Yearly Archives: 2021

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-2 Hydrogen NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON HYDROGEN

Question 1: Hydrogen accepts an electron to form inert gas configuration. In this it resembles

• a) halogen
• b) chalcogens
• c) alkali metals
• d) alkaline earth metals

Answer: halogen

Question 2: Which of the following statements is correct ?

• a) It has oxidation number of –1 and +1
• b) It will not be liberated at anode
• c) Hydrogen has same electronegativity as halogens
• d) Hydrogen has same IP as alkali metals

Answer: It has oxidation number of –1 and +1

Question 3: Why does H⁺ ion always get associated with other atoms or molecules?

• a) Loss of an electron from hydrogen atom results in a nucleus of very small size as compared to other atoms or ions. Due to small size it cannot exist free.
• b) It resembles both alkali metals and halogens
• c) Its reactivity is similar to halogens
• d) Ionisation enthalpy of hydrogen resembles that of alkali metals

Answer: Loss of an electron from hydrogen atom results in a nucleus of very small size as compared to other atoms or ions. Due to small size it cannot exist free.

Question 4: Which one of the following is not an isotope of hydrogen ?

• a) Ortho hydrogen
• b) Deuterium
• c) None of these
• d) Tritium

Answer: Ortho hydrogen

Question 5: Number of neutrons in three isotopes of hydrogen, protium, deuterium and tritium respectively is

• a) 0, 1, 2
• b) 2, 1, 0
• c) 2, 0, 1
• d) 1, 1,1

Answer: 0, 1, 2

Question 6: Hydrogen bond energy is equal to

• a) 3-10 kcals
• b) 3-7 cals
• c) 30-70 cals
• d) 30-70 kcals

Answer: 3-10 kcals

Question 7: Which of the following is formed when zinc reacts with sodium hydroxide?

• a) Both
• b) Sodium zincate
• c) Hydrogen gas
• d) None of these

Answer: Both

Question 8: Why is water gas (mixture of CO and H₂) also called ‘syn gas’?

• a) Because it is used in the synthesis of methanol and a number of hydrocarbons
• b) None of these
• c) Because it is synthesised from methane gas
• d) Because it is synthesised from sewage, saw – dust, scrap wood etc.

Answer: Because it is used in the synthesis of methanol and a number of hydrocarbons

Question 9: Which one of the following pairs of substances on reaction will not evolve H₂ gas?

• a) Copper and HCl (aqueous)
• b) Sodium and ethyl alcohol
• c) Iron and steam
• d) Iron and H₂SO4 (aqueous)

Answer: Copper and HCl (aqueous)

Question 10: Which of the following metal evolves hydrogen on reacting with cold dilute HNO₃ ?

• a) Mg
• b) Al
• c) Fe
• d) Cu

Answer: Mg

Question 11: Hydrogen is evolved by the action of cold dil. HNO₃ on

• a) Mn
• b) Al
• c) Fe
• d) Cu

Answer: Mn

Question 12: In Bosch’s process which gas is utilized for the production of hydrogen gas ?

• a) Water gas
• b) None of these
• c) Producer gas
• d) Coal gas

Answer: Water gas

Question 13: Hydrogen is not obtained when zinc reacts with

• a) Cold water
• b) dil. HCl
• c) Both
• d) None of these

Answer: Cold water

Question 14: Which one of the following pairs of substances will not produce hydrogen when reacted together?

• a) Copper and conc. nitric acid
• b) Ethanol and metallic sodium
• c) Magnesium and steam
• d) Phenol and metallic sodium

Answer: Copper and conc. nitric acid

Question 15: Very pure hydrogen (99.9) can be made by which of the following processes ?

• a) Reaction of salts like hydrides with water
• b) Electrolysis of water
• c) Mixing natural hydrocarbons of high molecular weight
• d) Reaction of methane with steam

Answer: Reaction of salts like hydrides with water

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-1 Redox Reactions NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON REDOX REACTIONS

Question 1: The loss of electron is termed as

• a) oxidation
• b) reduction
• c) combustion
• d) neutralization

Answer: oxidation

Question 2: When a strip of metallic zinc is placed in an aqueous solution of copper nitrate the blue colour of the solution disappear due to formation of

• a) Zn²⁺
• b) Cus
• c) ZnS
• d) Cu²⁺

Answer: Zn²⁺

Question 3: The correct order of electron releasing tendency of the metals Cu, Zn and Ag is in the order

• a) Zn > Cu > Ag
• b) Zn > Ag > Cu
• c) Cu > Zn > Ag
• d) Ag > Zn > Cu

Answer: Zn > Cu > Ag

Question 4: What is the oxidation number of elements in the free or in the uncombined state ?

• a) 0
• b) –1
• c) +1
• d) +2

Answer: 

Question 5: ‘Oxidation number of H in NaH, CaH₂ and LiH, respectively is

• a) –1,–1, –1
• b) –1, +1, + 1
• c) +1, +1, –1
• d) +1, + 1, + 1

Answer: –1,–1, –1

Question 6: Which of the following is the correct representative of stock notation for auric chloride?

• a) Au(III)Cl₃
• b) Au(II)Cl₂
• c) Au(I)Cl₂
• d) None of these

Answer: Au(III)Cl₃

Question 7: Oxidation number of N in HNO₃ is

• a) + 5
• b) + 3.5
• c) – 3.5
• d) –5

Answer: + 5

Question 8: The oxidation number of chromium in potassium dichromate is

• a) + 6
• b) – 5
• c) – 2
• d) + 2

Answer: + 6

Question 9: Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)₄] is

• a) –3
• b) +3
• c) +1
• d) –1

Answer: –3

Question 10: Oxidation number of carbon in CH₂Cl₂ is

• a) 0
• b) –4
• c) +4
• d) –2

Answer: 

Question 11: The oxidation state of osmium (Os) in OsO₄ is

• a) +8
• b) +6
• c) +7
• d) +4

Answer: +8

Question 12: Which of the following transition metal has zero oxidation state ?

