ is 4f1
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 d-and f-Block Elements 11

Question 32.
Name the members of the lanthanoid series which exhibit +4 oxidation state and those which exhibit +2 oxidation state. Try to correlate this type of behaviour with the electronic configurations of these elements.
Solution:
All lanthanoids show Ln3+ oxidation state. But some of them show +2 and +4 states also in solution and solid form like Ce4+, Eu2+, Yb2+, Tb4+, etc. The variable oxidation state is related to electronic configuration due to extra stability of half filled, fully filled or empty orbitals, e.g., Ce4+ has 4f0, Eu2+ has 4f7 Tb4+ has 4f7 and Yb2+ has 4f14 configuration.

Question 33.
Compare the chemistry of the actinoids with that of lanthanoids with reference to (i) electronic configuration (ii) oxidation states and (iii) chemical reactivity.
Solution:
Refer answer number 20.

Question 34.
Write the electronic configurations of the elements with the atomic numbers 61,91,101, and 109.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 d-and f-Block Elements 12

Question 35.
Compare the general characteristics of the first series of transition metals with those of the second and third series metals in the respective vertical columns. Give special emphasis on the following points
(i) electronic configurations
(ii) oxidation states
(iii) ionisation enthalpies and
(iv) atomic sizes.
Solution:
(i) Electronic configurations : In 1st transition series, 3d-orbitals are progressively filled whereas in 2nd transition series, 4d-orbitals are progressively filled and in 3rd transition series, 5d-orbitals are progressively filled.

(ii) Oxidations states : Elements show variable oxidation states in both the series. The highest oxidation state is equal to total number of electrons in ‘s’ as well as ‘d’ orbitals. The number of oxidation states shown are less in 5d transition series than 4d series. In 3d series +2 and +3 oxidation states are common and they form stable complexes in these oxidation states. In other series OsO4 and PtF6 are formed which are quite stable in higher oxidation state.

(iii) Ionisation enthalpies : The ionisation enthalpies in each series generally increases gradually from left to right. The ionisation enthalpy of 5d series do not differ appreciably due to lanthanoid contraction.

(iv) Atomic sizes : The atomic sizes of 4d and 5d-series do not differ appreciably due to lanthanoid contraction. The atomic radii of second and third series are larger than 3d series.

Question 36.
Write down the number of 3d electrons in each of the following ions: Ti2+, V2+, Cr3+, Mn2+, Fe2+, Fe3+, CO2+, Ni2+ and Cu2+. Indicate how would you expect the five 3d orbitals to be occupied for these hydrated ions (octahedral).
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 d-and f-Block Elements 13

Question 37.
Comment on the statement that elements of the first transition series possess many properties different from those of heavier transition elements.
Solution:

  1. In first transition series lower oxidation state is more stable whereas in heavier transition elements higher oxidation states are more stable.
  2. The ionisation enthalpy of 5d transition series is higher than 3d and 4d transition series.
  3. M-M bonding is most common in heavier transition metals but less in first series.
  4. The elements of first transition series do not form complexes with higher coordination number of 7 and 8.
  5. The elements of first series can form high spin or low spin complexes depending upon strength of ligands but elements of other series form low spin complexes irrespective of strength of ligands.

Question 38.
What can be inferred from the magnetic moment values of the following complex species?
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 d-and f-Block Elements 14
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 d-and f-Block Elements 15

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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-8 | ENGLISH FLAMINGO NCERT MCQ | GOING PLACES | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-8 Going Places  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English Flamingo which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON GOING PLACES

Question 1.
The second time Sophie asked for an autograph from Danny, he did not again have
(a) a piece of paper
(b) a pen
(c) a pencil
(d) a sketch pen

Answer: (b) a pen

Question 2.
After leaving the bench on the park, who did Sophie think she met?

(a) Danny’s parents
(b) her own parents
(c) her brother
(d) Danny Casey

Answer: (d) Danny Casey

Question 3.
What became a hard burden to carry?

