Yearly Archives: 2021

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-9 Mechanical Properties of Solids NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Physics which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS

Question 1: Shearing strain is expressed by

• a) angle of shear
• b) decrease in volume
• c) angle of twist
• d) increase in volume

Answer: angle of shear

Question 2: A uniform cube is subjected to volume compression. If each side is decreased by 1%, then bulk strain is

• a) 0.03
• b) 0.02
• c) 0.06
• d) 0.01

Answer: 0.03

Question 3:

Assertion : Identical springs of steel and copper are equally stretched. More work will be done on the steel spring
Reason : Steel is more elastic than copper.

• a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion
• b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
• c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
• d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

Answer: Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion

Question 4: The Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.5. If a force is applied to a wire of this material, there is a decrease in the cross-sectional area by 4%. The percentage increase in the length is

• a) 4%
• b) 2.5%
• c) 2%
• d) 1%

Answer: 4%

Question 5: Modulus of rigidity of ideal liquids is

• a) zero
• b) infinity
• c) unity
• d) some finite small non-zero constant value

Answer: zero

Question 6: Beyond the critical speed, the flow of fluids becomes

• a) turbulent
• b) streamline
• c) steady
• d) very slow

Answer: turbulent

Question 7: Streamline flow is more likely for liquids with

• a) low density and high viscosity
• b) low density and high viscosity
• c) high density and high viscosity
• d) high density and high viscosity

Answer: low density and high viscosity

Question 8: For flow of a fluid to be turbulent

• a) both
• b) fluid should have high density
• c) velocity should be large
• d) None of these

Answer: both

Question 9: In Bernoulli’s theorem which of the following is conserved?

• a) Energy
• b) Mass
• c) Linear momentum
• d) Angular momentum

Answer: Energy

Question 10: A liquid is allowed to flow into a tube of truncated cone shape. Identify the correct statement from the following

• a) the speed is low at the wider end and high at the narrow end.
• b) the speed is high at the wider end and high at the narrow end
• c) the speed is same at both ends in a stream line flow.
• d) the liquid flows with uniform velocity in the tube.

Answer: the speed is low at the wider end and high at the narrow end.

Question 11: As the temperature of a liquid is raised, the coefficient of viscosity

• a) decreases
• b) increases
• c) remains the same
• d) may increase or decrease depending on the nature of liquid

Answer: decreases

Question 12: After terminal velocity is reached, the acceleration of a body falling through a fluid is

• a) zero
• b) equal to g
• c) less than g
• d) greater than g

Answer: zero

Question 13: Terminal velocity of ball depends on

• a) density difference of liquid and ball
• b) density of ball only
• c) density of liquid only
• d) area of the ball

Answer: density difference of liquid and ball

Question 14: Surface tension of a liquid is due to

• a) cohesive force between molecules
• b) adhesive force between molecules
• c) electrical force between molecules
• d) gravitational force between molecules

Answer: cohesive force between molecules

Question 15: If a soap bubble formed at the end of the tube is blown very slowly, then the graph between excess pressure inside the bubble with time will be a

• a) parabolic curve sloping down
• b) parabolic curve sloping up
• c) straight line sloping down
• d) straight line sloping up

Answer: parabolic curve sloping down

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-8 Gravitation NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Physics which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON GRAVITATION

Question 1: Newton’s universal law of gravitation applies to

• a) both small and big bodies
• b) only valid for solar system
• c) planets only
• d) small bodies only

Answer: both small and big bodies

Question 2: The value of G varies with

• a) None of these
• b) radius of the planet
• c) depth below the ground
• d) height above the earth’s surface

Answer: None of these

Question 3: Force of gravitational attraction is least

• a) at the equator
• b) at the poles
• c) at a point in between equator and any pole
• d) None of these

Answer: at the equator

Question 4:

Assertion : If earth suddenly stops rotating about its axis, then the value of acceleration due to gravity will become same at all the places.
Reason : The value of acceleration due to gravity depends upon the rotation of the earth.

• a) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
• b) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct
• c) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
• d) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion

Answer: Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect

Question 5: The height of the point vertically above the earth’s surface, at which acceleration due to gravity becomes 1% of its value at the earth’s surface is (Radius of the earth = R)

• a) 9 R
• b) 10 R
• c) 20 R
• d) 8 R

Answer: 9 R

Question 6: The speed of earth’s rotation about its axis is w. Its speed is increases to x times to make the effective acceleration due to gravity equal to zero at the equator. Then x is

• a) 17
• b) 34
• c) 8.5
• d) 1

Answer: 17

Question 7: Where will it be profitable to purchase one kilogram sugar?