• a) [Fe(CO)₅]
• b) NOClO₄
• c) NH₂.NH₂
• d) CrO₅

Answer: [Fe(CO)₅]

Question 13: In which of the compounds does ‘manganese’ exhibit highest oxidation number ?

• a) KMnO₄
• b) MnO₂
• c) Mn₃O₄
• d) MnSO₄

Answer: KMnO₄

Question 14: A metal ion M³⁺ loses 3 electrons, its oxidation number will be

• a) +6
• b) –3
• c) +3
• d) 0

Answer: +6

Question 15: The correct name for NO₂ using stock notation is

• a) nitrogen (iv) oxide
• b) All of these
• c) nitrogen dioxide
• d) nitrogen per oxide

Answer: nitrogen (iv) oxide

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-7 Equilibrium NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON EQUILIBRIUM

Question 1: The liquid which has a ____ vapour pressure is more volatile and has a_____boiling point.

• a) Higher, lower
• b) Higher , higher
• c) Lower, lower
• d) Lower, higher

Answer: Higher, lower

Question 2: Boiling point of the liquid depends on the atmospheric pressure. It depends on the altitude of the place; at high altitude the boiling point…………..

• a) decreases
• b) increases
• c) either decreases or increases
• d) remains same

Answer: decreases

Question 3: In an experiment three watch glasses containing separately 1mL each of acetone, ethyl alcohol, and water are exposed to atmosphere and the experiment with different volumes of the liquids in a warmer room is repeated, it is observed that in all such cases the liquid eventually disappears and the time taken for complete evaporation in each case was different. The possible reason is/are

• a) All of the above
• b) the temperature is different
• c) the amount of the liquids is different
• d) the nature of the liquids is different

Answer: All of the above

Question 4: A small amount of acetone is taken in a watch glass and it is kept open in atmosphere. Which statement is correct for the given experiment?

• a) The rate of condensation from vapour to liquid state is much less than the rate of evaporation
• b) The rate of condensation from vapour to liquid state is equal or less than the rate of evaporation.
• c) The rate of condensation from vapour to liquid state is equal to the rate of evaporation
• d) None of these

Answer: The rate of condensation from vapour to liquid state is much less than the rate of evaporation

Question 5: Reaction is said to be in equilibrium when

• a) the rate of transformation of reactant to products is equal to the rate of transformation of products to the reactants.
• b) 50% of the reactants are converted to products
• c) the volume of reactants is just equal to the volume of the products
• d) the reaction is near completion and all the reactants are converted to products

Answer: the rate of transformation of reactant to products is equal to the rate of transformation of products to the reactants.

Question 6: Which of the following is not true about a reversible reaction?

• a) Number of moles of reactants and products is always equal
• b) It can be attained only in a closed container
• c) It cannot be influenced by a catalyst
• d) The reaction does not proceed to completion

Answer: Number of moles of reactants and products is always equal

Question 7: If a system is at equilibrium, the rate of forward to the reverse reaction is

• a) equal
• b) less
• c) high
• d) at equilibrium

Answer: equal

Question 8: In a reversible chemical reaction having two reactants in equilibrium, if the concentration of the reactants are doubled then the equilibrium constant will

• a) Remain the same
• b) Be halved
• c) Also be doubled
• d) Become one-fourth

Answer: Remain the same

Question 9: Which one of the following information can be obtained on the basis of Le Chatelier principle?

• a) Shift in equilibrium position on changing value of a constraint
• b) Equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction
• c) Entropy change in a reaction
• d) Dissociation constant of a weak acid

Answer: Shift in equilibrium position on changing value of a constraint

Question 10: Suitable conditions for melting of ice

• a) high temperature and high pressure
• b) high temperature and low pressure
• c) low temperature and low pressure
• d) low temperature and high pressure

Answer: high temperature and high pressure

Question 11: In an equilibrium reaction if temperature increases

• a) any of the above
• b) no effect
• c) equilibrium constant decreases
• d) equilibrium constant increases

Answer: any of the above

Question 12: What happens when an inert gas is added to an equilibrium keeping volume unchanged?

• a) More product will form
• b) Less product will form
• c) More reactant will form
• d) Equilibrium will remain unchanged

Answer: More product will form

Question 13: Which of the following is/are electrolytes?

(i) Sugar solution (ii) Sodium chloride
(iii) Acetic acid      (iv) Starch solution

• a) (ii) and (iii)
• b) (i) and (iv)
• c) (ii) and (iv)
• d) (i) and (iii)

Answer: (ii) and (iii)

Question 14: Which of the following statements are correct regarding Arrhenius theory of acid and base?

• a) Both
• b) This theory was applicable to only aqueous solutions
• c) This theory was applicable to all solutions
• d) None of these

Answer: Both

Question 15: Would gaseous HCl be considered as an Arrhenius acid ?

• a) No
• b) Yes
• c) Not known
• d) Gaseous HCl does not exist

Answer: No

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-6 Thermodynamics NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THERMODYNAMICS

Question 1.
One gram of sample of NH₄NO₃ is decomposed in a bomb calorimeter. The temperature of the calorimeter increases by 6.12 K. The heat capacity of the system is 1.23 kj/deg. What is the molar heat of decomposition of NH₄NO₃?
(a) -7.53 kj/mol
(b) -398.1 kj mol^-1
(c) -16.1 kj/mol
(d) -602 kj/mol.

Answer: (d) -602 kj/mol.