(a) her sadness
(b) her worry
(c) her studies
(d) her creative skills

Answer: (a) her sadness

Question 4.
Sophie had a truly

(a) wild imagination
(b) bad nature
(c) arrogant mannerism
(d) casual attitude

Answer: (a) wild imagination

Question 5.
Sophie went to meet Danny by the

(a) side of the canal
(b) river bank
(c) jetty
(d) harbour

Answer: (a) side of the canal

Question 6.
Sophie’s reaction when Jansie questioned her about Danny was that
(a) she was happy
(b) she was angry with Geoff for letting out her secret
(c) she wanted Jansie to meet Danny
(d) she wanted Jansie to tell all their friends

Answer: (b) she was angry with Geoff for letting out her secret

Question 7.
Little Derek remarked on the way back that
(a) Ireland will win the World Cup
(b) Danny Casey is a bad player
(c) Geoff should also play football
(d) Derek wanted to be a soccer player himself

Answer: (a) Ireland will win the World Cup

Question 8.
Casey, in the match, scored the

(a) first goal
(b) second goal
(c) third goal
(d) fourth goal

Answer: (b) second goal

Question 9.
Sophie wished that Geoff would care more about his

(a) friends and relatives
(b) friends and acquaintances
(c) his clothes
(d) his parents

Answer: (c) his clothes

Question 10.
Danny and Sophie had stood in front
of Royce’s window and talked about
(a) footwear
(b) sunglasses
(c) clothes
(d) movies

Answer: (c) clothes

Question 11.
Three photographs were seen on the wall of

(a) Sophie’s room
(b) Janie’s room
(c) Geoff’s room
(d) father’s room

Answer: (c) Geoff’s room

Question 12.
The father was optimistic about

(a) Danny being successful
(b) Danny being thrown out of the team as he was a bad player
(c) Danny scoring maximum goals
(d) Danny being awarded a gold medal

Answer: (a) Danny being successful

Question 13.
Sophie and Geoff’s father, when told by Geoff that Sophie had met Danny, reacted with

(a) anger
(b) loud scream
(c) expression of disdain
(d) a slap on Sophie’s face

Answer: (c) expression of disdain

Question 14.
Sophie told Geoff that she had met Danny at __

(a) the football ground
(b) at the doctor’s clinic
(c) at the arcade
(d) at the pastry shop

Answer: (c) at the arcade

Question 15.
Sophie often imagined herself with her brother Geoff, riding on a __

(a) motorcycle
(b) a bicycle
(c) cart
(d) a roller coaster

Answer: (a) motorcycle


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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-7 | ENGLISH FLAMINGO NCERT MCQ | THE INTERVIEW | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-7 The Interview  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English Flamingo which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE INTERVIEW

Question 1.
What do Rudyard Kipling and his wife express about interviews?

(a) immoral
(b) not good
(c) very bad
(d) immoral and offensive crime against a person

Answer: (d) immoral and offensive crime against a person

Question 2.
Why were the journalists and publishers puzzled by the success of The Name of the Rose?

(a) because readers like trash and it was a serious novel
(b) because it was becoming popular
(c) because of its high rated success
(d) none

Answer: (a) because readers like trash and it was a serious novel

Question 3.
What was Lewis Carroll’s
opinion of interviews and autographs?
(a) wonder
(b) terror
(c) horror
(d) none

Answer: (c) horror

Question 4.
Which period of history do Umberto’s novels deal with?

(a) Renaissance
(b) dark age
(c) modern era
(d) Medieval period

Answer: (d) Medieval period

Question 5.
Why did Umberto start writing novels?

(a) to avail an opportunity
(b) to be in limelight
(c) to share his views
(d) to make best use of empty spaces means free time

Answer: (d) to make best use of empty spaces means free time

Question 6.
What facts are being showcased in the interview held between Eco and Padmanabhan?

(a) he takes pride in being an academician, a university Professor first
(b) Being a novelist is a secondary thing for him
(c) uses his free time for writing novels
(d) All these

Answer: (d) All these

Question 7.
How many novels has Umberto written?

(a) 10
(b) 8
(c) 15
(d) 5

Answer: (d) 5

Question 8.
What do his works for children speak about ?

(a) his passion for children
(b) children are nuisance
(c) children love to be happy
(d) non-violence and peace

Answer: (d) non-violence and peace

Question 9.
Explain ‘Denis Brain’s statement “Almost everything of moment reaches us through one man
asking questions of others.’

(a) The interviewer has the power
(b) The interviewer has status
(c) The interviewer can elicit the truth and has the power to influence
(d) All these

Answer: (d) All these

Question 10.
Enumerate ‘An Interview is a supremely serviceable medium of communication?

(a) a medium to gossip
(b) a medium to be the talk of the town
(c) a medium to prosper
(d) a noble medium of interaction and introspection

Answer: (d) a noble medium of interaction and introspection

Question 11.
What satisfied Umberto’s taste for narration?