• a) At equator
• b) At 40° latitude
• c) At poles
• d) At 45° latitude

Answer: At equator

Question 8: Earth is flattened at poles, bulged at the equator. This is due to

• a) the centrifugal force is more at the equator than at the poles
• b) the angular velocity of spinning about its axis is more at equator
• c) the angular velocity of spinning about its axis is less at equator
• d) earth revolves round the sun in an elliptical orbit

Answer: the centrifugal force is more at the equator than at the poles

Question 9: A particle is suspended from a spring and it stretches the spring by 1 cm on the surface of earth. By how much amount the same particle will stretch the same spring at a place 800 km above the surface of earth.

• a) 0.79 cm
• b) 1.38 cm
• c) 2.38 cm
• d) 1.59 cm

Answer: 0.79 cm

Question 10: Average density of the earth

• a) is directly proportional to g
• b) is inversely proportional to g
• c) does not depend on g
• d) is a complex function of g

Answer: is directly proportional to g

Question 11: If the earth were to rotates faster than its present speed, the weight of an object will

• a) decrease at the equator but remain unchanged at the poles
• b) remain unchanged at the equator but decrease at the poles
• c) remain unchanged at the equator but increase at the poles
• d) increase at the equator but remain unchanged at the poles

Answer: decrease at the equator but remain unchanged at the poles

Question 12: At what height from the ground will the value of g be the same as that in 10 km deep mine below the surface of earth?

• a) 5 km
• b) 15 km
• c) 10 km
• d) 20 km

Answer: 5 km

Question 13: The ratio of radii of earth to another planet is 2/3 and the ratio of their mean densities is 4/5. If an astronaut can jump to a maximum height of 1.5 m on the earth, with the same effort, the maximum height he can jump on the planet is

• a) 0.8 m
• b) 0.5 m
• c) 1.25 m
• d) 1 m

Answer: 0.8 m

Question 14: Consider Earth to be a homogeneous sphere. Scientist A goes deep down in a mine and scientist B goes high up in a balloon. The gravitational field measured by

• a) each decreases at different rates
• b) each decreases at the same rate
• c) B goes on decreasing and that by A goes on increasing
• d) A goes on decreasing and that by B goes on increasing

Answer: each decreases at different rates

Question 15: In some region, the gravitational field is zero. The gravitational potential in this region.

• a) must be constant
• b) must be zero
• c) must be variable
• d) cannot be zero

Answer: must be constant

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-7 System of Particles and Rotational Motion NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Physics which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND ROTATIONAL MOTION

Question 1.
A body of M.I. 3 kg m² rotating with an angular velocity 2 rad/s has the same K.E. as a mass of 12 kg moving with a velocity of
(a) 1 m/s
(b) 2 m/s
(c) 4 m/s
(d) 8 m/s

Answer: (a) 1 m/s

Question 2.
A particle performing uniform circular motion has angular momentum L. If its angular frequency is doubled and its kinetic energy halved, then the new angular momentum is
(a) L/2
(b) L/4
(c) 2 L
(d) 4 L

Answer: (b) L/4

Question 3.
A thin uniform, circular ring is rolling down an inclined plane of inclination 300 without slipping. Its linear acceleration along the inclined plane will be
(a) g/2
(b) g/3
(c) g/4
(d) 2g/3

Answer: (a) g/2

Question 4.
Moment of inertia depends on
(a) Distribution of particles
(b) Mass
(c) Position of axis of rotation
(d) All of these

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 5.
Calculate the M.I. of a thin uniform ring about an axis tangent to the ring and in a plane of the ring, if its M.I. about an axis passing through the center and perpendicular to plane is 4 kg m².
(a) 12 kg m²
(b) 3 kg m²
(c) 6 kg m²
(d) 9 kg m²

Answer: (c) 6 kg m²

Question 6.
If a body is rotating about an axis, passing through its center of mass then its angular momentum is directed along its
(a) Radius
(b) Tangent
(c) Circumference
(d) Axis of rotation

Answer: (d) Axis of rotation

Question 7.
A solid cylinder of mass 20 kg, has length 1 metre and radius 0.5m. then its momentum of inertia in kg m² about its geometrical axis is
(a) 2.5
(b) 5
(c) 1.5
(d) 3

Answer: (a) 2.5

Question 8.
A particle moves on a circular path with decreasing speed. Choose the correct statement.
(a) Angular momentum remains constant.
(b) Acceleration is towards the center.
(c) Particle moves on a spiral path with decreasing radius.
(d) The direction of angular momentum remains constant.