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Question 2.
AHr of graphite is 0.23 kj/mol and ∆H_f for diamond is 1.896 kj mol^-1, ∆H_transition from graphite to diamond is
(a) 1.66 kj/mol
(b) 2.1 kj/mol
(c) 2.33 kj/mol
(d) 1.5 kj/mol

Answer: (a) 1.66 kj/mol

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Question 3.
The bond energies of C-C, C=C; H-H and C-H linkages are 350, 600, 400 and 410 kj per mole respectively. The heat of hydrogenation of ethylene is
(a) -170 kj mol^-1
(b) -260 kj mol^-1
(c) 400 kj mol^-1
(d) -450 kj mol^-1

Answer: (a) -170 kj mol^-1

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Question 4.
Which of the following reaction defines ∆H0f?
(a) C(Diamond) + O₂(g) → CO₂(g)
(b) 12 H₂(g) + 12 F₂(g) → HF(g)
(c) N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) → 2NH₃(g)
(d) CO(g) + 12 O₂(g) → CO₂(g)

Answer: (b) 12 H₂(g) + 12 F₂(g) → HF(g)

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Question 5.
One mole of a hon-ideal gas undergoes a change of state (2.0 atm, 3.0 L, 95 K) → (4.0 atm, 5.0 L, 245 K) with a change in internal energy, ∆U = 30.0 L atm. The change in enthalpy (∆H) of the process in L atm is
(a) 44.0
(b) 42.3
(c) 44.0
(d) not defined because pressure is not constant.

Answer: (c) 44.0

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Question 6.
Which one of the following statement is false?
(a) Work is a state function
(b) Temperature is a state function
(c) Change in the state is completely defined when the initial final states are specified
(d) Work appears at the boundary of the system

Answer: (a) Work is a state function

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Question 7.
Molar heat capacity of water in equilibrium with ice at constant pressure is
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) 40.45 kj K^-1 mol^-1
(d) 75.48 JK^-1 mol^-1

Answer: (b) infinity

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Question 8.
For the reaction C₃H₈(g) + 5O₂(g) → 3CO₂(g) + 4H₂O(I) at constant temperature ∆H – ∆E is
(a) + RT
(b) – 3RT
(c) + 3RT
(d) -RT

Answer: (b) – 3RT

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Question 9.
For which one of the following equations AH_reaction equals ∆H0f for the product?
(a) N₂(g) + O₃(g) → N₂O₃(g)
(b) CH₄(g) + 2Cl₂(g) → CH₂Cl₂(l) + 2HCl(g)
(c) Xe(g) + 2F₂(g) → XeF₄(g)
(d) 2C(g) + O₂(g) → 2CO₂(g)

Answer: (c) Xe(g) + 2F₂(g) → XeF₄(g)

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Question 10.
Enthalpy of CH₄ + 12 O₂ → CH₃OH is negative.
If enthalpy of combustion of CH₄ and CH₃OH are x and y respectively then which reaction is correct?
(a) x > y
(b) x < y
(c) x = y
(d) x ≥ y

Answer: (b) x < y

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Question 11.
The heat required to raise the temperature of a body by 1 K is called
(a) Specific heat
(b) Thermal capacity
(c) Water equivalent
(d) Molar heat capacity

Answer: (b) Thermal capacity

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Question 12.
In a reaction involving only solids and liquids, which of the following is true?
(a) ∆H < ∆E (b) ∆H = ∆E (c) ∆H > ∆E
(d) ∆H = ∆E + RT∆₁₁

Answer: (b) ∆H = ∆E

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Question 13.
In which of the following process, the process is always non-feasible?
(a) ∆H > 0, ∆S > 0
(b) ∆H < 0, ∆S > 0
(c) ∆H > 0, ∆S < 0
(d) ∆H < 0, ∆S < 0

Answer: (c) ∆H > 0, ∆S < 0

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Question 14.
Internal energy does not include
(a) Nuclear energy
(b) Vibrational energy
(c) Rotational energy
(d) Energy of gravitational pull

Answer: (d) Energy of gravitational pull

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Question 15.
Which of the following reactions is endothermic?
(a) N₂ + O₂ → 2NO
(b) H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl
(c) H₂SO₄ + 2NaOH → Na₂SO₄ + 2H₁₁O
(d) None of these

Answer: (a) N₂ + O₂ → 2NO

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-5 States of Matter NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON STATES OF MATTER

Question 1.
The vapor pressure of water at 300 K in a closed container is 0.4 atm. If the volume of container is doubled, its vapour pressure at 300 K will be
(a) 0.8 atm
(b) 0.2 atm
(c) 0.4 atm
(d) 0.6 atm

Answer: (c) 0.4 atm
Explanation:
Vapor pressure depends on T only and it does not depend on container volume.

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Question 2.
Name the liquid with higher vapor pressure in the following pairs:
(a) Alcohol, glycerin (b) Petrol, kerosene (c) mercury, water.
(a) Alcohol, Water, Petrol
(b) Petrol, Water, Alcohol
(c) Alcohol, Petrol, Water
(d) None of these

Answer: (c) Alcohol, Petrol, Water
Explanation:
The vapour pressure of the liquid is inversely proportional to the magnitude of the intermolecular forces of attraction present. Based on this, the liquid with higher vapour pressure in the different pairs is: (a) Alcohol, (b) Petrol, (c) Water.

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Question 3.
The rate of diffusion methane is twice that of X. The molecular mass of X is
(a) 64.0
(b) 32.0
(c) 40
(d) 80

Answer: (a) 64.0
Explanation:
Let rate of diffusion of gas x, r₁ = a
Therefore, rate of diffusion of methane, r₂ = 2 a
According to Grahams Law of Diffusion
(r1r2) = (M2M1−−−√)
M₁ = Molecular mass of gas x
M₂ = Molecular mass of Methane = 16 g
Therefore, (a2a) = (16M2−−−√)
Squaring both the sides, (14) = (16M2)
or, M₂ = 16 × 4 = 64 g

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Question 4.
The state of matter that shows the uniformity of behavior :
(a) Solid Liquid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gas
(d) None of the Above

Answer: (c) Gas
Explanation:
Of the three states of matter, the gaseous state is the simplest and shows greatest uniformity in behaviour. Gases show almost similar behaviour irrespective of their chemical nature. This state is characterized by:
Gases maintain neither the volume nor the shape. They completely fill the container in which they are placed.

They expand appreciably on heating. Gases are highly compressible. The volume of the gas decreases when the pressure increases. They diffuse rapidly into space. Gases exert equal pressure in all directions.
All gases are colourless except a few e.g. chlorine (greenish yellow) bromine (reddish brown), nitrogen dioxide (reddish brown)

The behaviour of gases can be described by certain quantitative relationships called gas laws. They give the relationship between mass, pressure, volume and temperature.