(a) stories
(b) children’s works
(c) interviews
(d) Novels

Answer: (d) Novels

Question 12.
What do you understand by the expression ‘Thumbprints on his windpipes”?
(a) creating excessive pressure on throat
(b) creating excessive pressure on vocal chords
(c) creating excessive pressure and tension for someone
(d) none

Answer: (c) creating excessive pressure and tension for someone

Question 13.
Why do the celebrities feel embarrassed most often?

(a) because of question attacks during interviews
(b) because of interviewer’s gestures
(c) because of interviewer’s appearance
(d) none

Answer: (a) because of question attacks during interviews

Question 14.
At what age did he start writing novels?

(a) at the age of 55
(b) at the age of 52
(c) at the age of 57
(d) at the age of 50

Answer: (d) at the age of 50

Question 15.
Why do most celebrity writers despise being interviewed?
(a) they don’t like journalists
(b) unwarranted intrusion in their life
(c) their privacy is hurt
(d) none

Answer: (b) unwarranted intrusion in their life


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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-6 | ENGLISH FLAMINGO NCERT MCQ | POETS AND PANCAKES | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-6 Poets and Pancakes  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English Flamingo which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON POETS AND PANCAKES

Question 1.
Who was heading the make-up department?

(a) a Madrasa
(b) A Tamilian
(c) A Bengali
(d) A Bengali and later was succeeded by a Maharashtrian

Answer: (d) A Bengali and later was succeeded by a Maharashtrian

Question 2.
Why was Subbu a trouble shooter?

(a) because of his gossip style
(b) because of his flattery
(c) ability to mix up with everyone
(d) because of his problem resolving quality

Answer: (d) because of his problem resolving quality

Question 3.
When did MRA visit Madras?

(a) 1942
(b) 1922
(c) 1932
(d) 1952

Answer: (d) 1952

Question 4.
In this lesson, what is the purpose of humor and satire used by the author?

(a) to highlight human abilities
(b) to show capabilities
(c) to show varied capacities
(d) to show and highlight human infancies and flaws

Answer: (d) to show and highlight human infancies and flaws

Question 5.
How was Kothamangalam Subbu treated in the Gemini studio?

(a) with hatred
(b) rudely
(c) disrespectfully
(d) with high respect

Answer: (d) with high respect

Question 6.
How does the author come to know that English author was Stephen Spender?

(a) From a painting
(b) From the newspaper
(c) from a television show
(d) from a book- The God that failed

Answer: (d) from a book- The God that failed

Question 7.
What is the example of National Integration in Poets and Pancakes?

(a) Make up department of Gemini
(b) rehearsal room
(c) office of Gemini studio
(d) none

Answer: (a) Make up department of Gemini

Question 8.
Who imitated the scenes of Sunset and Sunrise of Jotham Valley?

(a) Police
(b) Scouts of Madras
(c) Social Workers
(d) All Tamil Plays

Answer: (d) All Tamil Plays

Question 9.
Why was Subbu considered number 2 at Gemini studio?

(a) because of his flattery
(b) because of his abilities
(c) because of creative skills
(d) none

Answer: (c) because of creative skills

Question 10.
The boy in the make up room was jealous of whom?

(a) actors
(b) author
(c) the visitor
(d) Subbu’s success and his closeness to the boss

Answer: (d) Subbu’s success and his closeness to the boss

Question 11.
Why was the author praying for crowd shooting at all times?

(a) to attract the crowd
(b) to avoid people
(c) to avoid epical narrations
(d) none

Answer: (c) to avoid epical narrations

Question 12.
Why did everybody in the studio think of giving some work to the author?

(a) because of the idle appearance of his work
(b) because he was an office boy
(c) because he was a helper
(d) none

Answer: (a) because of the idle appearance of his work

Question 13.
What was MRA?

(a) British Army
(b) The Moral Rearmament Army- a counter movement to International Communism
(c) a wing of Indian Army
(d) A drama company

Answer: (b) The Moral Rearmament Army- a counter movement to International Communism

Question 14.
Who was the Englishman?

(a) Salman Rushdie
(b) D.H Lawrence
(c) George Orwell
(d) Stephen Spender- Editor of a British Periodical The Encounter

Answer: (d) Stephen Spender- Editor of a British Periodical The Encounter

Question 15.
For whom was Gemini studio making films?