Answer: (d) The direction of angular momentum remains constant.

Question 9.
The M.I. of uniform circular disc about a diameter is I. its M.I. about an axis perpendicular to its plane passing through a point on its rim will be
(a) 4 I
(b) 6 I
(c) 8 I
(d) 9 I

Answer: (b) 6 I

Question 10.
Which is the wrong relation from the following?
(a) t = I a
(b) F = ma
(c) L = I w
(d) I = t a

Answer: (d) I = t a

Question 11.
A solid sphere is rotating in free space. If the radius of the sphere is increased keeping mass same, which one of the following will not be affected?
(a) Moment of inertia
(b) Angular momentum
(c) Angular velocity
(d) Rotational kinetic energy

Answer: (b) Angular momentum

Question 12.
A particle moves on a circular path with decreasing speed. Choose the correct statement.
(a) Angular momentum remains constant.
(b) Acceleration is towards the center.
(c) Particle moves on a spiral path with decreasing radius.
(d) The direction of angular momentum remains constant.

Answer: (d) The direction of angular momentum remains constant.

Question 13.
A body of M.I. 3 kg m² rotating with an angular velocity 2 rad/s has the same K.E. as a mass of 12 kg moving with a velocity of
(a) 1 m/s
(b) 2 m/s
(c) 4 m/s
(d) 8 m/s

Answer: (a) 1 m/s

Question 14.
A hollow cylinder and a solid cylinder having different mass diameter are released from rest simultaneously from the of an inclined plane. Which will reach the bottom first?
(a) solid cylinder
(b) cant be determined without knowing their masses
(c) hollow cylinder
(d) cant be determined without knowing their diameters

Answer: (a) solid cylinder

Question 15.
Which is the wrong relation from the following?
(a) t = I a
(b) F = ma
(c) L = I w
(d) I = t a

Answer: (d) I = t a

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-6 Work , Energy and Power NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Physics which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON WORK, ENERGY AND POWER

Question 1: Which of the following must be known in order to determine the power output of an automobile?

• a) Work performed and elapsed time of work
• b) Force exerted and distance of motion
• c) Mass and amount of work performed
• d) Final velocity and height

Answer: Work performed and elapsed time of work

Question 2: A vehicle is moving with a uniform velocity on a smooth horizontal road, then power delivered by its engine must be

• a) increasing
• b) zero
• c) uniform
• d) decreasing

Answer: increasing

Question 3: How much water, a pump of 2 kW can raise in one minute to a height of 10 m, take g = 10 m/s²?

• a) 1200
• b) 100
• c) 2000
• d) 1000

Answer: 1200

Question 4: The engine of a vehicle delivers constant power. If the vehicle is moving up the inclined plane then, its velocity

• a) must remain constant
• b) must increase
• c) must decrease
• d) may increase, decrease or remain same

Answer: must remain constant

Question 5: A body projected vertically from the earth reaches a height equal to earth’s radius before returning to the earth. The power exerted by the gravitational force is greatest

• a) at the instant just before the body hits the earth
• b) at the highest position of the body
• c) it remains constant all through
• d) at the instant just after the body is projected

Answer: at the instant just before the body hits the earth

Question 6: When the force retards the motion of body, the work done is

• a) negative
• b) zero
• c) positive
• d) None of these

Answer: negative

Question 7: A man pushes a wall and fails to displace it, he does

• a) no work at all
• b) positive but not maximum work
• c) negative work
• d) maximum positive work

Answer: no work at all

Question 8: A boy carrying a box on his head is walking on a level road from one place to another is doing no work. This statement is

• a) correct
• b) incorrect
• c) partly correct
• d) cannot say

Answer: correct

Question 9: No work is done if

• a) All of these
• b) force and displacement are mutually perpendicular
• c) force is zero
• d) displacement is zero

Answer: All of these

Question 10: A particle is taken round a circle by application of force. The work done by the force is

• a) Zero
• b) positive non–zero
• c) negative non–zero
• d) None of these

Answer: Zero

Question 11:  Assertion : The work done in moving a body over a closed loop is zero for every force in nature.