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Question 5.
A gas deviates from ideal behavior at a high pressure because its molecules:
(a) Attract one another
(b) Show the Tyndall Effect
(c) Have kinetic energy
(d) Are bound by covalent bonds

Answer: (a) Attract one another
Explanation:
The basic concept of the kinetic-molecular theory give us the information why real gases deviate from ideal behavior. The molecules of an ideal gas are assumed to occupy no space and have no attractions for one another. Real molecules, however, do have finite volumes, and they do attract one another. So, a gas deviates from ideal behavior at a high pressure because its molecules attract one another.

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Question 6.
The value of universal gas constant R depends on
(a) Temperature of Gas
(b) Volume of Gas
(c) Number of Moles of Gas
(d) Units of Volume, Temperature and Pressure

Answer: (d) Units of Volume, Temperature and Pressure
Explanation:
The value of the gas constant R depends on the units used for pressure, volume and temperature.

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Question 7.
The critical volumes of four gases A, B, C, D are respectively 0.025 L, 0.312 L, 0.245 L, 0.432 L, the gas with highest value of van der Wall constant b is
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Answer: (d) D
Explanation:
V_c = 3b = 3 × 4N × (4/3) πr³

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Question 8.
Which of the following statement is wrong for gases?
(a) Gases do not have definite shape and volume
(b) Volume of the gas is equal to the volume of the container confining the gas
(c) Confined gas exert uniform pressure on the wall of the container in all directions
(d) Mass of the gas cannot be determined by weighing a container in which it is contained

Answer: (d) Mass of the gas cannot be determined by weighing a container in which it is contained
Explanation:
Mass of the gas = mass of the cylinder including gas – mass of empty cylinder. So mass of a gas can be determined by weighing the container in which it is enclosed. Thus, the statement (d) is wrong for gases.

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Question 9.
In van der Waal equation of state of gas laws, the constant b is a measure of
(a) Intermolecular collisions per unit volume
(b) Intermolecular attraction
(c) Volume occupied by the molecules
(d) Intermolecular repulsions

Answer: (c) Volume occupied by the molecules
Explanation:
In van der Waals equation of state of the gas law, the constant b is a measure of the volume occupied by the molecules. It gives the effective size of the gas molecules. The greater value of b indicates a larger size of the molecules and smaller compressible volume.

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Question 10.
The volume of 2.8 g of carbon monoxide at 27°C and 0.0821 atm is
(a) 30 L
(b) 3 L
(c) 0.3 L
(d) 1.5 L

Answer: (a) 30 L
Explanation:
According to the ideal gas equation, we have
PV = nRT
​PV = (wM) RT
​V = ​ (wM) (RTP)
Given values are:
w = 2.8 g
M = Molar mass of CO = 28 g mol^-1
T = 27°C = (273 + 27) = 300 K
P = 0.821 atm
R = 0.0821 L atm mol^-1 K^-1
Putting the values in the formula we get :
V = (2.8 g /28 g mol^-1) × (0.0821 L atm mol^-1 K^-1) × (300 K)/(0.821 atm)
= 3 L

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Question 11.
If 20cm³ gas at 1 atm. is expanded to 50 cm³ at constant T, then what is the final pressure
(a) 20 × 150
(b) 50 × 120
(c) 1 × 120 × 50
(d) None of these

Answer: (a) 20 × 150
Explanation:
At constant T, P₁V₁ = P₂V₂
1 × 20 = P₂ × 50;
P₂ = (2050) × 1

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Question 12.
How many of the know elements exist as gases at 25°C?
(a) 9
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 15

Answer: (b) 11

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Question 13.
The states of matter having no definite shape but definite volume:
(a) Gas
(b) Liquid
(c) Solid
(d) None of the Above

Answer: (b) Liquid
Explanation:
In a liquid, particles will flow or glide over one another, but stay toward the bottom of the container. The attractive forces between particles are strong enough to hold a specific volume but not strong enough to keep the molecules sliding over each other.

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Question 14.
The rise or fall of a liquid within a tube of small bore is called:
(a) Surface Tension
(b) Capillary Action
(c) Viscosity
(d) Formation of Curvature

Answer: (b) Capillary Action
Explanation:
Capillarity, rise or depression of a liquid in a small passage such as a tube of small cross-sectional area, like the spaces between the fibres of a towel or the openings in a porous material. Capillarity is not limited to the vertical direction. Water is drawn into the fibres of a towel, no matter how the towel is oriented.

Liquids that rise in small-bore tubes inserted into the liquid are said to wet the tube, whereas liquids that are depressed within thin tubes below the surface of the surrounding liquid do not wet the tube. Water is a liquid that wets glass capillary tubes; mercury is one that does not. When wetting does not occur, capillarity does not occur.

Capillarity is the result of surface, or interfacial, forces. The rise of water in a thin tube inserted in water is caused by forces of attraction between the molecules of water and the glass walls and among the molecules of water themselves. These attractive forces just balance the force of gravity of the column of water that has risen to a characteristic height. The narrower the bore of the capillary tube, the higher the water rises. Mercury, conversely, is depressed to a greater degree, the narrower the bore.

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Question 15.
The theory which explains that gases consist of molecules, which are in rapid option is known as:
(a) Daltons Atomic Theory
(b) Bohrs Theory
(c) Rutherford’s Atomic Theory
(d) Kinetic Molecular Theory

Answer: (d) Kinetic Molecular Theory
Explanation:
The kinetic molecular theory (KMT) is a simple microscopic model that effectively explains the gas laws described in previous modules of this chapter. This theory is based on the following five postulates described here. (Note: The term “molecule” will be used to refer to the individual chemical species that compose the gas, although some gases are composed of atomic species, for example, the noble gases.)