(a) for English people
(b) for illiterate
(c) for elderly people
(d) for simple Tamilians who have no interest in English poetry

Answer: (d) for simple Tamilians who have no interest in English poetry


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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-5 | ENGLISH FLAMINGO NCERT MCQ | INDIGO | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-5 Indigo  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English Flamingo which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON INDIGO

Question 1.
Health conditions in Champaran

(a) miserable
(b) tolerable
(c) under control
(d) fairly good

Answer: (a) miserable

Question 2.
Who volunteered to work in Champaran?

(a) two disciples of Gandhi and their wives
(b) Kasturba and the eldest son of Gandhi
(c) Mahadev Desai and his wife
(d) Narhari Prasad and his wife

Answer: (a) two disciples of Gandhi and their wives

Question 3.
The representative of the planters offered to refund—– percent to the peasants

(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) 25

Answer: (d) 25

Question 4.
For how long did Gandhi remain in Champaran?

(a) seven weeks
(b) three months
(c) one and a half year
(d) seven months

Answer: (d) seven months

Question 5.
What amount of repayment did the big planters think Gandhi would demand?

(a) repayment in full
(b) double the amount
(c) fifty percent of the amount
(d) no payment, just an apology

Answer: (a) repayment in full

Question 6.
Gandhi was summoned by ___ the Lt. Governor

(a) Sir Edward Gait
(b) Sir Henry Gait
(c) Sir Richard Andrews
(d) Sir Freer Andrews

Answer: (a) Sir Edward Gait

Question 7.
Who were ready to follow Gandhi into jail?

(a) peasants
(b) lawyers
(c) Shukla
(d) J.B. Kriplani

Answer: (b) lawyers

Question 8.
The magistrate asked Gandhi to furnish bail for __ minutes

(a) 30
(b) 60
(c) 90
(d) 120

Answer: (d) 120

Question 9.
How did Gandhi behave with the officials outside the court?

(a) demonstrated his power
(b) was firm and resolute
(c) he said that he would disobey the order
(d) cooperated with them

Answer: (d) cooperated with them

Question 10.
Why did Gandhi start out on the back of an elephant?

(a) a peasant had been maltreated in a village nearby
(b) he set out to meet the secretary of British Landlords Association
(c) he set out to meet British official commissioner
(d) he was summoned by Sir Edward Gait, the Lt. Governor

Answer: (a) a peasant had been maltreated in a village nearby

Question 11.
After Tirhut, where did Gandhi go?

(a) Lucknow
(b) Motihari
(c) Cawnpore
(d) Ahmedabad

Answer: (b) Motihari

Question 12.
What happened when Gandhi visited the secretary of British landlord’s association?

(a) the secretary proceeded to bully him
(b) the secretary advised him forthwith to leave Tirhut
(c) the secretary said that they could not give any information to an outsider
(d) the secretary was very helpful

Answer: (c) the secretary said that they could not give any information to an outsider

Question 13.
Why was Gandhi not permitted to draw water from Rajendra Prasad’s well?

(a) the servant thought Gandhi was another peasant
(b) as Rajendra Prasad was not at home
(c) Gandhi looked like a vagabond
(d) Gandhi was a Harijan

Answer: (a) the servant thought Gandhi was another peasant

Question 14.
Where is Champaran district situated?

(a) in the south-west of Orissa
(b) in the foothills of the Himalayas in Bihar
(c) in the northeast of Orissa
(d) in the south of Bihar

Answer: (b) in the foothills of the Himalayas in Bihar

Question 15.
What did the British landlords and from the peasants after synthetic indigo was developed?

(a) indigo as rent
(b) 15% of produce
(c) money as compensation
(d) a new settlement

Answer: (c) money as compensation



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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-4 | ENGLISH NCERT MCQ | THE RATTRAP | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-4 The Rattrap  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE RATTRAP

Question 1 : Why did the Peddler leave the stolen money in a Rattrap?

a) Because of his plan
b) to deceive them
c) because of fear of Iron master
d) none

Answer : C

Question 2 : How is the Peddler influenced by meeting the Crofter and Edla?

a) he was encouraged to steal money
b) he became a rattrap seller
c) his heart was changed
d) none

Answer : C

Question 3 : What doubts did Edla have about Peddler?

a) his behavior
b) his words
c) his fear and appearance
d) none

Answer : C

Question 4 : Why did Peddler not reveal his true identity?

a) because of fear
b) he didn’t want to hurt them
c) in the greed of getting money
d) none

Answer : C

Question 5 : Why did the Peddler feel that he had fallen into the Rattrap?

a) because he fell into a pit
b) because he fell in love with Edla
c) because his heart is changed
d) because of his greedy action and pitiable circumstances