Reason : Work done depends on nature of force

• a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
• b) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
• c) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
• d) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion

Answer: Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion

Question 12: If a motorcyclist skids and stops after covering a distance of 15 m. The stopping force acting on the motorcycle by the road is 100 N, then the work done by the motorcycle on the road is

• a) Zero
• b) 750J
• c) –1500 J
• d) 1500 J

Answer: Zero

Question 13: A ball moves in a frictionless inclined table without slipping. The work done by the table surface on the ball is

• a) zero
• b) positive
• c) negative
• d) None of these

Answer: zero

Question 14: A spring of spring constant 5 × 10³ N/m is stretched initially by 5 cm from the unstretched position. Then the work required to stretch it further by another 5 cm is

• a) 18.75 J
• b) 25.00 J
• c) 6.25 J
• d) 12.50 J

Answer: 18.75 J

Question 15: A boy pushes a toy box 2.0 m along the floor by means of a force of 10 N directed downward at an angle of 60º to the horizontal. The work done by the boy is

• a) 10 J
• b) 12 J
• c) 8 J
• d) 6 J

Answer: 10 J

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-5 Laws of Motion NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Physics which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON LAWS OF MOTION

Question 1: Physical independence of force is a consequence of

• a) first law of motion
• b) third law of motion
• c) second law of motion
• d) all of these

Answer: first law of motion

Question 2: A reference frame attached to the earth

• a) cannot be an inertial frame because earth is revolving round the sun
• b) is an inertial frame by definition
• c) is an inertial frame because Newton’s laws are applicable
• d) is an inertial frame because the earth is rotating about its own axis

Answer: cannot be an inertial frame because earth is revolving round the sun

Question 3: The direction of impulse is

• a) same as that of the net force
• b) opposite to that of the net force
• c) same as that of the final velocity
• d) same as that of the initial velocity

Answer: same as that of the net force

Question 4: When a body is stationary

• a) the combination of forces acting on it balances each other
• b) the body is in vacuum
• c) the force acting on it is not in contact with it
• d) there is no force acting on it

Answer: the combination of forces acting on it balances each other

Question 5: When an elevator cabin falls down, the cabin and all the bodies fixed in the cabin are accelerated with respect to

• a) man standing on earth
• b) ceiling of elevator
• c) floor of elevator
• d) man standing in the cabin

Answer: man standing on earth

Question 6: A monkey is climbing up a rope, then the tension in the rope

• a) must be equal to the force applied by the monkey on the rope
• b) must be less than the force applied by the monkey on the rope.
• c) must be greater than the force applied by the monkey on the rope.
• d) may be equal to, less than or greater the force applied by the monkey on the rope.

Answer: must be equal to the force applied by the monkey on the rope

Question 7: If two masses (M & m) are connected on a horizontal plane and a force is applied on the combination, then the tension T depends on

• a) whether force is applied on M or m
• b) the force applied on the system
• c) Can’t be predicted.
• d) None of these

Answer: whether force is applied on M or m

Question 8: A spring balance is attached to the ceiling of a lift. A man hangs his bag on the spring and the spring reads 49 N, when the lift is stationary. If the lift moves downward with an acceleration of 5 m/s², the reading of the spring balance will be

• a) 24 N
• b) 74 N
• c) 15 N
• d) 49 N

Answer: 24 N 

Question 9: Identify the correct statement from the following

• a) Friction does not depend on the area in contact
• b) Friction is always less than the applied force
• c) Friction depends on the volume of body
• d) Friction depends on the area of contact.

Answer: Friction does not depend on the area in contact

Question 10: The coefficient of static friction between two surfaces depends upon

• a) the normal reaction
• b) the shape of the surface in contact
• c) the magnitude of applied force
• d) None of these

Answer: the normal reaction

Question 11: If the applied force is doubled, then coefficient of friction is

• a) not changed
• b) tripled
• c) halved
• d) doubled

Answer: not changed

Question 12: Which of the following statements about friction is true?

• a) Kinetic friction is always greater than rolling friction
• b) Frictional force is proportional to the area of contact between the two surfaces
• c) Frictional force cannot accelerate a body
• d) Friction can be reduced to zero

Answer: Kinetic friction is always greater than rolling friction

Question 13: A block of mass 0.1kg is held against a wall applying a horizontal force of 5 N on the block. If the coefficient of friction between the block and the wall is 0.5, the magnitude of the frictional force acting on the block is:

• a) 0.98 N
• b) 4.9 N
• c) 0.49 N
• d) 2.5 N

Answer: 0.98 N

Question 14 : What are the effects if force is acting on a moving body in a direction perpendicular to the direction of motion

• a) The direction of motion changes
• b) All of these
• c) The acceleration changes uniformly
• d) The speed changes uniformly

Answer: The direction of motion changes

Question 15: On a banked road, which force is essential to provide the necessary centripetal force to a car to take a turn while driving at the optimum speed?