Gases are composed of molecules that are in continuous motion, travelling in straight lines and changing direction only when they collide with other molecules or with the walls of a container.
The molecules composing the gas are negligibly small compared to the distances between them.
The pressure exerted by a gas in a container results from collisions between the gas molecules and the container walls.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter -4 Chemical bonding and Molecular Structure NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON CHEMICAL BONDING AND MOLECULAR STRUCTURE

Question 1: Cation and anion combines in a crystal to form following type of compound

• a) ionic
• b) covalent
• c) metallic
• d) dipole-dipole

Answer: ionic

Question 2: Electrovalence of calcium and chlorine respectively is

• a) + 2, – 1
• b) 1, – 2
• c) + 1, – 1
• d) + 2, – 2

Answer: + 2, – 1

Question 3: When a metal atom combines with non-metal atom, the non-metal atom will

• a) gain electrons and increase in size
• b) gain electrons and increase in size
• c) lose electrons and increase in size
• d) lose electrons and decrease in size

Answer: gain electrons and increase in size

Question 4: In N₂ molecule, the number of electrons shared by each nitrogen atom is

• a) 3
• b) 2
• c) 5
• d) None of these

Answer: 3

Question 5: The lowest energy structure is the one with the ______ formal charges on the atoms.

• a) smallest
• b) highest
• c) zero
• d) negative

Answer: smallest

Question 6: In the cyanide ion, the formal negative charge is on

• a) N
• b) C
• c) Both C and N
• d) Resonate between C and N

Answer: N

Question 7: What are the exceptions of the octet rule ?

• a) All of these
• b) Expanded octet of the central atom
• c) An odd number of electrons on central atom
• d) The incomplete octet of central atom

Answer: All of these

Question 8: In which of the following molecules octet rule is not followed?

• a) NO
• b) CH₄
• c) NH₃
• d) CO₂

Answer: NO

Question 9: Among the following the electron deficient compound is

• a) BCl₃
• b) PCl₅
• c) CCl₄
• d) BeCl₂

Answer: BCl₃

Question 10: Which of the following is the electron deficient molecule?

• a) B₂H₆
• b) PH₃
• c) SiH₄
• d) None of these

Answer: B₂H₆

Question 11: Which of the following compounds does not follow the octet rule for electron distribution?

• a) PCl₅
• b) H₂O
• c) PH₃
• d) PCl₃

Answer: PCl₅

Question 12: Which of the following pairs will form the most stable ionic bond ?

• a) Mg and F
• b) Na and F
• c) Na and Cl
• d) Li and F

Answer: Mg and F

Question 13: Which of the following methods is used for measuring bond length ?

• a) All of these
• b) Spectroscopic techniques
• c) Electron-diffraction
• d) X-ray diffraction

Answer: All of these

Question 14: _______ is measured as the radius of an atom’s core which is in contact with the core of an adjacent atom in a bonded situation.

• a) Covalent radius
• b) Ionic radius
• c) Bond length
• d) van der Waal’s radius

Answer: Covalent radius

Question 15: All the bond lengths of sulphur – oxygen in sulphate ion, are equal because of:

• a) resonance
• b) symmetry
• c) high electronegativity of oxygen
• d) None of these

Answer: resonance

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS AND PERIODICITY IN PROPERTIES

Question 1.
The set representing the correct order of first ionization potential is
(a) K > Na > Li
(b) Be > Mg > Ca
(c) B > C > N
(d) Ge > Si > C.

Answer: (b) Be > Mg > Ca

Question 2.
The increasing order of the a atomic radius for the elements Na, Rb, K and Mg is
(a) Na < K < Mg < Rb
(b) K < Na < Mg < Rb
(c) Na < Mg < K < Rb
(d) Mg < Na < K < Rb

Answer: (d) Mg < Na < K < Rb

Question 3.
The correct’ order of the first ionization potentials among the following elements: Be, B, C, N Q is
(a) B < Be < C < O < N
(b) B < Be < C < N < O
(c) Be < B < C < N < O
(d) Be < B < C < O < N

Answer: (a) B < Be < C < O < N

Question 4.
Correct order of ionization enthalpies is
(a) Zn < Cd < Hg
(b) Cd < Hg < Zn
(c) Na > Cs > Rb
(d) Cs < Rb < Na

Answer: (d) Cs < Rb < Na

Question 5.
Correct order of radii is
(a) N < Be < B
(b) F^– < O^2- < N^3-
(c) Na < Li < K
(d) Fe³⁺ < Fe²⁺ < Fe⁴⁺

Answer: (b) F^– < O^2- < N^3-

Question 6.
Set containing isoelectronic species is
(a) C2−2, NO⁺, CN^–, O2+2
(b) CO, NO, O₂ CN^–
(c) CO₂, NO₂, O₂, N₂O
(d) CO, CO₂, NO, NO₂

Answer: (a) C2−2, NO⁺, CN^–, O2+2

Question 7.
Which of the following is most electronegative?
(a) Carbon
(b) Silicon
(c) Lead
(d) Tin

Answer: (a) Carbon

Question 8.
The values of electronegativity of atoms A and B are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage of ionic character of A-B bond is
(a) 50%
(b) 72.24%
(c) 55.3%
(d) 43%

Answer: (b) 72.24%

Question 9.
Tick the correct order of second ionization energy in the following
(a) F > O > N > C
(b) O > F > N > C
(c) O > N > F > C
(d) C > N > O > F

Answer: (b) O > F > N > C

Question 10.
Consider the isoelectronic series : K⁺, S^2-, Cl^1- and Ca²⁺, the radii of the ions decrease as
(a) Ca²⁺ < K⁺ > Cl^–, S^2-
(b) Cl^– > S^2- > K⁺ > Ca²⁺
(c) S^2- > Cl^– > K⁺ > Ca²⁺
(d) K⁺ > Ca²⁺ > S^2- > Cl.