Answer : D

Question 6: Why did Crofter show 30 Kronor to the Peddler?

a) to boast
b) to flaunt
c) because he considers him a friend
d) to share his feelings of pride

Answer : D

Question 7: Why did the Peddler have to resort to begging and thievery?

a) poverty
b) miserable life
c) because of non-profitability of his business
d) none

Answer : C

Question 8 : Who used to make rattraps?

a) Crofter
b) Edla
c) Crofter and Edla
d) Peddler

Answer : D

Question 9: From where did the Peddler get the material to make rattraps?

a) shops
b) roads
c) streets
d) stores

Answer : D

Question 10 : How did Crofter treat the Peddler?

a) very rudely
b) in a strange manner
c) friendly manner
d) none

Answer : C

Question 11 : Why did Peddler sign himself as Captain Von Stahle?

a) he didn’t want to hurt them
b) because of love and care
c) because of mistaken identity
d) none

Answer : C

Question 12: Why did ironmaster realize his mistake?

a) because of Edla
b) because of pedlar’s words
c) because of his friend
d) because of uncertain reflections and Edla

Answer : D

Question 13 : What made the Peddler finally change his heart?

a) Edla’s words
b) Edla’s appearance
c) Edla’s father
d) Edla’s goodness and care

Answer : D

Question 14 : What was the Peddler’s profession and who he was?

a) selling, traveler
b) begging, traveler
c) stealing, thief
d) none

Answer : C

Question 15 : Why did the Peddler feel like stealing?

a) greed
b) poverty
c) miserable life
d) others’ indifference to his needs

Answer : D

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NCERT MCQ CLASS-12 CHAPTER-3 | ENGLISH NCERT MCQ | DEEP WATER | EDUGROWN

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-3 Deep Water  NCERT MCQ for Class 12 English which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON DEEP WATER

Question 1.
At the end of the experience, Douglas felt

(a) happy
(b) released
(c) sad
(d) victorious

Answer: (b) released

Question 2.
‘All we have to fear is fear itself. Who said these words?

(a) Douglas
(b) his instructor
(c) his father
(d) President Roosevelt

Answer: (d) President Roosevelt

Question 3.
‘What do you think you can do to me’? These words were spoken by Douglas to
(a) a shark
(b) to his enemy
(c) to the boy who pushed him
(d) to terror

Answer: (d) to terror

Question 4.
Whenever terror struck again, Douglas would start

(a) shouting
(b) laughing
(c) crying
(d) talking to terror

Answer: (d) talking to terror

Question 5.
Douglas had to repeat exhaling and inhaling exercises

(a) hundred times
(b) forty times
(c) fifty times
(d) ten times

Answer: (a) hundred times

Question 6.
He practiced in the pool

(a) ten times a week
(b) five days a week
(c) twice a week
(d) thrice a week

Answer: (b) five days a week

Question 7.
After being haunted by fear for many years Douglas
decided to learn to swim. He took the help of
(a) his mother
(b) his father
(c) a friend
(d) an instructor

Answer: (d) an instructor

Question 8.
When he regained consciousness, he

(a) laughed at his experience
(b) had 104° F fever
(c) shook and cried and didn’t eat anything
(d) told his mother about his misadventure

Answer: (c) shook and cried and didn’t eat anything

Question 9.
Douglas went down towards the bottom

(a) only once
(b) twice
(c) thrice
(d) five times

Answer: (c) thrice

Question 10.
The water in the pool had a

(a) dirty yellow tinge
(b) a blue reflection
(c) green colour
(d) no colour

Answer: (a) dirty yellow tinge

Question 11.
When Douglas tried to yell

(a) everyone came to his rescue
(b) no sound came out
(c) his father arrived
(d) the lifeguard dived to save him up, they hung as

Answer: (b) no sound came out

Question 12.
The nine feet seemed to Douglas like

(a) hundred feet
(b) ninety feet
(c) fifty feet
(d) twenty-five feet

Answer: (b) ninety feet

Question 13.
Though Douglas was frightened, he was not

(a) afraid to die
(b) going to survive
(c) out of his wits
(d) able to shout for help

Answer: (c) out of his wits

Question 14.
Douglas calls him a

(a) nasty human being
(b) a brute
(c) a beautiful physical specimen
(d) a big bully

Answer: (c) a beautiful physical specimen

Question 15.
The misadventure at the Y.M.C.A pool happened when

(a) Douglas was accompanied by friends
(b) he was with his father
(c) he was alone
(d) he was with his mother

Answer: (c) he was alone


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