• a) Component of normal reaction
• b) Component of frictional force
• c) Both
• d) None of these

Answer: Component of normal reaction

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-4 Motion in a Plane NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Physics which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON MOTION IN A PLANE

Question 1.
Three vectors A, B and C satisfy the relation A.B = 0 and A.C = 0. The vector A is parallel to
(a) B
(b) C
(c) B × c
(d) B.C

Answer: (c) B × c

Question 2.
What is the minimum number of unequal forces whose resultant will be zero?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer: (c) 3

Question 3.
A body travelling in a circular path at uniform speed has :
(a) constant velocity
(b) tangential acceleration
(c) inward acceleration
(d) outward acceleration

Answer: (c) inward acceleration

Question 4.
When a disc containing mercury and water is rotated rapidly about a vertical axis, then the outermost place in the disc will be taken by:
(a) water
(b) mercury
(c) sometimes water and sometimes mercury
(d) none of these.

Answer: (b) mercury

Question 5.
The resultant of two forces P and Q is R. If one of the forces is reversed in direction, then the resultant becomes S. Then for the identity R² + S² = 2(P² + Q²) to hold good
(a) The forces are collinear
(b) The forces act as right angles to each other
(c) The forces are inclined at 45° to each other
(d) The forces can have any angle of inclination between them

Answer: (d) The forces can have any angle of inclination between them

Question 6.
A bus is moving on a straight road towards north with a uniform speed of 50 kmh^-1 when it turns left through 90°. If the speed remains unchanged after turning, the increase in the velocity of the bus in the turning process is :
(a) zero
(b) 50 kmh^-1
(c) 70.7 kmh^-1 along south-west direction
(d) 70.7 lcmh^-1 along north-west direction

Answer: (c) 70.7 kmh^-1 along south-west direction

Question 7.
Two bullets are fired simultaneously horizontally and with different speeds from the same place. Which bullet will hit the ground first?
(a) The slower one
(b) The faster one
(c) Both will reach simultaneously
(d) Depends on the masses

Answer: (c) Both will reach simultaneously

Question 8.
A particle is acted upon by a force of constant magnitude, which is always perpendicular to the velocity of the particle. The motion of the particle takes place in a plane. It follows that:
(a) its velocity is constant
(b) its acceleration is constant
(c) its kinetic energy is constant
(d) it moves in a circular path

Answer: (c) and (d).

Question 9.
The muzzle speed of a certain rifle is 330 ms^-1. At the end of one second, a bullet fired straight up into the air will travel a distance of:
(a) 330 m
(b) (330 – 4.9) m
(c) (330 – 9.8) m
(d) (330 + 4.9) m

Answer: (b) (330 – 4.9) m

Question 10.
If a body A of mass M is thrown with velocity v at angle of 30° to the horizontal and another body B of the same mass is thrown with the same speed at an angle of 60° to the horizontal, the ratio of the horizontal ranges of A and B will be
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 1 : 1
(c) √3 : 1
(c) 1 : √3

Answer: (b) 1 : 1

Question 11.
One body is dropped while a second body is thrown downwards with an initial velocity of 1 ms^-1 simultaneously. The separation between these is 18 m after a time
(a) 4.5 s
(b) 9 s
(c) 18 s
(d) 36 s

Answer: (c) 18 s

Question 12.
A boat which has the speed of 5 kmh^-1 still water crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest possible path in 15 minutes. The velocity of the river water is
(a) 3 kmh^-1
(b) 4 kmh^-1
(c) 41−−√ kmh^-1
(d) 1 kmh^-1

Answer: (a) 3 kmh^-1

Question 13.
Which of the following vectors is perpendicular to i^ Pcos 9 +
(a) i^ Pcos θ + j^ Qsin θ
(b) i^ Qcos θ – j^ Psin θ
(c) i^ Psin θ + j^ Qcos θ
(d) i^ Qsin θ – j^Pcos θ

Answer: (d) i^ Qsin θ – j^Pcos θ

Question 14.
Which of the following operations between the two vectors can yield a vector perpendicular to either of them
(a) addition
(b) subtraction
(c) multiplication
(d) division