Answer: (c) S^2- > Cl^– > K⁺ > Ca²⁺

Question 11.
The radii of F, F^–, O, D^2- are the order of
(a) O^2- > F^– > F > O
(b) F^– > O^2- > F > O
(c) O^2- > O > F^– > F
(d) O^2- > F^– > O > F

Answer: (d) O^2- > F^– > O > F

Question 12.
Among the following groupings which represents the collection of isoelectronic species.
(a) NO⁺, C2−2, CO−2, CO
(b) N₂, C2−2, CO, NO
(c) CO, NO⁺, CN^–, C2−2
(d) NO, CN^–, N₂, O−2

Answer: (c) CO, NO⁺, CN^–, C2−2

Question 13.
According to the periodic law of elements the variation in properties of elements is related to their
(a) nuclear neutron-proton number ratio
(b) atomic masses
(c) nuclear masses
(d) atomic numbers.

Answer: (d) atomic numbers.

Question 14.
The ions O²⁺, F^–, Na⁺, Mg²⁺ and Al³⁺ are isoelectronic, their ionic radii show.
(a) a significant increase from O^2- to Al³⁺
(b) an increase from O^2- to F^– and then decrease from Na⁺ to Al³⁺
(c) a significant decrease from O^2- to Al³⁺
(d) a decrease from O^2- to F^– and then increase from Na⁺ to Al³⁺.

Answer: (c) a significant decrease from O^2- to Al³⁺

Question 15.
The ionic radii of isoelectronic species N^3-, O^2- and F^– in Å are in the order.
(a) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71
(b) 1.36, 1.71, 1.40
(c) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36
(d) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40

Answer: (c) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-2 Structure of Atom NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON STRUCTURE OF ATOM

Question 1.
The increasing order (lowest first) for the values of e/m (charge/mass) for
(a) e, p, n, α
(b) n, p, e, α
(c) n, p, α, e
(d) n, α, p, e

Answer: (d) n, α, p, e
Explanation:
(i) (e/m) for (i) neutron = (01) = 0
(ii) α− particle = (24) = 0.5
(iii) Proton = (11) = 1
(iv) electron = (11837) = 1837.

Question 2.
The ionization enthalpy of hydrogen atom is 1.312 × 10⁶ J mol^-1. The energy required to excite the electron in the atom from n = 1 to n = 2 is
(a) 8.51 × 10⁵ J mol^-1
(b) 6.56 × 10⁵ J mol^-1
(c) 7.56 × 10⁵ J mol^-1
(d) 9.84 × 10⁵ J mol^-1

Answer: (d) 9.84 × 10⁵ J mol^-1
Explanation:
Energy required when an electron makes transition from n = 1 to n = 2
E₂=−(1.312 × 10⁶ × (1)²)/(2²)
= −3.28 × 10⁵ J mol^-1
E₁ = −1.312 × 10⁶ J mol^-1
ΔE = E₂ − E₁
=−3.28 × 10⁵−(−13.2 × 10⁶)
ΔE = 9.84×10⁵ J mol^-1

Question 3.
or a given principal level n = 4, the energy of its subshells is in the order
(a) s < p < d < f
(b) s > p > d > f
(c) s < p < f < d
(d) f < p < d < s

Answer: (a) s < p < d < f
Explanation:
Order of energy is:
s < p < d < f

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Question 4.
A gas absorbs a photon of 355 nm and emits at two wavelengths. If one of the emissions is at 680 nm, the other is at:
(a) 518 nm
(b) 1035 nm
(c) 325 nm
(d) 743 nm

Answer: (d) 743 nm
Explanation:
From Law of Conservation of energy, energy of absorbed photon must be equal to combined energy of two emitted photons.
ET = E₁ + E₂ ….. (1)
Where E₁ is Energy of first emitted photon emitted and E₂is Energy of second emitted photon.
Energy E and wavelength λ of a photon are related by the equation
E= (hc)/ (λ)….. (2)
Where Plancks constant = h, c is velocity of light.
Substituting the values from (2) in (1) we get
(hc/λ_T) = (hc)/ (λ₁) + (hc)/ (λ₂)
Or (1λT) = (1λ1) + (1λ2) …… (3)
Substituting given values in (3) we get
(1355) = (1680) + (1λ2)
Or (1)(λT) = (1355) − (1680)
⇒ (1λ2) = (680 − 355)/ (355 × 680)
⇒ λ₂ = 742.77nm

Question 5.
Which of the following statements in relation to the hydrogen atom is correct?
(a) 3s orbital is lower in energy than 3p orbital
(b) 3p orbital is lower in energy than 3d orbital
(c) 3s and 3p orbitals are of lower energy than 3d orbital
(d) 3s, 3p and 3d orbitals all have the same energy

Answer: (d) 3s, 3p and 3d orbitals all have the same energy
Explanation:
A hydrogen atom has 1st configuration and these its, 3p and 3d orbitals will have same energy wrt 1s orbital.

Question 6.
The magnetic quantum number specifies
(a) Size of orbitals
(b) Shape of orbitals
(c) Orientation of orbitals
(d) Nuclear Stability

Answer: (c) Orientation of orbitals
Explanation:
The magnetic quantum number specifies orientation of orbitals.

Question 7.
The electronic configuration of silver atom in ground state is
(a) [Kr]3d¹⁰4s¹
(b) [Xe]4f¹⁴5d¹⁰6s¹
(c) [Kr]4d¹⁰5s¹
(d) [Kr]4d⁹5s²

Answer: (c) [Kr]4d¹⁰5s¹
Explanation:
The electronic configuration of Ag in ground state is [Kr]4d¹⁰5s¹

Question 8.
Which of the following element has least number of electrons in its M-shell?
(a) K
(b) Mn
(c) Ni
(d) Sc

Answer: (a) K
Explanation:
K = 19 = 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶s¹
3s²3p⁶ = m-shell
= k has only 8 electrons in M shell

Question 9.
Which one of the following sets of ions represents a collection of isoelectronic species? (Atomic nos.: F = 9, Cl = 17, Na = 11, Mg = 12, Al = 13, K = 19, Ca = 20, Sc = 21)
(a) K⁺, Ca²⁺, Sc³⁺, Cl^–
(b) Na⁺, Ca²⁺ , Sc³⁺, F^–
(c) K⁺, Cl^–, Mg²⁺, Sc³⁺
(d) Na⁺, Mg²⁺, Al³⁺, Cl^–

Answer: (a) K⁺, Ca²⁺, Sc³⁺, Cl^–
Explanation:
Isoelectronic species are those which have same number of electrons.
K⁺ = 19 – 1 = 18; Ca²⁺ = 20 – 2 = 18; Sc³⁺ = 21 – 3 = 18; Cl^– = 17 + 1 = 18
Thus all these ions have 18 electrons in them.