Answer: (c) multiplication

Question 15.
Which of the following is the essential characteristic of a projectile?
(a) Zero velocity at the highest point
(b) Initial velocity inclined to the horizontal
(c) Constant acceleration perpendicular to the velocity
(d) None of these

Answer (d) None of these

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-3 Motion in a Straight Line NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Physics which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE

Question 1.
The displacement in metres of a body varies with time t in second as y = t2 – t – 2. The displacement is zero for a positive of t equal to
(a) 1 s
(b) 2 s
(c) 3 s
(d) 4 s

Answer: (b) 2 s

Question 2.
A boy starts from a point A, travels to a point B at a distance of 3 km from A and returns to A. If he takes two hours to do so, his speed is
(a) 3 km/h
(b) zero
(c) 2 km/h
(d) 1.5 km/h

Answer: (a) 3 km/h

Question 3.
A 180 metre long train is moving due north at a speed of 25 m/s. A small bird is flying due south, a little above the train, with a speed of 5 m/s. The time taken by the bird to cross the train is
(a) 10 s
(b) 12 s
(c) 9 s
(d) 6 s

Answer: (d) 6 s

Question 4.
A boy starts from a point A, travels to a point B at a distance of 1.5 km and returns to A. If he takes one hour to do so, his average velocity is
(a) 3 km/h
(b) zero
(c) 1.5 km/h
(d) 2 km/h

Answer: (b) zero

Question 5.
A body starts from rest and travels with uniform acceleration on a straight line. If its velocity after making a displacement of 32 m is 8 m/s, its acceleration is
(a) 1 m/s²
(b) 2 m/s²
(c) 3 m/s²
(d) 4 m/s²

Answer: (a) 1 m/s²

Question 6.
Which one of the following is the unit of velocity?
(a) kilogram
(b) metre
(c) m/s
(d) second

Answer: (c) m/s

Question 7.
A body starts from rest and travels for t second with uniform acceleration of 2 m/s². If the displacement made by it is 16 m, the time of travel t is
(a) 4 s
(b) 3 s
(c) 6 s
(d) 8 s

Answer: (a) 4 s

Question 8.
The dimensional formula for speed is
(a) T^-1
(b) LT^-1
(c) L^-1T^-1
(d) L^-1T

Answer: (b) LT^-1

Question 9.
The dimensional formula for velocity is
(a) [LT]
(b) [LT^-1]
(c) [L2T]
(d) [L^-1T]

Answer: (b) [LT^-1]

Question 10.
A body starts from rest and travels with an acceleration of 2 m/s². After t seconds its velocity is 10 m/s . Then t is
(a) 10 s
(b) 5 s
(c) 20 s
(d) 6 s

Answer: (b) 5 s

Question 11.
A boy starts from a point A, travels to a point B at a distance of 1.5 km and returns to A. If he takes one hour to do so, his average velocity is
(a) 3 km/h
(b) zero
(c) 1.5 km/h
(d) 2 km/h

Answer: (b) zero

Question 12.
A body starts from rest. If it travels with an acceleration of 2 m/s², its displacement at the end of 3 seconds is
(a) 9 m
(b) 12 m
(c) 16 m
(d) 10 m

Answer: (a) 9 m

Question 13.
A body starts from rest and travels with uniform acceleration of 2 m/s². If its velocity is v after making a displacement of 9 m, then v is
(a) 8 m/s
(b) 6 m/s
(c) 10 m/s
(d) 4 m/s

Answer: (b) 6 m/s

Question 14.
A body starts from rest and travels with an acceleration of 2 m/s². After t seconds its velocity is 10 m/s. Then t is
(a) 10 s
(b) 5 s
(c) 20 s
(d) 6 s

Answer: (b) 5 s

Question 15.
A body starts from rest and travels for five seconds to make a displacement of 25 m if it has travelled the distance with uniform acceleration a then a is
(a) 3 m/s²
(b) 4 m/s²
(c) 2 m/s²
(d) 1 m/s²

Answer: (c) 2 m/s²

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-2 Units and Measurement NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Physics which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON UNITS AND MEASUREMENT

Question 1 :  One second is defined to be equal to

• a) 9192631770 periods of the cesium clock
• b) 1650763.73 periods of the cesium clock
• c) 652189.63 periods of the krypton clock
• d) 1650763.73 periods of the krypton clock

Answer :  9192631770 periods of the cesium clock

Question 2 :  One yard in SI unit is equal to

• a) 0.9144 metre
• b) 1.0936 kilometre
• c) 1.9144 metre
• d) 0.09144 kilometre

Answer :  0.9144 metre

Question 3 :  One pico farad is equal to

• a) 10^–12 farad
• b) 10^–24 farad
• c) 10^–18 farad
• d) 10^–6 farad

Answer :  10^–12 farad

Question 4 :  ‘Torr’ is the unit of

• a) pressure
• b) volume
• c) density
• d) flux

Answer :  pressure

Question 5 :  Very large distances such as the distance of a Planet or a star from Earth can be measured by

• a) Parallax method
• b) All of these
• c) Millikan’s oil drop method
• d) Spectrograph

Answer :  Parallax method

Question 6 :  Joule second is a unit of

• a) angular momentum
• b) torque
• c) energy
• d) power

Answer :  angular momentum

Question 7 :  Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of

• a) None of these
• b) mass and time
• c) length and mass
• d) length, mass and time

Answer :  None of these

Question 8 :  Unit of specific resistance is

• a) ohm – m
• b) ohm/m
• c) ohm m³
• d) ohm/m²

Answer :  ohm – m

Question 9 :  Unit of magnetic moment is

• a) ampere–metre²
• b) weber–metre²
• c) ampere–metre
• d) weber/metre

Answer :  ampere–metre²

 

Question 10 :  Dimensional analysis can be applied to

• a) All of these
• b) to convert from one system of units to another
• c) deduce relations among the physical quantities
• d) check the dimensional consistency of equations

Answer :  All of these

Question 11 :  The dimensions of pressure is equal to

• a) energy per unit volume
• b) energy
• c) force
• d) force per unit volume

Answer :  energy per unit volume

Question 12 :  Which is dimensionless?

• a) Force/acceleration
• b) Velocity/acceleration
• c) Energy/work
• d) Volume/area

Answer :  Force/acceleration

Question 13 :  The dimensions of torque are

• a)
• b)
• c)
• d)

Answer :

Question 14 :  The division of energy by time is X. The dimensional formula of X is same as that of

• a) power
• b) electric field
• c) momentum
• d) torque

Answer :  power

Question 15 :  Which of the following is a dimensional constant?

• a) Gravitational constant
• b) Dielectric constant
• c) Refractive index
• d) Relative density

Answer :  Gravitational constant

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-1 Physical World NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Physics which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON PHYSICAL WORLD

Question 1 :  Which of the following is true regarding the physical science?

• a) Both
• b) The study of matter are conducted at atomic or ionic levels
• c) None of these
• d) They deal with non-living things

Answer :  Both

Question 2 :  The scientific principle involves in production of ultra high magnetic fields is

• a) super conductivity
• b) photoelectric effect
• c) digital logic
• d) laws of thermodynamics

Answer :  super conductivity

Question 3 :  Louis de-Broglie is credited for his work on

• a) matter waves
• b) law of distribution of velocities
• c) electromagnetic theory
• d) theory of relativity

Answer :  matter waves

Question 4 :  Madam Marie Curie won Nobel Prize twice which were in the field of

• a) Physics and chemistry
• b) Physics only
• c) Chemistry only
• d) Biology only

Answer :  Physics and chemistry

Question 5 :  Scientific way of doing things involve

• a) All of the above
• b) hypothesising a possible theory
• c) collecting data
• d) identifying the problem

Answer :  All of the above

Question 6 :  The exchange particles for the electromagnetic force are

• a) photons
• b) gravitons
• c) gluons
• d) mesons

Answer :  photons

Question 7 :  Which of the following is the weakest force?

• a) Gravitational force
• b) None of these
• c) Nuclear force
• d) Electromagnetic force

Answer :  Gravitational force

Question 8 :

Assertion : Electromagnetic force is much stronger than the gravitational force.
Reason : Electromagnetic force dominates all phenomena at atomic and molecular scales

• a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
• b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
• c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
• d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

Answer :  Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.

Question 9 :  When we hold a book in our hand, we are balancing the gravitational force on the book due to

• a) normal force provided by our hand
• b) friction force provided by our book
• c) both
• d) None of these

Answer :  normal force provided by our hand

Question 10 :   Which of the following has infinite range?

• a) Both
• b) Electromagnetic force
• c) Gravitational force
• d) None of these

Answer :  Both

Question 11 :  Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. Strong nuclear force binds protons and neutrons in a nucleus.
II. In twentieth century, silicon chip triggered a revolutionary changes in technology of computer system.
III. The fossil fuels of the planet are dwindling fast and there is urgent need to discover new source of energy.