Question 10.
In the ground state, an element has 13 electrons in its M-shell. The element is_____.
(a) Copper
(b) Chromium
(c) Nickel
(d) Iron

Answer: (b) Chromium
Explanation:
M shell means it is third shell ⇒ n = 3
Number of electrons in M shell = 13
⇒ 3s²3p⁶3d⁵
The electronic configuration is: (1s²) (2s² 2p⁶) (3s² 3p⁶ 3d⁵) (4s¹)
The element is chromium is Cr.

Question 11.
The electrons of the same orbitals can be distinguished by
(a) Principal quantum number
(b) Azimuthal quantum number
(c) Spin quantum number
(d) Magnetic quantum number

Answer: (c) Spin quantum number
Explanation:
Electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by Spin quantum number.
For spin Quantum number it has two values +1/2 or -1/2,
Hence the value of n, l , m are same for the two electrons occupying in the same orbitals, but only the is different, which is
Therefore, Spin quantum number explains the direction through which the electron spins in an orbital. so obviously there are only 2 possible directions. Which is either clockwise or anticlockwise.
So the electron which are available in the same orbitals, must have opposite spins. Hence spin quantum number distinguished b/w the two electrons.

Question 12.
Consider the ground state of Cr atom (Z = 24). The numbers of electrons with the azimuthal quantum numbers, l = 1 and 2 are, respectively:
(a) 12 and 4
(b) 12 and 5
(c) 16 and 4
(d) 16 and 5Answer

Answer: (b) 12 and 5
Explanation:
₂₄Cr → 1s² 2s²2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d⁵ 4s¹
As we know for p, l = 1 and d, l = 2
For l = 1, total number of electrons = 12 [2p⁶ and 3p⁶]
For l = 2, total number of electrons = 5 [3d⁵]

Question 13.
A body of mass 10 mg is moving with a velocity of 100 ms^-1. The wavelength of de-Broglie wave associated with it would be (Note: h = 6.63 × 10^-34 Js)
(a) 6.63 × 10^-37 m
(b) 6.63 × 10^-31 m
(c) 6.63 × 10^-34 m
(d) 6.63 × 10^-35 m

Answer: (b) 6.63 × 10^-31 m
Explanation:
m = 10 mg
= 10 × 10^-6 kg
v = 100 ms^-1
λ = (h)(mv)
= (6.63×10^-34)/ (10 × 10^-6 × 100)
= 6.63 × 10^-31 m

Question 14.
The ionization enthalpy of hydrogen atom is 1.312 × 10⁶ J mol^-1. The energy required to excite the electron in the atom from n = 1 to n = 2 is
(a) 8.51 × 10⁵ J mol^-1
(b) 6.56 × 10⁵ J mol^-1
(c) 7.56 × 10⁵ J mol^-1
(d) 9.84 × 10⁵ J mol^-1

Answer: (d) 9.84 × 10⁵ J mol^-1
Explanation:
Energy required when an electron makes transition from n = 1 to n = 2
E₂ = −(1.312 × 10⁶ × (1)²)/(2²)
= −3.28 × 10⁵ J mol^-1
E₁ = −1.312 × 10⁶ J mol^-1
ΔE = E₂ − E₁
= −3.28 × 10⁵−(−13.2 × 10⁶)
ΔE = 9.84 × 10⁵ J mol^-1

Question 15.
In Hydrogen atom, energy of first excited state is – 3.4 eV. Then find out KE of same orbit of Hydrogen atom
(a) 3.4 eV
(b) 6.8 eV
(c) -13.6 eV
(d) +13.6 eV

Answer: (a) 3.4 eV
Explanation:
For hydrogen atom,
The kinetic energy is equal to the negative of the total energy.
And the potential energy is equal to the twice of the total energy.
The first excited state energy of orbital = -3.4 eV
and The kinetic energy of same orbital = -(-3.4 eV) = 3.4 eV
Therefore, the kinetic energy of same orbit of hydrogen atom is 3.4 eV.

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Chemistry which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON SOME BASIC CONCEPTS OF CHEMISTRY

Question 1.
What will be the volume of mixture after the reaction

(a) 1.5 L
(b) 0.5 L
(c) 1 L
(d) 0.0 L

Answer: (b) 0.5 L

Question 2.
A compound has hemoglobin like structure, it has only one Fe. It contains 4.6% of Fe. The approximate molecular mass is
(a) 100 g mol^-1
(b) 1200 g mol^-1
(c) 1400 g mol^-1
(d) 1600 g mol^-1

Answer: (b) 1200 g mol^-1

Question 3.
How much of NaOH is required to neutralize 1500 cm³ of 0.1 NHCl?
(a) 40 g
(b) 4 g
(c) 6 g
(d) 60 g

Answer: (c) 6 g

Question 4.
10 dm³ of N₂ gas and 10 dm³ of gas X at the same temperature contains the same number of molecules. The gas X is
(a) CO
(b) CO₂
(c) H₂
(d) NO

Answer: (a) CO

Question 5.
The percentage of nitrogen in urea is about
(a) 46
(b) 85
(c) 18
(d) 28

Answer: (a) 46

Question 6.
The modem atomic weight scale is based upon
(a) ¹²C
(b) ¹²O₈
(c) ¹H
(d) ¹³C