• a) I, II and III
• b) Only III
• c) I and II
• d) Only I

Answer :  I, II and III

Question 12 :  The field of work of S. Chandrashekar is

• a) theory of black hole
• b) theory of relativity
• c) Cosmic rays
• d) X-rays

Answer :  theory of black hole

Question 13 :  Who discovered X-rays?

• a) Roentgen
• b) Madam Curie
• c) Chadwick
• d) Thomson

Answer :  Roentgen

Question 14 :  Who gave general theory of relativity?

• a) Einstein
• b) Marconi
• c) Ampere
• d) Newton

Answer :  Einstein

Question 15 :  Which of the following is wrongly matched ?

• a) Humidity-Calorimeter
• b) Coulomb’s law-charges
• c) Lactometer-Milk
• d) Barometer-Pressure

Answer :  Humidity-Calorimeter

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-16 Probability NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Math which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON PROBABILITY

Question 1.
Two cards from a pack of 52 cards are lost. One card is drawn from the remaining cards. If drawn card is diamond then the probability that the lost cards were both hearts is
(a) 143/1176
(b) 143/11760
(c) 143/11706
(d) 134/11760

Answer: (b) 143/11760

Question 2.
If four whole numbers taken at random are multiplied together, then the chance that the last digit in the product is 1, 3, 5, 7 is
(a) 16/25
(b) 16/125
(c) 16/625
(d) none of these

Answer: (c) 16/625

Question 3.
Three identical dice are rolled. The probability that the same number will appear on each of them is
(a) 1/6
(b) 1/36
(c) 1/18
(d) 3/28

Answer: (b) 1/36

Question 4.
There are four machines and it is known that exactly two of them are faulty. They are tested, one by one, in a random order till both the faulty machines are identified. Then the probability that only two tests are needed is
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/2
(d) 1/4

Answer: (b) 1/6

Question 5.
Two unbiased dice are thrown. The probability that neither a doublet nor a total of 10 will appear is
(a) 3/5
(b) 2/7
(c) 5/7
(d) 7/9

Answer: (d) 7/9

Question 6.
Two dice are thrown the events A, B, C are as follows A: Getting an odd number on the first die. B: Getting a total of 7 on the two dice. C: Getting a total of greater than or equal to 8 on the two dice. Then AUB is equal to
(a) 15
(b) 17
(c) 19
(d) 21

Answer: (d) 21

Question 7.
Two numbers are chosen from {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} one after another without replacement. Find the probability that the smaller of the two is less than 4.
(a) 4/5
(b) 1/15
(c) 1/5
(d) 14/15

Answer: (a) 4/5

Question 8.
The probability that when a hand of 7 cards is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards, it contains 3 Kings is
(a) 1/221
(b) 5/716
(c) 9/1547
(d) None of these

Answer: (c) 9/1547

Question 9.
A certain company sells tractors which fail at a rate of 1 out of 1000. If 500 tractors are purchased from this company, what is the probability of 2 of them failing within first year
(a) e^-1/2/2
(b) e^-1/2/4
(c) e^-1/2/8
(d) none of these

Answer: (c) e^-1/2/8

Question 10.
The probability that in a random arrangement of the letters of the word INSTITUTION the three T are together is
(a) 0.554
(b) 0.0554
(c) 0.545
(d) 0.0545

Answer: (d) 0.0545

Question 11.
Three houses are available in a locality. Three persons apply for the houses. Each applies for one house without consulting others. The probability that all the three apply for the same house is
(a) 2/9
(b) 1/9
(c) 8/9
(d) 7/9

Answer: (b) 1/9

Question 12.
A bag contains 5 brown and 4 white socks . A man pulls out two socks. The probability that both the socks are of the same colour is
(a) 9/20
(b) 2/9
(c) 3/20
(d) 4/9

Answer: (d) 4/9

Question 13.
When a coin is tossed 8 times getting a head is a success. Then the probability that at least 2 heads will occur is
(a) 247/265
(b) 73/256
(c) 247/256
(d) 27/256

Answer: (c) 247/256

Question 14.
A couple has two children. The probability that both children are females if it is known that the elder child is a female is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 1/2
(d) 1/3

Answer: (c) 1/2

Question 15.
A certain company sells tractors which fail at a rate of 1 out of 1000. If 500 tractors are purchased from this company, what is the probability of 2 of them failing within first year
(a) e^-1/2/2
(b) e-^-1/2/4
(c) e^-1/2/8
(d) none of these

Answer: (c) e^-1/2/8