Answer: (a) ¹²C

Question 7.
The prefix 10¹⁸ is
(a) giga
(b) exa
(c) kilo
(d) nano
(e) mega

Answer: (b) exa

Question 8.
Number of atoms in 558.6 g Fe (Molar mass Fe = 55.86 g mol^-1) is
(a) twice that in 60 g carbon
(b) 6.023 × 10²²
(c) half that of 8g He
(d) 558.6 × 6.023 × 10²³

Answer: (a) twice that in 60 g carbon

Question 9.
Number of grams of oxygen in 32.2 g Na₂SO₄.10 H₂O is
(a) 20.8
(b) 22.4
(c) 2.24
(d) 2.08

Answer: (b) 22.4

Question 10.
250 ml of a sodium carbonate solution contains 2.65 grams of Na₂CO₃. If 10 ml of this solution is diluted to one litre, what is the concentration of the resultant solution (mol. wt. of Na₂CO₃ = 106)
(a) 0.1 M
(b) 0.001 M
(c) 0.01 M
(d) 10^-4 M

Answer: (b) 0.001 M

Question 11.
An aqueous solution of 6.3 g of oxalic acid dihydrate is made upto 250 ml. The volume of 0.1 N NaOH required to completely neutralize 10 ml of this solution is
(a) 40 ml
(b) 20 ml
(c) 10 m
(d) 4 ml

Answer: (a) 40 ml

Question 12.
How many moles of electrons weight one kilogram?
(a) 6.023 × 10²³
(b) 19.108 × 10³¹
(c) 6023×10549.108
(d) 9.108 × 10⁸

Answer: (d) 9.108 × 10⁸

Question 13.
One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction with excess of water gives
(a) One mole of phosphine
(b) Two moles of phosphoric acid
(c) Two moles of phosphine
(d) One mole of phosphorous pentoxide

Answer: (c) Two moles of phosphine

Question 14.
Which has maximum number of atoms?
(a) 24 g of C (12)
(b) 56 g of Fe (56)
(c) 27 g of Al (27)
(d) 108 g of Ag (108)

Answer: (a) 24 g of C (12)

Question 15.
Mixture X = 0.02 mol of [CO(NH₃)₅ SO₄] Br and 0.02 mol of [CO(NH₃)₅ Br] SO₄ was prepared in 2 liters of a solution.
1 liter of mixture X + excess of AgNO₃ → Y
1 liter of mixture X + excess of BaCl₂ → Z
Number of moles of Y and Z are
(a) 0.01, 0.01
(b) 0.02, 0.01
(c) 0.01, 0.02
(d) 0.02, 0.02

Answer: (a) 0.01, 0.01

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-15 Waves NCERT MCQ for Class 11 Physics which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON WAVES

Question 1: The property of a medium necessary for wave propagation is

• a) All of the above
• b) Elasticity
• c) Inertia
• d) Low resistance

Answer: All of the above

Question 2: The ratio of the speed of a body to the speed of sound is called

• a) Mach number
• b) Sonic index
• c) Doppler ratio
• d) Refractive index

Answer: Mach number

Question 3: Sound waves transfer

• a) both energy and momentum
• b) only energy not momentum
• c) momentum
• d) energy

Answer: both energy and momentum

Question 4: The reason for introducing Laplace correction in the expression for the velocity of sound in a gaseous medium is

• a) no change in the heat of the medium during the propagation of the sound through it
• b) no change in the temperature of the medium during the propagation of the sound through it
• c) change in the pressure of the gas due to the compression and rarefaction
• d) change in the volume of the gas

Answer: no change in the heat of the medium during the propagation of the sound through it

Question 5: Which of the following changes at an antinode in a stationary wave?

• a) Neither pressure nor density
• b) Both pressure and density
• c) Pressure only
• d) Density only

Answer: Neither pressure nor density

Question 6: What is the effect of humidity on sound waves when humidity increases?

• a) Speed of sound waves is more
• b) Speed of sound waves is less
• c) Speed of sound waves remains same
• d) Speed of sound waves becomes zero

Answer: Speed of sound waves is more 

Question 7: Which of the following statements is/are correct about the standing wave?

I. In a standing wave the disturbance produce is confined to the region where it is produced.
II. In a standing wave, all the particles cross their mean position together.
III. In a standing wave, energy is transmitted from one region of space to other

• a) I and II
• b) Only II
• c) Only III
• d) I, II and III

Answer: I and II

Question 8: The rate of transfer of energy in a wave depends

• a) directly on the square of the wave amplitude and square of the wave frequency
• b) directly on the square of the wave amplitude and root of the wave frequency
• c) directly on the wave amplitude and square of the wave frequency
• d) None of these

Answer: directly on the square of the wave amplitude and square of the wave frequency

Question 9: If vibrations of a string are to be increased by a factor of two, then tension in the string must be made

• a) twice
• b) eight times
• c) half
• d) four times

Answer: twice

Question 10: The fundamental frequency of a closed end organ pipe is n. Its length is doubled and radius is halved. Its frequency will become nearly

• a) n/2
• b) n/3
• c) n
• d) 2 n

Answer: n/2

Question 11: The fundamental frequency of an organ pipe is 512 Hz. If its length is increased, then frequency will

• a) decrease
• b) increase
• c) remains same
• d) cannot be predicted

Answer: decrease

Question 12: What is the effect of increase in temperature on the frequency of sound produced by an organ pipe?

• a) increases
• b) no effect
• c) decreases
• d) erratic change

Answer: increases

Question 13: Frequencies of sound produced from an organ pipe open at both ends are

• a) even and odd harmonics
• b) only odd harmonics
• c) only even harmonics
• d) only fundamental note

Answer: even and odd harmonics

Question 14: closed organ pipe (closed at one end) is excited to support the third overtone. It is found that air in the pipe has

• a) four nodes and four antinodes
• b) four nodes and three antinodes
• c) three nodes and four antinodes
• d) three nodes and three antinodes

Answer: four nodes and four antinodes

Question 15: If there are six loops for 1 m length in transverse mode of Melde’s experiment., the no. of loops in longitudinal mode under otherwise identical conditions would be

• a) 3
• b) 6
• c) 12
• d) 8

Answer: 3